The Oklahoma Register
Volume 40
Number 24
September 1, 2023
Pages 1719 - 2448

Oklahoma
Secretary of State
Office of Administrative Rules

 
seal1.tif
Kevin Stitt, Governor
Brian Bingman,
   Secretary of State
Chris Coffman, Editor-in-Chief


THE OKLAHOMA REGISTER is an official publication of the State of Oklahoma. It is published semi-monthly on the first working day of the month and on the first working day following the 14th day of the month under the authority of 75 O.S., Sections 250 et seq. and OAC 655:10-15-1. The rules of the State of Oklahoma are codified and published in the Oklahoma Administrative Code.

The Oklahoma Register and the documents accepted for publication are AVAILABLE FOR PUBLIC INSPECTION at the Office of Administrative Rules pursuant to the Oklahoma Open Records Act. Printed copies of the Register are available for public inspection at many County Clerks' offices in Oklahoma and the Jan Eric Cartwright Memorial Law Library at 200 NE 18th Street in the State Capitol Complex. Electronic copies of the Register are also available online at the Office of Administrative Rules' website at www.rules.ok.gov.


CITE MATERIAL PUBLISHED IN THE OKLAHOMA REGISTER by the volume and the beginning page number of the document in the Register. For example: 36 Ok Reg 256.

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INFORMATION ABOUT THIS PUBLICATION may be obtained by contacting the OAR by mail at Oklahoma Secretary of State, Office of Administrative Rules, 421 NW 13th Street, Suite 210, Oklahoma City, OK 73103, by email at oar@sos.ok.gov, or by phone at (405) 521-4911. Information may also be obtained by visiting the OAR's office, located in Suite 220, Colcord Center, 421 NW 13th Street, Oklahoma City, between 8:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday.


This publication is issued and printed by the Secretary of State as authorized by 75 O.S., Section 255. 27 copies have been prepared and distributed at a cost of $715.96. Copies have been deposited with the Oklahoma Department of Libraries, Publications Clearinghouse.
ISSN 0030-1728
Table of Contents
Agency/Action/Subject Index
Agency Index (Title numbers assigned)
Notices of Rulemaking Intent
Environmental Quality, Department of (Title 252) (1)
Permanent Final Adoptions
Alcohol and Drug Counselors, Oklahoma Board of (Title 38) (1)
Broadband Governing Board (Title 93) (1), (2)
Corporation Commission (Title 165) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12)
Cosmetology and Barbering, State Board of (Title 175) (1), (2), (3)
Dentistry, Board of (Title 195) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7)
Education, State Department of (Title 210) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), (13), (14), (15)
Environmental Quality, Department of (Title 252) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), (13), (14), (15), (16), (17), (18), (19), (20)
Management and Enterprise Services, Office of (Title 260) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9)
Grand River Dam Authority (Title 300) (1), (2), (3), (4)
Health Care Authority, Oklahoma (Title 317) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), (13), (14), (15), (16), (17), (18), (19), (20), (21), (22), (23), (24), (25), (26), (27), (28)
Highway Construction Materials Technician Certification Board (Title 318) (1), (2), (3)
Housing Finance Agency, Oklahoma (Title 330) (1)
Investigation, Oklahoma State Bureau of (Title 375) (1), (2)
Labor, Department of (Title 380) (1), (2)
Medical Licensure and Supervision, State Board of (Title 435) (1)
Motor Vehicle Commission, Oklahoma (Title 465) (1), (2), (3)
Health Care Workforce Training Commission (Title 540) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10)
Public Employees Retirement System, Oklahoma (Title 590) (1), (2)
Science and Technology, Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of (Title 650) (1), (2)
Transportation, Department of (Title 730) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
Virtual Charter School Board, Statewide (Title 777) (1), (2)
Career and Technology Education, Oklahoma Department of (Title 780) (1), (2)
Wildlife Conservation, Department of (Title 800) (1), (2), (3)
Executive Orders (Title 1)

Agency/Action/Subject Index
ALCOHOL and Drug Counselors, Oklahoma Board of – continued
ALCOHOL and Drug Counselors, Oklahoma Board of (Title 38)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Licensure and Certification of Alcohol and Drug Counselors (Chapter 10) – continued
Licensure and Certification of Alcohol and Drug Counselors (Chapter 10) (1)
BROADBAND Governing Board – continued
BROADBAND Governing Board (Title 93)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) – continued
Administrative Operations
(Chapter 1) (1)
   Broadband Governing Board Grant Program (Chapter 10) – continued
Broadband Governing Board Grant Program
(Chapter 10) (1)
CORPORATION Commission – continued
CORPORATION Commission (Title 165)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Rules of Practice (Chapter 5) – continued
Rules of Practice (Chapter 5) (1)
   Oil & Gas Conservation (Chapter 10) – continued
Oil & Gas Conservation (Chapter 10) (1)
   Fuel Inspection (Chapter 15) – continued
Fuel Inspection (Chapter 15) (1)
   Antifreeze (Chapter 16) – continued
Antifreeze (Chapter 16) (1)
   Gas & Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Safety (Chapter 20) – continued
Gas & Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Safety (Chapter 20) (1)
   Underground Storage Tanks (Chapter 25) – continued
Underground Storage Tanks (Chapter 25) (1)
   Aboveground Storage Tanks (Chapter 26) – continued
Aboveground Storage Tanks (Chapter 26) (1)
   Indemnity Fund (Chapter 27) – continued
Indemnity Fund (Chapter 27) (1)
   Corrective Action of Petroleum Storage Tank Releases (Chapter 29) – continued
Corrective Action of Petroleum Storage Tank Releases (Chapter 29) (1)
   Motor Carriers, Private Carriers and Transportation Network Companies (Chapter 30) – continued
Motor Carriers, Private Carriers and Transportation Network Companies (Chapter 30) (1)
   Telecommunications Services (Chapter 55) – continued
Telecommunications Services (Chapter 55) (1)
   Oklahoma Universal Service and Oklahoma Lifeline (Chapter 59) – continued
Oklahoma Universal Service and Oklahoma Lifeline (Chapter 59) (1)
COSMETOLOGY and Barbering, State Board of – continued
COSMETOLOGY and Barbering, State Board of (Title 175)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) – continued
Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) (1)
   Licensure of Cosmetologists, Barbers, Schools and Related Establishments (Chapter 10) – continued
Licensure of Cosmetologists, Barbers, Schools and Related Establishments (Chapter 10) (1)
   Massage Therapy (Chapter 20) – continued
Massage Therapy (Chapter 20) (1)
DENTISTRY, Board of – continued
DENTISTRY, Board of (Title 195)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Organization, Operation, and Purposes (Chapter 1) – continued
Organization, Operation, and Purposes (Chapter 1) (1)
   Internal Operations and Purposes (Chapter 2) – continued
Internal Operations and Purposes (Chapter 2) (1)
   Complaints, Investigations and Hearings (Chapter 3) – continued
Complaints, Investigations and Hearings (Chapter 3) (1)
   Catastrophic Health Emergency Plan (Chapter 4) – continued
Catastrophic Health Emergency Plan (Chapter 4) (1)
   Examinations and Licensing of Dentists, Dental Hygienists and Dental Specialists (Chapter 10) – continued
Examinations and Licensing of Dentists, Dental Hygienists and Dental Specialists (Chapter 10) (1)
   Duties for Dental Assistants and the Rules Regulating the Practice of Dental Hygiene (Chapter 15) – continued
Duties for Dental Assistants and the Rules Regulating the Practice of Dental Hygiene (Chapter 15) (1)
   Rules for Continuing Dental Education (Chapter 25) – continued
Rules for Continuing Dental Education (Chapter 25) (1)
EDUCATION, State Department of – continued
EDUCATION, State Department of (Title 210)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   School Administration and Instructional Services (Chapter 10) – continued
School Administration and Instructional Services (Chapter 10) (1)
   Curriculum and Instruction (Chapter 15) – continued
Curriculum and Instruction (Chapter 15) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6)
   Staff (Chapter 20) – continued
Staff (Chapter 20) (1), (2), (3)
   School Facilities and Transportation (Chapter 30) – continued
School Facilities and Transportation (Chapter 30) (1)
   Standards for Accreditation of Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools (Chapter 35) – continued
Standards for Accreditation of Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools (Chapter 35) (1), (2), (3), (4)
ENVIRONMENTAL Quality, Department of – continued
ENVIRONMENTAL Quality, Department of (Title 252)
   Notices of Rulemaking Intent – continued
Notices of Rulemaking Intent
   Air Pollution Control (Chapter 100) – continued
Air Pollution Control (Chapter 100) (1)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Air Pollution Control (Chapter 100) – continued
Air Pollution Control (Chapter 100) (1), (2), (3)
   Hazardous Waste Management (Chapter 205) – continued
Hazardous Waste Management (Chapter 205) (1)
   Management of Solid Waste (Chapter 515) – continued
Management of Solid Waste (Chapter 515) (1)
   Oklahoma Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (OPDES) Standards (Chapter 606) – continued
Oklahoma Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (OPDES) Standards (Chapter 606) (1)
   General Water Quality (Chapter 611) – continued
General Water Quality (Chapter 611) (1)
   Industrial Wastewater Systems (Chapter 616) – continued
Industrial Wastewater Systems (Chapter 616) (1)
   Non-Industrial Discharging and Public Water Supply Lagoons (Chapter 621) – continued
Non-Industrial Discharging and Public Water Supply Lagoons (Chapter 621) (1)
   Public Water Supply Construction Standards (Chapter 626) – continued
Public Water Supply Construction Standards (Chapter 626) (1)
   Indirect Potable Reuse for Surface Water Augmentation (Chapter 628) – continued
Indirect Potable Reuse for Surface Water Augmentation (Chapter 628) (1)
   Public Water Supply Operation (Chapter 631) – continued
Public Water Supply Operation (Chapter 631) (1)
   Drinking Water State Revolving Fund (Chapter 633) – continued
Drinking Water State Revolving Fund (Chapter 633) (1)
   Underground Injection Control (Chapter 652) – continued
Underground Injection Control (Chapter 652) (1)
   Aquifer Storage and Recovery (Chapter 653) – continued
Aquifer Storage and Recovery (Chapter 653) (1)
   Water Pollution Control Facility Construction Standards (Chapter 656) – continued
Water Pollution Control Facility Construction Standards (Chapter 656) (1)
   Water Quality Standards Implementation (Chapter 690) – continued
Water Quality Standards Implementation (Chapter 690) (1)
   Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Certification (Chapter 710) – continued
Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Certification (Chapter 710) (1)
   Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards (Chapter 730) – continued
Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards
(Chapter 730) (1)
   Implementation of Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards (Chapter 740) – continued
Implementation of Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards (Chapter 740) (1)
MANAGEMENT and Enterprise Services, Office of – continued
MANAGEMENT and Enterprise Services, Office of (Title 260)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Personnel Administration Rules (Chapter 25) – continued
Personnel Administration Rules (Chapter 25) (1)
   Committee for Incentive Awards for State Employees [REVOKED] (Chapter 35) – continued
Committee for Incentive Awards for State Employees [REVOKED] (Chapter 35) (1)
   Employees Group Insurance Division - Health, Dental, Vision and Life Plans (Chapter 50) – continued
Employees Group Insurance Division - Health, Dental, Vision and Life Plans (Chapter 50) (1)
   Facilities Management (Chapter 60) – continued
Facilities Management (Chapter 60) (1)
   Construction and Properties (Chapter 65) – continued
Construction and Properties (Chapter 65) (1)
   Risk Management Program (Chapter 70) – continued
Risk Management Program (Chapter 70) (1)
   State Use Committee Operational ProceduresProgram (Chapter 120) – continued
State Use Committee Operational ProceduresProgram (Chapter 120) (1)
   Civil Service and Human Capital Modernization Rules (Chapter 130) – continued
Civil Service and Human Capital Modernization Rules (Chapter 130) (1)
   Service Oklahoma (Chapter 135) – continued
Service Oklahoma (Chapter 135) (1)
GOVERNOR – continued
GOVERNOR
   Executive Orders – continued
Executive Orders
   Ordering Oklahoma Office of Workforce Development, its functions and employees, be transferred to and become an operating division under Oklahoma Employment Security Commission (23-21) – continued
Ordering Oklahoma Office of Workforce Development, its functions and employees, be transferred to and become an operating division under Oklahoma Employment Security Commission (23-21) (1)
GRAND River Dam Authority – continued
GRAND River Dam Authority (Title 300)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Operations and Procedures (Chapter 1) – continued
Operations and Procedures (Chapter 1) (1)
   Acquisition Policy (Chapter 20) – continued
Acquisition Policy (Chapter 20) (1)
   Lake Rules (Chapter 35) – continued
Lake Rules (Chapter 35) (1)
   Scenic Rivers Rules (Chapter 40) – continued
Scenic Rivers Rules (Chapter 40) (1)
HEALTH Care Authority, Oklahoma – continued
HEALTH Care Authority, Oklahoma (Title 317)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Soonercare Choice (Chapter 25) – continued
Soonercare Choice (Chapter 25) (1)
   Medical Providers-Fee for Service (Chapter 30) – continued
Medical Providers-Fee for Service (Chapter 30) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), (13), (14), (15), (16), (17), (18), (19), (20), (21), (22)
   Medical Assistance for Adults and Children-Eligibility (Chapter 35) – continued
Medical Assistance for Adults and Children-Eligibility (Chapter 35) (1), (2), (3), (4)
   Developmental Disabilities Services (Chapter 40) – continued
Developmental Disabilities Services (Chapter 40) (1)
HIGHWAY Construction Materials Technician Certification Board – continued
HIGHWAY Construction Materials Technician Certification Board (Title 318)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Administrative Operations [REVOKED] (Chapter 1) – continued
Administrative Operations [REVOKED] (Chapter 1) (1)
   Examination and Certification [REVOKED] (Chapter 10) – continued
Examination and Certification [REVOKED] (Chapter 10) (1)
   Complaints and Individual Proceedings [REVOKED] (Chapter 20) – continued
Complaints and Individual Proceedings [REVOKED] (Chapter 20) (1)
HOUSING Finance Agency, Oklahoma – continued
HOUSING Finance Agency, Oklahoma (Title 330)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Affordable Housing Tax Credit Program (Chapter 36) – continued
Affordable Housing Tax Credit Program (Chapter 36) (1)
INVESTIGATION, Oklahoma State Bureau of – continued
INVESTIGATION, Oklahoma State Bureau of (Title 375)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Investigative Services [REVOKED] (Chapter 35) – continued
Investigative Services [REVOKED] (Chapter 35) (1)
   Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Program (Chapter 40) – continued
Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Program (Chapter 40) (1)
LABOR, Department of – continued
LABOR, Department of (Title 380)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Alarm and Locksmith Industry Rules (Chapter 75) – continued
Alarm and Locksmith Industry Rules (Chapter 75) (1)
   Alternative Fuels Program (Chapter 80) – continued
Alternative Fuels Program (Chapter 80) (1)
MEDICAL Licensure and Supervision, State Board of – continued
MEDICAL Licensure and Supervision, State Board of (Title 435)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Physical Therapists and Assistants (Chapter 20) – continued
Physical Therapists and Assistants (Chapter 20) (1)
MOTOR Vehicle Commission, Oklahoma – continued
MOTOR Vehicle Commission, Oklahoma (Title 465)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) – continued
Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) (1)
   Licenses (Chapter 10) – continued
Licenses (Chapter 10) (1)
   Advertising (Chapter 15) – continued
Advertising (Chapter 15) (1)
HEALTH Care Workforce Training Commission – continued
HEALTH Care Workforce Training Commission (Title 540)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) – continued
Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) (1)
   Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Loan and Scholarship Fund (Chapter 10) – continued
Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Loan and Scholarship Fund (Chapter 10) (1)
   Internship and Residency Program (Chapter 15) – continued
Internship and Residency Program (Chapter 15) (1)
   Physician and Health ManpowerCare Workforce Placement Services (Chapter 25) – continued
Physician and Health ManpowerCare Workforce Placement Services (Chapter 25) (1)
   Oklahoma Nursing Student Assistance Program (Chapter 30) – continued
Oklahoma Nursing Student Assistance Program (Chapter 30) (1)
   Community Match Intern Resident Program (Chapter 35) – continued
Community Match Intern Resident Program (Chapter 35) (1)
   Family/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Loan Program (Chapter 40) – continued
Family/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Loan Program (Chapter 40) (1)
   Physician Assistant Scholarship Program (Chapter 45) – continued
Physician Assistant Scholarship Program (Chapter 45) (1)
   Oklahoma Medical Loan Repayment Program (Chapter 50) – continued
Oklahoma Medical Loan Repayment Program (Chapter 50) (1)
   Health Care Workforce Development Grant Program (Chapter 55) – continued
Health Care Workforce Development Grant Program
(Chapter 55) (1)
PUBLIC Employees Retirement System, Oklahoma – continued
PUBLIC Employees Retirement System, Oklahoma (Title 590)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Deferred Compensation (Chapter 25) – continued
Deferred Compensation (Chapter 25) (1)
   Defined Contribution System (Chapter 40) – continued
Defined Contribution System (Chapter 40) (1)
SCIENCE and Technology, Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of – continued
SCIENCE and Technology, Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of (Title 650)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Internship Partnership Program [NEW] (Chapter 11) – continued
Internship Partnership Program [NEW] (Chapter 11) (1)
   Research and Development Attraction Program (Chapter 13) – continued
Research and Development Attraction Program
(Chapter 13) (1)
TRANSPORTATION, Department of – continued
TRANSPORTATION, Department of (Title 730)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) – continued
Administrative Operations (Chapter 1) (1)
   Highway Design (Chapter 30) – continued
Highway Design (Chapter 30) (1)
   Maintenance and Control of State Highway System (Chapter 35) – continued
Maintenance and Control of State Highway System (Chapter 35) (1)
   Public Transporation Project Development Assistance (Chapter 45) – continued
Public Transporation Project Development Assistance (Chapter 45) (1)
   Size and Weight Permits (Chapter 50) – continued
Size and Weight Permits (Chapter 50) (1)
VIRTUAL Charter School Board, Statewide – continued
VIRTUAL Charter School Board, Statewide (Title 777)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Statewide Virtual Charter Schools (Chapter 10) – continued
Statewide Virtual Charter Schools (Chapter 10) (1)
   Horizon: Digitally Enhanced CampusOklahoma Supplemental Online Course Certification (Chapter 15) – continued
Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus
Oklahoma Supplemental Online Course Certification (Chapter 15) (1)
CAREER and Technology Education, Oklahoma Department of – continued
CAREER and Technology Education, Oklahoma Department of (Title 780)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Administration and Supervision (Chapter 10) – continued
Administration and Supervision (Chapter 10) (1)
   Programs and Services (Chapter 20) – continued
Programs and Services (Chapter 20) (1)
WILDLIFE Conservation, Department of – continued
WILDLIFE Conservation, Department of (Title 800)
   Permanent Final Adoptions – continued
Permanent Final Adoptions
   Operations and Procedures (Chapter 1) – continued
Operations and Procedures (Chapter 1) (1)
   Wildlife Rules (Chapter 25) – continued
Wildlife Rules (Chapter 25) (1)
   Department of Wildlife Lands Management (Chapter 30) – continued
Department of Wildlife Lands Management (Chapter 30) (1)

Agency/Title Index
[Assigned as of 9-1-23]
Agency
Title
Oklahoma ABSTRACTORS Board
5
Oklahoma ACCOUNTANCY Board
10
State ACCREDITING Agency
15
AD Valorem Task Force (abolished 7-1-93)
20
Oklahoma AERONAUTICS Commission
25
Board of Regents for the Oklahoma AGRICULTURAL and Mechanical Colleges (exempted 11-1-98)
30
Oklahoma Department of AGRICULTURE, Food, and Forestry
35
Oklahoma Board of Licensed ALCOHOL and Drug Counselors
38
Board of Tests for ALCOHOL and Drug Influence
40
ALCOHOLIC Beverage Laws Enforcement Commission
45
ANATOMICAL Board of the State of Oklahoma
50
Board of Governors of the Licensed ARCHITECTS, Landscape Architects and Registered Commercial Interior Designers of Oklahoma (Formerly: Board of Governors of the Licensed ARCHITECTS and Landscape Architects of Oklahoma; and Board of Governors of the Licensed ARCHITECTS, Landscape Architects and Registered Interior Designers of Oklahoma
55
ARCHIVES and Records Commission
60
Board of Trustees for the ARDMORE Higher
    Education Program (exempted 11-1-98)
65
Oklahoma ARTS Council
70
Oklahoma State ATHLETIC Commission (Formerly: Oklahoma Professional BOXING Commission) - See Title 92
 
ATTORNEY General
75
State AUDITOR and Inspector
80
State BANKING Department
85
Oklahoma State Employees BENEFITS Council (consolidated under Office of Management and Enterprise Services 8-26-11 - See Title 260)
86
Oklahoma State Employees BENEFITS Council
87
Council of BOND Oversight
90
Oklahoma State ATHLETIC Commission (Formerly: Oklahoma Professional BOXING Commission)
92
BROADBANDGoverning Board
93
State BURIAL Board (abolished 7-1-92)
95
[RESERVED]
100
Oklahoma CAPITAL Investment Board
105
Oklahoma CAPITOL Improvement Authority
110
State CAPITOL Preservation Commission
115
CAPITOL-MEDICAL Center Improvement and Zoning Commission
120
Oklahoma Department of CAREER and Technology Education (Formerly: Oklahoma Department of VOCATIONAL and Technical Education) - See Title 780
 
Board of Regents of CARL Albert State College (exempted 11-1-98)
125
Department of CENTRAL Services (Formerly: Office of PUBLIC Affairs) - See Title 580
 
CEREBRAL Palsy Commission
130
Commission on CHILDREN and Youth
135
Board of CHIROPRACTIC Examiners
140
Oklahoma Department of EMERGENCY Management
    (Formerly: Department of CIVIL Emergency Management)
145
Oklahoma Department of COMMERCE
150
COMMUNITY Hospitals Authority
152
COMPSOURCE Oklahoma (Formerly: State INSURANCE
    Fund) - See Title 370
 
Oklahoma CONSERVATION Commission
155
CONSTRUCTION Industries Board
158
Department of CONSUMER Credit
160
CORPORATION Commission
165
Department of CORRECTIONS
170
State Board of COSMETOLOGY and Barbering
175
Oklahoma State CREDIT Union Board
180
CRIME Victims Compensation Board
185
Joint CRIMINAL Justice System Task Force Committee
190
Board of DENTISTRY
195
Oklahoma DEVELOPMENT Finance Authority
200
Office of DISABILITY Concerns (Formerly: Office of HANDICAPPED Concerns) - See Title 305
 
Board of Regents of EASTERN Oklahoma State College (exempted 11-1-98)
205
EDGE Fund Policy Board
208
State Department of EDUCATION
210
EDUCATION Oversight Board (merged under Office of Educational Quality and Accountability 7-1-14 - See Title 218)
215
Office of EDUCATIONAL Quality and Accountability
218
Oklahoma EDUCATIONAL Television Authority
220
[RESERVED]
225
State ELECTION Board
230
Oklahoma FUNERAL Board (Formerly: Oklahoma State Board of EMBALMERS and Funeral Directors)
235
Oklahoma Department of EMERGENCY Management
    (Formerly: Department of CIVIL Emergency Management) -
    See Title 145
 
Oklahoma EMPLOYMENT Security Commission
240
Oklahoma ENERGY Resources Board
243
State Board of Licensure for Professional ENGINEERS and Land Surveyors (Formerly: State Board of Registration for Professional ENGINEERS and Land Surveyors)
245
Board of Trustees for the ENID Higher
     Education Program (exempted 11-1-98)
250
Department of ENVIRONMENTAL Quality
252
State Board of EQUALIZATION
255
ETHICS Commission (Title revoked)
257
ETHICS Commission
258
Office of MANAGEMENT and Enterprise Services (Formerly: Office of State FINANCE)
260
State FIRE Marshal Commission
265
Oklahoma Council on FIREFIGHTER Training
268
Oklahoma FIREFIGHTERS Pension and Retirement System
270
[RESERVED]
275
FORENSIC Review Board
277
State Board of Registration for FORESTERS
280
FOSTER Care Review Advisory Board
285
Oklahoma FUNERAL Board (Formerly: Oklahoma State Board of Embalmers and Funeral Directors) - See Title 235
 
Oklahoma FUTURES
290
GOVERNOR (See also Title 1, Executive Orders)
295
GRAND River Dam Authority
300
Group Self-Insurance Association GUARANTY Fund Board
302
Individual Self-Insured GUARANTY Fund Board
303
STATE Use Committee (Formerly: Committee on Purchases of Products and Services of the Severely HANDICAPPED; consolidated under Office of Management and Enterprise Services 8-26-11 - See Title 260)
304
Office of DISABILITY Concerns (Formerly: Office of HANDICAPPED Concerns)
305
Oklahoma State Department of HEALTH
310
Oklahoma Basic HEALTH Benefits Board (abolished 11-1-97)
315
Oklahoma HEALTH Care Authority
317
HIGHWAY Construction Materials Technician Certification Board
318
Oklahoma HISTORICAL Society
320
Oklahoma HORSE Racing Commission
325
Oklahoma HOUSING Finance Agency
330
Oklahoma HUMAN Rights Commission
335
Department of HUMAN Services
340
Committee for INCENTIVE Awards for State Employees
345
Oklahoma INDIAN Affairs Commission
350
Oklahoma INDIGENT Defense System
352
Oklahoma INDUSTRIAL Finance Authority
355
INJURY Review Board
357
Oklahoma State and Education Employees Group INSURANCE Board (consolidated under Office of Management and Enterprise Services 8-26-11 - See Title 260)
360
INSURANCE Department
365
COMPSOURCE Oklahoma
    (Formerly: State INSURANCE Fund)
370
Oklahoma State Bureau of INVESTIGATION
375
Council on JUDICIAL Complaints
376
Office of JUVENILE Affairs
377
Department of LABOR
380
Department of the Commissioners of the LAND Office
385
Council on LAW Enforcement Education and Training
390
Oklahoma LAW Enforcement Retirement System
395
Board on LEGISLATIVE Compensation
400
Oklahoma Department of LIBRARIES
405
LIEUTENANT Governor
410
Oklahoma LINKED Deposit Review Board
415
Oklahoma LIQUEFIED Petroleum Gas Board
420
Oklahoma LIQUEFIED Petroleum Gas Research, Marketing and Safety Commission
422
LITERACY Initiatives Commission
425
LONG-RANGE Capital Planning Commission
428
Oklahoma State Board of Examiners for LONG-TERM Care Administrators (Formerly: Oklahoma State Board of Examiners for NURSING Home Administrators) - See Title 490
 
LOTTERY Commission, Oklahoma
429
Board of Trustees for the MCCURTAIN County Higher Education Program (exempted 11-1-98)
430
Office of MANAGEMENT and Enterprise Services (Formerly: Office of State FINANCE) - See Title 260
 
Commission on MARGINALLY Producing Oil and Gas Wells
432
State Board of MEDICAL Licensure and Supervision
435
MEDICAL Technology and Research Authority of Oklahoma
440
Oklahoma MEDICAL Marijuana Authority
442
Board of MEDICOLEGAL Investigations
445
Department of MENTAL Health and Substance Abuse Services
450
MERIT Protection Commission
455
MILITARY Planning Commission, Oklahoma Strategic
457
Department of MINES
460
Oklahoma MOTOR Vehicle Commission
465
Board of Regents of MURRAY State College (exempted 11-1-98)
470
Oklahoma State Bureau of NARCOTICS and Dangerous Drugs Control
475
Board of Regents of NORTHERN Oklahoma College (exempted 11-1-98)
480
Oklahoma Board of NURSING
485
Oklahoma State Board of Examiners for LONG-TERM Care Administrators (Formerly: Oklahoma State Board of Examiners for NURSING Home Administrators)
490
Board of Regents of OKLAHOMA City Community College (exempted 11-1-98)
495
Board of Regents of OKLAHOMA Colleges (exempted 11-1-98)
500
Board of Examiners in OPTOMETRY
505
State Board of OSTEOPATHIC Examiners
510
PARDON and Parole Board
515
Oklahoma PEANUT Commission
520
Oklahoma State PENSION Commission
525
State Board of Examiners of PERFUSIONISTS
527
Office of PERSONNEL Management (consolidated under Office of Management and Enterprise Services 8-26-11 - See Title 260)
530
Board of Commercial PET Breeders (abolished 7-1-12 - See Title 35)
532
Oklahoma State Board of PHARMACY
535
Health CareWORKFORCE Training Commission
540
Board of PODIATRIC Medical Examiners
545
Oklahoma POLICE Pension and Retirement System
550
State Department of POLLUTION Control (abolished 1-1-93)
555
POLYGRAPH Examiners Board
560
Oklahoma Board of PRIVATE Vocational Schools
565
State Board for PROPERTY and Casualty Rates
     (abolished 7-1-06; see also Title 365)
570
State Board of Examiners of PSYCHOLOGISTS
575
Department of CENTRAL Services (Formerly: Office of PUBLIC Affairs; consolidated under Office of Management and Enterprise Services 8-26-11 - See Title 260)
580
PUBLIC Employees Relations Board
585
Oklahoma PUBLIC Employees Retirement System
590
Department of PUBLIC Safety
595
REAL Estate Appraiser Board
600
Oklahoma REAL Estate Commission
605
Board of Regents of REDLANDS Community College (exempted 11-1-98)
607
State REGENTS for Higher Education
610
State Department of REHABILITATION Services
612
Board of Regents of ROGERS State College (exempted 11-1-98)
615
Board of Regents of ROSE State College (exempted 11-1-98)
620
Oklahoma SAVINGS and Loan Board (abolished 7-1-93)
625
SCENIC Rivers Commission
630
Oklahoma Commission on SCHOOL and County Funds Management
635
Advisory Task Force on the Sale of SCHOOL Lands (functions concluded 2-92)
640
The Oklahoma School of SCIENCE and Mathematics
645
Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of SCIENCE and Technology
650
SECRETARY of State
655
Department of SECURITIES
660
Board of Regents of SEMINOLE State College (exempted 11-1-98)
665
SHEEP and Wool Commission
670
State Board of Licensed SOCIAL Workers
675
SOUTHERN Growth Policies Board
680
Oklahoma SOYBEAN Commission (abolished 7-1-97)
685
Board of Examiners for SPEECH-LANGUAGE Pathology and Audiology (Formerly: Board of Examiners for SPEECH Pathology and Audiology)
690
STATE Employee Charitable Contributions, Oversight
     Committee for (Formerly: STATE Agency
     Review Committee)
695
STATE Use Committee (Formerly: Committee on Purchases of Products and Services of the Severely HANDICAPPED) –See Title 304
 
Oklahoma STUDENT Loan Authority
700
TASK Force 2000
705
Oklahoma TAX Commission
710
Oklahoma Commission for TEACHER Preparation (merged under Office of Educational Quality and Accountability 7-1-14 - See Title 218)
712
TEACHERS’ Retirement System
715
State TEXTBOOK Committee
720
TOBACCO Settlement Endowment Trust Fund
723
Oklahoma TOURISM and Recreation Department
725
Department of TRANSPORTATION
730
Oklahoma TRANSPORTATION Authority (Name changed to Oklahoma TURNPIKE Authority 11-1-05) - See Title 731
 
Oklahoma TURNPIKE Authority (Formerly: Oklahoma TRANSPORTATION Authority AND Oklahoma TURNPIKE Authority) - See also Title 745
731
State TREASURER
735
Board of Regents of TULSA Community College (exempted 11-1-98)
740
Oklahoma TURNPIKE Authority (Name changed to Oklahoma TRANSPORATION Authority 11-1-99 - no rules enacted in this Title - See Title 731)
745
Oklahoma UNIFORM Building Code Commission
748
Board of Trustees for the UNIVERSITY Center at Tulsa (exempted 11-1-98)
750
UNIVERSITY Hospitals Authority
752
UNIVERSITY Hospitals Trust
753
Board of Regents of the UNIVERSITY of Oklahoma (exempted 11-1-98)
755
Board of Regents of the UNIVERSITY of Science and Arts
of Oklahoma (exempted 11-1-98)
760
Oklahoma USED Motor Vehicle, Dismantler, and Manufactured Housing Commission
765
Oklahoma Department of VETERANS Affairs
770
Board of VETERINARY Medical Examiners
775
Statewide VIRTUAL Charter School Board
777
Oklahoma Department of CAREER and Technology Education (Formerly: Oklahoma Department of VOCATIONAL and Technical Education)
780
Oklahoma WATER Resources Board
785
Board of Regents of WESTERN Oklahoma State College (exempted 11-1-98)
790
Oklahoma WHEAT Commission
795
Department of WILDLIFE Conservation
800
WILL Rogers and J.M. Davis Memorials Commission
805
Oklahoma WORKERS' Compensation Commission
810

Notices of Rulemaking Intent
Prior to adoption and gubernatorial/legislative review of a proposed PERMANENT rulemaking action, an agency must publish a Notice of Rulemaking Intent in the Register. In addition, an agency may publish a Notice of Rulemaking Intent in the Register prior to adoption of a proposed EMERGENCY or PREEMPTIVE rulemaking action.
A Notice of Rulemaking Intent announces a comment period, or a comment period and public hearing, and provides other information about the intended rulemaking action as required by law, including where copies of proposed rules may be obtained.
For additional information on Notices of Rulemaking Intent, see 75 O.S., Section 303.

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 100.  Air Pollution Control
[OAR Docket #23-714]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
Notice of proposed PERMANENT rulemaking
PROPOSED RULES:
Subchapter 2. Incorporation by Reference
252:100-2-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 17. Incinerators
Part 11. Other Solid Waste Incineration Units
252:100-17-93 [AMENDED]
252:100-17-103 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 23. Control of Emissions from Cotton Gins
252:100-23-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 35. Control of Emission of Carbon Monoxide
252:100-35-1 [AMENDED]
Appendix Q. Incorporation by Reference [REVOKED]
Appendix Q. Incorporation by Reference [NEW]
SUMMARY:
The Department of Environmental Quality (Department or DEQ) is proposing to update language in Subchapter 2, Incorporation by Reference, to reflect the latest date of incorporation of EPA regulations. The Department is also proposing to update the content in OAC 252:100, Appendix Q, Incorporation By Reference, to incorporate the latest changes to EPA regulations. The gist of these rule proposals and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is to incorporate the latest changes or additions to 40 C.F.R. Part 60, New Source Performance Standards (NSPS), 40 C.F.R. Parts 61 and 63, National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP), and other EPA regulations referenced in Chapter 100.
The Department is proposing to make revisions in Subchapters 17, 23, and 35 as part of the Department's review of Chapter 100 in response to Governor Stitt's Executive Order 2020-03. The Department is proposing to correct typographical errors in citations found in OAC 252:100-17-93, OAC 252:100-17-103, and OAC 252:100-23-3. In addition, the Department is proposing to correct the reference to the air quality standard in OAC 252:100-35-1. The gist of this rule proposal and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is to revise inaccurate rule language.
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-101, 2-2-201, 2-3-402, and 2-5-106.
Air Quality Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201 and 2-5-107.
Oklahoma Clean Air Act; 27A O.S. §§ 2-5-101 through 2-5-130.
Oklahoma Uniform Permitting Act; 27A O.S. §§ 2-14-101 through 2-14-304.
COMMENT PERIOD:
Written comments may be submitted to the contact person from September 1, 2023, through October 2, 2023. Oral comments may be made at the October 4, 2023 Air Quality Advisory Council meeting and at the November 7, 2023 Environmental Quality Board meeting.
PUBLIC HEARINGS:
Before the Air Quality Advisory Council at 9:00 a.m. on Wednesday, October 4, 2023, at the DEQ Headquarters, 707 N. Robinson, Oklahoma City, OK 73102.
If the Council recommends adoption, the proposed rules will be considered by the Environmental Quality Board at its meeting scheduled for 9:30 a.m. on Tuesday, November 7, 2023, at the Simmons Center Convention Center - Redbud Courtyard, 800 Chisholm Trail Pkwy, Duncan, OK 73533.
These hearings shall also serve as public hearings to receive comments on the proposed revisions to the State Implementation Plan (SIP) under the requirements of 40 C.F.R. § 51.102 and 27A O.S. § 2-5-107(6)(c), and to the State Title V (Part 70) Implementation Plan under the requirements of 40 C.F.R. Part 70 and 27A O.S. § 2-5-112(B)(9).
REQUEST FOR COMMENTS FROM BUSINESS ENTITIES:
The Department requests that business entities or any other members of the public affected by these rules provide the Department, within the comment period, in dollar amounts if possible, the increase in the level of direct costs such as fees, and the indirect costs such as reporting, recordkeeping, equipment, construction, labor, professional services, revenue loss, or other costs expected to be incurred by a particular entity due to compliance with the proposed rules.
COPIES OF PROPOSED RULES:
Copies of the proposed rules may be obtained from the contact person, reviewed at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 N. Robinson, Oklahoma City, OK 73102, or reviewed online at www.deq.ok.gov/council-meetings/air-quality-advisory-council/.
RULE IMPACT STATEMENTS:
Pursuant to 75 O.S. § 303(D), a rule impact statement was prepared and is available on the DEQ website at www.deq.ok.gov/council-meetings/air-quality-advisory-council/. Copies may also be obtained from the Department by calling the contact person listed below.
CONTACT PERSON:
The contact person for this proposal is Melanie Foster, Environmental Programs Manager, who can be reached by phone at (405) 702-4100. Please email written comments to AQDRuleComments@deq.ok.gov. Mail should be addressed to Department of Environmental Quality, Air Quality Division, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, OK 73101-1677, ATTN: Melanie Foster.
PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES:
Should you desire to attend the public hearing but have a disability and need an accommodation, please notify the Air Quality Division three (3) days in advance at (405) 702-4177. For the hearing impaired, the TDD relay number is 1-800-522-8506 or 1-800-722-0353, for TDD machine use only.
[OAR Docket #23-714; filed 8-7-23]


Permanent Final Adoptions
An agency may promulgate rules on a permanent basis upon "final adoption," as defined in 75 O.S., Section 250.3(5), of the proposed rules.
Permanent rules are effective ten days after publication in the Register, or on a later date specified by the agency in the preamble of the permanent rule document.
Permanent rules are published in the Oklahoma Administrative Code, along with a source note entry that cites the Register publication of the finally adopted rules in the permanent rule document.
For additional information on the permanent rulemaking process, see 75 O.S., Sections 303, 303.1, 308, 308.1 and 308.3.

TITLE 38.  Oklahoma Board of Licensed Alcohol and Drug Counselors
CHAPTER 10.  Licensure and Certification of Alcohol and Drug Counselors
[OAR Docket #23-602]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 9. Supervision
38:10-9-5 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 13. Continuing Education Requirements
38:10-13-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma Board of Licensed Alcohol and Drug Counselors; 59 O.S., § 1875-1 and § 1884 (B).
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022 until the conclusion of the public hearing on January 13, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 13, 2023
ADOPTION:
January 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
January 27, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Revisions in Subchapter 9 will allow supervisors and candidates to meet through virtual methods for the supervision of candidates without restriction on number of sessions.
Subchapter 13 is being amended to allow counselors to obtain all of their required continuing education through online services. This amendment also defines virtual as live in-person attendance and online as on demand or recorded training.
CONTACT PERSON:
Richard D. Pierson, Executive Director, (405) 521-0779, or rpierson@okdrugcounselors.org.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Any additional information desired will be supplied upon request.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Supervision
38:10-9-5.  Supervisor Requirements
(a)     Qualifications. To be eligible for Board approval to supervise LADC or CADC candidates, a Licensed Alcohol and Drug Counselor must be licensed and in good standing and:
(1)    If originally licensed in Oklahoma, must have practiced alcohol and drug counseling for at least two years after licensure; or
(2)    If licensed by endorsement from another state, must have practiced alcohol and drug counseling for at least one year beyond Oklahoma licensure; or
(3)    Also hold a license in good standing with supervision privileges in another behavioral health field as determined by the Board; or
(4)    Hold a current valid IC&RC Certified Clinical supervisor credential, and
(5)    Successfully complete the Board approved alcohol and drug counselor supervision training course, and
(6)    Pass the Oklahoma LADC Supervisor Examination(s)
(A)    Examination Part A shall consist of a NAADAC clinical supervision exam, or the IC&RC Certified Clinical Supervisor exam, or other clinical supervision exam approved by the Board.
(B)    Examination Part B shall consist of Oklahoma State Laws, Rules, and procedures.
(b)     Application Process.
(1)    Complete an application form provided by the Board.
(2)    Submit two letters of reference. At least one letter must be from a current Board approved LADC supervisor. The other shall be from another professional holding a current Oklahoma behavioral health license.
(3)    Sign a supervision agreement and supervisor code of ethics.
(4)    Pay an application processing fee.
(c)     Supervision Training course and Supervisor Examination.
(1)    The Supervision course shall consist of a fifteen hour Board approved workshop on counseling supervision in combination with thirty hours of directed individual study of Board approved counseling supervision literature for a total of forty-five contact hours. The workshop or class must have a minimum of four enrolled supervisor candidates.
(2)    For persons who meet the qualifications in subsection (a)(3) or (4), or the supervision course shall consist of a seven and one-half hour Board approved advanced LADC supervisor training workshop and exam Part B-Oklahoma State Laws, Rules and procedures only.
(d)     Renewal of Supervisor Status. To maintain Board approved supervisor status, LADC supervisors must complete, prior to June 30 of each year,
(1)    Three (3) clock hours of continuing education in counseling supervision, and
(2)    These hours are included in the twenty (20) continuing education hours required for licensure renewal.
(3)    With the exception of the twenty hour requirements in 38:10-13-2(a), the Rules in subchapter 13 regarding continuing education requirements for licensure renewal shall also apply to continuing education requirements for supervision status.
(4)    Approved supervisor designation will not be renewed until renewal fee has been paid and
(5)    Continuing education requirements have been met.
(e)     Supervisor Responsibilities.
(1)    The supervisor in responsible for having and maintaining knowledge about the
supervisee's practice whether in a private or agency setting.
(2)    The supervisor is responsible for providing professional consultation and monitoring the supervisees ethical and professional practices.
(3)    The supervisor must provide an average of one hour per week of live, interactive and visual supervision until the candidate becomes licensed or certified. Group supervision is acceptable if such supervision does not exceed at least one half of the total supervisory time per evaluation period. Group size is limited to a maximum of six (6) supervisees.
(A)    The phrase "an average of one hour per week of live, interactive and visual supervision " means one continuous hour in one day of each week of face-to-face or interactive video supervision relating to the supervisee's skills, knowledge and practices in providing alcohol and drug counseling to clients.
(i)    (Video supervision shall not exceed 1/8 of the total supervision time, 6 sessions for LADC or 12 sessions for CADC) unless approved by the Board as described in (ii).
(ii)    Candidates and supervisors may apply for an exception to these video supervision limits on the basis of hardship. Any requests for such an exception will be reviewed on a case by case basis. In the case an exception is granted and approved by the Board, the maximum video supervision shall not exceed ¾ of the total supervision time (39 sessions for LADC and 78 for CADC.) Video supervision must meet all Federal and State laws of confidentiality.
(B)    The supervisor must provide four hours of face-to-face supervision per calendar month, at the rate of one hour per week, or two hours per week, every other week.
(C)    When unforeseen circumstances arise that result in a supervisor providing less than four hours per month, or less than two hours every other week of face-to-face contact, the supervisor and supervisee shall provide notice of such circumstances to the board, and shall submit a plan to make up the missed hours to the Board for approval. The plan may include designation of a back-up or alternate supervisor, providing that the supervisee has entered into a supervision contract with the alternate supervisor and such contract has been approved by the Board.
(D)    Clinical staff meetings attended by supervisees or meetings with supervisees that consist of discussion of issues other than supervisee's skills, knowledge, and practices in providing alcohol and drug counseling to clients shall not be counted as group supervision.
(4)    When the licensure supervisor is not a staff member of the supervisee's employer, the licensure supervisor will ensure that the employer, or its representative, is in accord with the arrangements for supervision. This is essential whether these arrangements are made by the agency or the supervisee and regardless of whether the agency contributes to the financial compensation of the supervisor. The supervisor is responsible for securing agreement from the agency administration as to the purpose and content of the desired supervision and the supervisor's specific role responsibilities and limitations. The supervisor is also responsible for learning agency functions and policies so that any supervisory suggestions are constructive and realistic within agency purposes and resources.
(5)    The Supervisor must be available to the supervisee for consultation "on call " 24 hours a day, seven days a week, and arrange for alternate "on call " supervisor to provide consultation when the primary supervisor is unavailable.
(6)    The supervisor must immediately notify the Board of any ethical or professional violations by supervisee.
(7)    A supervisor for an applicant who provides community or home-based services shall, in addition to other supervision requirements, conduct at least six (6) direct observations of the supervisee conducting counseling sessions in the client's home, school, or other remote location outside of the applicant's employer's office. The observations must be made periodically throughout the applicant's supervised work experience at least once every other month. Direct observation may be conducted via interactive live audio/video conferencing and shall be documented in a form approved by the Board. No more than three (3) of the direct observations per year may be conducted via interactive live audio/visual conferencing. Both the supervisor and the supervisee are responsible for ensuring that the interactive live audio-video conferencing complies with all applicable federal and state confidentiality laws and regulations.
(8)    The supervisor must notify the Board in writing within three (3) business days of the date supervision is terminated. The supervisor must submit an evaluation of the supervisee within ten business days of the date of termination.
(9)    A supervisor may not supervise more than a total of twenty (20) persons, including candidates and CADCs who are engaging in private or independent practice. A supervisor who wants to supervise more than twenty (20) persons must petition the Board for approval for each person above the maximum number. The petitions will be determined on a case-by-case basis depending on the circumstances of the request.
SUBCHAPTER 13.  Continuing Education Requirements
38:10-13-2.  Continuing education standards
(a)     Continuing education hours required. As a requirement for license or certification renewal, twenty (20) clock hours of continuing education units shall be required for each license or certification held. These hours must have been obtained during the previous renewal period July through June and approved by the Board. At least three (3) hours must be categorized as ethics training as defined by the Board. At least ten (10) hours must be alcohol and drug specific as defined by the Board.and only half or 10 hours can be done through online sources. For LADC/MH, the twenty (20) hours of continuing education hours must be on topics categorized by the Board as Co-Occurring, or consist of (10) hours on Mental Health topics and ten (10) hours on alcohol and drug specific topics as defined by the Board. The required hours may be completed through virtual meetings, on-demand online training, and in-person training "Virtual" means a live interactive video conference by an approved program that involves face-to-face interaction with a facilitator for the purpose of accomplishing specific learning objectives. No more than ten hours may be obtained through pre-recorded, on-demand online training.
(b)     Candidate requirements for continuing education. Candidates who have been in the licensure process for more than one year must have at least three hours of continuing education in ethics each successive year until licensed. For each year of candidacy after the first year, the candidate must also obtain three hours of continuing education in addition to the three hours of ethics. Proof of completion of the continuing education required for applicants shall be submitted with the application maintenance fee. Continuing education must be from approved providers to avoid additional fees and must meet all other requirements for continuing education.
(c)     Continuing education approval. Approval of continuing education shall be at the discretion of the Oklahoma Board of Licensed Alcohol and Drug Counselors and shall be in accordance with standards acceptable to the profession of alcohol and drug counseling. Requirements for the providers of continuing education are addressed in OAC 38:10-13-7.
(d)     Armed services. A licensed or certified person called to active duty in the Armed forces of the United States for a period of time exceeding one hundred and twenty (120) days during a calendar year shall be exempt from obtaining the continuing education required during that calendar year.
(e)     Exemption. A licensed or certified person experiencing physical disability, illness, or other extenuating circumstances may request partial or complete exemption from the continuing education requirements. The licensee or certified person shall provide supporting documentation for the Board's review. Such hardship cases will be considered by the Board on an individual basis.
(f)     Prorating. Licensees or certified persons upon initial certification will have their CEU hours prorated according to the date of their initial certification.
[OAR Docket #23-602; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 93.  Broadband Governing Board
CHAPTER 1.  Administrative Operations
[OAR Docket #23-682]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [NEW]
93:1-1-1. Purpose [NEW]
93:1-1-2. Agency organization [NEW]
93:1-1-3. Oklahoma Broadband Office [NEW]
93:1-1-4. Availability of records [NEW]
93:1-1-5. Petitions for adoption, amendment, or repeal of a rule [NEW]
93:1-1-6. Procedures for declaratory rulings [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma Broadband Governing Board; 74 O.S. § 9202.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
February 8, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
March 1, 2023 through March 31, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 31, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 31, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
April 1, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Broadband Governing Board proposes adding rules for the Oklahoma Broadband Office pertaining to purpose, location, records, and rule-making processes affecting the public. The proposed rules reflect the creation of the Broadband Office through H.B. 3363, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022). These rules have no fiscal impact to the agency. The rules for Chapter 1 are an effort to align with current statute and operations.
CONTACT PERSON:
Jennifer Fischer Walford, General Counsel, Oklahoma Broadband Office, 300 NW 63rd Street, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73116-7913. Telephone number: (405) 255-5348.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
93:1-1-1.  Purpose
     The rules of this Chapter describe the organization and the administrative operation of the Broadband Governing Board ("Board"), the procedures for requests for rule changes and the procedures for the filing and prompt disposition of petitions for declaratory rulings as to the applicability of any rule or order of the Board, as required under the Administrative Procedures Act.
93:1-1-2.  Agency organization
(a)    The Broadband Governing Board sets broadband expansion policy in the State to ensure that affordable, high-speed internet is available to all Oklahomans. The Board creates and implements an annual budget and grant incentive programs. Additionally, the Board oversees the development of the State Broadband Plan and broadband mapping, which describes how the state will achieve 95 percent high-speed internet coverage by June 2028.
(b)    The Oklahoma Broadband Office ("Office") is charged with fulfilling the Board's mission of statewide broadband expansion by developing a comprehensive plan, managing grant applicants, processes, and procedures, making formal grant awards, and overseeing the subrecipients of the grants. This includes grant agreements, monitoring, compliance, and federal reporting requirements.
93:1-1-3.  Oklahoma Broadband Office
(a)    The Oklahoma Broadband Governing Board and the Oklahoma Broadband Office are located at 301 NW 63rd St., Suite 200, Oklahoma City, OK 73116.
(b)    General office hours are from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. each day, except Saturday and Sunday, and any legal holiday established by statute or proclamation of the Governor.
93:1-1-4.  Availability of records
(a)     Document location. All rules and other written statements of policy or interpretations formulated, adopted, or used by the Board in the discharge of its functions and all final orders, decisions and opinions will be made available for public inspection at the principal office during regular office hours.
(b)     Official records. Copies of official records of the Board may be made and certified by the Executive Director or his designee according to the fee schedule enacted by the Board. Any records or material in the Board's offices that are protected from disclosure by state law shall not be released.
93:1-1-5.  Petitions for adoption, amendment, or repeal of a rule
(a)     Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this Section, shall have the following meaning:
(1)    "Rule" means any agency statement or group of related statements of general applicability and future effect that implements, interprets or prescribes law or policy, or describes the procedure or practice requirements of the agency. See the Administrative Procedures Act at 75 O.S. § 250.3.
(2)    "Rulemaking" means the process employed by an agency for the formulation of a rule.
(3)    "Submission of a petition" means receipt of a petition by the Board in accordance with the requirements of (b) of this Section.
(b)     Petitions. Any person may initiate an informal proceeding for the purpose of requesting the Board to promulgate, amend, or repeal a rule in this Title. An informal proceeding to request rulemaking in accordance with the provisions of this Section shall be initiated by filing a petition in accordance with all of the following requirements:
(1)    Petitions shall be submitted in writing and filed with the Oklahoma Broadband Governing Board. The petition shall meet all of the following requirements:
(A)    The petition shall state a description of the alleged necessity or basis for the requested change;
(B)    The petition shall describe any potential conflicts with any existing statute or regulation that would result from the proposed rulemaking action requested;
(C)    The petition shall include citations to all statutory provisions, if any, which provide authority for the Board to promulgate, amend, or repeal the rule;
(D)    The petition shall be signed by the petitioner or an authorized representative of the petitioner; and
(E)    The petition shall state the name, address, telephone number, and email address of the petitioner or an authorized representative of petitioner.
(2)    Upon receipt by the Board, the petition will be stamped to show the date of submission, and the Board shall review the petition for compliance with all of the provisions of this Section. If the petition complies with all provisions of (b) of this Section, the Board may set the petition for consideration by the Board at the next regular meeting of the Board, or at a subsequent meeting if the petition is not received until after the agenda for the next meeting has already been set.
(c)     Review and consideration of petitions. Petitions for adoption, amendment, or repeal of a rule in accordance with the provisions of this Section shall be considered by the Board in accordance with the following provisions:
(1)    If the Board approves further consideration of the proposed change, the decision shall be reflected in the meeting minutes of the Board. Within five (5) business days of the date of the meeting, written notification will be mailed to petitioner that such proposal will be formally considered for adoption, amendment, or repeal, provided that the process for rule adoption, amendment, or repeal shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of the Administrative Procedures Act.
(2)    In the event the Board determines that the proposal or request should not receive further consideration, the decision shall be reflected in the minutes of the Board. Within five (5) business days of the date of the meeting, written notification of the denial of the petition will be mailed to petitioner.
(3)    In the event the Board fails to decide whether or not to take action on the petition within thirty (30) days of the date of submission of the petition, the petition shall be deemed to have been denied in accordance with the provisions of 75 O.S. § 305.
93:1-1-6.  Procedures for declaratory rulings
(a)     Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this Section, shall have the following meaning:
(1)    "Declaratory ruling" means an informal declaration as to the applicability of a rule or order in an individual case for the purpose of providing a petitioner with a definitive response to a question about an ambiguity in the law as necessary to allow a petitioner to ascertain legal obligations and comply accordingly.
(b)     Petitions for declaratory ruling. Any person affected by a rule adopted by the Oklahoma Broadband Governing Board set forth in this Title or an order issued by the Board may petition for a declaratory ruling as to the applicability of a specific rule or order in a specified set of circumstances involving petitioner. Petitions for a declaratory ruling shall be submitted in accordance with the following procedures:
(1)    The petition must be in writing and submitted to the Oklahoma Broadband Governing Board;
(2)    The petition shall specifically identify the rule in question by citation to the Oklahoma Administrative Code;
(3)    The petition shall pose the specific issue(s) to be answered by the Oklahoma Broadband Governing Board;
(4)    The petition shall state clearly and with specificity all factual and legal grounds in support of petitioner's interpretation of the rule or order and shall include:
(A)    An allegation of all facts upon which the declaratory ruling is based; and
(B)    Copies of all documentation cited by petitioner in support of petitioner's claim attached to the petition;
(5)    The petition shall be signed by the petitioner or an authorized representative of the petitioner; and
(6)    The petition shall state the name, address, telephone number, and email address of the petitioner or an authorized representative of petitioner at which all notices required by this Section shall be served.
(c)     Review of a petition for declaratory ruling. Upon receipt by the Board, the petition will be stamped to show the date of submission, and the Board shall promptly notify the petitioner, the agency's legal counsel, and any other interested parties of the date of the board meeting at which the petition has been set for initial review by the Board. The date set for initial review shall be at least ten (10) calendar days from the date of receipt of the petition by the Board.
(d)     Initial review of petition. Upon preliminary review of the petition, the Board may take one of the following actions:
(1)    The Board may consider the merits of the petition and issue a ruling at the meeting;
(2)    The Board may dismiss the petition on one or more of the following grounds:
(A)    The petition was not filed in accordance with the requirements of this Section; or
(B)    The request for a declaratory ruling stated in the petition is more appropriately handled through the agency rulemaking process in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act; or
(3)    The Board may order a hearing on the matter and specify a date at which petitioner, counsel for the agency and any other individuals or entities deemed interested parties by the Board may present oral argument on the issues raised in the petition. The Board shall prescribe the amount of time allotted for oral argument.
(e)     Declaratory ruling. At the conclusion of the presentation of the matter, the Board may render a decision on the petition or continue the meeting for further deliberation at a later date. Upon rendering a decision, a written decision memorializing the Board's decision shall be issued and signed by the Chairman of the Board, and a copy of the decision shall be mailed to Petitioner via certified mail within ten (10) calendar days of the date the decision is rendered.
(f)     Judicial review. A declaratory ruling or refusal to issue such ruling, shall be subject to judicial review in the manner provided for review of decisions in individual proceedings set forth in the
[OAR Docket #23-682; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 93.  Broadband Governing Board
CHAPTER 10.  Broadband Governing Board Grant Program
[OAR Docket #23-683]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [NEW]
93:10-1-1. Purpose [NEW]
93:10-1-2. Definitions [NEW]
Subchapter 3. Program Administration [NEW]
93:10-3-1. System for Award Management ("SAM") [NEW]
93:10-3-2. Award process [NEW]
93:10-3-3. Capital expenditures [NEW]
93:10-3-4. Competitive bidding [NEW]
93:10-3-5. Reporting [NEW]
93:10-3-6. Labor reporting for construction projects [NEW]
93:10-3-7. Reimbursements [NEW]
93:10-3-8. Audit requirements [NEW]
93:10-3-9. Compliance with federal requirements [NEW]
93:10-3-10. Grantee assurances [NEW]
Subchapter 5. Violations and Corrective Actions [NEW]
93:10-5-1. Program violations [NEW]
93:10-5-2. Corrective and remedial actions [NEW]
93:10-5-3. Individual Proceedings [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma Broadband Governing Board; 74 O.S. § 9202.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
February 8, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
March 1, 2023 through March 31, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 31, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 31, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
April 1, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Broadband Governing Board proposes adding Broadband Governing Board Grant Program rules for compliance with current statutory requirements pertaining to broadband expansion policy in the state of Oklahoma to ensure high-speed internet is available to all. The proposed rules reflect the creation of the Broadband Governing Board through H.B. 3363, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), including its charge to create a State Broadband Plan and develop, award, and manage grant incentive programs to expand broadband coverage in the State. These rules have no fiscal impact to the agency. The rules for Chapter 10 are an effort to align with current statute and operations.
CONTACT PERSON:
Jennifer Fischer Walford, General Counsel, Oklahoma Broadband Office, 300 NW 63rd Street, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73116-7913. Telephone number: (405) 255-5348.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
93:10-1-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of the Broadband Governing Board Grant program is to use federal funds distributed to the State of Oklahoma pursuant to the American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021) ("ARPA") and/or the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Pub. L. No. 117-58 (Nov. 15, 2021) ("IIJA") to ensure that affordable, high-speed internet is available to all Oklahomans. The Broadband Governing Board ("BGB") is a pass-through entity through which federal funding will be further distributed to grantees for specific broadband expansion projects, including, but not limited to, creating a State Broadband Plan, broadband mapping, and capital improvements to broadband infrastructure. See 74. O.S. § 9202.
93:10-1-2.  Definitions
     When used in this chapter, the following words or terms shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"ACP" means the Affordable Connectivity Program.
"ARPA" means the American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021), as amended.
"BEAD" means Broadband Equity, Access, and Deployment.
"Board" means the Broadband Governing Board.
"C.F.R." means Code of Federal Regulations, available at www.ecfr.gov.
"Council" means the Broadband Expansion Council.
"DEA" means Digital Equity Act.
"Grantee" means a recipient of federal funds awarded through the Broadband Governing Board Grant program, regardless of whether the recipient is a "pass-through entity" or "subrecipient."
"FCC" means the Federal Communications Commission.
"IIJA" means the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Pub. L. No. 117-58 (Nov. 15, 2021), as amended.
"NTIA" means the National Telecommunications and Information Administration.
"OBO" means the Oklahoma Broadband Office.
"OMES" means Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Pass-through entity" or "PTE" means a non-federal entity that provides a subaward to a subrecipient to carry out part of a federal program, consistent with the definition at 2 C.F.R., § 200.1.
"SAM" means System for Award Management.
"Subrecipient" means an entity that receives a subaward from a pass-through entity to carry out part of a federal award, but does not include an individual that is a beneficiary of such award, consistent with the definition at 2 C.F.R., § 200.1.
"U.S. Treasury" means United States Department of the Treasury.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Program Administration
93:10-3-1.  System for Award Management ("SAM")
     All eligible grantees must have an active registration with SAM.gov pursuant to Part 25 of Title 2 of the C.F.R. This registration must be active prior to the submission of mandatory reporting.
93:10-3-2.  Award process
(a)    Grant applicants will submit applications through an online intake portal. A Risk Assessment will be done. Submission of a final application does not guarantee the award of a grant.
(b)    The BGB may assign preference to a class of applicants for any application.
(c)    At the judgment of the BGB, applications may be evaluated and scored by OBO employees, content experts, proposal review panels or any combination of employees, experts, or review panels. Evaluation results and recommendations shall be provided to the directors for each application reviewed.
(d)    Applications approved by the OBO staff will then be presented to the BGB for final approval.
(e)    Applications submitted to the agency remain confidential until a decision is made by the BGB.
(f)    The final decision to award shall be made at the sole discretion of the BGB, based upon the evaluation and scoring performed on the application.
(g)    All applicants will receive written notification of final award status.
(h)    Disbursement and reporting policies and cadences will be determined by the completed risk assessment and will also include the federal rules and regulations set forth for each grant program
(i)    Approved applications will then enter a grant agreement with the OBO.
(j)    The BGB may use the contents of applications in conjunction with reporting duties of the BGB and OBO.
93:10-3-3.  Capital expenditures
(a)    In accordance with Section 35.6(b)(4) of the Treasury Final Rule, grantees expending $1,000,000 or more for capital expenditures related to the response to the COVID-19 public health emergency or its negative economic impacts, must provide the following written justification:
(1)    A description of the specific harm or need to be addressed, and why the harm was exacerbated or caused by the public health emergency. The grantee may provide quantitative information on the extent and the type of harm, such as the number of individuals or entities affected.
(2)    An explanation of why a capital expenditure is appropriate. For example, a grantee should explain why existing equipment or facilities, or policy changes or additional funding to pertinent programs or services, would be inadequate.
(3)    A comparison of the proposed capital project against at least two (2) alternative capital expenditures and a demonstration of why the proposed capital expenditure is superior. Grantees should consider the effectiveness of the capital expenditure in addressing the harm identified and the expected total cost (including pre-development costs) against at least two (2) alternative capital expenditures.
(b)    Funding for grantees expending $1,000,000 or more of a Broadband Governing Board Grant for capital expenditures will not be distributed until the complete written justification for capital expenditure as detailed above is received and approved by
(1)    The BGB and OMES as to an ARPA grant, or
(2)    The BGB as to an IIJA grant.
(c)    If the capital expenditures amount to $10,000,000 or more, the written justification will also have to be submitted as part of regular reporting.
93:10-3-4.  Competitive bidding
(a)    All projects, programs, services, or activities sponsored in whole or in part with federal funds will be purchased in accordance with the State Purchasing Director's Guide to Competitive Purchasing with ARPA and GEER II Funds, available at https://oklahoma.gov/content/dam/ok/en/omes/documents/ARPAGuide.pdf, and in accordance with applicable state and federal law, including but not limited to, 2 C.F.R., §§ 200.310 through .316 (property standards), and 2 C.F.R., §§ 200.317 through .327 (procurement standards).
(b)    All grantees that utilize competitive bidding procurement methods must provide BGB with documentation of the process, including, but not limited to, copies of the bids received and justification of how a decision was reached to award a contract to a specific vendor.
93:10-3-5.  Reporting
(a)    All grantees will appropriately maintain accounting records for compiling and reporting accurate, compliant financial data in accordance with generally accepted accounting standards and principles.
(b)    All grantees of ARPA funds are required to submit Project and Expenditure Reports at the close of each month or quarter, in accordance with OMES' Subrecipient Monitoring Schedule. obligations expenditures, any applicable program income, and a description of the project demographic distribution. A template for the reports will be sent to all grantees, and the complete report shall be submitted to BGB within thirty (30) days of the end of the reporting period, or as otherwise directed by OMES or the BGB. The BGB, in turn, will submit all requested monthly and quarterly data to OMES to report as needed to the U.S. Treasury. These reports must include, at a minimum, the status of the overall project, a listing of obligations expenditures, any applicable program income, and a description of the project demographic distribution. A template for the reports will be sent to all grantees, and the complete report shall be submitted to BGB within thirty (30) days of the end of the reporting period, or as otherwise directed by OMES or the BGB. The BGB, in turn, will submit all requested monthly and quarterly data to OMES to report as needed to the U.S. Treasury.
(c)    Pursuant to the State and Local Fiscal Recovery Funds ("SLFRF") Compliance and Reporting Guide, some grantees with larger projects may be required to submit an annual Recovery Plan Performance Report ("Recovery Plan"). The Recovery Plan must detail how the grantee will ensure program outcomes are achieved in an effective, efficient, and equitable manner. The Recovery Plan, if required, must be submitted annually to BGB and the U.S. Treasury; in addition, the Recovery Plan must be posted on the grantee's public-facing website.
(d)    Final reporting will be due at the completion of the grant program.
93:10-3-6.  Labor reporting for construction projects
(a)    For ARPA projects with over $10,000,000 in capital expenditures (based on total expected cost), the grantee shall submit labor reporting requirements, including, but not limited to:
(1)    A Project Employment and Impact Report; and
(2)    A Project Workforce Continuity Plan.
(3)    These reports must be updated on a quarterly basis and submitted to BGB within thirty (30) days of the end of the reporting period.
(b)    Projects funded entirely by ARPA dollars are not subject to the Davis-Bacon Act, Pub. L. No.107-217 (Aug. 21, 2002), as amended; however, for projects that are funded in part by other federal dollars, grantees must determine whether their other funding source will require compliance with said act.
(c)    Pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Final Rule, and regardless of the expected cost for construction projects, grantees are expected to use strong labor standards, including project labor agreements and community benefits agreements that offer wages at or above the prevailing rate and include local hire provisions.
93:10-3-7.  Reimbursements
(a)     Prior authorization. Grantees must receive written prior authorization from OBO before making purchases exceeding a prior authorization threshold amount. This amount will be based upon the grantee's risk assessment, as well as the overall scope of the proposed project. Grantees shall be informed in writing of the prior authorization threshold amount. A grantee shall upload the quote and a brief justification to the grant software designated by OBO for review and prior authorization by the OBO Grants Manager. Any purchase over the threshold the Broadband Governing Board Grant program. Amount that has not been prior authorized by the Grants Manager may not be reimbursed by the Broadband Governing Board Grant program.
(b)     Invoices. In order to obtain reimbursement, grantees shall electronically send monthly invoice packets to the OBO Grants Manager. These packets must be received by OBO by the date prescribed by the Grant Agreement.
(1)    Invoice packets must include the following:
(A)    Signed receipts/invoices for all purchases;
(B)    A brief justification of all expenses (1-2 sentences explaining how the purchase benefits the project); and
(C)    Bidding documentation with justification for why the vendor was chosen.
(2)    Invoices shall not be submitted to OBO for reimbursement before performance is completed by the vendor and accepted by the grantee, including physical receipt of goods. A grantee must sign the invoice or receipt to verify that the item or service has been received.
93:10-3-8.  Audit requirements
(a)    The Grantee shall complete the Subrecipient Annual Report annually within forty-five (45) days after its fiscal year end, informing the State of Oklahoma whether a Single Audit is required for the prior fiscal year. If a Single Audit is required, the grantee shall submit a copy of the audit report to the State of Oklahoma within nine (9) months. A Single Audit is required if the grantee expends $750,000 or more in federal assistance during its fiscal year and must be conducted in accordance with Subpart F of Part 200 of Title 2 of the C.F.R.
(1)    BGB will review the grantee's audit and issue any management decisions thereon within six (6) months of acceptance of the audit report by the Federal Audit Clearinghouse. Prior to issuing the management decision, BGB may request additional information or documentation from the grantee, including a request for auditor assurance related to the documentation, as a way of mitigating disallowed costs.
(2)    After review of the audit, if itis determined that funds are owed to the State of Oklahoma, BGB may issue a management decision letter to the grantee. Pursuant to 2 C.F.R., § 200.521, the management decision will include:
(A)    A clear statement of whether or not the audit finding is sustained, the reasons for the decision, and the actions the grantee is expected to take (including, for example, repaying disallowed costs, making financial adjustments, or taking other actions);
(B)    A description of the appeals process available to the grantee; and
(C)    The reference numbers the auditor assigned to each audit finding. A grantee aggrieved by an BGB management decision may initiate an appeal of that decision. In order to initiate an appeal, the grantee must complete and submit the appropriate form provided by BGB and made available on its website, within twenty (20) calendar days of the date of the management decision letter. If the form is not timely received, the BGB or the hearing officer designated by the BGB will issue a letter stating that the appeal will not be heard.
(3)    Appeals of management decisions shall be conducted in accordance with OAC 93:10-5-3.
(b)    Even if a grantee is exempt from federal audit requirements for a particular fiscal year, it shall still make its records available for review or audit by appropriate officials of the U.S. Treasury, OMES, BGB, and Government Accountability Office, as requested. Moreover, all "government entities," as such term is defined by law, shall comply with the applicable provisions of 74 O.S., § 212A relating to the Oklahoma State Auditor & Inspector's Office.
93:10-3-9.  Compliance with federal requirements
     Grantees must establish and maintain effective internal controls over the federal award that provide reasonable assurance that they are managing the awards in compliance with federal statues, regulations, and the terms and conditions of the award. Some of the applicable federal compliance, reporting, and contract requirements include:
(1)    American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021), as amended;
(2)    Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Pub. L. No. 117-58 (Nov. 15, 2021), as amended;
(3)    U.S. Treasury Final Rule, Coronavirus State and Local Fiscal Recovery Funds, 87 Fed. Reg. 4338 (Jan. 27, 2022), and all other applicable federal rules, policies, guidance, procedures, and directives including reporting and compliance guidance, as amended;
(4)    Uniform Guidance (Part 200 of Title 2 of the C.F.R.), including Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards, as amended; and
(5)    Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996, Pub. L. No. 104-156 (July 5, 1996), as amended.
93:10-3-10.  Grantee assurances
     Grantee must agree to and abide by all state and federally required assurances, including those set out in Grantee's Grant Agreement.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Violations and Corrective Actions
93:10-5-1.  Program violations
     The State shall find that a violation of the Broadband Governing Board Grant program policies and procedures occurred under certain circumstances, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1)    A grantee provided false or misleading information in proposed project applications and/or project reports;
(2)    The requirements of federal statute, federal regulations, Oklahoma statute, or rules of BGB have not been met or have been violated;
(3)    There is a significant deviation from the grant agreement;
(4)    Significant corrective actions are necessary to protect the integrity of the project funds, and those corrective actions are not or cannot be put into effect, in the judgment of BGB staff, within a reasonable timeframe; or
(5)    There has been a finding of fraud, waste, or mismanagement of any current or prior state- or federally-funded project.
93:10-5-2.  Corrective and remedial actions
     After having determined that a program violation has occurred, BGB may take the following actions:
(1)    BGB may adjust specific award conditions as needed, after providing notification consistent with the requirements in 2 C.F.R., § 200.208, including:
(A)    Withholding authority to proceed to the next phase until receipt of evidence of acceptable performance within a given performance period;
(B)    Requiring additional, more detailed financial reports;
(C)    Requiring additional project monitoring;
(D)    Requiring the grantee to obtain technical or management assistance; or
(E)    Establishing additional prior approvals; or
(2)    If, after determining that noncompliance cannot be remedied by imposing additional conditions, BGB may, in accordance with 2 C.F.R., § 200.339:
(A)    Temporarily withhold cash payments pending correction of the deficiency by the grantee or more severe enforcement action by the U.S. Treasury or OMES;
(B)    Disallow all or part of the cost of the activity or action not in compliance;
(C)    Wholly or partly suspend or terminate the grant;
(D)    Recommend the U.S. Treasury initiate suspension or debarment proceedings under Part 180 of Title 2 of the C.F.R.;
(E)    Withhold further federal awards for the project or program; or
(F)    Take other remedies that are legally available.
93:10-5-3.  Individual Proceedings
(a)    In an individual proceeding, all parties shall be afforded an opportunity for hearing after reasonable notice.
(1)    Notice of hearing shall be mailed to the last known address of all parties by registered mail at least fifteen (15) calendar days in advance of the hearing.
(2)    The notice shall include the time, date, location and statement of the matters asserted.
(3)    The notice shall also include a statement of the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held and a reference to the particular sections of the statutes, rules, and grant agreement provisions involved.
(b)    Hearings will be conducted by one of the following methods, as determined by the BGB:
(1)    By the BGB; or
(2)    By a hearing officer designated by the BGB.
(c)    The hearing authority may require the furnishing of information; the attendance of witnesses; and the production of books, records, papers or other objects as may be necessary and proper for the purposes of the hearing.
(d)    Any party to a proceeding may take depositions of witnesses in the same manner as provided by law in civil actions before courts of record and such depositions may be admitted into evidence subject to the right of objection at the time of the hearing in accordance with the law.
(e)    The hearing shall be conducted in an orderly manner by the hearing examiner or Chairman of the BGB. The rules of evidence shall be those specified by Article II of the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act.
(f)    The Chairman of the BGB, or hearing examiner, shall rule upon the admissibility of evidence and objections thereto, and shall rule upon other motions or objections arising in the course of the hearing.
(g)    A record of the hearing, by means of tape recording or shorthand notes, will be made of all hearings conducted, unless the hearing authority designates otherwise. A transcript of the proceeding shall not be transcribed except upon written application and a cash deposit provided by the requesting party sufficient to pay for having the record transcribed.
(h)    The record of the hearing and the file containing the pleadings will be maintained in a place designated by the Executive Director in counsel with the Chairman of the BGB.
(i)    At any individual hearing not heard by a majority of the members of the BGB, the decision, if adverse to a party to the proceeding, shall not be made until a proposed order is served upon the parties and an opportunity is afforded to each party adversely affected to file exceptions and present brief and oral argument to the BGB. The proposed order shall be accompanied by a statement of the reasons therefore and for each issue of fact or law necessary to the proposed order, prepared by the person who conducted the hearing, or by one who has read the record. Exceptions must be filed with the Executive Director of the OBO within ten (10) calendar days of mailing the proposed order to the complainant. If exceptions are filed, the Executive Director shall set the time and the place for the BGB to consider the proposed order and the exceptions to it, and cause notice of such time and place to be mailed to the complainant. Such time shall not be less than twenty (20) calendar days after such notice is mailed. Briefs in support of exceptions must be filed with the BGB at least seven (7) calendar days before such hearing. The complainant may personally or through counsel, be present and present oral argument to the BGB in support of the exceptions. If no exceptions are filed, the BGB will consider the proposed order at its next regular or special meeting, or at such other time as is convenient to the BGB.
(j)    A final order adverse to a party in an individual proceeding shall be in writing or stated in the record. A final order shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, separately stated. Findings of fact, if set forth in statutory language, shall be accompanied by a concise and explicit statement of the underlying facts supporting the findings. A copy of the order shall be mailed forthwith to each party.
(k)    All hearings before the BGB or its designated hearing officer shall be conducted in accordance with the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S., §§ 250-323.
[OAR Docket #23-683; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 5.  Rules of Practice
[OAR Docket #23-684]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
Part 1. General
165:5-1-4. Office location; office hours; records [AMENDED]
165:5-1-6. Time computations and extensions; effective date [AMENDED]
165:5-1-9. Telephone or videoconference participation [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Fees
Part 1. General Provisions
165:5-3-1. Fees, fines and bonds [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Commencement of a Case
Part 3. Oil and Gas
165:5-7-6. Drilling and spacing unit establishment or modification [AMENDED]
165:5-7-9. Well location exception [AMENDED]
165:5-7-12. Applications; determination of allowables [AMENDED]
165:5-7-38. License for pulling pipecasing and plugging wells [AMENDED]
Part 5. Public Utilities
165:5-7-60. Reciprocity of final orders between states - electric companies [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Subsequent Pleadings
165:5-9-4. Intervention and parties of record [AMENDED]
165:5-9-5. Joinder and consolidation of parties and proceedings [AMENDED]
Subchapter 13. Initial and Subsequent Proceedings
165:5-13-2. Setting of cases [AMENDED]
165:5-13-3. Hearings [AMENDED]
165:5-13-5. Exceptions to Report of Administrative Law Judge [AMENDED]
Subchapter 15. Orders
165:5-15-1. General form and procedure [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; Article IX, Sections 18 and 19 of the Oklahoma Constitution, 17 O.S. §§ 1-3, 17 O.S. § 39.2, 17 O.S. § 52, 17 O.S. §§ 166.1 and 166.1a, 17 O.S. § 306, 27A O.S. § 1-3-101, 47 O.S. § 230.24, 47 O.S. § 1120, 52 O.S. §§ 87.1 et seq., 52 O.S. § 139, 52 O.S. §§ 287.1 et seq., 52 O.S. §§ 309 et seq, 62 O.S. § 34.57, 68 O.S. § 607, and 75 O.S. § 314.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on February 8, 2023.
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 7, 2023 through March 28, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 21, 2023, and March 28, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 28, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules remove the Commission's physical and mailing addresses and instead state that the information shall be posted on the Commission's website, clarify that documents filed with the Court Clerk will be deemed received when filed via the Electronic Case Filing ("ECF") system or manually, add information to each order regarding the effective date, allow Administrative Law Judges to appear and conduct hearings remotely without the agreement of the parties, remove the requirement that the party requesting to use the telephone or videoconference service pay for it, align the submission of exhibits to be the same process for in-person, clarify that returned payments apply to physical and electronic payments, add a fee for Remover license as a result of separating the Above Ground Storage Tank ("AST") Licensee into AST Installer and AST Remover licenses in OAC 165:26, add new fees related to motor carrier applications to encourage electronic submission, require an entry of appearance be filed following the granting of intervention in a case, clarify when a motion for intervention is not necessary, clarify the process to consolidate cases and to consolidate for hearing purposes only, clarify when exceptions are heard by the Oil and Gas Appellate Referee versus the Commission and clarify the process to set the hearing, establish a time period for exhibits to be provided prior to a hearing, clarify the process for requesting exceptions, and clarify how and when Commission orders are sent.
CONTACT PERSON:
Darren Ferguson, Deputy General Counsel and Agency Rules Liaison, Office of General Counsel, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-522-5491, Darren.Ferguson@occ.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
PART 1.  GENERAL
165:5-1-4.  Office location; office hours; records
(a)     Principal office. The principal office and mailing address of the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is in the Jim Thorpe Building, 2101 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105 will be posted on the Commission's website. The mailing address is P. O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73152-2000.
(b)     Regional service areas. The Commission has two regional service areas described as the Eastern Regional Service Area and the Western Regional Service Area. The Eastern Regional Service Area shall consist of the land east of Oklahoma State Highway 99. The Western Regional Service Area shall consist of the land west of that highway. The establishment of these regional service areas shall not limit the services available from either regional service office.
(c)     Eastern regional service office. In the Eastern Regional Service Area, the Commission maintains a regional service office in Tulsa, Oklahoma, at an address listed on the Commission's website.
(d)     Western regional service office. In the western regional service area, the Commission's principal office serves as the regional service office.
(e)     Telephonic communication service. A system shall be maintained at the Commission to provide for telephone and/or videoconference communication service for all hearings.
(f)     Office hours. For each regional service office or other office described in (a) through (d) of this Section, office hours shall be from 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., each day except Saturday, Sunday, and any legal holiday proclaimed by the Governor or official agency closing. Public records that are not available in the ECF System, when implemented, or on the Commission's website may be viewed during regular office hours. Copies of public records retained in the Court Clerk's Office may be obtained from 8:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
(g)     Exercise of Commission authority. The Commission, or any person exercising its authority, may meet and exercise its official powers and functions at any location in the State of Oklahoma.
(h)     Oil and gas filings. When applications for oil and gas development, administrative applications, and any other related oil and gas matters are filed, the Applicant may select either regional service office as the venue. All filings must be made using the ECF System, unless otherwise authorized, directed, or instructed by the Court Clerk, the Commission rules, the User Manual, or Commission order.
(i)     Central records. The central record of all filings with all regional service offices shall be maintained in the regional service office of the Corporation Commission located in Oklahoma City.
(j)     Court Clerk. All persons filing documents with the Court Clerk shall file through the ECF System, unless otherwise authorized, directed, or instructed by the Court Clerk, the Commission rules, the User Manual, or Commission order. Any documents authorized to be filed in paper instead of through the ECF System shall be filed with the Court Clerk at the Commission's principal office unless the Court Clerk directs otherwise. No document will be mailed to anyone who files through the ECF System or who obtains an immediate file-stamped copy, unless a self-addressed postage pre-paid envelope large enough for the return of a file-stamped or processed copy is provided. All documents shall be deemed received upon the date file-stamped by the Court Clerk, subject to the provisions of OAC 165:5-1-5(g) via the ECF system or manually. Filing of any document shall not be complete except upon payment of all applicable fees required by law or by the rules of this Chapter. Filing of any document with the Court Clerk shall be deemed filing with the Secretary.
165:5-1-6.  Time computations and extensions; effective date
(a)     Computation of time. In computing any period of time prescribed by statute, by the rules of this Chapter, or by order of the Commission, the day of the act, event, or default from which the designated period of time begins to run shall be omitted and the last day of the designated period shall be included, unless the last day falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday or official agency closing, in which case the period is extended to include the next day which is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday or official agency closing. Additionally, in computing any such period of time of five (5) calendar days or less, any period of time that would otherwise begin to run on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday or official agency closing will begin to run on the next business day after the day of the act, event, or default from which the designated period of time begins to run. This computation of five (5) calendar days or less shall not be applicable to OAC 165:5-13-5.
(b)     Extension of time. Whenever an act is by the rules of this Chapter or by order of the Commission required or allowed to be done at or within a specified time, the Commission may, in its discretion upon its own motion or upon motion of any person, after notice and hearing, order the period extended if the order therefore is made prior to expiration of the period originally prescribed or as extended by previous order. Statutory time limits cannot be extended by the Commission.
(c)     Effective date of orders. Every order of the Commission issues and is effective, unless an effective date is otherwise stated in the order, the date such order is signed by the Commissioners or by the Secretary upon approval of the Commissioners. Every order shall contain the language: "Done and performed this day of". Periods of time prescribed by the order, or by statute, or by the rules of this Chapter shall run from the "Done and performed" date.
165:5-1-9.  Telephone or videoconference participation
(a)    In an unprotested hearing, testimony by witnesses, appearances by parties of record, and arguments made by parties of record may be offered by telephone or videoconference, unless the Commission or Administrative Law Judge determines that the presence of the witnesses or parties of record in the courtroom is necessary for the effective and efficient presentation of evidence or argument.
(b)    In a protested hearing, testimony by witnesses, appearances by parties of record, and arguments made by parties of record may be offered by telephone or videoconference with the consent of all parties of record and the Commission or Administrative Law Judge. With the agreement of all parties, the Administrative Law Judge may conduct a hearing remotely by videoconference. It shall be the responsibility of the proponent of telephone or videoconference testimony or argument to obtain the required consent before the hearing. No continuance shall be granted for failure to obtain the required consent.
(c)    The cost of telephone or videoconference service shall be paid by the party requesting its use. If participation through a telephone or videoconference service in a proceeding is sought, the proponent must indicate the capability to establish the participation using itshis or her own digital device or other means of access.
(d)    A proceeding conducted by telephone or videoconference shall be conducted in the same manner as if the parties had appeared in person, and the Commission or Administrative Law Judge presiding over the matter may exercise all powers consistent with the proceeding.
(e)    In any proceeding conducted by telephone or videoconference, the remote location(s) shall be considered an extension of the courtroom and held before the Commission or Administrative Law Judge who is presiding. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge's pronouncements, instructions, recommendations and/or rulings shall have the same force and effect as if all participants had been physically present in the courtroom. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge shall consider and rule on any objections of a party of record prior to beginning the proceeding.
(f)    An oath administered by the Commission or Administrative Law Judge in a proceeding conducted by telephone or videoconference shall have the same force and binding effect as if the oath had been administered to a person physically present in the courtroom.
(g)    In any proceeding conducted by telephone or videoconference, a court reporter, who can see (if videoconference) and hear the witness and other participants, may record notes and transcribe the proceeding without being physically present in the same location as either the Commission or Administrative Law Judge or the remote participants.
(h)    In any proceeding conducted by telephone or videoconference, an interpreter, who can see (if videoconference) and hear the witness and other participants, may provide interpreter services without being physically present in the same location as either the judge or the remote participants.
(i)    Any system used for conducting a proceeding by telephone or videoconference shall conform to the following minimum requirements:
(1)    Participants shall be able to see (if videoconference), hear, and communicate with each other simultaneously;
(2)    Participants shall be able to see (if videoconference), hear, and otherwise observe any physical evidence or exhibit presented;
(3)    Video and sound quality shall be adequate to allow participants to observe demeanor and nonverbal communications and to clearly see (if videoconference) and hear what is taking place to the same extent as if they were present in the courtroom;
(4)    When feasible, a party and the party's attorney should be allowed to communicate privately off the record by use of a private communication facility (cellphone, landline, facsimile, Skype, etc.) during the proceeding, or during a break. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge is not required to provide a private communication facility if none is available.
(j)    Any pleading, other document, or exhibit used in a proceeding conducted by telephone or videoconference may be transmitted between the Commission's location and any remote site by electronic means, including, but not limited to, facsimile, scan, or electronic mail address. Signatures on any document transmitted by electronic means shall have the same force and effect as an original signature.
(k)    Unless otherwise ordered by the Commission or Administrative Law Judge, any original exhibit offered and/or admitted into evidence from a remote site shall be transferred by the moving party to the court reporter within three (3) business days of the close of the proceeding. If no court reporter was utilized during the proceeding, the Commission or Administrative Law Judge shall instruct the moving party regarding the transmission and custody of the exhibit. Exhibits shall be provided consistent with OAC 165:5-13-3(e)(1).
(l)    Any stipulation/waiver of any right to be present in the courtroom shall be obtained at the commencement of the proceeding, either on the record or in writing. A written stipulation/waiver shall be filed in the causecase and made a part of the record.
(m)    Within three (3) business days following the hearing, each witness testifying by telephone or videoconference shall be required to sign an affidavit verifying the witness's identity, affirming that the witness was provided copies of all documents presented or relied upon, and exhibits offered and/or admitted into evidence, to which the witness testified during the hearing, and affirming that the testimony was unassisted and not prompted or directed by any person. Said affidavit shall be filed in the causecase prior to the issuance of an order. A copy of the filed affidavit shall be submitted to the Commission or Administrative Law Judge. Appendix "K" to this Chapter contains a sample affidavit.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Fees
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS
165:5-3-1.  Fees, fines and bonds
(a)     General.
(1)     Exceptions to filing fees. For each initial application in each category listed in (b) of this Section, a filing fee shall be paid by the person seeking to file or submit the document, unless the document is filed under authorization of and in the name of an instrumentality of the State of Oklahoma.
(A)    Filing fees shall not apply to any subsequent pleading or amended application except a Form 1000 required in OAC 165:10-3-1(b)(1)(A) through (E) and OAC 165:10-3-1(c).
(B)    No filing fee shall be required for any application filed pursuant to OAC 165:10-3-31, Use of vacuum at the well head.
(C)    No filing fee applicable to the conservation docket shall be required for any Notice of Intent to Mediate filed with the Commission pursuant to OAC 165:5- 23-1 et seq. A per participant fee provided in OAC 165:5-3-1(b)(1)(L) shall be charged for any informal dispute resolution procedure that commences.
(D)    No filing fee shall be paid by a party filing a protest to an adverse action of the Commission pursuant to the International Fuel Tax Agreement ("IFTA") or the International Registration Plan ("IRP").
(E)    No filing fee shall be paid by a customer filing a Consumer Services docket application against a public utility.
(F)    No filing fee shall be required for any application filed on the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund ("OSF") docket.
(G)    No filing fee shall be paid by a party filing a protest to a nonconsensual towing Violation Notification issued by the Transportation Division.
(H)    No filing fee shall be paid by a small business requesting the Commission to review its rules to determine whether or not the rules in question should be amended, repealed, or redrafted, pursuant to 75 O.S. § 250.10.
(2)     Filing fees. Any filing fee assessed by this Section shall be due and paid at the time of filing of the document. Neither the Court Clerk's Office nor any division of the Commission shall accept an application subject to a filing fee until the required fee is paid. No filing fee shall be refundable. For documents that are being filed in paper form, all associated filing fees must be paid and the documents submitted to the Court Clerk's Office for filing prior to 3:30 p.m. to allow for document processing within established hours of operation.
(3)     Other fees. Any other fee assessed by this Section shall be due and payable at the time the service is requested. No service shall be rendered before payment of the prescribed fee. No such other fee shall be refundable.
(4)     Negotiable instruments. Fees paid by negotiable instruments shall be made payable to the "Oklahoma Corporation Commission." Negotiable instruments include personal checks, cashier checks, certified checks, and money orders. Foreign checks must be payable through a United States bank in United States funds.
(5)     Returned payments. In accordance with 62 O.S. § 34.57, a fee shall be assessed on each check payment, either physical or electronic, returned to the Commission as a result of the refusal of the bank upon which the checkpayment was drawn to honor the same. Upon the return of any check by reason of the refusal of the bank to honor it, the Commission may file a bogus check complaint with the appropriate district attorney. In the event that a payment transaction for any fee, fine or bond fails, the Commission reserves the right to require payment of that fee, fine or bond, and any future fee, fine or bond owed to the Commission by the same individual or entity, to be made by cash, cashier check, certified check, money order or another secured form of payment.
(b)     Schedule of filing fees.
(1)     Oil and gas fees.
(A)    Commercial disposal well application - $1,500.00
(B)    Commercial earthen pit application - $1,250.00
(C)    Commercial soil farming site application - $1,250.00
(D)    Commercial recycling facility application - $1,000.00
(E)    Noncommercial injection or disposal well application - Form 1015 - $250.00
(F)    Commercial facilities annual fee due on October 1 of each year:
(i)    Commercial earthen pit facility - $750.00
(ii)    Commercial soil farming facility - $750.00
(iii)    Commercial recycling facility - $750.00
(G)    Conservation docket, pollution docket, and gas gathering base applications - $200.00
(H)    Emergency application on the conservation or pollution docket - $250.00
(I)    Permit to drill - Form 1000:
(i)    Directional well - $350.00
(ii)    Horizontal well - $400.00
(iii)    Multiunit well - $600.00
(iv)    Vertical well - $350.00
(J)    Expedited permit to drill - Form 1000:
(i)    Directional well - $600.00
(ii)    Horizontal well - $600.00
(iii)    Multiunit well - $800.00
(iv)    Vertical well - $600.00
(K)    Temporary permit to drill - Form 1000:
(i)    Directional well - $350.00
(ii)    Horizontal well - $350.00
(iii)    Multiunit well - $350.00
(iv)    Vertical well - $350.00
(L)    Notice of Intent to Mediate pursuant to Chapter 23 of this Chapter - $5.00 per participant
(M)    Permit for one-time land application of materials - Form 1014S - $150.00
(N)    Expedited permit for one-time land application of materials - Form 1014S - $250.00
(O)    Tax exemption application filed pursuant to OAC 165:10-21 - $100.00
(P)    Transfers of well operatorship - Forms 1073 and 1073I - single well - $25.00
(Q)    Transfers of well operatorship - Forms 1073IMW and 1073MW - multiple wells -$250.00
(R)    Notification of intent to plug - Form 1001 - $100.00
(S)    Operator agreement-annual fee-Form 1006B-based on the number of unplugged wells for which the operator is responsible according to Commission records:
(i)    No wells being operated - $100.00
(ii)    From 1-25 wells - $250.00
(iii)    From 26-100 wells - $500.00
(iv)    From 101-500 wells - $750.00
(v)    Over 500 wells - $1,000.00
(T)    Fluid disposal/injection reports:
(i)    Commercial disposal well fluid disposal report-Form 1012C-semiannual per well-$500.00
(ii)    Noncommercial disposal and injection well and LPG storage well report-Form 1012-annual per well-$25.00
(iii)    Noncommercial disposal and injection well and LPG storage well report-Form 1012-more than 100 wells-annual fee-$2,500.00
(U)    Permit to use earthen pit, noncommercial disposal or enhanced recovery well pit for temporary storage of saltwater, and pit associated with commercial disposal well surface facility-Form 1014:
(i)    Capacity of pit less than or equal to 10,000 barrels-$250.00
(ii)    Capacity of pit greater than 10,000 barrels-$1,000.00
(V)    Permit for seismic operations-Form 1000S-$100.00
(W)    Application for temporary exemption from well plugging-Form 1003A-$100.00
(X)    Permit to vent or flare gas from well-Form 1022-$50.00
(Y)    Application for multiple zone well completion, production of well through a multiple choke assembly, and commingling of well production-Form 1023-$50.00
(2)     Transportation fees.
(A)    Transportation docket application - $500.00
(B)    Other transportation fees:
(i)    Intrastate license.
(I)    Original application filing fee - $100.00
(II)    Sub application filing fee - $100.00
(III)    Renewal application filing fee - $50.00
(IV)    Reinstatement application filing fee - $100.00
(V)    Name change application filing fee - $50.00
(VI)    Identification device or per vehicle fee - $7.00
(ii)    Deleterious Substance License Permit application filing fee - $350.00
(iii)    International Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA) fees.
(I)    IFTA decal - $2.00 per vehicle per decal set
(II)    IFTA reinstatement fee - $100.00
(III)    IFTA manual application processing fee for fleet size over 25 vehicles - $100.00 per application. No fee is applicable if filed electronically.
(iv)    Trailer registration processing fee per trailer registered through the IRP System - $2.00
(v)    Temporary registration and fuel permit fees (a $10.00 services fee is added to each permit in this unit):
(I)    Temporary registration (72 hour trip permit) - $12.00
(II)    Temporary fuel permit (120 hours) - $25.00
(III)    Unladen or hunters permit (45 days) - $25.00
(vi)    Harvest permit fees (power units only).
(I)    Thirty day permit - $20.00 per axle
(II)    Sixty day permit - $35.00 per axle
(III)    15 day extension - $8.75 per axle
(vii)    Transportation Network Company annual permit fee - $5,000.00
(viii)    Household goods certificate fees:
(I)    Original application filing fee - $350.00
(II)    Sub application filing fee - $300.00
(III)    Renewal application filing fee - $300.00
(IV)    Reinstatement application filing fee - $250.00
(V)    Name change application filing fee - $50.00
(VI)    Identification device or per vehicle fee - $7.00
(ix)    Apportioned commercial motor vehicle registration services fee - $100.00 per vehicle (apportioned)
(x)    Apportioned commercial motor vehicle registration application reprocessing fee -$100.00 per application
(xi)    Apportioned commercial motor vehicle registration manual processing fee for fleet sizes over 25 vehicles - $25.00 per vehicle. No fee is applicable if filed electronically.
(xixii)    Application for lawful fence - $500.00. If the Transportation Division determines a lawful fence is required to be constructed by the railroad, the railroad shall have sixty (60) days from the date of notice to refund the application filing fee to the landowner
(3)     Utility fee. Public utility docket application - $100.00
(4)     Enforcement fee. Enforcement docket application - $100.00
(5)     Petroleum storage tank fees.
(A)     Application fee. The fee to file an application on the Petroleum Storage Tank/Indemnity Fund docket is $100.00, unless the document is filed under authorization of and in the name of an instrumentality of the State of Oklahoma. Filing fees shall not apply to any subsequent pleading or amended application.
(B)     Variance review fee. The fee for administrative review of a Petroleum Storage Tank Division variance application is $250.00.
(C)     Annual storage tank permit fee. Owners of regulated petroleum storage tanks, whether in use or not, are required to pay an annual permit fee as follows:
(i)    For petroleum storage tanks - $25.00 per tank or tank compartment.
(ii)    For noncommercial agricultural underground storage tanks containing petroleum products - $10.00 per tank.
(iii)    For any tank installed or permanently closed during a calendar year, the full yearly fee shall be assessed.
(iv)    Invoices will be mailed out approximately 60 days in advance of the due date as noted on the invoice.
(v)    If invoices are unpaid after the due date, a second invoice is mailed out which includes a failure to pay penalty, as found in 17 O.S. § 308.1, and provides 30 days to pay the invoice balance.
(vi)    If the invoice balance is unpaid after the 30 days, a letter is mailed to the Owner with the outstanding fees and informing the Owner that the permit is expired.
(vii)    If the invoice balance remains unpaid, a Fuel Specialist may shut down the regulated petroleum storage tank.
(D)     UST Installer License. The fees for an Underground Storage Tank Installer License are:
(i)    Application fee - $50.00
(ii)    License fee - $100.00
(iii)    Annual License renewal fee - $100.00
(E)     Environmental Consultant License. The fees for an Environmental Consultant License are:
(i)    Application fee - $50.00
(ii)    License fee - $100.00
(iii)    Annual License renewal fee - $100.00
(F)     UST Remover License. The fees for an Underground Storage Tank Remover License are:
(i)    Application fee - $50.00
(ii)    License fee - $100.00
(iii)    Annual License renewal fee - $100.00
(G)     AST LicenseeInstaller License. The fees for an Aboveground Storage Tank Licensee Installer License are:
(i)    Application fee - $50.00
(ii)    License fee - $100.00
(iii)    Annual License renewal fee - $100.00
(H)     AST Remover License. The fees for an Aboveground Storage Tank Remover License are:
(i)    Application fee - $50.00
(ii)    License fee - $100.00
(iii)    Annual license renewal fee - $100.00
(HI)     Vapor Monitor Well Technician License. The fees for a Vapor Monitor Well Technician License are:
(i)    Application fee - $50.00
(ii)    Examination fee- $25.00
(iii)    License fee - $100.00
(iv)    Annual License renewal fee - $100.00
(IJ)     Groundwater Monitor Well Technician License. The fees for a Groundwater Monitor Well Technician License are:
(i)    Application fee - $50.00
(ii)    License fee - $100.00
(iii)    Annual License renewal fee - $100.00
(JK)     Antifreeze Permit. The manufacturer of any antifreeze displayed, distributed, manufactured, marketed, produced, sold, used and/or offered for sale or resale, held with intent to sell, or transported within the State of Oklahoma is required to pay the following fees:
(i)    Application fee - $100.00 per brand per type
(ii)    Annual permit renewal fee - $100.00 per brand per type
(c)     Certified copies. A fee of $1.00 per copied page is charged for each copy of an order or other document on file with the Commission certified by the Secretary, in addition to the fees specified in (d) of this Section.
(d)     Other fees. The following fees shall be charged and collected at the time of request for same; none of which shall ever be refundable:
(1)    Certificate of non-development (maximum of one quarter section) - $10.00
(2)    Copies of any file or order -
(A)    Non-certified copies - $0.25 per page; certified copies $1.00 per page
(B)    Postage - actual cost
(3)    Batch reproduction on continuing basis (per page) - $0.25
(4)    Copy of any document prepared in OCC offices (per page) - $0.25
(5)    Current ownership/lienholder information - $1.00 per vehicle record page
(6)    Computer generated title history - $5.00 per vehicle
(7)    Manual title history - $7.50 per vehicle
(8)    Copy of lien release - $7.50 per vehicle
(9)    Certified copy of lien release - $10.00 per vehicle
(10)    Certified copy of title history - $10.00 per vehicle
(11)    Preparation of the record on appeal to the Oklahoma Supreme Court - $200.00
(e)     Computer data processing documents. Reproduction of documents or informational searches involving computer data processing services will be in accordance with 51 O.S. § 24A.5.
(f)     Document search fee. Except where provided otherwise by law, where the request for document copying and/or mechanical reproduction is solely for commercial purpose or clearly would cause excessive disruption of the Commission's essential functions, then a fee of $10.00 per hour (minimum of one hour) shall be charged to recover the direct cost of document search.
(g)     Copy fees waived. Copy fees for non-certified documents listed above, that are less than ten (10) pages will be waived.
(h)     Electronic payments.
(1)    "Nationally recognized" credit card means any instrument or device, whether known as a credit card, credit plate, charge plate, debit card, or by any other name, issued with or without fee by an issuer for the use of the cardholder in lieu of a check, as defined by 12A Oklahoma Statute § 3-104(f), in obtaining goods, services or anything else of value or for the use of the cardholder in obtaining such goods, services, or anything else of value on credit and which, in either case, is accepted by over one thousand merchants in this state. The Commission shall determine which nationally recognized credit card will be accepted for any payments due and owing to the Commission.
(2)    Implementation of payment by nationally recognized credit card and other means of electronic payments will be phased in over a period of time as determined by the Commission.
(3)    The Commission will verify that sufficient credit is available before acceptance of credit card to ensure that no loss of state revenue will occur by the use of such card. If a person is at a designated receiving point and credit is not available, the person then has the opportunity to pay by other methods accepted by the Commission.
(4)    The Commission may add an amount equal to the amount of the service charge incurred, not to exceed four percent (4%) of the amount of such payment as a service charge for the acceptance of such nationally recognized card.
(5)    Persons wishing to pay by credit card must be willing to submit normally required credit card information to the Commission. This includes, but is not limited to: card type (VISA, etc.), card number, card expiration date, card holder name as shown, and three-digit security personal identification number (PIN). The Commission assumes no liability for unauthorized use of this information.
(6)    "Electronic payment" refers to any transfer of funds, other than a transaction originated by check, draft, or similar paper instrument, which is initiated through electronic means, as to order, instruct, or authorize a financial institution to debit or credit an account.
(7)    "Electronic terminal" means an electronic device, other than a telephone operated by a person, through which a person may initiate an electronic payment.
(8)    "Financial institution" means a State or National bank, a State or Federal savings and loan association, a mutual savings bank, a State or Federal credit union, or any other person who, directly or indirectly, holds an account belonging to another person.
(9)    "State" means any State, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any political subdivision of any of the foregoing.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Commencement of a Case
PART 3.  OIL AND GAS
165:5-7-6.  Drilling and spacing unit establishment or modification
(a)    Notice of hearing relating to drilling and spacing units shall be published one time at least fifteen (15) days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation published in Oklahoma County, Oklahoma, and in a newspaper of general circulation published in each county in which lands embraced in the application are located.
(b)    When an applicant proposes to establish, vacate, alter, modify, amend, or extend a drilling and spacing unit, the application and notice shall be served by the applicant no less than fifteen (15) days prior to the date of the hearing, by regular mail, upon each person or governmental entity having the right to participate in production from the proposed drilling and spacing unit or the existing drilling and spacing unit.
(c)    A plat or plats shall be attached to each application for an order to establish a drilling and spacing unit or units or to extend existing spacing within a common source or sources of supply, which plat shall show the spacing units requested together with any spacing units abutting or overlapping the area to be spaced, and any abutting spacing units in all spaced formations. A production plat, type log, and any other documents necessary to support the requested relief [e.g. isopach map or structure of the target zone(s)] shall also be submitted at the hearing in the case and if requested, submitted to the Technical Services Department for review as soon possible after that request, and prior to such hearing. An amended plat shall be provided at the time of the hearing in the event drilling and spacing units have been established after the application was filed and prior to the hearing to reflect the status of the spacing at the time of the hearing.
(d)    An application to extend spacing from an adjacent drilling and spacing unit shall state in the body of the application the order number that created the spacing in the adjacent unit that applies to the common sources of supply which are sought to be extended by the application. Such request to extend spacing and citation to such order number shall be placed in the special relief paragraph of the notice of hearing.
(e)    Where a well has not been commenced to or completed in the common source of supply sought to be spaced, notice of hearing for an order to vacate, alter, amend, extend, or change a prior spacing order shall be served and published as required in (a) of this Section. Such request to vacate, alter, amend, extend, or change a prior spacing order shall be placed in the special relief paragraph of the notice of hearing.
(f)    Where two or more orders have issued spacing a common source of supply and such spacing orders have resulted in there being a conflict either as to the size of the unit or as to a common source of supply or a conflict as to the nomenclature of the common source of supply, then the applicant seeking to vacate, alter, amend, or change one of the prior spacing orders shall either file an application to construe and modify the conflicting orders or may amend a relevant application to accomplish the same result. Notice of hearing shall be served and published as required upon the commencement of a proceeding.
(g)    The Commission may issue an order establishing horizontal well units for a common source of supply. A horizontal well unit may be established for a common source of supply for which there are already established non-horizontal drilling and spacing units, and said horizontal well unit may include within the boundaries thereof more than one existing non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit for the common source of supply. Upon the formation of a horizontal well unit that includes within the boundaries thereof one or more non-horizontal drilling and spacing units, the Commission shall provide that such horizontal well unit exists concurrently with one or more of such non-horizontal drilling and spacing units, and each such unit may be concurrently developed. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Commission may vacate any non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit upon a proper showing of a change of conditions or change in knowledge of conditions to justify such vacation or deletion, and any such request to vacate or delete any such non- horizontal drilling and spacing unit may be included in and made a part of any application to form one or more horizontal well units.
(1)    In any spacing proceeding to establish or form a horizontal well unit, the application filed in such proceeding shall set forth and describe any non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit that exists concurrently with such horizontal well unit, including the API numbers of the well or wells located in any such non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit.
(2)    The order entered in such proceeding shall describe any non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit that exists concurrently with the horizontal well unit, including the API numbers of the well or wells located in such non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit. The order establishing or forming a horizontal well unit that exists concurrently with any non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit shall state, based on the evidence presented, that the consent in writing required by subsection (h) of this Section has been obtained and filed or that a waiver of such consent requirement as authorized by subsection (i) of this Section has been granted by the Commission.
(h)    No order of the Commission authorizing a horizontal well unit that overlies any existing well, or portion of any existing drilling and spacing unit with any existing well, producing from the same common source of supply shall be entered until:
(1)    at least fifty percent (50%) of the ownership having a right to drill in each such well and drilling and spacing unit consents in writing to the formation of such horizontal well unit and such written consent or consents are filed with the Court Clerk of the Commission in the applicable spacing proceeding or otherwise entered into the record in such proceeding; or
(2)    such consent is waived by the Commission. Provided, however, in the event any such order is entered by the Commission without the written consent required above or a waiver of such consent, any horizontal well unit purported to be formed by such order for which such consent is required shall not be effective until such consent is filed with the Court Clerk of the Commission in such spacing proceeding or is otherwise entered into the record of such proceeding or such consent is waived by the Commission. Requests for such consent must be sent by restricted mail to the owners having the right to drill in any existing well and/or drilling and spacing unit producing from the same common source of supply as the proposed horizontal well unit. In addition, if the boundaries of the horizontal well unit do not encompass such existing drilling and spacing unit in its entirety, then the application and notice for the horizontal well unit shall be served by the applicant no less than fifteen (15) days prior to the date of the hearing, by regular mail, upon each person or governmental entity having the right to participate in production from the existing drilling and spacing unit.
(i)    Any written consent to the order required under subsection (h) of this Section shall not be a waiver of, nor commitment of, any rights of such owners in either the existing production or the proposed horizontal well unit. If the required percentage of consent cannot be obtained, the applicant may make application to the Commission for a waiver of the consent requirement, and upon a showing of good cause by the applicant, the Commission may waive the consent requirement. For purposes of this subsection, a showing of good cause means applicant must present sufficient testimony and evidence, and the Commission must find in the order, that applicant has established the following:
(1)    Due diligence was exercised to locate each owner having a right to drill in any existing well and/or any existing drilling and spacing unit producing from the same common source of supply as the proposed horizontal well unit;
(2)    A bona fide effort was made to obtain the required percentage of consent;
(3)    Alternate methods of development are inadequate to prevent waste and to protect correlative rights unless the consent requirement is waived and the proposed horizontal well unit created; and
(4)    Any correlative rights or vested rights, or both, of owners in the existing well(s) and/or drilling and spacing unit(s), and in the proposed horizontal well unit, will be adequately protected if the consent requirement is waived and the proposed horizontal well unit created.
(j)    If a horizontal well unit formed under subsection (g) of this Section is determined to exist concurrently with any previously formed non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit, or any portion thereof, the order forming such horizontal well unit shall provide that each concurrently existing unit may be separately developed in that a well may be drilled into, completed in, and produce hydrocarbons from the same common sources(s) of supply in each such concurrently existing unit, with production from such well to be governed by and allocated pursuant to the applicable unit. If a unit is determined to exist concurrently with another unit and is subject to a prior pooling order, which is in full force and effect, the rights relinquished by a non-participating owner which became vested under such prior pooling order in the same common source(s) of supply shall be treated and recognized as vested rights in any subsequent pooling proceeding covering such other unit. An owner, who participated as a working interest owner under an existing pooling order covering a unit that exists concurrently with another unit, need not participate or continue to participate as a working interest owner under any other pooling order covering such other unit in order to continue to participate as a working interest owner under such existing pooling order; provided, however, if such owner does not participate as a working interest owner under such other pooling order, such owner shall relinquish its rights to participate in any well drilled under or otherwise covered by such other pooling order.
(k)    Any spacing order entered by the Commission pursuant to 52 O.S. §87.1(f) which forms a horizontal well unit or units that exceed six hundred forty (640) acres plus tolerances and variances as allowed by statute shall provide that the contemplated lateral length of the initial horizontal well drilled in any such horizontal well unit formed by such order shall be at least seven thousand five hundred (7,500) feet. Such spacing order shall further provide that upon the initial horizontal well drilled under such spacing order reaching its total depth, an affidavit shall be filed in the spacing proceeding in which such order is entered setting forth the lateral length of such initial horizontal well in any horizontal well unit formed by such order.
(l)    At the hearing, except for good cause shown, a production plat, type log, and any other exhibits necessary to support the requested relief (e.g. isopach map or structure of the target zone(s)) shall be provided.
(m)    The Commission may request that the record be reopened to receive additional information from the applicant prior to issuance of an order.
165:5-7-9.  Well location exception
(a)    The application, which shall be limited to a single well, and notice of hearing for an order granting a well location exception for a well drilled or to be drilled for oil or gas into any common source of supply at a location other than that authorized by a rule or order of the Commission shall be served by the applicant no less than fifteen (15) days prior to the date of the hearing, by regular mail, upon the operator of each well located in an adjoining or cornering tract of land or drilling and spacing unit, currently producing from the same common source of supply, toward which tract or unit the well location has been or is proposed to be moved. The application and notice of hearing shall specify the name(s) of the well(s) and operator(s) of the well(s) towards which the location exception well is moving. The application and notice of hearing also shall be served, in the manner required above, upon the operator of any well located in an adjoining or cornering tract of land or drilling and spacing unit currently producing from the same common source of supply, if the requested well location is closer to the offsetting well than would be permitted under the applicable well location tolerances or requirements. Provided, however, if the applicant, or any other entity to be authorized to drill or otherwise operate the subject well, is the operator of any of the wells identified above, then the application and notice of hearing shall be served, in the manner required above, upon each working interest owner in any such well. This Section shall apply to any location exception for any completion in a non-horizontal well, for any completion interval in the lateral of any horizontal well, and for the completion in the non-horizontal portion of a horizontal well.
(b)    An application and notice of hearing for an order granting a well location exception pursuant to this Section may also include a request for an exception to OAC 165:10-3-28(c)(2). The application and notice of hearing shall be served in the manner required in subsection (a) of this Section, and shall contain the information required in such subsection. Where an application includes requested relief for both a location exception and exception to OAC 165:10-3-28(c)(2), such application shall separately identify respondents for the location exception and respondents for the exception to OAC 165:10-3-28(c)(2).
(c)    For any well other than a directionally drilled well or a horizontal well, the application and notice of hearing for a location exception shall specify the proposed or actual surface location of the well expressed in feet from the two nearest boundaries of the drilling and spacing unit, or, if no drilling and spacing unit has been established, from the two nearest boundaries of the mineral estate(s) upon which the well will be or has been drilled.
(d)    For a directionally drilled well, the application and notice of hearing for a location exception shall specify the proposed or actual subsurface location of the well's entry into and the proposed or actual subsurface location of the well's exit from the common source of supply for which the location exception is requested, expressed in feet from the two nearest boundaries of the drilling and spacing unit or, if no drilling and spacing unit has been established, from the two nearest boundaries of the mineral estate(s) upon which the well will be or has been drilled. For purposes of this section, a directionally drilled well does not include a horizontal well.
(e)    For a horizontal well, the application and notice of hearing for a location exception shall specify the proposed or actual subsurface location of the completion interval, as defined by OAC 165:10- 3-28, within the common source of supply for which the location exception is requested, expressed as the distance in feet from the nearest boundaries of the drilling and spacing unit or, if no drilling and spacing unit has been established, from the nearest boundaries of the mineral estate(s) upon which the well will be or has been drilled.
(f)    The proposed subsurface location for a directionally drilled well or a horizontal well may be described in the application and notice of hearing as no closer than specified footages from the nearest boundaries of the drilling and spacing unit or, if no drilling and spacing unit has been established, from the nearest boundaries of the mineral estate(s) upon which the well will be drilled.
(g)    At the time of hearing, a well's location, as set out in the application and notice of hearing, may be changed to another location that is not closer to the boundaries of the drilling and spacing unit or mineral estate(s) described in the application and notice of hearing, that is not closer to any offsetting well the operator of which, or any working interest owner in which, was required to be notified under this section, and that does not require notice to additional operators or working interest owners under this section.
(h)    If at the time of the hearing on an application for a directionally drilled well or a horizontal well, the applicant does not have the results of the well survey required by OAC 165:10-3-27, then the Administrative Law Judge may recommend the issuance of an interim order granting the application and, if so, shall consider whether to adjust the allowable based on the potential locations of the well in each common source of supply for which the order is sought. All potential locations shall be considered in the interim order. If the directionally drilled well or the horizontal well is drilled and completed in compliance with the interim order, the well shall be assigned the allowable as set out in the interim order.
(i)    If a directionally drilled or horizontal well is drilled and completed in compliance with an interim order approving a location exception, and no party of record has requested a hearing, the Commission may issue a final order approving the location exception, without further hearing, based on an administrative review by the Commission's Technical Services Department of the following documents, which the applicant must file with the Court Clerk for the record: the directional survey, the well completion report, and an "as drilled" plat constructed from the results of the directional survey. The applicant must also submit a proposed final order to the Commission's Technical Services Department in any case handled through the administrative review process. In the event the directional survey shows that a directionally drilled or horizontal well was not drilled and completed in compliance with the interim location exception order, the applicant shall notify the Commission and all of the parties entitled to notice in the original hearing establishing the interim order by filing an amended application in the case setting forth the actual subsurface locations of the well and by giving proper notice thereof. The actual subsurface locations of the well will be considered at a hearing conducted on the date specified in the interim location exception order, or on such date to which the hearing is continued.
(j)    Notice of hearing on an application for an order granting a well location exception for a well drilled or to be drilled for oil or gas at a location other than that authorized by a rule or order of the Commission shall be published pursuant to OAC 165:5-7-1(n)(2).
(k)    An application for an exception to the minimum distance requirements specified by OAC 165:10-3-28 (c)(2) and (c)(3) for the completion interval of a horizontal well, the notice of hearing for such exception proceeding and any resulting order in such proceeding shall include the API numbers of the existing well or wells being encroached upon by such horizontal well requiring such exception. Such application shall set forth the proposed subsurface location tolerance area or if available, the actual subsurface locations of the completion interval of such horizontal well requiring such exception. The proposed or actual subsurface locations, as applicable, of the completion interval of the horizontal well requiring such exception may be amended at the hearing on any such application. If the results of the well survey required by OAC 165:10-3-28(c)(1) are not available at the time of the hearing on such an application, the Administrative Law Judge may recommend the issuance of an order granting the application on an interim basis. Any final order issuing in such a proceeding shall specify the distance in feet between the completion interval of the subject horizontal well and the well or wells being encroached upon by such horizontal well requiring such exception.
(l)    At the hearing, except for good cause shown, a production platand if requested, submitted to the Technical Services Department for review prior to such hearing, a twelve section or otherwise appropriately sized production plat depicting offset wells located in units adjoining or cornering the units which are the subjects of the application, and a data sheet containing the legal locations, API numbers, operator names, total depths, completion dates, names of producing zones, cumulative production, status, and names of such offset wells, and the plugging dates of such wells, if applicable, and any other exhibits necessary to support the requested relief (e.g. isopach map or structure of the target zone(s), and cross section) shall be provided.
(m)    The Commission may request that the record be reopened to receive additional information from the applicant prior to issuance of an order.
165:5-7-12.  Applications; determination of allowables
(a)     Scope. Any applicant seeking relief under 165:10-13-5, 165:10-13-8, 165:10-15-1(g), 165:10- 15-1(h), 165:10-15-16, and 165:10-15-18 shall have the option to proceed under either (b) through (i) of this Section or 165:5-7-1 and other applicable rules of practice.
(b)     Application. The application shall be submitted on Form 1030 to the Technical Department of the Oil and Gas Conservation Division of the Oklahoma Corporation Commission, 2101 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73105-4993at an address posted on the Commission's website, for filing with the Commission.
(c)     Exhibits. The applicants shall submit at the time of filing of the application all exhibits and data.
(d)     Notice of application.
(1)     Contents. The notice of the application shall contain the following information:
(A)    A brief description of the relief sought.
(B)    The terms of the protest period.
(C)    The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant or its representative, whom anyone may contact for additional information concerning the application.
(2)     Form. The applicant shall prepare the notice of application to substantially comply with the example shown in Appendix H to this Chapter.
(3)     Persons to whom notice shall be given. The applicant shall serve a copy of the application and notice of the application upon:
(A)    The operator of the well subject to the application if the applicant is not the operator of the subject well.
(B)    All operators of wells offsetting the well for which the relief is requested.
(C)    All working interest owners of all offset wells operated by the applicant, if the applicant is the operator of the subject well.
(4)     Publication of notice. The applicant shall have the notice of application published pursuant to 165:5-7-1(n)(2).
(5)     Proof of notice. The applicant shall file a certificate of mailing and an affidavit of publication to show compliance with the requirements of this Section.
(e)     Protests.
(1)     Timely protests. Any person objecting to the granting of the application shall file a written protest within the appropriate protest period. If a protest is filed after filing of the application but before commencement of the protest period, said protest shall be deemed to have been timely filed.
(2)     Late protests.
(A)    Failure to file a protest within the prescribed time period shall be deemed a waiver of protest.
(B)    The Commission may reinstate a late filed protest upon motion for good cause shown.
(3)     Form of protest. The protestant shall file with the Court Clerk of the Commission its protest which shall be entitled "Protest" and which shall contain the following information:
(A)    Caption from application.
(B)    Title - Protest.
(C)    Name, address, and telephone number of protesting parties.
(D)    Reasons for protest.
(4)     Notice to applicant of protest. The Protestant shall serve the applicant with a copy of his protest within five (5) days after filing of the protest.
(f)     Protest periods.
(1)     Initial protest period. Any person objecting to the granting of the application shall file a written protest during the protest period, which shall run for fifteen (15) days from the date of the latest of the following events:
(A)    Filing of the application.
(B)    Filing of all required exhibits.
(C)    The date on which the last publication was made.
(D)    The date of completion of service of process on all respondents in the case.
(2)     Additional protest period. After expiration of the protest period, an additional fifteen (15) day protest shall run if:
(A)    The applicant amends the application to change the location or nature of the requested relief; or
(B)    The applicant files amended applications in order to re-notice original parties, or initially notice new parties to the application.
(C)    The additional protest period shall run from the date of completion of service of the amendment on the respondents in the case.
(g)     Unprotested applications.
(1)     Administrative review. If the application is unprotested, the Oil and Gas Conservation Division shall review the application without a hearing, and it shall report its finding to the Commission concerning what relief, if any, should be granted.
(2)     Remedies after denial or modification. If the Oil and Gas Conservation Division recommends denial or modification of the relief requested by the application, the applicant may move for a hearing de novo or file exceptions to the report pursuant to 165:5-13-5.
(h)     Withdrawal of protest. If all protests are withdrawn, the application shall be remanded for administrative review under (g) of this Section.
(i)     Protested applications.
(1)     Hearing required.
(A)    A hearing shall be required on each timely protested application except as provided in (h) of this Section.
(B)    A hearing may also be requested by the subject operator upon denial of the administrative application by the Technical Department of the Oil and Gas Conservation Division of the Commission.
(2)     Notice of hearing. The applicant shall obtain a hearing date from the Court Clerk. The applicant shall send a copy of the notice of hearing to each party of record not later than fifteen (15) days before the hearing date.
(3)     Contents of notice. The notice of hearing shall contain the date, time, and place of hearing.
(4)     Form. The applicant shall prepare the notice of hearing to comply substantially with the form shown in Appendix I to this Chapter.
165:5-7-38.  License for pulling pipecasing and plugging wells
(a)    The application for a license for pulling pipe and plugging wells shall state:
(1)    The name of the applicant.
(2)    The names and addresses of all partners, chief officers, and directors.
(3)    The experience of applicant.
(4)    Evidence of financial responsibility of the applicant.
(5)    The counties in which the applicant will operate.
(b)    Notice that an application has been filed shall be published by the applicant in a newspaper of general circulation in Oklahoma County, Oklahoma, and in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county where the applicant's principal place of business is located. The notice shall include:
(1)    The name of the applicant.
(2)    Generally what operations the applicant intends to conduct.
(3)    That applicant is financially responsible.
(4)    The counties in which applicant will operate.
(c)    If a written objection to the application is filed within fifteen (15) days after the application is published or if a hearing is required by the Commission, the application shall be set for hearing and notice thereof shall be given in the same manner as required for the filing of the application. If noobjection is filed and the Commission does not require a hearing, the matter shall be presented administratively to the Manager of Field Operations who shall file a report and make recommendations to the Commission.
(d)    A license may be suspended or revoked for good cause upon application, after notice and hearing.
     Each application for approval of a license for pulling casing and plugging wells shall be submitted to the Oil and Gas Conservation Division Field Operations Department on Form 1055. See OAC 165:10-11-1.
PART 5.  PUBLIC UTILITIES
165:5-7-60.  Reciprocity of final orders between states - electric companies
     To facilitate the efficient use of resources for the benefit of ratepayers, when any electric company serves less than ten percent (10%) of its total customers or five hundred (500) of its members for rural electric cooperatives within the State of Oklahoma, the electric company may elect to allow all or a portion of the rates, charges, and terms and conditions of service within the Oklahoma portion of such service territory be those prescribed by the regulatory agency of the adjacent state within which the central office of the electric company is located; provided that, to demonstrate this election:
(1)    The electric company shall file before the Commission an application to adopt the rates, charges, and terms and conditions of service prevailing in an adjacent state within ten (10) business days after the initiation of a ratemaking proceeding before the regulatory agency of the adjacent state. The electric company shall also file all pleadings and exhibits with this Commission and provide to the Office of the Attorney General of Oklahoma within ten (10) days subsequent to filing the pleadings and exhibits with the adjacent state where such central office or offices are located.
(2)    The electric company shall provide notice to the individual customers located within Oklahoma, by direct mail and/or bill insert, concerning any hearing set before the Commission to adopt the rates, charges, and terms and conditions of service pursuant to this Section, including notice that a protest may be filed with the Director of the Public Utility Division, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Jim Thorpe Office Building, 2101 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105Commission's Court Clerk.
(3)    Such rates, charges, and terms and conditions prescribed by an order of the regulatory agency of such adjacent state, after hearing on the merits have been held in such adjacent state, shall be filed with the Corporation Commission of the State of Oklahoma, along with the final order and recommendation of the administrative law judge, if any, of the regulatory agency of the adjacent state.
(4)    To ensure that rates and terms and conditions of service resulting from this Section are just and reasonable and consistent with Oklahoma law and prevailing Corporation Commission policy, the electric company shall also file the following:
(A)    A statement or testimony clearly describing the methods and standards relied upon in the ratemaking proceeding in the adjacent state, specifying any distinctions between the methods and standards prevailing in Oklahoma and in that adjacent state;
(B)    A statement or testimony clearly describing how costs were allocated between Oklahoma customers and customers in other jurisdictions during the proceedings in the adjacent state; and
(C)    A statement or testimony clearly describing any deviation from the Electric Utility Rules, OAC 165:35, or other applicable rules prescribed by the Commission, that would result from the use of the rates, charges, and terms and conditions of service in the adjacent state.
(5)    Upon the submission of all filings identified in paragraphs 3 and 4 above, the Commission shall hold a hearing to receive testimony and/or statements from interested parties concerning if adjustments should be made to the rates, charges, and terms and conditions of service set in the adjacent state to set just and reasonable rates, charges, and terms and conditions of service consistent with Oklahoma law and prevailing Corporation Commission policy.
(6)    If the Commission fails to enter a final order determining the rates, charges, and terms and conditions of service of an electric company pursuant to this Section within one hundred twenty (120) days after the submission of all filings identified in paragraphs 3 and 4 above, the electric company may impose interim rates not to exceed the rates listed on the filed rates and charges approved by the final order of the regulatory agency of the adjacent state, subject to being refunded by order of the Commission once a final order has been entered.
(7)    The rates, charges, and terms and conditions of service prescribed by a final order of the regulatory agency of an adjacent state shall not be adopted by the Commission if:
(A)    The electric company has not filed before the Commission, within the last four (4) years, an application under this Section or an application under the Commission's Minimum Standard Filing Requirements In Support of a Request by a Public Utility Doing Business in Oklahoma for a Proposed General Rate Change, OAC 165:70; or
(B)    The rates resulting from the order would result in an average increase of more than ten percent (10%) above the currently applicable rates for the electric company's customers in Oklahoma.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Subsequent Pleadings
165:5-9-4.  Intervention and parties of record
(a)    Any person, not subject to subsection d of this Section, interested in the subject matter of a causecase may become a party of record by filing a motion for intervention, which shall be accompanied by a notice of hearing and set for hearing on the next motion docket or as agreed to by the parties of record and the Commission or Administrative Law Judge. The Commission or an Administrative Law Judge shall prescribe terms and conditions upon which intervention shall be allowed. Upon the issuance of an order granting the intervention, an entry of appearance for each representative of the intervening party shall be filed in the case within three (3) business days.
(b)    An intervention shall follow the form provided elsewhere in this Chapter for an application or a response. An intervention may seek affirmative relief.
(c)    Each motion to intervene, accompanied by the notice of hearing, shall be served to all parties of record.
(d)    The following persons shall become a party of record by filing an entry of appearance or orally stating an entry of appearance at any proceeding regarding the causecase without needing to file a motion for intervention:
(1)    A person named as a respondent,
(2)    A person entitled to individualpersonal notice in a causecase,
(3)    A person seeking to intervene with the agreement of the applicant, all parties of record, and the Commission or Administrative Law Judge,
(4)    The Attorney General, or
(5)    The U.S. Department of Defense and/or the Federal Executive Agencies, but only for causescases filed on the PUD docket.
(e)    Nothing herein shall waive the requirement that attorneys comply with OAC 165:5-1-10.
(f)    Each representative of any party of record stating an oral entry of appearance pursuant to subsection d shall file an entry of appearance in the case within three (3) business days after such appearance is made.
(g)    Persons appearing pro se may file an entry of appearance but are not required to do so.
165:5-9-5.  Joinder and consolidation of parties and proceedings
(a)    An application may join two or more separate requests for relief or Commission action, or may request two or more types of action or relief in the alternative. An application relating to oil and gas conservation or pollution shall seek only one type of relief.
(b)    A complaint may join two or more grounds of complaint, whether or not arising out of the same transaction, but each separate action complained of shall be separately stated and numbered.
(c)    Two or more complainants may join in one complaint if their respective complaints are against the same person or persons and involve substantially the same subject matter and grounds.
(d)    The Commission or Administrative Law Judge may consolidate for hearing purposes only, two or more causes for hearingcases where such action would be just, without an order. Where separate cases have been consolidated for the purpose of hearing only, separate orders, each with the caption of the appropriate case, must be entered regarding hearing results. Any exhibits introduced during the hearing shall be filed in each case.
(e)    Upon motion by a party, the Commission may consolidate separate cases to proceed as one action. Following the entry of an order granting a motion to consolidate, all filings and exhibits in any of the consolidated cases shall be made in the case with the lowest case number, unless a different case number is indicated in the consolidation order; and all filings must include in the caption, the style and case number of each case that has been consolidated.
(ef)    Upon motion of a person, or upon its own motion, with or without notice, the Commission may order a person to be joined as a party of record and to appear in a proceeding. The movant shall cause a copy of such order to be served by regular mail, facsimile, electronic mail or in person upon such party of record.
(fg)    Upon motion of a person, or upon its own motion with or without notice, the Commission may order a proceeding dismissed as to one or more parties of record.
SUBCHAPTER 13.  Initial and Subsequent Proceedings
165:5-13-2.  Setting of cases
(a)     General. All hearings on the merits shall be set before an Administrative Law Judge, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.
(b)     Specially set. By a motion, the applicant or any party of record or respondent may, at any time up to commencement of a hearing, request of the Commission that a case be specially set before the Commission for hearing. The Commission may advance any case by sua sponte order at any time.
(c)     Exceptions. For purposes of OAC 165:5-13-5, all exceptions to reports on hearings on the merits in oil and gas dockets, as defined in OAC 165:5-5-1(a)(15), PSD, and petroleum storage tank related EN dockets matters on the GG, CD, PD, EN, SF, PSD and US dockets shall be heard by the Commission en banc unless referred to an Oil and Gas Appellate Referee, unless the Commission orders otherwise. Hearing dates for exceptions are to be secured prior to filing from a docket clerk at the time of filingthe Oil and Gas Appellate Referee, or a docket clerk, if the Referee is unavailable prior to filing. The exceptions will be heard on that date or as soon thereafter as may meet the convenience of the Commissionas practicable. Exceptions in all other matters shall be set before the Commission en banc, unless the Commission orders otherwise; hearing dates are to be secured from the Commission's Chairman's office prior to filing. Exceptions to reports on hearings on the merits on the MCC docket shall be governed by OAC 165:5-13-5(a)(3).
(d)     Authority of Administrative Law Judge. An Administrative Law Judge shall exercise all of the powers of the Commission in the conduct of a case. An Administrative Law Judge shall rule upon admission of evidence, and objections thereto, and upon any other motion or objection arising during the pendency of the case until the issuance of the report of the Administrative Law Judge. Review of a ruling of an Administrative Law Judge shall be by exceptions pursuant to OAC 165:5-13-5, and any objection to a ruling or other action of such Administrative Law Judge not included in such exceptions and amendments thereto, shall be deemed to have been waived.
(e)     Hearings on the PUD and OSF dockets. All hearings in cases filed pursuant to OAC 165:70, OAC 165:59, 17 O.S. §286, or 18 O.S. §438.31 et seq. shall be given priority status on the PUD and OSF dockets in order to comply with 17 O.S. §139.106, 17 O.S. §152, 17 O.S. §137 (I), 17 O.S. §286, and 18 O.S. §438.31 et seq. and any time periods prescribed therein.
(f)     Hearings on the Petroleum Storage Tank docket. All hearings regarding the exercise of the Commission's adjudicative authority pursuant to the Oklahoma Petroleum Storage Tank Consolidation Act, 17 O.S. §§301 et seq. shall be given priority status on the Petroleum Storage Tank docket ("PSD") in order to comply with 17 O.S. §330 for the Commission to hear each case within one hundred eighty (180) days from the date of filing. See also OAC 165:5-21-9.
165:5-13-3.  Hearings
(a)     Conduct of hearing. Every hearing shall be conducted by the Commission, by an Administrative Law Judge or as provided at OAC 165:5-13-2.1. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge shall call the causecase for hearing, after which proceedings shall be had as provided in this Section.
(b)     Scope of hearings. The Commission, Administrative Law Judge or Public Utility Referee may state the purpose and scope of the hearing, or the issues upon which evidence will be heard.
(c)     Appearances. EveryEach person appearing shall enter hisan appearance by stating histheir name and addressif applicable, the name of the party being represented. Thereafter, such person shall be deemed a party of record, unless specified otherwise.
(1)    An individual may appear on his or her own behalf.
(2)    A corporation may appear only by its attorney; provided, that a representative other than an attorney may appear on behalf of a corporation for the sole purpose of making a statement or indicating corporate policy. Such a representative may not assume an advocate's role or introduce evidence or examine witnesses in the proceeding.
(3)    Should an attorney no longer represent the party of record, a withdrawal of appearance must be filed with the Court Clerk and provided to all parties of record and the party who was previously represented by the attorney. The withdrawal of appearance must include the name and last known address of the party.
(d)     Protests.
(1)    Except as otherwise permitted by this Chapter, any person desiring to protest the relief requested by the application shall file a notice of protest with the Court Clerk's office.
(2)    Before the protest is filed or within a reasonable time thereafter, the protestant shall give notice to the applicant in a manner designed to advise the applicant of the protest prior to the scheduled hearing. Once filed, the written protest shall be provided to the applicant by regular mail, facsimile, electronic mail or in person.
(3)    A protesting party initially may announce a protest to a case at the time of hearing, but shall subsequently file a written protest within a reasonable amount of time after the announcement of such protest.
(4)    A protest form will be available on the Commission's website; however, such form is not required as long as the filed protest document contains the required information.
(5)    A filed protest must contain the caption of the application and contact information of the protestant or the protestant's attorney.
(6)    The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to causescases filed on the PUD or OSF dockets.
(e)     Preliminary matters. The following shall be addressed prior to receiving evidence:
(1)    Unless otherwise ordered by the Commission or Administrative Law Judge, or unless otherwise required by these rules, all exhibits intended to be offered into evidence shall be sent by electronic mail to the court reporter and Administrative Law Judge at least one (1) business day prior to the opening of an uncontested hearing.
(12)    The applicant, or staff counsel, may offer preliminary exhibits, including documents necessary to present the issues to be heard, notices, proof of publication and orders previously entered in the causecase.
(23)    Ruling may be made on any pending motions, including requests pertaining to discovery.
(34)    Stipulations of fact and stipulated exhibits shall be received. No stipulation, settlement, or agreement between the parties of record, their attorneys, or representatives with regard to any matter involved in any causecase shall be enforced unless it shall have been reduced to writing and signed by the parties of record or the representatives authorized by the rules of this Chapter to appear for them and thereafter made a part of the record, or unless it shall have been dictated into the record by them during the course of a hearing or incorporated into an order bearing their written approval. This Section does not limit a party of record's ability to waive, modify, or stipulate any right or privilege afforded by the rules of this Chapter, unless precluded by law.
(45)    Parties of record may, in the discretion of the Commission or Administrative Law Judge, make opening statements where appropriate.
(56)    Any other preliminary matters appropriate for disposition prior to presentation of evidence.
(f)     Rules of evidence. The Commission and Administrative Law Judges shall follow the rules of evidence applied in the district courts of Oklahoma, except that such rules may be relaxed where the Commission or the Administrative Law Judge deems it in the public interest to do so. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge may exclude evidence upon objection made thereto, or the evidence may be received subject to final ruling by the Commission. An exception will be deemed to be preserved by a party of record objecting to evidence upon an adverse ruling thereon. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge may exclude inadmissible evidence on his own motion and may direct cumulative evidence be discontinued.
(g)     Order of proof. The applicant or complainant who institutes a causecase may open and close the proof. Staff counsel may open and close a causecase instituted by the Commission or a staff member. Intervenors may be heard immediately following parties of record with whom allied in interest. In all cases, the Commission or Administrative Law Judge shall designate the order of proof.
(h)     Examination of witnesses. Every witness shall be examined and cross-examined orally and under oath by not more than one attorney for each party of record. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge shall designate the order of examination and may limit the scope of examination and cross-examination.
(i)     Adverse party. A party of record may call an adverse person or an officer or employee of an adverse person, in which case the witness may be impeached and otherwise cross-examined.
(j)     Record. All testimony shall be taken on the record.
(k)     Prepared testimony. Written testimony of a witness in form of questions and answers, or a narrative statement may be received in lieu of direct examination upon authentication by the witness under oath. In order to be received and relied upon at the hearing, such testimony and exhibits shall be filed and served upon all parties of record not less than five (5) days prior to the hearing, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission for good cause shown. The witness shall be subject to cross-examination. A written or oral statement by or a communication from any person, or a statement or resolution of a political subdivision, trade association, civic organization, or other organization may be received without cross-examination, but will be considered only as argument and not as proof of any recitation of facts contained therein.
(l)     Documents.
(1)    A photographic copy of a document which is on file as part of the official records of the Commission will be received without further authentication.
(2)    A photographic copy of a public record certified by the official custodian thereof will be received without further authentication. A written statement by such custodian of records that no record or entry of described character is found in his records shall be received as proof of absence of such record.
(3)    A photographic copy of a document may be substituted for the original at the time the original is offered in evidence.
(4)    A document may not be incorporated in the record by reference except by permission of the Commission or Administrative Law Judge. Any document so received must be precisely identified.
(5)    The Commission or Administrative Law Judge may require that documents such as rate compilations, statistical or technical data, and tabulated material be filed at a designated time prior to the hearing.
(6)    The Commission or Administrative Law Judge may require that additional copies of exhibits be furnished for use by the Commission, staff counsel, and other parties of record.
(7)    When evidence is offered which is contained in a book or document containing material not offered, the person offering the same shall extract or clearly identify the portion offered.
(8)    The Commission or Administrative Law Judge may permit a party of record to offer a document as part of the record within a designated time after conclusion of the hearing.
(m)     Exhibits. All exhibits shall be identified by docket type and causecase number on the first page of each exhibit prior to submitting to the Commission. All pages of each exhibit shall have continuous pagination. Each exhibit shall conform to the following requirements:
(1)    all exhibits must be legible;
(2)    the font must be no smaller than a size 10 font;
(3)    if multiple colors are used, the colors shall be sufficiently distinguishable; and
(4)    data shall be included on each exhibit to support the relief requested.
(n)     Summary exhibits. An exhibit consisting of a compilation or summary of evidence, records, data, statistics, or other similar information may be received in evidence in addition to or in lieu of the evidence summarized, provided:
(1)    The evidence summarized has been admitted in evidence, or is admissible; and
(2)    If the evidence summarized has not been admitted, the person offering the summary exhibit has made the evidence summarized available for inspection by all other parties of record, or the information is published in a generally recognized publication which is available to all parties of record. It shall be the responsibility of a person offering a summary exhibit to comply with this subsection in advance of the hearing, and failure to make the evidence summarized available for inspection shall be grounds for refusal to admit the exhibit.
(o)     Closing the record. The record shall be closed when all parties of record have had an opportunity to be heard and to present evidence, and the Commission or Administrative Law Judge announces that the record of testimony and exhibits is closed. Unless a decision is then announced, the matter will be taken under advisement for later decision.
(p)     Briefs. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge may require or allow the filing of briefs by the parties of record, and may designate the order and time for filing briefs and reply briefs.
(q)     Reopening the record. Any person may file and serve, by regular mail, facsimile or electronic mail on all parties of record a motion to reopen the record for further hearing or to offer additional evidence. The Commission, at any time prior to final order in the causecase, may, upon such motion or upon the motion of the Commission, order the record to be reopened for the purpose of taking testimony and receiving evidence which was not or could not have been available at the time of the hearing on the merits or for the purpose of examining its jurisdiction. A motion to reopen shall be filed and served in the same manner as provided in OAC 165:5-9-2(b). The motion and notice shall include a statement that if the Administrative Law Judge grants the motion, the record may be reopened the same day or on some other day as the Commission may determine.
(r)     Corrections to transcript. Except as provided in OAC 165:5-13-1(d), an official reporter shall make a stenographic and electronic record of the hearing. Errors claimed to be in a transcription of either a contested or uncontested hearing shall be noted in writing and suggested corrections may be offered to the Commission or Administrative Law Judge who presided at such hearing within ten (10) days after the transcript is filed, unless the Commission or Administrative Law Judge shall permit suggested corrections to be offered thereafter. Suggested corrections shall be served in writing upon each party of record and the Commission or Administrative Law Judge. If not objected to within twelve (12) days after being offered, the Commission or Administrative Law Judge shall direct that such suggested corrections be made and the manner of making them. In the event that parties disagree on suggested corrections, the Commission or Administrative Law Judge, with the aid of argument and testimony from the parties of record, shall then determine the manner in which the record shall be changed, if at all.
(s)     Preparation of report or order. The Commission or Administrative Law Judge may permit or direct any party or parties of record to prepare a proposed report or order in any protested cause case. In unprotested causescases, the applicant shall prepare and submit a proposed Commission order.
(1)    Orders regarding non-emergency applications shall be submitted to the Administrative Law Judge within thirty (30) calendar days of the date the Administrative Law Judge announced the recommendation unless the Administrative Law Judge directs otherwise.
(2)    Proposed orders regarding emergency applications shall be submitted to the Administrative Law Judge within ten (10) business days of the date the Administrative Law Judge announced the recommendation unless the Administrative Law Judge directs otherwise.
(3)    Failure to submit a proposed order to the Administrative Law Judge within the time frame required by this subsection may result in the Administrative Law Judge reopening the record, with five (5) business days' notice to the party or parties of record, and the application being recommended for dismissal unless good cause is shown for the failure to supply the proposed order as required. Notice to the party or parties of record may be provided via electronic mail.
165:5-13-5.  Exceptions to Report of Administrative Law Judge
(a)     Reviewability. Except as provided in OAC 165:5-9-6(c) for rulings on continuances, any report from Administrative Law Judges shall be subject to review in the manner prescribed in this Section. Oral argument before the Commission en banc in an oil and gas related matter is not a matter of right. If a party requests the Commission to hear oral arguments on any exceptions, a separate motion for oral argument of exceptions before the Commission must be filed. The Commission en banc may deny a motion to entertain oral argument on any oil and gas related exceptions without a response being filed or hearing oral presentation on said motion.
(1)     Oral exceptions regarding motions and emergency matters. Any person adversely affected by a decision of an Administrative Law Judge on the motion/emergency docket shall have no more than five (5) days in which to advise the Administrative Law Judge or Oil and Gas Appellate Referee, other parties of record, and the Judicial and Legislative ServicesStaff Counsel of his or her intent to lodge exceptions and any request for oral arguments on the exceptions before the Commission en banc. Written exceptions shall not be required. Oral exceptions shall be set for hearing before the Corporation Commission sitting en banc unless referred to an Oil and Gas Appellate Referee or an Administrative Law Judge, unless the Commission orders otherwise; regarding matters involving issues addressed in Chapters 10, 15, 16, 25, 26, 27, 28, and/or 29. Oral exceptions in all other matters shall be set for hearing before the Commission sitting en banc. Oral exceptions will be set on the next regularly scheduled day for such matters unless:
(A)    The parties agree to another date; or
(B)    The Commission specifies otherwise.
(2)     Exceptions to the report from the hearing on the merits. Any person adversely affected by a report of an Administrative Law Judge from the hearing on the merits shall have ten (10) business days in which to file exceptions to the report before the Commission en banc. To perfect exceptions, written exceptions and notice of hearing for the exceptions must be filed within ten (10) business days after filing of the Report of the Administrative Law Judge. The person filing exceptions shall serve copies of the exceptions and notice of hearing for the exceptions on all parties of record and the Administrative Law Judge or Oil and Gas Appellate Referee below. Such service shall be made not later than five (5) days after the expiration of the ten (10) business day period for filing the exceptions. In exceptions before the Commission en banc arising from the Petroleum Storage Tank and/or Indemnity Fund, an additional ten (10) business days shall be allowed for the filing of cross exceptions. OAC 165:5-13-2 shall govern the setting of the exceptions. If a party desires the Commission en banc to hear oral arguments on any exceptions, a motion for oral argument of exceptions before the Commission en banc must be filed with the exceptions.
(3)     Exceptions to Report from the Motor Carrier Citation Docket. Any party of record adversely affected by a recommendation of an Administrative Law Judge on the Motor Carrier Citation Docket shall have five (5) business days from the date the oral recommendation is made to request a report of the Administrative Law Judge for the purpose of filing written exceptions. The request shall be sent jointly to the Administrative Law Judge who issued the recommendation and all other parties of record. Written exceptions shall be filed within ten (10) business days of issuance of the written report. The hearing on the written exceptions shall be heard by an Administrative Law Judge on the next available Motor Carrier Citation Docket or at the Commission en banc's Commission's discretion.
(b)     Contents of the exceptions. For purposes of (a)(2) of this Section, the written exceptions shall specifically state the findings or portions of the report to which the person takes exception, and in what respect the person alleges the findings and report to be in error. A person may be permitted to amend histhe exceptions, or to present at the initial hearing on exceptions thereon additional grounds for exceptions from the report. A person taking exception from any part of the summary of the evidence stated in the report of the Administrative Law Judge, shall attach to histhe exceptions a transcript or what histhe person deems a correct summary of the pertinent evidence, provided that if the transcript is unavailable at the time of filing of the exceptions, then any person filing exceptions desiring to use a transcript instead of a summary of evidence shall, at the discretion of the Commission en banc, or the Oil and Gas Appellate Referee or Administrative Law Judge to whom the exceptions have been referredwill be heard by, submit the transcript as soon as it is available. In the absence of such a transcript or summary of the evidence, the exceptions shall be considered based on the summary of evidence in the appealed report and, at the discretion of the Commission, or the Oil and Gas Appellate Referee to whom the exceptions will be heard by, the official recording of the proceedings.
(c)     Responses to written exceptions. For purposes of exceptions under (a)(2) of this Section, any other person may file written response to the exceptions within five (5) business days after service thereof prior to the hearing on the exceptions, and may attach thereto a transcript or histhe party's own summary of the pertinent evidence, provided that if a transcript is unavailable at the time of the filing of the exceptions, the party desiring to use the transcript instead of a summary of evidence shall, at the discretion of the Commission en banc, or the Oil and Gas Appellate Referee or Administrative Law Judge to whom the exceptions have been referred will be heard by, submit the transcript as soon as it is available. In the absence of a transcript or written summary of evidence submitted by a party of record, the exceptions shall be considered upon the summary of the evidence in the exceptions to the report and, at the discretion of the Commission or the Oil and Gas Appellate Referee to whom the exceptions will be heard by, the official recording of the proceedings.
(d)     Contents of the Oil and Gas Appellate Referee or Administrative Law Judge Reports. In a case where exceptions are referred to an Oil and Gas Appellate Referee or Administrative Law Judge, such Referee or Administrative Law Judge shall file a written report, stating a recommendation to the Commission to affirm, reverse, or modify the findings of fact or conclusions of law of the Administrative Law Judge below or to remand the causecase for further hearing. The Commission, as the final arbiter, shall enter the order it deems appropriate.
(e)     Scope of review by the Commissioners. With respect to any report, the Commission sitting en banc may affirm, reverse, or modify the findings of fact or conclusions of law of the Administrative Law Judge, or may remand the causecase for further hearing. The Commission shall enter the order in its discretion as it deems appropriate.
SUBCHAPTER 15.  Orders
165:5-15-1.  General form and procedure
(a)     Contents of orders. The Commission may prescribe a standardized format for all orders. Every order of the Commission shall contain the following where appropriate or except where the Commission determines otherwise:
(1)    Caption, case number on the appropriate docket and order number. Every page of the order shall also contain a page number, the applicable subject matter docket listed in OAC 165:5-5-1(a), the docket number assigned to the case by the Court Clerk, and order type, e.g., emergency order, final order, etc.
(2)    Appearances.
(3)    Date and place of all hearings.
(4)    Summary of allegations of applicant, and of all other parties of record.
(5)    Summary of evidence of applicant, and of all other parties of record.
(6)    Findings of fact, containing all ultimate facts found to have been established.
(7)    Conclusions of law, containing:
(A)    All legal conclusions found to be applicable to the facts; and
(B)    The directive of the order stated in concise and mandatory language.
(8)    Signature of the Secretary certifying as to all Commissioners participating in making the order. The signatures of the Secretary and Commissioners participating in the making of the order may be electronic signatures as provided in OAC 165:5-1-14.
(9)    Seal of the Commission.
(10)    Date of filing, and effective date where appropriate.
(b)     Duty to send orders. The Commission shall immediately provide a copy of the order to the applicant all parties listed on the Official ECF service list. Upon the implementation of electronic filing, delivery shall only be made by electronic Except where otherwise specifically provided in this Chapter,Thereafter, the applicant shall thereafter mail or otherwise deliver a copy of the order within five (5) days of the receipt of the order to all partiesany party of record or respondent in the Case not listed on the Official ECF service list and to each respondent in the cause. Where an attorney has appeared of record for a person, service shall be on the attorney.
(c)     Effectiveness of order. The issuance of or effectiveness of an order or its enforcement will not be stayed or postponed by the filing of any motion for rehearing or for other relief therefrom. The Commission may by order stay any order pending further hearing, and may stay or postpone the effective date thereof, or enforcement thereof for such time and on such terms as may be just.
(d)     Order titles and numbers. An order of the Commission, descriptively titled, shall be issued for all motions and other matters set for hearing, except for continuances, and all such orders shall be given an order number; provided that when a motion is withdrawn, no order shall be required to document the withdrawal.
[OAR Docket #23-684; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 10.  Oil & Gas Conservation
[OAR Docket #23-685]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Administration
Part 1. General Provisions
165:10-1-2. Definitions [AMENDED]
165:10-1-4. Citation effective date [AMENDED]
165:10-1-7. Prescribed forms [AMENDED]
165:10-1-8. Notarized forms [NEW]
Part 3. Surety
165:10-1-15. Transfer of operatorship of wells [AMENDED]
Part 5. Spacing
165:10-1-21. General well spacing requirements [AMENDED]
Part 9. Purchasers and Transporters
165:10-1-47. Gas volume reports to Conservation Division [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Drilling, Developing, and Producing
Part 1. Drilling
165:10-3-1. Required approval of notice of intent to drill, deepen, re-enter, or recomplete; Permit to Drill [AMENDED]
Part 3. Completions
165:10-3-17. Well site and surface facilities [AMENDED]
Part 5. Operations
165:10-3-28. Horizontal drilling [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Underground Injection Control
165:10-5-5. Application for approval of injection and disposal operations [AMENDED]
165:10-5-6. Testing and monitoring requirements for injection wells and disposal wells [AMENDED]
165:10-5-7. Monitoring and reporting requirements for wells covered by 165:10-5-1 [AMENDED]
165:10-5-10. Transfer of authority to inject [AMENDED]
165:10-5-11. Notarized reports [REVOKED]
165:10-5-15. Application for order or permit for simultaneous injection well [AMENDED]
Subchapter 10. Brownfield Program
165:10-10-2. Brownfield defined [AMENDED]
165:10-10-3. Administration and enforcement of rules [AMENDED]
165:10-10-4. Determination of Brownfield eligibility [AMENDED]
165:10-10-5. The Commission's Brownfield program process [AMENDED]
165:10-10-9. Assessment and remediation of site [AMENDED]
165:10-10-10. Notice [AMENDED]
Subchapter 17. Gas Well Operations and Permitted Production
165:10-17-7. Well tests [AMENDED]
Subchapter 21. Applications for Tax Exemptions
Part 21. Production from Secondary and Tertiary Recovery Projects [NEW]
165:10-21-101. General [NEW]
165:10-21-102. Refund procedure [NEW]
165:10-21-103. Election of exemption [NEW]
Part 23. Production from Wells Completed with Recycled Water [NEW]
165:10-21-107. General [NEW]
165:10-21-108. Refund procedure [NEW]
165:10-21-109. Election of exemption [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; 17 O.S. § 52, 27A O.S. § 1-3-101, 52 O.S. § 139, and 68 O.S. § 1001.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on February 8, 2023.
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 7, 2023 through March 28, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 21, 2023, and March 28, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 28, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules streamline and clarify the Oil & Gas Conservation rules, update the list of Oil & Gas Conservation Division (OGCD) prescribed forms and eliminate forms, facilitate electronic filing of forms and notarization requirements, clarify requirements regarding transfers of well operations and well spacing requirements, specify disposal requirements in a closed pit system, clarify requirements regarding well site and surface facilities, and clarify general horizontal well requirements. The adopted rules also specify information to be supplied for approval of underground injection wells, clarify casing cementing requirements, transfer of authority, monitoring, reporting, and termination of authority for underground injection wells, and add document requirements for evaluating simultaneous injection well authority. The adopted rules make clarifications to the Brownfield program rules, including providing consistency with federal grant terms, clarifying responsible party liability, requirements for submitting applications and providing electronic submission options, and to allow electronic submission for providing written public comments and requests for public meetings.
The adopted rules also add new Sections to implement the amendments to 68 O.S. §1001 in Enrolled House Bill No. 3568 (2022) regarding exemptions from the levy of gross production taxes.
CONTACT PERSON:
Tracy A. Case, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-4258, tracy.case@occ.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Administration
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS
165:10-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Agent" means any person authorized by another person to act for him.
"Aquifer" means a geological formation, group of formations, or part of a formation that is capable of yielding a significant amount of water to a well or spring.
"Area of exposure" means an area within a circle constructed with the point of escape of poisonous gas (hydrogen sulfide) as its center and the radius of exposure as its radius.
"Associated gas" means any gas produced from a Commission ordered combination oil and gas reservoir in which allowed rates of production are based upon volumetric withdrawals.
"BS&W" means basic sediment and water which is that portion of fluids and/or solids that settle in the bottom of storage tanks and/or treating vessels and is unsaleable to the first purchaser in its present form. BS&W usually consists of water, paraffin, sand, scale, rust, and other sediments.
"Barrel" means 42 (U.S.) gallons at 60 F at atmospheric pressure.
"Basic sediment pit" means a pit used in conjunction with a tank battery for storage of basic sediment removed from a production vessel or from the bottom of an oil storage tank.
"Blowout" means the uncontrolled escape of oil or gas, or both, from any formation.
"Blowout preventer" means a heavy casinghead control fitted with special gates and/or rams which can be closed around the drill pipe or which completely closes the top of the casing.
"Blowout preventer stack" means the assembly of well control equipment including preventers, spools, valves, and nipples connected to the top of the casinghead.
"Business day" means a day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
"Carrier", or "transporter", or "taker" means any person moving or transporting oil or gas away from a lease or from any common source of supply.
"Casing pressure" means the pressure within the casing or between the casing and tubing at the wellhead.
"Choke manifold" means an assembly of valves, chokes, gauges, and lines used to control the rate of flow from the well when the blowout preventers are closed.
"Class II fluids" means substances which are brought to the surface during oil and gas drilling, completion, production and plugging, enhanced recovery, or natural gas storage operations.
"Closed pit system" means steel tanks when designated on an OCC Form 1000, unless otherwise stated, for the handling and storage of drilling fluids and/or other deleterious substances produced, obtained, or used in connection with the drilling, re-entry, or deepening of a well.
"Closure" means the practice of dewatering, trenching, filling, leveling, terracing, and/or vegetating a pit site after its useful life is reached in order to restore or reclaim the site to near its original condition.
"Commercial disposal well" means a well where the operator receives and disposes of Class II fluids from multiple well owners/operators and receives compensation for these services and where the operator's primary business objective is to provide these services.
"Commercial pit" is a disposal facility which is authorized by Commission order and used for the disposal, storage, and handling substances or soils contaminated by deleterious substances produced, obtained, or used in connection with drilling and/or production operations. This does not include a disposal well pit.
"Commercial recycling facility" means a facility that is authorized by Commission order to recycle materials defined as deleterious substances in OAC 165:10-1-2. Such substances must undergo at least one treatment process and must be recycled into a marketable product for resale and/or have some beneficial use. This definition does not include the reuse of drilling mud that was previously utilized in drilling or plugging operations.
"Commercial soil farming" means the practice of soil farming or land applying drilling fluids and/or other deleterious substances produced, obtained, or used in connection with the drilling of a well or wells at an off-site location. Multiple applications to the same land are likely.
"Commission" means the Corporation Commission of the State of Oklahoma.
"Common source of supply" or "pool" means "that area which is underlaid or which, from geological or other scientific data, or from drilling operations, or other evidence, appears to be underlaid by a common accumulation of oil and/or gas; provided that, if any such area is underlaid, or appears from geological or other scientific data or from drilling operations, or other evidence, to be underlaid by more than one common accumulation of oil or gas or both, separated from each other by strata of earth and not connected with each other, then such area shall, as to each said common accumulation of oil or gas or both, shall be deemed a separate common source of supply." [52. O.S.A. §86.1(c)].
"Completion/fracture/workover pit" means a pit used for temporary storage of spent completion fluids, frac fluids, workover fluids, drilling fluids, silt, debris, water, brine, oil scum, paraffin, or other deleterious substances which have been cleaned out of the wellbore of a well being completed, fractured, recompleted, or worked over.
"Condensate" means a liquid hydrocarbon which:
(A)    Was produced as a liquid at the surface,
(B)    Existed as gas in the reservoir, and
(C)    Has an API gravity greater than or equal to fifty degrees, unless otherwise proven.
"Conductor casing" means a casing string which is often set and cemented at a shallow depth to support and protect the top of the borehole from erosion while circulating and drilling the surface casing hole.
"Conservation Division" means the Division of the Commission charged with the administration and enforcement of the rules of this Chapter.
"Contingency plan" is a written document which provides for an organized plan of action for alerting and protecting the public within an area of exposure following the accidental release of a potentially hazardous volume of poisonous gas such as hydrogen sulfide.
"Contractor" means any person who contracts with another person for the performance of prescribed work.
"Cubic foot of gas" means the volume of gas contained in one cubic foot of space at an absolute pressure of 14.65 pounds per square inch and at a temperature of 60°F. Conversion of volumes to conform to standard conditions shall be made in accordance with Ideal Gas Laws corrected for deviation from Boyle's Law when the pressure at point of measurement is in excess of 200 pounds per square inch gauge.
"Date of completion" means:
(A)    For an oil well, the date that the well first produces oil into the lease tanks through permanent wellhead equipment.
(B)    For a gas well, the date of completion of a gas well is the date that gas is capable of being delivered to a pipeline purchaser.
(C)    For a well, which does not produce either oil or gas, is the date on which attempts to obtain production from the well cease.
"Day" means a period of 24 consecutive hours. For reporting purposes, it shall be from 7:00 a.m. to 7:00 a.m. the following day.
"Deleterious substances" means any chemical, salt water, oil field brine, waste oil, waste emulsified oil, basic sediment or mud produced or used in the drilling, development, production, transportation, refining, and processing of oil, gas and/or brine mining.
"Design mud weight" means the planned drilling mud weight to be used. This mud weight is used in the design of the casing strings.
"Design wellhead pressure" means the maximum anticipated wellhead pressure which is expected to be experienced on the inside of the casing string and on wellhead equipment. This pressure is used to design the casing string and to select wellhead equipment with sufficient working pressure rating.
"Development" means any work which actively looks toward bringing in production, such as erecting rigs, building tankage, drilling wells, etc.
"Directional drilling" means intentional changing of the direction of the well from the vertical.
"Director of Conservation" means the person in official charge of the Conservation Division.
"Discharge" means the release or setting free by any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, or dumping of substances.
"Distressed well" means a well authorized by Commission order to produce at an unrestricted rate in the interest of public safety due to technical difficulties which temporarily cannot be controlled.
"Diverter" means a device attached to the wellhead to close the vertical access and direct any flow into a line away from the rig. Diverters differ from blowout preventers in that flow is not stopped but rather the flow path is redirected away from the rig.
"Duly authorized representative" means, for the purpose of underground injection well applications, that person or position having a responsibility for the underground injection well.
"Emergency pit" means a pit used for the storage of excessive or unanticipated amounts of fluids during an immediate emergency situation in the drilling or operation of a well, such as a well blowout or a pipeline rupture. This does not include a spill prevention structure required by local, state, or federal regulations.
"Enhanced recovery operation" means the introduction of fluid or energy into a common source of supply for the purpose of increasing the recovery of oil therefrom according to a plan which has been approved by the Commission after notice and hearing.
"Enhanced recovery well" means a well producing in an enhanced recovery operation in accordance with Commission order.
"Exchangeable Sodium Percentage (ESP)" is the relative amount of the sodium ion present on the soil surface, expressed as a percentage of the total Cation Exchange Capacity (CEC). Since the determination of CEC is time consuming and expensive, a practical and satisfactory correlation between the Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR) and ESP was established. The SAR is defined elsewhere in this Section. ESP can be estimated by the following empirical formula: ESP = 100 (-0.0126 + 0.01475 x SAR) / 1 + (-0.0126 + 0.01475 x SAR).
"Exempted aquifer" means an aquifer or its portion that meets the criteria in the definition of "underground source of drinking water" or in the definition of "treatable water", but which has been exempted according to the procedures in 165:5-7-28 and 165:10-5- 14.
"Excess water" means water that occurs when storm water, meltwater, water derived from incoming product or other surface water sources accumulates on a facility and combines, blends or mixes with a deleterious substance.
"Facility" means, for the purposes of 165:10-21-15, any building(s), parts of a building, equipment, property, or vehicles that are actively engaged in the reuse, recycling, or ultimate destruction of deleterious substances pursuant to 68 O.S. Supp. 1986, §2357.14-§2357.20.
"Field" means the general area underlaid by one or more common sources of supply.
"Flare pit" means a pit which contains flare equipment and which is used for temporary storage of liquid hydrocarbons which are sent to the flare but are not burned due to equipment malfunction. Flare pits may be used in conjunction with tank batteries or wells.
"Flowing well" means any well from which oil or gas is produced naturally and without artificial lifting equipment.
"Fresh water strata" means a strata from which fresh water may be produced in economical quantities.
"Gas" means any petroleum hydrocarbon existing in the gaseous phase.
(A)    Casinghead gas means any gas or vapor, or both, indigenous to an oil stratum and produced from such stratum with oil.
(B)    Dry gas or dry natural gas means any gas produced in which there are no appreciable hydrocarbon liquids recoverable by separation at the wellhead.
(C)    Condensate gas means any gas which is produced with condensate as defined as "condensate".
"Gas allowable" or "allowable gas" means the amount of natural gas authorized to be produced from any well by order of the Commission or as provided by statute.
"Gas lift" means any method of lifting liquid to the surface by injecting gas into the well bore from which production is obtained.
"Gas repressuring" means the injection of gas into a common source of supply to restore or increase the gas energy of a reservoir.
"GOR (Gas/Oil Ratio)" means the ratio of the gas produced in standard cubic feet to one barrel of oil produced during any stated period. Condensate and load oil excepted under 165:10-13-6 shall not be considered as oil for purposes of determining GOR.
"Hardship well" means a well authorized by Commission order to produce at a specified rate because reasonable cause exists to expect that production below said rate would damage the well and cause waste.
"Hydraulic fracturing operations" means operations on a well wherein fluid is applied for the express purpose of initiating or propagating fractures in a target geologic formation.
"Hydrogen sulfide gas (H2S)" means a toxic poisonous gas with a chemical composition of H2S which is sometimes found mixed with and produced with fluids from oil and gas wells.
"Hydrologically sensitive area" means a principal bedrock aquifer, the recharge or potential recharge area of a principal bedrock aquifer, or an unconsolidated alluvium or terrace deposit, according to the Oklahoma Geological Survey "Maps Showing Principal Groundwater Resources and Recharge Areas in Oklahoma" or other maps approved by the Commission.
"Hydrostatic head" or "hydrostatic pressure" means the pressure which exists at any point in the wellbore due to the weight of the column of fluid or gas above that point.
"Illegal gas" means gas which has been produced within the State from any well or wells in violation of any rule, regulation, or order of the Commission, as distinguished from gas produced within the State not in violation of any such rule, regulation, or order which is "legal gas".
"Illegal oil" means oil which has been produced within the State from any well or wells in violation of any rule, regulation or order of the Commission, as distinguished from oil produced within the State not in violation of any such rule, regulation, or order which is "legal oil".
"Intermediate casing" means the casing string or strings run after setting the surface casing and prior to setting the production string or liner.
"Kick" means the intrusion of formation liquids or gas that results in an increase in circulation pit volume. Without corrective measures, this condition can result in a blowout.
"Land application" is the application of deleterious substances and/or soils contaminated by deleterious substances to the land for the purpose of disposal or land treatment; also known as soil farming.
"Lease allowable" means the total of the allowables of the individual wells on the lease.
"Liner" means a length of casing used downhole as an extension to a previously installed casing string to case the hole for further drilling operations and/or for producing operations.
"Meter" means an instrument for measuring and indicating or recording the volumes of gases or liquids.
"Mud" means any mixture of water and clay or other material as the term is commonly used in the industry.
"Multi-well system" means two or more wells that have intersecting well-bores or laterals.
"Multiple zone completion" means the completion of any well so as to permit the production from more than one common source of supply, with such common sources of supply completely segregated.
"Noncommercial pit" means an earthen pit which is located either on-site or off-site and is used for the handling, storage, or disposal of deleterious substances or soils contaminated by deleterious substances produced, obtained, or used in connection with the drilling and/or operation of a well or wells, and is operated by the generator of the waste. This does not include a disposal well pit.
"Normal pressure" means a formation pore pressure, proportional to depth, which is roughly equal to the hydrostatic pressure gradient of a column of salt water (.465 psi/ft).
"Off-site reserve pit" means a pit located off-site which is used for the handling, storage, or disposal of drilling fluids and/or cuttings.
"Oil" or "crude oil", means, for purposes of these regulations, any petroleum hydrocarbon, except condensate, produced from a well in liquid form by ordinary production methods.
"Oil allowable" or "allowable oil" means the amount of oil authorized to be produced from any well by order of the Commission.
"Operator" means the person who is duly authorized and in charge of the development of a lease or the operation of a producing property.
"Overage" means the oil or gas delivered to a carrier, transporter, or taker in excess of the allowable set by the Commission for any given period.
"Owner" means the person or persons who have the right to drill into and to produce from any common source of supply, and to appropriate the production either for himself, or for himself and others.
"Person" means any natural person, corporation, association, partnership, receiver, trustee, guardian, executor, administrator, fiduciary, or representative of any kind, and shall include the plural.
"Plug" means the closing off, in a manner prescribed by the Commission, of all oil, gas, and waterbearing formations in any producing or nonproducing wellbore before such well is abandoned.
"Pollution" means the contamination of fresh water or soil, either surface or subsurface, by salt water, mineral brines, waste oil, oil, gas, and/or other deleterious substances produced from or obtained or used in connection with the drilling, development, producing, refining, transporting, or processing of oil or gas within the State of Oklahoma.
"Pool" See "common source of supply".
"Potential" means the properly determined capacity of a well to produce oil or gas, or both, under conditions prescribed by the Commission.
"Primary well" means a wellbore that, as part of a multi-well system, serves as the conduit through which oil and gas is produced to the surface.
"Producer" See "Operator" or "Owner".
"Production casing" means the casing string set above or through the producing zone of a well which serves the purpose of confining and/or producing the well production fluids.
"Productivity index" means the daily production of oil in barrels per unit pressure differential between the static reservoir pressure and the stabilized flowing pressure during flow at a stated rate.
"Proration period" means:
(A)    The proration period for any well, other than an unallocated gas well, shall be one calendar month which shall begin at 7 a.m. on the first day of such month and end at 7 a.m. on the first day of the next succeeding month unless otherwise specified by order of the Commission.
(B)    The proration period for any unallocated gas well shall be one calendar year which shall begin at 7:00 a.m. the first day of such year and end at 7:00 a.m. on the first day of the next succeeding year unless otherwise specified by order of the Commission.
"Public area" means a dwelling place, a business, church, school, hospital, school bus stop, government building, a public road, all or any portion of a park, city, town, village, or other similar area that can reasonably be expected to be populated by humans.
"Public street" or "road" means any federal, state, county, or municipal street or road owned or maintained for public access or use.
"Public water supply well(s)" or "public water well(s)" means wells in a system for the provision to the public of water for human consumption through pipes or other constructed conveyances, and which wells are identified in a database maintained by the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Purchaser" or "transporter" means any person who acting alone or jointly with any person or persons, via his own, affiliated or designated carrier, transporter, or taker, shall directly or indirectly purchase, take, or transport by any means whatsoever or otherwise remove from any lease, oil or gas, and/or other hydrocarbons produced from any common source of supply in this State, excepting royalty portions from leases owned by that person.
"Radius of exposure" means that radius constructed with the point of escape of poisonous (hydrogen sulfide) gas as its starting point and its length calculated by use of the Pasquill-Gifford equations.
"Reclaimed water" means wastewater from municipal wastewater treatment and/or public water supply treatment plants that has gone through various treatment processes to meet specific water quality criteria with the intent of being used in a beneficial manner.
"Reclaimer" or "reclamation plant" includes any person licensed by the Oklahoma Tax Commission pursuant to 68 O.S.§1015.1 who reclaims or salvages or in any way removes or extracts oil from waste products associated with the production, storage, or transportation of oil including, but not limited to BS&W, tank bottoms, pit and waste oil, and/or waste oil residue.
"Recomplete" or "recompletion" means any operation to:
(A)    Convert an existing well from an injection well or disposal well, to a producing well, or
(B)    Add or change common sources of supply in an existing well.
"Recycling" is the reuse, processing, reclaiming, treating, neutralizing, or refining of materials and by-products into a product of beneficial use which, if discarded, would be deleterious substances.
"Recycling/reuse pit" means a pit which is used for the storage and recycling or reuse of deleterious substances, is located off-site, and is operated by the generator of the waste.
"Re-enter" or "re-entry" is the act of entering a plugged well for the purpose of utilizing said well for the production of oil or gas, for the disposal of fluids therein, for a service well, or for the salvaging of tubing or casing therefrom.
"Regular mail" means first class United States Mail, postage prepaid, and includes hand delivery. Wherever in OAC 165:10 a person is directed to mail by regular mail, such directive shall not preclude mailing by restricted mail.
"Remediation pit" means a pit which is used for the handling, storage, or disposal of deleterious substances and/or soils contaminated by deleterious substances which are relocated to the pit for the purpose of remediating a site which is known to be or suspected to be causing pollution.
"Reserve pit" or "circulation pit" means a pit located either on-site or off-site which is used in conjunction with a drilling rig for the handling, storage, or disposal of drilling fluids and/or cuttings.
"Reservoir" See "common source of supply".
"Reservoir pressure" means the static or stabilized pressure in pounds per square inch existing at the face of the formation of an oil or gas well.
"Reuse" is the introduction (or reintroduction) into an industrial, manufacturing, or disposal process of a material which would otherwise be classified as a deleterious substance. A material will be considered "used or reused" if it is either:
(A)    Employed as an ingredient (including use as an intermediate) in an industrial, manufacturing, or disposal process to make or recover a product.
(B)    Employed in a particular function or application as an effective substitute for a commercial product or non-deleterious substance.
"Rotating head" means a rotating, pressure sealing device used in drilling operations utilizing air, gas, foam, or any other drilling fluid whose hydrostatic pressure is less than the formation pressure.
"Secretary" means the duly appointed and qualified Secretary, Assistant Secretary or Acting Secretary of the Commission, or any person appointed by the Commission to act as such Secretary during the absence, inability, or disqualification of the Secretary to act.
"Separator" means any apparatus for separating oil, gas, and water as they are produced from a well at the surface.
"Service well" means a well that, as part of a multi-well system, is used for drilling laterals, stimulation, or maintenance, or functions in any capacity other than as a conduit to the surface for the production of oil and gas.
"Slick spot" means a small area of soil having a puddled, crusted, or smooth surface and an excess of exchangeable sodium. The soil is generally silty or clayey, is slippery when wet, and is low in productivity.
"Slit trench" means a pit or bermed area at the drilling site used for the temporary storage of drilling fluids and/or cuttings to provide access for equipment to remove the contents off site.
"Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR)" means the index which indicates the relative abundance of sodium ions in solution as compared to the combined concentration of calcium and magnesium ions. It is calculated as follows: SAR = (Na ppm/23.0) / sq. root of [ {(Ca ppm/20.02) + (Mg ppm/12.16)} / 2] where Na=Sodium, Ca=Calcium, and Mg=Magnesium.
"Soil farming" means the application of oilfield drilling or produced wastes to the soil for the purpose of disposing of the waste without being a detriment to water or land; also known as land application.
"Spill containment pit" mean a permanent pit which is used for the emergency storage of oil and/or saltwater spilled as a result of any equipment malfunction.
"Subnormal pressure" means the formation pore pressure, proportional to depth, which is less than a hydrostatic pressure gradient of .465 psi/ft.
"Sulfide stress cracking" means the cracking phenomenon which is the result of corrosive action of hydrogen sulfide on susceptible metals under stress.
"Surface casing" means the first casing string designed and run to protect the treatable water formations and/or control fluid or gas flow from the well.
"Tank bottoms" means the liquids and/or solids in that portion of a storage facility below the sales line or connection that are unsaleable to the crude oil first purchaser in its present form. Tank bottoms may consist of a combination of several elements including, but not limited to, oil, BS&W, and treating fluids.
"Treatable water" means, for purposes of setting surface casing and other casing strings, subsurface water in its natural state, useful or potentially useful for drinking water for human consumption, domestic livestock, irrigation, industrial, municipal, and recreational purposes, and which will support aquatic life, and contains less than 10,000 mg/liter total dissolved solids or less than 5,000 ppm chlorides. Treatable water includes, but is not limited to, fresh water.
"Trenching" means the practice of constructing trenches in or adjacent to a pit for the purpose of relocating all or a portion of the solids so as to facilitate closure.
"Truck wash pit" means a pit used for the temporary storage of fluids generated from the washing or cleaning of a motor vehicle, trailer or container used to transport or store deleterious substances.
"Ultimate destruction" means the treatment of a deleterious substance such that both its weight and volume remaining for disposal have been substantially reduced, and there is no demonstrated process or technology commercially available to further reduce its weight and volume and remove or reduce its harmful properties, if any. For the purposes of demonstrating a substantial reduction in weight and volume, any aqueous portion separated from the balance of a waste that meets drinking water standards or is evaporated into the ambient air shall count toward the weight and volume reduction.
"Underage" means the volume of allowable oil or gas not actually delivered to a carrier, transporter, or taker during any given proration period.
"Underground Source of Drinking Water (USDW)" means an aquifer or its portion which:
(A)    Supplies any public water system; or
(B)    Contains a sufficient quantity of ground water to supply a public water system; and
(i)    Currently supplies drinking water for human consumption; or
(ii)    Contains fewer than 10,000 mg/l total dissolved solids; and
(C)    Is not an exempted aquifer.
"Unit operations" means a unit consisting of a portion of a lease, a lease, or more than one lease or portions thereof which covers contiguous lands containing one or more common sources of supply which has been approved by Commission order as a unit for the purpose of unitized management, after notice and hearing.
"Vacuum" means pressure below the prevailing pressure of the atmosphere.
"Waste" means:
(A)    As applied to the production of oil, in addition to its ordinary meaning, "shall include economic waste, underground waste, including water encroachment in the oil or gas bearing strata; the use of reservoir energy for oil producing purposes by means or methods that unreasonably interfere with obtaining from the common source of supply the largest ultimate recovery of oil; surface waste and waste incident to the production of oil in excess of transportation or marketing facilities or reasonable market demands." [52 O.S.A., 86.2]
(B)    As applied to gas, in addition to its ordinary meaning, shall include economic waste; "the inefficient or wasteful utilization of gas in the operation of oil wells drilled to and producing from a common source of supply; the inefficient or wasteful utilization of gas in the operation of gas wells drilled to and producing from a common source of supply; the production of gas in such quantities or in such manner as unreasonably to reduce reservoir pressure or unreasonably to diminish the quantity of oil or gas that might be recovered from a common source of supply; the escape, directly or indirectly, of gas from oil wells producing from a common source of supply into the open air in excess of the amount necessary in the efficient drilling, completion or operation thereof; waste incident to the production of natural gas in excess of transportation and marketing facilities or reasonable market demand; the escape, blowing, or releasing, directly or indirectly, into the open air, of gas from well productive of gas only, drilled into any common source of supply, save only such as is necessary in the efficient drilling and completion thereof; and the unnecessary depletion or inefficient utilization of gas energy contained in a common source of supply." [52 O.S.A. §86.3]
(C)    The use of gas for the manufacture of carbon black or similar products predominately carbon, except as specifically authorized by the Commission, shall constitute waste.
(D)    The flaring of tail gas at gasoline, pressure maintenance, or recycling plants where a market is available.
"Waste oil" shall include, but not be limited to, crude oil or other hydrocarbons used or produced in the process of drilling for, developing, producing, or processing oil or gas from wells, oil retained on cuttings as a result of the use of oil-based drilling muds, or any residue from any oil storage facility on a producing lease or on a commercial disposal operation or pit. The term "waste oil" shall not include any refined hydrocarbons to which lead has been added.
"Waste oil residue" means that portion of waste oil remaining after treatment and after the saleable liquids and water have been extracted. Waste oil residue is a type of waste oil.
"Well log" or "well record" means a systematic, detailed and correct record of formations encountered in the drilling of a well.
165:10-1-4.  Citation effective date
(a)    These rules shall be cited as OAC Title 165 Chapter 10 (OAC 165:10).
(b)    The effective date of the rules of this Chapter is as set out below:
(1)    Order No. 937 - Effective 06/16/15
(2)    Order No. 1299 - Effective 08/20/17
(3)    Order No. 1986 - Effective 01/05/22
(4)    Order No. 6251 - Effective 04/12/33
(5)    Order No. 6252 - Effective 04/15/33
(6)    Order No. 6393 - Effective 07/19/33
(7)    Order No. 6394 - Effective 07/20/33
(8)    Order No. 7263 - Effective 04/10/34
(9)    Order No. 8229 - Effective 10/31/33
(10)    Order No. 17528 - Effective 01/24/45
(11)    Order No. 19334 - Effective 10/24/46
(12)    Order No. 29232 - Effective 10/06/54
(13)    Order No. 30712 - Effective 09/09/55
(14)    Order No. 44297 - Effective 04/01/61
(15)    Order No. 47397 - Effective 12/01/61
(16)    Order No. 53568 - Effective 12/08/63
(17)    Order No. 53749 - Effective 01/03/64
(18)    Order No. 62481 - Effective 05/11/66
(19)    Order No. 62631 - Effective 06/01/66
(20)    Order No. 63817 - Effective 10/04/66
(21)    Order No. 64203 - Effective 11/10/66
(22)    Order No. 64207 - Effective 12/01/66
(23)    Order No. 65747 - Effective 05/05/67
(24)    Order No. 66006 - Effective 06/08/67
(25)    Order No. 66778 - Effective 09/05/67
(26)    Order No. 67113 - Effective 10/09/67
(27)    Order No. 67379 - Effective 11/06/67
(28)    Order No. 69103 - Effective 06/01/68
(29)    Order No. 69104 - Effective 06/01/68
(30)    Order No. 69340 - Effective 07/01/68
(31)    Order No. 70704 - Effective 01/03/69
(32)    Order No. 75248 - Effective 07/01/69
(33)    Order No. 77627 - Effective 01/01/70
(34)    Order No. 78830 - Effective 01/01/70
(35)    Order No. 78831 - Effective 01/01/70
(36)    Order No. 79460 - Effective 04/01/70
(37)    Order No. 79461 - Effective 04/01/70
(38)    Order No. 80401 - Effective 06/01/70
(39)    Order No. 80402 - Effective 06/01/70
(40)    Order No. 81221 - Effective 08/01/70
(41)    Order No. 81222 - Effective 08/01/70
(42)    Order No. 83168 - Effective 01-01-71
(43)    Order No. 84223 - Effective 04-01-71
(44)    Order No. 84224 - Effective 04-01-71
(45)    Order No. 84318 - Effective 03-29-71
(46)    Order No. 85138 - Effective 06-01-71
(47)    Order No. 85139 - Effective 06-01-71
(48)    Order No. 87730 - Effective 01-01-72
(49)    Order No. 87829 - Effective 01-01-72
(50)    Order No. 93381 - Effective 10-05-72
(51)    Order No. 93382 - Effective 10-05-72
(52)    Order No. 94418 - Effective 01-01-73
(53)    Order No. 96671 - Effective 04-01-73
(54)    Order No. 87829 - Effective 01-01-72
(55)    Order No. 94418 - Effective 01-01-73
(56)    Order No. 102096 - Effective 01-01-74
(57)    Order No. 109595 - Effective 01-01-75
(58)    Order No. 117899 - Effective 03-01-76
(59)    Order No. 128534 - Effective 03-01-77
(60)    Order No. 128781 - Effective 03-01-77
(61)    Order No. 138348 - Effective 03-01-78
(62)    Order No. 151077 - Effective 03-23-79
(63)    Order No. 161968 - Effective 01-03-80
(64)    Order No. 164345 - Effective 03-17-80
(65)    Order No. 164346 - Effective 02-14-80
(66)    Order No. 164347 - Effective 02-14-80
(67)    Order No. 165935 - Effective 04-01-80
(68)    Order No. 185407 - Effective 03-09-81
(69)    Order No. 185890 - Effective 03-16-81
(70)    Order No. 211505 - Effective 03-30-82
(71)    Order No. 228675 - Effective 01-01-83
(72)    Order No. 230515 - Effective 01-01-83
(73)    Order No. 230781 - Effective 01-01-83
(74)    Order No. 246797 - Effective 01-01-84
(75)    Order No. 250273 - Effective 01-01-84
(76)    Order No. 250466 - Effective 01-01-84
(77)    Order No. 260734 - Effective 07-01-84
(78)    Order No. 290210 - Effective 01-09-86
(79)    Order No. 292212 - Effective 02-10-86
(80)    Order No. 299185 - Effective 06-12-86
(81)    Order No. 302126 - Effective 10-08-86
(82)    Order No. 303650 - Effective 10-02-86
(83)    Order No. 304257 - Effective 10-16-86
(84)    Order No. 305211 - Effective 11-07-86
(85)    Order No. 311872 - Effective 05-06-87
(86)    Order No. 312391 - Effective 05-14-87
(87)    Order No. 310755 - Effective 06-01-87
(88)    Order No. 313445 - Effective 06-12-87
(89)    Order No. 313446 - Effective 07-09-87
(90)    Order No. 313660 - Effective 06-17-87
(91)    Order No. 313932 - Effective 06-25-87
(92)    Order No. 314001 - Effective 06-27-87
(93)    Order No. 313446 - Effective 07-09-87
(94)    Order No. 315275 - Effective 08-19-87
(95)    Order No. 320171 - Effective 12-21-87
(96)    Order No. 320741 - Effective 01-08-88
(97)    Order No. 320742 - Effective 01-08-88
(98)    Order No. 321123 - Effective 01-21-88
(99)    Order No. 323847 - Effective 05-01-88
(100)    Order No. 325144 - Effective 05-02-88
(101)    Order No. 326275 - Effective 06-27-88
(102)    Order No. 326343 - Effective 06-01-88
(103)    Order No. 326344 - Effective 06-01-88
(104)    Order No. 327514 - Effective 07-01-88
(105)    Order No. 327515 - Effective 07-01-88
(106)    Order No. 329661 - Effective 08-26-88
(107)    Order No. 329662 - Effective 08-26-88
(108)    Order No. 329663 - Effective 08-26-88
(109)    Order No. 334130 - Effective 01-04-89
(110)    Order No. 337475 - Effective 03-31-89
(111)    Order No. 337476 - Effective 03-31-89
(112)    Order No. 339860 - Effective 05-07-89
(113)    Order No. 341102 - Effective 08-25-89
(114)    Order No. 341103 - Effective 08-14-89
(115)    Order No. 346071 - Effective 03-29-90
(116)    Order No. 346107 - Effective 03-30-90
(117)    Order No. 355458 - Effective 03-20-91
(118)    Order No. 355461 - Effective 03-20-91
(119)    Order No. 355463 - Effective 03-20-91
(120)    Order No. 355471 - Effective 03-21-91
(121)    Order No. 364345 - Effective 06-25-92
(122)    Order No. 364382 - Effective 06-25-92
(123)    Order No. 368110 - Effective 08-28-92
(124)    Order No. 372796 - Effective 06-25-93
(125)    Order No. 381632 - Effective 07-11-94
(126)    Order No. 381755 - Effective 07-11-94
(127)    Order No. 387223 - Effective 10-20-94
(128)    RM No. 950000023 - Effective 07-01-96
(129)    RM No. 950000024 - Effective 07-01-96
(130)    RM No. 950000025 - Effective 07-11-96
(131)    RM No. 960000008 - Effective 07-01-96
(132)    RM No. 960000009 - Effective 07-01-96
(133)    RM No. 960000018 - Effective 10-15-96
(134)    RM No. 970000002 - Effective 07-01-97
(135)    RM No. 970000011 - Effective 07-01-98
(136)    RM No. 970000025 - Effective 07-11-98
(137)    RM No. 980000013 - Effective 07-15-98
(138)    RM No. 980000016 Emergency, - Effective 03-30-98
(139)    RM No. 980000017 Emergency, - Effective 03-30-98
(140)    RM No. 980000020 Emergency, - Effective 01-05-99
(141)    RM No. 980000033 - Effective 07-01-99
(142)    RM No. 980000034 - Effective 07-01-99
(143)    RM No. 980000035 - Effective 07-01-99
(144)    RM No. 990000010 - Emergency, - Effective 12-28-99
(145)    RM No. 200000002 - Effective 07-01-00
(146)    RM No. 200000009 - Emergency, - Effective 11-02-00
(147)    RM No. 200000009 - Permanent, - Effective 05-11-01
(148)    RM No. 200100005 - Effective 07-01-01
(149)    RM No. 200100006 - Effective 07-01-01
(150)    RM No. 200100009 - Emergency, - Effective 01-14-02
(151)    RM No. 200200017 - Effective 07-01-02
(152)    RM No. 200300001 - Effective 07-01-03
(153)    RM No. 200400006 - Effective 07-01-04
(154)    RM No. 200600012 - Effective 07-01-06
(155)    RM No. 200600013 - Emergency, - Effective 10-04-06
(156)    RM No. 200700004 - Effective 07-01-07
(157)    RM No. 200800003 - Effective 07-11-08
(158)    RM No. 200900001 - Effective 07-11-09
(159)    RM No. 201000003 - Effective 07-11-10
(160)    RM No. 201100004 - Emergency, - Effective 05-19-11
(161)    RM No. 201000007 - Effective 07-11-11
(162)    RM No. 201200005 - Effective 07-01-12
(163)    RM No. 201300001 - Effective 07-01-13
(164)    RM No. 201400002 - Effective 09-12-14
(165)    RM No. 201500001 - Effective 08-27-15
(166)    RM No. 201600001 - Effective 08-25-16
(167)    RM No. 201600019 - Effective 09-11-17
(168)    RM No. 201800002 - Effective 09-14-18
(169)    RM No. 201900002 - Effective 08-01-19
(170)    RM No. 202000002 - Effective 10-01-20
(171)    RM No. 202100003 - Effective 10-01-21
(172)    RM No. 202200002 - Effective 10-01-22
165:10-1-7.  Prescribed forms
(a)    Required Conservation Division forms shall be submitted to the Commission on forms supplied by the Commission, which are available on the Commission's website, or on copies of Commission forms or by operator computer generated forms. Operator computer generated forms must contain the exact language and wording of Commission forms. Any alteration of Commission forms language and wording may subject the signature party and/or operator to perjury charges.
(b)    The following Conservation Division forms are prescribed for filing purposes, which forms shall be filed in a format provided by the Conservation Division:
(1)    Form 1000 - Notice of Intent/Permit to Drill application: Operator shall file Form 1000 (Application) before any oil, gas, injection, disposal, service well or stratigraphic test hole is drilled, recompleted, re-entered or deepened. Such notice shall include the name(s) and address(es) of the surface owner(s) of the land upon which the well is to be located. The Conservation Division shall process the application, and the Conservation Division shall send an approved Permit to Drill by electronic mail to the operator applying for the Permit to Drill at the electronic mail address(es) listed in the Form 1006B Operator Agreement filed by the operator with the Conservation Division. If no electronic mail address is listed in the Form 1006B Operator Agreement filed by the operator with the Conservation Division, the Conservation Division shall mail the approved Permit to Drill to the operator's address listed in the Form 1006B. For each Permit to Drill other than a Permit to Drill for a recompletion, the operator shall send by facsimile, electronic mail or regular mail a copy of the Permit to Drill to each surface owner listed on the Form 1000 within ten (10) business days of the Conservation Division's approval of the Permit to Drill. Upon approval, the operator will have eighteen months to commence the permitted operations. A six month extension may be granted without fee providing the Conservation Division staff determines that no material change of condition has occurred, if a request by facsimile, electronic mail, or regular mail for such extension is received from the operator prior to the expiration of the original permit. Only one extension may be granted. A copy of the approved permit shall be posted at the well site. [Reference 165:10-3-1 and 165:10-1-25 and OAC 165:10-7-31]
(2)    Form 1000B - Application to Drill Deep Anode Groundbeds: Form 1000B is required to be filed for wells drilled for deep anode groundbeds as required by OAC 165:10-7-14. The purpose of Commission Form 1000B is to ensure groundwater is being protected in construction of the deep anode groundbed. [Reference 165:10-7-14]
(3)    Form 1000S - Application for seismic operations: A permit for seismic operations must be obtained. The applicant must post a $50,000 bond with the Surety Department in the Oil and Gas Conservation Division. The application must also be accompanied with a pre-plat of the project area. [Reference 165:10-7-31]
(4)    Form 1001 - Notification of Intention to Plug: Operator shall file notice on Form 1001 five days prior to plugging operations and shall notify the appropriate Conservation Division District Office before work is started. If the well is an exhausted producer, list OTC assigned county and lease number. If the Intent to Plug is cancelled, the operator shall notify the Commission by letter. [Reference 165:10-11-4 and 165:10- 11-6]
(5)    Form 1001A - Notification of Spudding of New Well: Operator shall file a Form 1001A with the Conservation Division within 14 days of spudding a new well or reentering a previously plugged well. [Reference 165:10-3-2]
(6)    Form 1002A - Well completion report: Operator shall furnish a complete well record on Form 1002A within 60 days after completion of operations to drill, recomplete, re-enter, or convert to injection or disposal well. Effective for both dry hole and/or producer. If well is an oil or gas producer, list OTC assigned county and lease number. Gas-oil ratio must be shown when Form 1002A is filed. List on a 24-hour basis both oil and gas. [Reference 165:10-3-25]
(A)    Oil well: GOR less than 15,000:1
(B)    Gas well: GOR 15,000:1 or more
(7)    Form 1002B - Confidential Filing of Electric Logs: Operator shall file Form 1002B within 60 days from the earlier of the date of completion of the well or the date of the running of the last formation evaluation type well log to hold logs confidential for one year period. Optional extension for six months may be requested by operator in writing to the Technical Services Department of the Conservation Division. [Reference 165:10-3-26]
(8)    Form 1002C - Cementing Report: Operator shall file Form 1002C within 45 days of the release of the rig used to drill such well. The Form 1002C shall describe all cementing operations on surface, intermediate, and production casing strings, including multistage cementing jobs. The Form shall be completed and signed by employees of both the operator and the cementing company. [Reference 165:10-3- 4(j)]
(9)    Form 1003 - Plugging Record: Operator will file Form 1003 within 30 days after plugging operations are completed. The Form 1003 is to be mailed or e-mailed to the appropriate Conservation Division District Office. Form 1003 shall be completed and signed by employees of both the operator and the cementer. If a depleted producer, list OTC assigned county and lease number. [Reference 165:10-11-6 and 165:10-11-7]
(10)    Form 1003A - Notice of Temporary Exemption from Well Plugging: Form 1003A shall be filed with the appropriate Conservation Division District Office. [Reference 165:10-11-3 and 165:10-11-9]
(11)    Form 1004 - Monthly Report of Unallocated Natural Gas Wells Production: Each operator of the required meter under 165:10-17-5 shall file a monthly well report on Form 1004 with the Commission of all natural gas volumes transferred through the meter for the preceding month, by the last day of the month following such transfer. List formation name plus OTC assigned county and lease number. If more than one meter, the operator of each shall file this form. [Reference 165:10-1-47]
(1211)    Form 1004B - Notice of Gas Purchase Curtailments: In any month wherein a first purchaser or first taker has a market demand/supply imbalance and must curtail purchases or takes in compliance with 165:10-17-12, Form 1004B shall be filed by said first purchaser or first taker with the Conservation Division. [Reference 165:10-17-12]
(1312)    Form 1005 - Monthly Report of Purchasers (Gas: subject to field rules): [Reference 165:10-1-47 and 165:10-15-1]
(A)    GAS: Each operator of the required meter or meters under 165:10-17-5 shall complete computer-generated Form 1005, and return a copy to the Conservation Division indicating the gas amounts transferred through the meter for the preceding month on allocated and special allocated gas wells.
(B)    OIL: Each first purchaser, or first taker of oil from wells and projects which are capable of producing in excess of their maximum assigned allowables, must complete computer-generated Form 1005 and return a copy to the Conservation Division indicating the amount of oil taken from each well or unit for the preceding month.
(1413)    Form 1006 - Surety bond for oil, gas, injection, or disposal wells: Prior to drilling and/or operating a well, the operator shall furnish the Conservation Division a surety bond ($25,000.00) or other present alternate surety, including, but not limited to, Form 1006A or 1006C. Operator must file the original copy only with a copy of the power of attorney from the bonding company. The name and address of the Oklahoma resident service agent shall be endorsed on the bond form. [Reference 165:10-1-10 and 165:10-1-12]
(1514)    Form 1006A - Financial Statement for oil, gas, injection or disposal wells: Prior to drilling and/or operating a well, the operator shall furnish the Conservation Division a verifiable financial statement (minimum net worth $50,000.00 within the State of Oklahoma) or other present alternate surety, including, but not limited to, Form 1006 or 1006C. Operator must file an original copy on Form 1006A, which must be updated annually from the last filing date. [Reference 165:10-1-10 and 165:10-1-11]
(1615)    Form 1006B - Operator Agreement to plug oil, gas, and service wells within the State of Oklahoma: Operator shall agree to plug well(s) in compliance with the Commission rules. This agreement must accompany the operator's elective choice of surety (including, but not limited to, Form 1006, 1006A, or 1006C). The operator is required to file a Form 1006B with the Conservation Division once every twelve (12) months. [Reference 165:10-1- 10, 165:10-1-11, 165:10-1-12, 165:10-1-13, and 165:10-1-14]
(1716)    Form 1006BR-A - Operator agreement to close hydrocarbon recycling/reclaiming facility: Operators of hydrocarbon recycling/reclaiming facilities are required to file agreements with the Commission concerning closure of such facilities. [Reference 165:10-8-5]
(1817)    Form 1006BR-B - Surety for closure of hydrocarbon recycling/reclaiming facility: Operators of hydrocarbon recycling/reclaiming facilities are required to file surety with the Commission for closure and reclamation of such facilities. [Reference 165:10-8-5]
(1918)    Form 1006BT-A - Operator's agreement to close, reclaim and remediate truck wash pit: Operators of truck wash pits are required to file agreements with the Commission regarding closure of such pits. [Reference 165:10-7-33]
(2019)    Form 1006BT-B - Surety for closure of truck wash pits: Operators of truck wash pits are required to file surety with the Commission for closure, reclamation and remediation of such pits. [Reference 165:10-7-33]
(2120)    Form 1006C - Irrevocable commercial letter of credit: Prior to drilling and/or operating a well, the operator shall furnish the Conservation Division an irrevocable commercial letter of credit ($25,000.00) or other present alternate surety, including, but not limited to, Form 1006A or 1006. Operator must file the original copy of Form 1006C. A letter of credit must be valid for at least a one year period. [Reference 165:10-1-10 and 165:10- 1-13]
(2221)    Form 1006D - Affidavit of well plugging costs: An operator may submit an affidavit on Form 1006D to the Conservation Division concerning the operator's statewide plugging liability. The Commission may approve Category B surety in an amount less than $25,000.00 for an operator whose statewide plugging liability is less than $25,000.00. The Form 1006D must be properly executed by a duly licensed pipe pulling and well plugging company and such Form must be acceptable to the Conservation Division. [Reference 165:10-1-10, 165:10-1-12, 165:10-1-13 and 165:10-1-14]
(2322)    Form 1006S - Operator's agreement to plug seismic shot holes within the State of Oklahoma: Prior to commencing seismic operations the operator shall file an agreement to plug shot holes in accordance with Commission rules. This agreement must accompany the financial surety guarantee. [Reference 165:10-7-31]
(2423)    Form 1006SB - Surety bond for seismic shot hole plugging within the State of Oklahoma: Before commencing any seismic operation that requires the drilling of shot holes, those companies actually doing the work in the field must secure a bond in the amount of $50,000.00. Seismic companies must file the original Form 1006SB only with a copy of the power of attorney from the bonding company. The name and address of the Oklahoma resident service agent shall be endorsed on the bond form. Form 1000S shall be filed with the bond. [Reference 165:10-11-6 and 165:10-7-31]
(2524)    Form 1010 - Application for Cancelled Underage: Operator shall file, within 30 days for oil, and six months for special allocated and allocated gas from the date of cancellation, to reinstate cancelled underage; stating reason for this request and notifying all offset operators. List OTC assigned county and lease number. [Reference 165:10-13-10 and 165:10-17-9]
(2625)    Form 1011 - Multi-Zone lease runs report: If there are two or more common sources of supply that are produced through a well or wells on the same lease or drilling and spacing unit and that are not commingled, production from each common source of supply shall be separately produced, measured and/or accounted for to the Commission. If one or more of the zones produced are classified as oil for allowable purposes, the operator is required to submit to the Conservation Division a multi-zone report on Form 1011 showing the production from each oil-bearing common source of supply on or before the last day of the succeeding proration period. [Reference 165:10- 13-7]
(2726)    Form 1012 - Fluid Injection Report: Operators shall file Form 1012 with the Conservation Division by January 31 of each year covering the previous calendar year (January 1 through December 31) on all enhanced recovery projects, pressure maintenance projects, noncommercial disposal wells, LPG storage wells, authorized waterfloods and gas repressuring projects for each UIC well. The completed form will list well identification including API number, the Commission order or permit number, injection volume and pressure, etc., as required on the form. No UIC well is to be operated for injection or disposal unless the Form 1012 is filed by the above date. [Reference 165:10-5-7].
(2827)    Form 1012C - Commercial disposal well fluid disposal report: Operators of commercial disposal wells shall file Form 1012C with the Conservation Division by January 31 and July 31 of each year for the previous six-month period. The completed form will list well identification including API number, the Commission order or permit number, disposal volume and pressure, etc. as required on the form. No commercial disposal well is to be operated unless the Form 1012C is filed by the above dates. [Reference 165:10-5-7].
(2928)    Form 1012D - Daily volume and pressure report for disposal wells within areas of interest: Operators of wells authorized for disposal within areas of interest designated by the Oil and Gas Conservation Division shall submit Form 1012D containing daily volumes and pressures to the Manager of the Induced Seismicity Department at a minimum on a weekly basis or as designated by such Manager. [Reference 165:10-5-7]
(3029)    Form 1013 - Application for adjusting an allowable for an Excessive Water Exemption or Reservoir Dewatering Oil Spacing unit: An operator in an unallocated oil pool may be permitted to produce at a full capacity allowable rate, provided that the water- oil ratio at the well is greater than or equal to 3:1 as an excessive water exemption. To qualify for the reservoir dewatering oil spacing unit allowable shown on Appendix J, the operator must provide data to show that the water - oil ratio is greater than 1:1. The operator shall submit a production test on Form 1013 to the Conservation Division. [Reference 165:10-15-1, 165:10-15-16, 165:10-15-17 and 165:10-15-18].
(3130)    Form 1014 - Application for Permit to Use Earthen Pit, noncommercial disposal or enhanced recovery well pit used for temporary storage of saltwater, or pit associated with commercial disposal well surface facility: The operator of a proposed off-site reserve pit, recycling/reuse pit, spill containment pit, remediation pit, noncommercial disposal or enhanced recovery well pit used for temporary storage of saltwater, or pit associated with a commercial disposal well surface facility must submit Form 1014 to the appropriate Conservation Division District Office for approval before constructing or using the pit. [Reference 165:10-7-16, 165:10-7-20 and 165:10- 9-3]
(3231)    Form 1014A - Commercial facility report: A report that operators of hydrocarbon recycling/reclaiming facilities, commercial pits, commercial soil farming sites and commercial recycling facilities are required to submit to the Manager of Pollution Abatement. [Reference 165:10-8-8, 165:10-9-1, 165:10-9-2 and 165:10-9-4]
(3332)    Form 1014C - Chain of custody record/analysis request: Form 1014C is available for use by Commission personnel when samples are collected for submission to and analysis by a laboratory certified by the Oklahoma Water Resources Board or operated by the State of Oklahoma.
(3433)    Form 1014CA - Compliance agreement for land application: Any person responsible for supervision of land application must submit a compliance agreement to the Commission. [Reference 165:10-7-19 and 165:10-7-26]
(3534)    Form 1014CR - Application for commercial recycling facility construction: After a Commission order is obtained, Form 1014CR must be submitted for approval to the Manager of Pollution Abatement prior to the construction of the commercial recycling facility authorized by the order. [Reference OAC 165:10-9-4]
(3635)    Form 1014CS - Application for Commercial Soil Farming: For a commercial soil farming site that has an order to operate, the operator shall submit a Form 1014CS to the Pollution Abatement Department for approval prior to commencing soil farming. [Reference 165:10-9-2]
(3736)    Form 1014D - Application for Surface Discharge or for reclaiming and/or recycling of produced water: Each application for surface discharge of produced water or for reclaiming and/or recycling of produced water must be submitted to the appropriate Conservation Division District Office on Form 1014D in quadruplicate. Applications will be processed within five business days. [Reference 165:10-7-17 or 165:10-7-32]
(3837)    Form 1014F - Application for permit to use noncommercial pit with capacity in excess of 50,000 barrels to contain deleterious substances: The operator of a proposed noncommercial pit with a capacity in excess of 50,000 barrels must submit the Form 1014F to and obtain the approval of the Manager of the Pollution Abatement Department or obtain the issuance of a Commission order before constructing or using the pit. [Reference 165:10-7-16]
(3938)    Form 1014HD - Notice for Disposal of Hydrostatic Test Water: Companies wishing to discharge water as required by OAC 165:10-7-17, used to test a pipeline, tank, etc. must submit a Form 1014HD to the appropriate Conservation Division District Office and the Pollution Abatement Department for prior approval. [Reference 165:10- 7-17]
(4039)    Form 1014L - Surface Owner Permission for Land Application: Each application for land application must include an original Form 1014L, whereby the applicable surface owner gives permission for the applicant to land apply certain deleterious substances to a specific property. [Reference 165:10-7-19 and 165:10-7- 26]
(4140)    Form 1014LA - Designation of land application agent: A notarized affidavit designating any agent of an operator for land application must be submitted to the Commission. [Reference 165:10-7-17, 165:10-7-19 and 165:10-7-26]
(4241)    Form 1014LC - Letter of credit for land application: Persons who contract to land apply materials are required to file surety with the Commission. [Reference 165:10-7-10]
(4342)    Form 1014N - Application for Commercial Pit Construction: After a Commission order is obtained, Form 1014N must be submitted for approval by the Manager of Pollution Abatement prior to the construction of each commercial pit authorized by the order. [Reference 165:10-9-1]
(4443)    Form 1014P - Annual report for surface discharge: An annual report is required to be submitted to the Commission by April 1 of each year on Form 1014P concerning surface discharges of produced water. Current (within three month) analyses of the produced water and soil from the discharge plot must be attached to the annual report. [Reference 165:10-7-17]
(4544)    Form 1014R - Post land application report: A post land application report shall be submitted by the operator or the operator's agent to the Manager of Pollution Abatement within ninety (90) days of the completion of land application. [Reference 165:10-7-19 and 165:10-7-26]
(4645)    Form 1014RW - Application for permit to use reclaimed water in oil and gas operations: Each application for a permit to use reclaimed water in oil and gas operations must be submitted to the Manager of Field Operations on Form 1014RW. [Reference OAC 165:10-7-34]
(4746)    Form 1014S - Application for Land Application: Each application for land application of materials must be submitted to the Pollution Abatement Department on Form 1014S. The applicant must be the operator of the well or other operator responsible for generating the waste to be land applied, except that a commercial pit operator may also apply in case of emergency or for the purpose of facilitating repair or closure, and the Oklahoma Energy Resources Board or its contractor may apply in cases where there is no responsible party. The Form 1014S shall be processed within five business days of submission of all required or requested information. [Reference 165:10-7-19 and 165:10-7-26]
(4847)    Form 1014SB - Surety bond for land application: Persons who contract to land apply materials are required to file surety with the Commission. [Reference 165:10-7-10]
(4948)    Form 1014T - Application for permit to use truck wash pit: The operator of a proposed truck wash pit must submit Form 1014T to the Manager of Pollution Abatement for the Conservation Division and obtain a permit before constructing or using the pit. [Reference 165:10-7-33]
(5049)    Form 1014W - Application for waste oil or drill cuttings use by County Commissioners: Application to apply waste oil, waste oil residue, crude oil contaminated soil or freshwater drill cuttings must be made by any Board of County Commissioners on Form 1014W. The Form 1014W is required to be submitted by electronic mail to the appropriate District Manager. [Reference 165:10-7-22 and 165:10-7-28]
(5150)    Form 1014X - Application for waste oil or drill cuttings use by operators: Application to apply waste oil, waste oil residue, crude oil contaminated soil or freshwater drill cuttings must be made by any operator on Form 1014X. The Form 1014X is required to be submitted by electronic mail or mailed to the appropriate District Manager. [Reference 165:10-7-27 and 165:10-7-29]
(5251)    Form 1015 - Application for Administrative Approval to Dispose of or Inject Class II fluids into Well(s) or to amend existing orders authorizing injection for injection, disposal or LPG storage well(s): Applicant shall file an original of the application and one complete set of attachments with the Commission on Form 1015. When requesting approval to dispose of or inject Class II fluids into wells, applicant will also furnish copies of the application on Form 1015 as specified, and, where noted, required attachments to Form 1015. Applicant will submit an affidavit of delivery or mailing to the Commission not later than five business days after the application is filed. Applicant shall file with the Commission proof of publication regarding the notice of application in an Oklahoma County newspaper and a county newspaper in which the well is located. [Reference 165:10-5-2, 165:10-5-5, and 165:5-7-30]
(5352)    Form 1015SI - Application for Order or Permit for Simultaneous Injection Well: Operator shall file original with the Underground Injection Control Department on Form 1015SI. A copy of the form will also be supplied to the operator of any producing lease within one-half (1/2) mile of the proposed injection well. [Reference 165:10-5-15]
(5453)    Form 1015T - Application for Injection of Reserve Pit Fluids: Each application for the on-site injection of reserve pit fluids (i.e., drilling mud fluids or fracture fluids) used in drilling or well completion shall be filed with the Underground Injection Control Department by the well operator on Form 1015T. The original of the application and one complete set of attachments shall be furnished to the Underground Injection Control Department. A copy of the application will also be supplied to the landowner and the operator of any producing lease within one-half (1/2) mile of the proposed well. [Reference 165:10-5-13]
(5554)    Form 1016 - Back Pressure Test for Natural Gas Wells: Operators and/or purchasers, on the Form 1016, will report all single-point and four-point potential tests as required by pool rule orders or general rules. List OTC assigned county and lease numbers and special allocated pool numbers, first date of sales, and complete flow data. [Reference 165:10-17-6 and 165:10-17-7]
(5655)    Form 1017 - Guymon-Hugoton Field Gas Well Deliverability Tests: Operators and/or purchasers of gas in this field shall take deliverability tests between January 1 and August 31 of each year, and on the test sheet Form 1017 file the results with the Commission. List OTC assigned lease number for each well. [Reference Orders No. 17867 and 87291 and 165:10-17-9]
(5756)    Form 1019 - Guymon-Hugoton Field Acreage Statement for Gas Wells: A fact statement as to acreage attributable to each well shall be filed with the Commission on Form 1019 within 30 days of the well completion with a plat or map showing location of the well. List OTC assigned county and lease number. [Reference Order No. 17867 and 165:10-17-9]
(5857)    Form 1020A - Application for Certification for the Recycling, Reuse of Deleterious Substances: Applicant shall file an original Form 1020A with necessary attachments with the Pollution Abatement Department. Form 1020A is filed prior to construction of facility or change of operator. [Reference 165:10-8-1 through 165:10- 8-11]
(5958)    Form 1021 - Application for Priority Hardship Classification: The applicant shall file Form 1021 and the necessary attachments with the Technical Services Department for review prior to any hearing for priority one hardship classification. In addition, a formal application for hearing must be filed with the Court Clerk's Office of the Commission. [Reference 165:10-17-12]
(6059)    Form 1021A - Application for limited deviation from the priority gas rules: The applicant shall file Form 1021A and the necessary attachments with the Technical Services Department for review prior to any hearing for deviation from the priority gas rules. In addition, a formal application for hearing must be filed with the Court Clerk's Office of the Commission. [Reference 165:10-17-12]
(6160)    Form 1022 - Application to flare or vent gas: Operator shall file one copy of Form 1022 with the Technical Services Department of the Conservation Division listing OTC assigned county lease number. [Reference 165:10-3-15]
(6261)    Form 1022A - Application to operate vacuum pump: Operator shall file one copy of Form 1022A with the required attachments with the Technical Services Department of the Conservation Division. [Reference 165:10-3-31]
(6362)    Form 1023 - Application for multiple completion, multichoke assembly or commingle completion: Operator will file the original of Form 1023 with the required attachments. List OTC assigned county and lease number. [Reference 165:10-3-35; 165:10-3-39; 165:10-3-37]
(6463)    Form 1024 - Packer setting affidavit: Operator will submit Form 1024 as required. [Reference 165:10-3-35 and pertinent field rules]
(6564)    Form 1025 - Packer leakage test: Operator will submit Form 1025 as required. [Reference 165:10-3-35 and pertinent field rules]
(6665)    Form 1027 - Bottom hole pressure test: Operator, on the pink sheet of Form 1027, shall take BHP tests in the manner and during periods prescribed by special field rules. List OTC assigned county and lease numbers. [Reference Special Field Rules and 165:10-13-3]
(6766)    Form 1028 - Application for discovery oil allowable: Operator shall file Form 1028 with the required exhibits and tests within 30 days of completion of each new well in a discovery oil pool. [Reference 165:10-15-7]
(6867)    Form 1029A - Production or potential test - oil only: Operator of each newly completed discovery oil well shall file a potential test Form 1029A not later than 30 days after completion of the well. All tests, if requested, shall be witnessed by another operator. [Reference 165:10-15-7].
(6968)    Form 1030 - Application for allowable adjustment: Each operator or other interested parties desiring to adjust the allowable for a well or wells shall file Form 1030 for administrative review and approval. The allowable may be increased, decreased, or transferred as the evidence may indicate for the most efficient rate of production from the well or wells. [Reference 165:10-13-5, 165:10-13-8, 165:10-15-18 and 165:5-7-12]
(7069)    Form 1034 - Nominations and purchasers report: [Reference 165:10-1-36, 165:10-1-37 and 165:10-1-46] Oil: Purchasers will furnish nomination data, actual runs from leases, stocks, and other information on Form 1034 to the Conservation Division not later than noon Friday of the week preceding each scheduled market demand hearing. On months in which no market demand hearing is held, Form 1034 shall be filed by the 20th of the month listing crude oil runs for the previous month on line 5 only. Any change in nominations from the previous hearing shall be so indicated on this monthly report.
(7170)    Form 1034-G - Gas nominations: Operators of natural gas wells in special allocated gas pools where well allowable calculations according to special allocated field rules are in effect shall file their pool nominations on Form 1034-G no later than one week prior to the market demand hearing. [Reference 165:10-1-36, 165:10-1-37, 165:10-1-49 and 165:10-17-9].
(7271)    Form 1040 - Monthly allocation schedule (gas): Monthly gas schedule Form 1040 will be forwarded to operators by the Conservation Division indicating the status of special allocated gas wells and their current allowables. Operators will inform the Conservation Division of errors, if any, found in Form 1040 as promptly as possible. Additionally, purchasers will receive the monthly schedule and shall return the production from each well as requested. [Reference 165:10-1-47]
(7372)    Form 1055 - Application for Casing Pulling and Well Plugging License: No person shall contract to pull casing or plug oil, gas, injection, disposal, or other service wells, or contract to salvage casing therefrom, or purchase wells for the purpose of salvaging casing therefrom until a license has been secured from the Commission. [Reference 165:10-11-1]
(7473)    Form 1070 - Inventory of authorized existing enhanced recovery wells: Operators shall file reporting Form 1070 before injecting into any enhanced recovery well. [Reference 165:10-5-3]
(7574)    Form 1071 - Inventory of authorized existing disposal wells: Operators shall file the reporting Form 1071 before disposing into any disposal well. [Reference 165:10-5-3]
(7675)    Form 1072 - Notice of termination of injection: Within 30 days of the termination of injection Form 1072 must be filed. [Reference 165:10-5-7]
(7776)    Form 1073 - Notice of transfer of oil or gas well operatorship: The new operator shall file Form 1073 to notify the Conservation Division of any change of operation of any oil or gas well within 30 days of transfer of the well. [Reference 165:10- 1-15]
(7877)    Form 1073I - Notice of transfer of underground injection well operatorship: The new operator shall file Form 1073I to notify the Underground Injection Control Department of any change of operation of any injection, disposal, or hydrocarbon storage well within 30 days of transfer of the well. [Reference 165:10-5-10]
(7978)    Form 1073IMW - Notice of transfer of multiple underground injection well operatorship: For transfers involving more than 10 underground injection wells, a transferor and transferee may file a single Form 1073IMW with the Conservation Division indicating the transfer of multiple wells. If the Form 1073IMW is used, such Form must be filed with the Conservation Division regarding any change of operations of such wells within 30 days of transfer of the wells. [Reference 165:10-5-10]
(8079)    Form 1073MW - Notice of transfer of multiple oil or gas well operatorship: For transfers involving more than 10 oil or gas wells, a transferor and transferee may file a single Form 1073MW with the Conservation Division indicating the transfer of multiple wells. If the Form 1073MW is used, such Form must be filed with the Conservation Division regarding any change of operations of such wells within 30 days of transfer of the wells. [Reference 165:10-1-15]
(8180)    Form 1075 - Mechanical integrity pressure test: A pressure or monitoring test must be performed on new and existing injection wells and disposal wells. Information must be submitted on Form 1075 and witnessed by a Field Inspector. Forms shall be submitted to the Conservation Division's Underground Injection Control Department. [Reference 165:10-5-6]
(8281)    Form 1081 - Mineral owners escrow account: Operator shall file, in quadruplicate, Form 1081 annually on anniversary date of first pooling order issued after effective date of Senate Bill 299 (7-1-84)52 O.S. §§ 551 et seq. and shall include all applicable orders issued during the twelve-month reporting period. [Reference 165:10-25-1 through 165:10-25-10]
(8382)    Form 1085 - Complaint report: Form 1085 is used by Commission personnel to report violations of General Rules of the Commission and to report progress on ongoing remedial actions. Copies are sent to all parties concerned with investigation. Form 1085 combines and replaces old Forms 1034 and 1062. [Reference 165:10-7-7]
(8483)    Form 1535 - Application for classification of reservoir dewatering project for exemption of sales tax on electricity used for such operations and application for state sales tax exemption for electricity sold for operations involving enhanced recovery methods on a spacing unit or lease: Operators shall file one original of Form 1535 with the required attachments with the Technical Services Department of the Conservation Division. To obtain the exemption of sales tax on the sale of electricity and associated delivery and transmission used for reservoir dewatering operations, or for a state sales tax exemption for electricity sold for operations involving enhanced recovery methods on a spacing unit or lease, the operator shall contact the Director's Office, Taxpayer Assistance Division, Oklahoma Tax Commission, 2501 N. Lincoln Blvd., Oklahoma City, Ok. 73194. [Reference 165:10-21-90 through 165:10-21-92 and 165:10-21-95 through 165:10-21-97]
(85)    Form 2000BF - AAI Oversight Qualification: The Applicant shall file one (1) Form 2000BF with the Brownfield Program of the Conservation Division listing the qualifications as per AAI of each Environmental Professional who will work on the site. [Reference 165:10-10-1 through 165:10-10-14]
(8684)    Form 2001BF - Brownfield Applicant Eligibility: The applicant shall file one (1) Form 2001BF with the Brownfield Program of the Conservation Division. This Form is filed to demonstrate applicant's eligibility to be in the Brownfield program. [Reference 165:10-10-1 through 165:10-10-14]
(8785)    Form 2002BF - Consent to Entry: The applicant shall file one (1) Form 2002BF with the Brownfield Program of the Conservation Division. This Form is the landowner's permission for applicant and their contractors to enter the property for assessment and cleanup work. Copies will be sent to all parties concerned with the assessment and/or cleanup. [Reference 165:10-10-1 through 165:10-10-14]
(8886)    Form 2003BF - Application for Brownfield Site Eligibility and AssessmentProgram Enrollment: The applicant shall file one (1) Form 2003BF with the Brownfield Program of the Conservation Division for all sites applicant is entering into the program. This Form provides necessary information on the site. This Form can be used by public, quasi- public, and non-profit entities to request a free Targeted Brownfield Assessment of a site that has been approved as eligible for the Brownfield program. [Reference 165:10- 10-1 through 165:10-10-14]
(8987)    Form 2005BF - Brownfield Certificate of No Action Necessary: The Form 2005BF will be issued by the Commission to the Brownfield Applicant, after the Brownfield staff has made a no action necessary decision. The applicant must file the Certificate of No Action Necessary in the office of the county clerk where the site is located, provide a copy to the landowner if the landowner is not the applicant, and submit a file-stamped copy to the Oklahoma Corporation Commission within 30 days. [Reference 165:10-10-1 through 165:10-10-14]
(9088)    Form 2006BF - Brownfield Certificate of Completion: The Form 2006BF will be issued by the Commission to the Brownfield Applicant, after the Brownfield staff has made a final inspection of the site and review of the project following a remedial action. The applicant must file the Certificate of Completion and any land use restrictions in the office of the county clerk where the site is located, provide a copy to the landowner if the landowner is not the applicant, and submit a file-stamped copy to the Oklahoma Corporation Commission within 30 days. [Reference 165:10-10-1 through 165:10-10-14]
(9189)    Form 3000NGS - Application for Investigation and/or Abatement of Seeping Natural Gas: An owner of property which has seeping natural gas shall file an application with the Commission regarding the Commission's investigation and/or abatement of the seeping natural gas. [Reference 165:10-12-9]
(9290)    Form 4000WIP - Well impact report: If an operator has evidence that its well(s) have been impacted by hydraulic fracturing operations, the operator may report the occurrence by electronic mail to the Conservation Division within 24 hours of discovery. The operator must use Form 4000WIP to report the occurrence. [Reference 165:10-3-10]
(9391)    Form 5000NTL - Notice of temporary lines which may be used to transport produced water: Operators are required to notify the Conservation Division, the appropriate County Commissioners and the surface owners of the land that is subject to the rights-of-way sought to be utilized by the operator, at least 48 hours prior to placing in public road rights-of-way temporary lines that may at any time be used to transport produced water for well drilling, completion, or remedial workover operations. Operators must use Form 5000NTL to provide the notice. [Reference 165:10-3-10.1]
(9492)    Form 6000NHF - Notice to Conservation Division of hydraulic fracturing operations: Operators are required to notify the Conservation Division using Form 6000NHF at least 48 hours prior to commencement of hydraulic fracturing operations on a well. [Reference 165:10-3-10]
(9593)    Form 6000NOO - Notice to operators of producing wells of hydraulic fracturing operations: Operators are required to notify operators of producing wells within one mile of the completion interval of the subject well at least 5 business days prior to commencement of hydraulic fracturing operations on such well. The notice to be provided such operators shall contain the information in Form 6000NOO. [Reference 165:10-3-10]
165:10-1-8.  Notarized forms
     In lieu of notarization, Conservation Division forms may contain the following statement signed and dated by the responsible party representing the entity which is submitting the form: "I declare under penalty of perjury that I am authorized to act on behalf of the applicant and that I have read this form and any attachments to this form, that I have knowledge of the contents of this form and any such attachments, which was/were prepared by me or under my supervision and direction, and that the facts and information set forth herein are true, correct, and complete to the best of my knowledge and belief."
PART 3.  SURETY
165:10-1-15.  Transfer of operatorship of wells
(a)    Before the operations of a well can be transferred to a new operator, the following must be submitted:
(1)    The new operator, or transferee, must comply with 165:10-1-10 before a change in operator is approved.
(2)    Change of operator Form 1073 or Form 1073MW must be signed by both the transferor and transferee, with both stipulating that the facts presented are true and correct as to the area covered and the wells being transferred. The new operator shall file Form 1073 or Form 1073MW to notify the Conservation Division of any change of operation of any oil or gas well within thirty (30) days of transfer of the well. Unless otherwise stated, the new operator assumes all responsibility for the wells specified within the boundaries of the outlined area. For transfers involving more than ten (10) wells, a transferor and transferee may file a single Form 1073MW with the Conservation Division indicating the transfer of multiple wells, provided that such multiple well transfer shall be accompanied by a well list containing the following information regarding each well being transferred:The Form 1073MW is intended to be used for multiple well transfers of ten (10) or more wells and must contain a list with the following information for each well:
(A)    API number of the well;
(B)    Well name and number;
(C)    Legal location of the well, described by section, township,and range and quarter, quarter, quarter section calls.
(3)    The well list may be provided in spreadsheet form, if possible, and may be filed in digital format specified by the Conservation Division. In lieu of the spreadsheet, the transferor and transferee, at their option, may file one Form 1073MW indicating the transfer of multiple wells with an OCC Form 1002A Completion Report attached for each well transferred.A current Form 1002A Completion Report must be on file with the Conservation Division in accordance with OAC 165:10-3-25. Upon review by the Conservation Division, it may require additional information from the transferor and/or the transferee to assist in identifying the specific well(s) being transferred. The additional information may include, but not be limited to, the quarter, quarter, quarter section calls, footages from the south and west quarter section lines, and the drilling and completion dates.
(4)    The Conservation Division shall notify both the transferor and transferee in writingby electronic mail or regular mail within thirty (30) days of the Conservation Division's approval or disapproval of the transfer of operatorship for the subject well(s). If the Form 1073 or Form 1073MW is disapproved, the operator shall have ninety (90) days from the date of the disapproval notification to correct the deficiencies. If the operator fails to correct the deficiencies and to resubmit the Form 1073 or Form 1073MW within the ninety (90) day time period, the Form 1073 or Form 1073MW shall be considered withdrawn unless the time is extended by written request for good cause shown. The disapproval notification will explain the deficiencies that need correcting and will specify the expiration of the ninety (90) day period during which the deficiencies must be corrected.
(5)    Compliance with 165:5-7-11 when and if operatorship was designated by orders of the Commission in pooling, increased density, and location exception applications.
(b)    Before the operatorship of a well can be transferred to a new operator when the current or former operator is unavailable for signature, one of the following may be submitted as proof of operatorship:
(1)    A certified copy of a recorded lease or assignment transferring all rights, title, and interest to the wells described on Form 1073 or Form 1073MW to the new operator.
(2)    A certified copy of a journal entry of judgment rendered by a district court of Oklahoma having jurisdiction over the wells described on Form 1073 or Form 1073MW vesting legal title to the new operator.
(3)    A certified copy of a bankruptcy proceeding by the bankruptcy court having jurisdiction over the wells described on Form 1073 or Form 1073MW.
(c)    If an operator is not in compliance with an enforceable order of the Commission, the Conservation Division shall not approve any Form 1073 or Form 1073MW transferring well(s) to said operator until the operator complies with the order. The transferor of the well(s) listed on the Form 1073 or Form 1073MW remains responsible for the well(s) until any transfer is approved by the Commission.
PART 5.  SPACING
165:10-1-21.  General well spacing requirements
     Any well to be drilled or drilled for oil or gas to an unspaced common source of supply the top of which is 2,500 feet or more in depth shall be located not less than 330 feet from any property line or lease line, and shall be located not less than 600 feet from any other producible or drilling oil or gas well when drilling to the same common source of supply; provided and except that in drilling to an unspaced common source of supply the top of which is less than 2,500 feet in depth, the well shall be located not less than 165 feet from any property line or lease line and not less than 300 feet from any other producible or drilling oil or gas well in the same common source of supply; provided, however, that the depth to the top of the common source of supply in the original or discovery well shall be recognized as the depth to the top of the common source of supply for the purpose of this Section; provided further, when an exception to this Section is granted, the Commission may adjust the allowable or take such other action as it deems necessary for the prevention of waste and protection of correlative rights. However, the above-described requirements for the distance between any such well to be drilled or drilled for oil or gas and any such other producible or drilling oil or gas well shall not apply if such wells are operated by the same operator, and notification to working interest owners in any such well to be drilled or drilled for oil or gas shall be indicated on the Form 1000 for such well.
PART 9.  PURCHASERS AND TRANSPORTERS
165:10-1-47.  Gas volume reports to Conservation Division
(a)    On or before the last day of the succeeding month, the person responsible for operating the required meter under 165:10-17-5 for each well classified as an unallocated gas well for allowable purposes shall report to the Conservation Division on Form 1004 the amount of gas in MCF which passed through the meter on a monthly basis.
(ba)    If a well classified as a gas well for allowable purposes is subject to special pool rules other than the Guymon-Hugoton or South Guymon Fields, the Conservation Division shall mail Form 1005 (Monthly Allocated Schedule) to the operator of record for each such well(s) on or before the 15th day of each month. The operator of record shall, in turn, complete said form by listing the gas volume sold on a monthly basis in MCF by well and return a copy to the Conservation Division on or before the last day of the month succeeding the sales.
(cb)    If a well classified as a gas well for allowable purposes is subject to the special pool rules for the Guymon-Hugoton or South Guymon Fields, the Conservation Division shall mail Form 1005 (Monthly Allocated Schedule) to the operator of record for each such well(s) on or before the tenth day of each month. The operator of record shall, in turn, complete said form by listing the gas volume sold, including gas bought by the landowner, on a monthly basis in MCF by well and return a copy to the Conservation Division on or before the 15th day of the month succeeding the sales.
(dc)    If there is a split connection at the well site, then the operator of record measuring gas volumes shall be responsible for reporting the total volume sold for each well.
(ed)    If a well classified as a gas well for allowable purposes is subject to special pool rules (including the Guymon-Hugoton Field), the Conservation Division shall mail Form 1040 to each operator on or before the tenth day of the second succeeding month following the custody transfer indicating the reported volume of gas taken from each well.
(fe)    If a well classified as a gas well for allowable purposes is subject to multiple gas purchase contracts or interest owners taking their gas in kind, the producing owner shall report and account to the well operator all volumes sold and the identity of all purchasers on or before the last day of the following month after sale of such gas. The operator(s) of the required meter(s) under 165:10-17-5 shall report and account to the well operator all volumes of gas measured by such meter(s) on or before the last day of the following month after measurement. Failure to comply with this subsection will result in such gas production being ordered shut-in.
(gf)    Failure of an operator to timely file sales volumes on Form 1005 shall result in a zero allowable being assigned to the operator's wells for the month in which the sales volumes would have been used in calculating the field allowable. Allocation factors for a pool shall not be recalculated as a result of the filing of a late Form 1005.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Drilling, Developing, and Producing
PART 1.  DRILLING
165:10-3-1.  Required approval of notice of intent to drill, deepen, re-enter, or recomplete; Permit to Drill
(a)     Permit to Drill.
(1)    Except as provided in (I) of this Section, on emergency authorization to commence, the operator shall obtain for the well a Permit to Drill approved by the Conservation Division before:
(A)    Spudding a well for the exploration for and production of oil or gas.
(B)    Spudding a well for use as an injection, disposal, or service well.
(C)    Re-entry into a plugged well.
(D)    Recompletion of a well.
(E)    Deepening an existing well.
(2)    A Permit to Drill shall be valid only for each common source of supply listed on the permit.
(3)    Any operator who drills, deepens, reenters or recompletes a well without a permit to drill may be fined up to $1,000.00.
(4)    An operator requesting a Permit to Drill for a well shall submit a plat utilizing Commission records showing the well name, operator, section, township, range and county, ground elevation, and total depth of each abandoned, plugged, producing or drilling well, and dryhole within one quarter (1/4) mile of the completion interval of the proposed well. The operator is also required to submit a certified plat regarding the proposed well prepared by a licensed surveyor, and the following information shall be included in the plat concerning the completion interval of the proposed well: the surface hole location footages from the quarter section with latitude and longitude, proposed bottom hole location footages from the quarter section with latitude and longitude, landing point, corner coordinates at section corners and quarter section points, GPS Datum NAD 27 and NAD 83, and distance to wells that will be closer than authorized in Commission rules or by Commission order. In addition, regarding an application for a Permit to Drill to recomplete a well, the operator shall include on the plat the surface hole location latitudes and longitudes for wells for which Permits to Drill have been approved.
(5)    The Conservation Division shall send an approved Permit to Drill by electronic mail to the operator applying for the Permit to Drill at the electronic mail address(es) listed in the Form 1006B Operator Agreement filed by the operator with the Conservation Division. If no electronic mail address is listed in the Form 1006B Operator Agreement filed by the operator with the Conservation Division, the Conservation Division shall mail the approved Permit to Drill to the operator's address listed in the Form 1006B.
(6)    The Commission may issue a Permit to Drill for any well after a hearing for a special order or for an order on the merits prior to the issuance of any such order. Any such Permit to Drill is subject to and must conform with the final provisions of any such order.
(b)     Amended or additional Form 1000 requirements.
(1)     When required. If the Conservation Division has issued a Permit to Drill for a well, the operator of the well shall submit an amended Form 1000 for the well and obtain an amended Permit to Drill before:
(A)    Completing the well in a common source of supply which is not listed on the current unexpired Permit to Drill for the well.
(B)    Recompleting the well in a common source of supply which is not listed on the current unexpired Permit to Drill for the well.
(C)    Installing less surface casing than the amount approved on the unexpired Permit to Drill for the well.
(D)    Deviating from an alternative casing and cementing procedure which the Conservation Division approved on the unexpired Permit to Drill for the well.
(E)    Completing a well in a common source of supply at a subsurface location which does not correspond with the surface location on the most recently issued Permit to Drill for the well.
(2)     Effect of amended or additional Permit to Drill on prior Permit to Drill. Each approved, amended, or additional Permit to Drill for a well cancels any previously issued Permit to Drill for the well.
(c)     Expired or revoked Permit to Drill. If a Permit to Drill for a well expires or is revoked, the operator shall be subject to the requirements of (a) of this Section.
(d)     Casing and cementing requirements. Each Permit to Drill shall list the minimum amount of surface casing to be used or an approved alternative casing and cementing program under 165:10-3-4.
(e)     Spud report and well spacing requirements. In addition to complying with the requirement of obtaining a Permit to Drill, the operator shall comply with the following:
(1)    The spud report requirement of 165:10-3-2.
(2)    Any well spacing requirements applicable by order or rule of the Commission. Well spacing requirements do not apply to injection or disposal wells.
(f)     Disposal of drilling fluids.
(1)    The operator shall indicate on Form 1000 the proposed method(s) for disposal of drilling fluids. These methods shall include, but not be limited to:
(A)    Evaporation/dewatering and leveling of the reserve pit.
(B)    Soil farming.
(C)    Recycling.
(D)    Commercial off-site earthen pit disposal.
(E)    Annular injection.
(F)    Hauling to a facility or location other than a commercial earthen pit.
(2)    If the method in (1)(F) in this subsection is used, the operator shall provide the location to which the drilling fluids are to be hauled.
(3)    Issuance of the Permit to Drill shall not be construed as constituting approval of the disposal method(s) indicated. An operator who desires to dispose of drilling fluids through either evaporation/dewatering and leveling of the reserve pit, soil farming, commercial earthen pit disposal, or annular injection must comply with 165:10-7-16, 165:10-7-19 or 165:10-9-2, 165:10-9-1, or 165:10-5-13 respectively.
(4)    If the proposed method for drilling fluid disposal is changed, the operator shall notify the appropriate Conservation Division District Office, either by telephone, facsimile or electronic mail, within twenty-four (24) hours after the change. An amended Form 1000 for the well shall not be required for a change in disposal method.
(5)    Drilling fluids and/or other deleterious substances in a closed pit system may be disposed of utilizing the methods specified in subparagraphs (B), (C), and/or (F).
(g)     Notice to surface owners.
(1)    The operator shall include on each Form 1000 submitted to the Conservation Division, the name and address of each surface owner of record for the wellsite.
(2)    For each Permit to Drill other than a Permit to Drill for a recompletion, the operator shall send by facsimile, electronic mail or regular mail a copy of the Permit to Drill to each surface owner listed on the Form 1000 within ten (10) business days of the Conservation Division's approval of the Permit to Drill.
(h)     Disapproval for noncompliance with Commission order. If an operator is not in compliance with an enforceable order of the Commission, the Conservation Division shall not issue any Permit to Drill for the operator, until the operator complies with the order.
(i)     Erroneous approval. Erroneous issuance of a Permit to Drill shall not excuse noncompliance with any order or rule of the Commission.
(j)     Expiration.
(1)     Eighteen-month period. Except as provided in (3) of this subsection for expiration after submission of a completion report, a permit to drill shall expire eighteen months from the date of issuance, unless drilling operations are commenced and thereafter continued with due diligence to completion.
(2)     Six-month extension. A six month extension may be granted without fee providing the Conservation Division staff determines that no material change of condition has occurred, if a request by facsimile, electronic mail, or regular mail for such extension is received from the operator prior to the expiration of the original permit. Only one extension may be granted.
(3)     If Form 1002A is filed. If the operator of the well submits to the Conservation Division a Completion Report (Form 1002A) for the well, the Permit to Drill for the well shall expire on the date the Completion Report is approved by the Conservation Division.
(k)     Posting of Permit to Drill at the wellsite. During any activity subject to this Section, the operator shall maintain at the wellsite an original or legible copy of the Permit to Drill for inspection by Commission personnel.
(l)     Emergency authorization without approval of a Permit to Drill. In an emergency, the Manager of the Technical Services Department of the Conservation Division may temporarily authorize commencement of activities without a Permit to Drill for a period up to five business days.
(m)     Limits of authority. A Permit to Drill does not grant the operator authority to produce, inject or dispose without the required permits or allowable assignment.
PART 3.  COMPLETIONS
165:10-3-17.  Well site and surface facilities
(a)     Scope.
(1)    This Section shall be applicable to all operators and owners of oil and gas wells, leases, secondary recovery units, converted or newly drilled disposal or injection wells, and re-entries or reworkings of the above; however, this Section does not cover pits used in connection with oil and gas operations (see 165:10-7-16).
(2)    For purposes of this Section, "surface trash and debris" means all discarded material directly connected with the drilling, production, exploration, or development of hydrocarbons including, but not limited to, garbage, rubbish, junk or scrap.
(b)     Removal of fire hazards. Any material that might constitute a fire hazard shall be removed a safe distance from the well location, tanks, and separator. All waste oil shall be disposed of in a manner to avoid creating a fire hazard.
(c)     Removal of surface trash, debris, and unnecessary equipment.
(1)    All operators of wells are required to remove all surface trash,and debris,occasioned by their operations, from the vicinity of their operations and keep such premises free and clear of such trash and debrisand junk associated with the operations of the property shall be removed from the premises. Equipment and material that may be useable and related to the operations of the property are not considered trash, debris and junk. With written permission from the surface owner, the operator may, without applying for an exception to 165:10-3-17(b), bury all nonhazardous material at a minimum depth of three feet; cement bases are included.
(2)    If the operator fails to remove trash, debris, and junk after written notice, the Commission may fine the operator up to $1,000.The operator is required to remove all unnecessary operating equipment, structures, surface debris, abutments, or obstacles used in the operation of the well from the land upon which the well is located, unless the owner of the land and the operator have entered into a contract providing otherwise.
(3)    If the operator fails to comply with paragraphs (c)(1) or (c)(2) after written notice, the Commission may fine the operator up to $1,000.
(d)     Required lease signs. Within 30 days after the completion of any producing oil or gas well subsequent to the effective date of this Section, a sign shall be posted and maintained at the location indicating no trespassing, no unauthorized personnel or similar language, showing the operator of the well and the operator's twenty-four hour emergency telephone number, name of the well, number of the well, legal description of the well and API number; provided, however, where more than one well is producing on a lease, the operator may post and maintain a sign at the principal lease entrance indicating no trespassing, no unauthorized personnel or similar language, the lease name, operator, the operator's twenty-four hour emergency telephone number, legal description, and number of wells, and on each well designate the number of the well and API number. Within 30 days after completion or recompletion of an injection well or a disposal well subsequent to the effective date of this Section, a sign shall be posted and maintained at the well location indicating no trespassing, no unauthorized personnel or similar language, showing the operator of the well, the operator's twenty-four hour emergency telephone number, well name, well number, legal description of the well, API number and the Commission order number by which it was authorized. The legal description of each well completed on or after March 1, 1976, shall be posted at the well and shall describe the location of the well to the nearest quarter quarter quarter section and shall show the section, township, and range. On a 160-acre or larger drilling and spacing unit, a sign shall also be posted at the entrance to the well site. Upon the Commission's approval, after the effective date of this Section, of transfer to a new operator of a well completed or recompleted prior to the effective date of this Section, the operator must comply with all requirements in this Section. If an operator fails to post a sign as directed, the Commission may fine the operator $50.00 per violation; provided that total fines per incident shall not exceed $500.00 per lease.
(e)     Notice of fire or blowout. In case of a fire or blowout, the well operator shall notify by telephone or electronic mail, as soon as possible, either the Conservation Division or the appropriate Conservation Division District Office.
(f)     OTC numbers on stock tanks for oil and condensate.
(1)    On all oil and gas producing leases, the first purchaser of crude oil or condensate shall print its name or affix the company logo and print or affix the OTC Gross Production Division Purchaser Reporting Number on the lease sign or at least one of the storage tanks from which marketable liquids are being delivered.
(2)    On all oil and gas producing leases, the well operator shall print or affix the OTC Gross Production Division assigned Production Unit Number and the OTC Gross Production Division Operator Reporting Number on the lease sign or at least one of the tanks from which marketable liquids are being stored. In the case of an enhanced recovery or unitization operation where several OTC Gross Production Division assigned Production Unit Numbers exist for the wells in the unit, the word "unitized" shall be printed or affixed to the lease sign or one of the storage tanks from which marketable liquids are being delivered to the purchaser.
(3)    The identification numbers required in this subsection shall always be clearly legible. All letters and numbers shall be a minimum of two inches in height. Any operator failing to post required information may be fined up to $50.00 per violation; provided that total fines per incident shall not exceed $500.00 per well.
(g)     OTC numbers on gas meter or meter house.
(1)    On all gas producing leases, the operator of the well site gas meter required under 165:10-17-5 shall print or affix its name and OTC reporting number on the outside of the meter house or on the outside of the meter itself if no meter house exists.
(2)    The operator of the lease shall print its OTC lease number and operator reporting number on the meter house or on outside of the meter if no meter house exists.
(3)    The identification required in this subsection shall always be clearly legible.
(h)     Valve and seals on stock tanks. The operator shall install tank valves such that metal identification seals can be properly utilized. These seals shall be used on all delivery tank valves to lessen unauthorized movement of marketable products.
(i)     Man-ways on frac tanks. Each frac tank used at the wellsite shall have protective man- ways to prevent persons from accidentally falling into the frac tank.
(j)     Guy line anchors. All guy line anchors left buried for use in future operations of the well shall be properly marked by a marker of bright color not less than four feet in height and not greater than one foot east of the guy line anchor.
(k)     Well site cleared. Within 90 days after a well is plugged and abandoned, the well site shall be cleared of all equipment, trash, and debris. Any foreign surface material is to be removed and the location site restored to as near to its natural state as reasonably possible, except by written agreement with the surface owner to leave the surface in some other condition. If the location site is restored but the vegetative cover is destroyed or significantly damaged, a bona fide effort shall be made to restore or re-establish the vegetative cover within 180 days after abandonment of the well.
(l)     Restored surface. Within 90 days after a lease has been abandoned, surface equipment such as stock tanks, heater, separators, and other related items shall be removed from the premises. The surface shall be restored to as near to its natural state as reasonably possible, except by written agreement with the surface owner to leave the surface in some other condition. If the surface is restored but the vegetative cover is destroyed or significantly damaged, a bona fide effort shall be made to restore or re- establish the vegetative cover within 180 days after abandonment of the lease.
(m)     Leasehold roads. All leasehold roads shall be kept in a passable condition and shall be made accessible at all times for representatives and field inspectors of the Commission. At the time of abandonment of the property, the area of the road shall be restored to as near to its natural state as reasonably possible, except by written agreement with the surface owner to leave the surface in some other condition. If the road area is restored but the vegetative cover is destroyed or significantly damaged, a bona fide effort shall be made to restore or re-establish the vegetative cover within 180 days after abandonment of the property.
(n)     Extension of time.
(1)    An operator may request an extension of time required in (k), (l), and (m) of this Section for not more than six months by applying to the appropriate Conservation Division District Office and showing that there is no imminent danger to the environment and that one of the following conditions exists:
(A)    That an agreement with the surface owners is not possible.
(B)    That adverse weather conditions exist or existed.
(C)    That the equipment needed to conform to (k), (l), and (m) of this Section was not or is not available.
(2)    If approved by the District Manager, the extension shall be granted and the surface owner shall be notified by the operator. Any extension beyond six months shall require application, notice and hearing pursuant to OAC 165:5-7-41.
PART 5.  OPERATIONS
165:10-3-28.  Horizontal drilling
(a)     Scope. This Section affects a horizontal well with one or more laterals.
(b)     Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this Section, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
(1)    "Adjacent common source of supply" shall mean a common source of supply which is immediately adjacent to and adjoining the targeted reservoir(s) in a multiunit horizontal well being drilled or a well being drilled in a horizontal well unitization pursuant to 52 O.S. § 87.6 et seq. and which is inadvertently encountered in the drilling of the lateral of a multiunit horizontal well or a well pursuant to a horizontal well unitization when such well is drilled out of or exits, whether on one or multiple occasions, the targeted reservoir(s), and which is not the primary target of the subject well and shall not be included in the relinquished rights pursuant to 52 O.S. § 87.1(h). In the event that an adjacent common source of supply may be inadvertently encountered in the drilling of the lateral of a multiunit horizontal well or a well pursuant to a horizontal well unitization when such well is drilled out of or exits, whether on one or multiple occasions, the targeted reservoir(s), then said inadvertently entered adjacent common source of supply shall be included as part of the targeted reservoir only for the purpose of the inadvertent penetrations, and any subsequent completion, commingling and production of said adjacent common source of supply with the targeted reservoir(s), but not for future development of said adjacent common source of supply [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(1)].
(2)    "Completion interval" shall mean, for open hole completions, the interval from the point of entry to the terminus and, for cased and cemented completions, the interval from the first perforations to the last perforations [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(5)].
(3)    "Conventional reservoir" shall mean a common source of supply that is not an unconventional reservoir.
(4)    "Date of first production" shall mean the date hydrocarbons are first produced from the horizontal well, whether or not production occurs during drilling, completion, or through permanent surface equipment.
(5)    "Directional survey" shall mean that survey or report showing the location of any point of the wellbore as it relates to the surveyed surface location from the surface to the terminus of each lateral.
(6)    "Horizontal component" shall mean the calculated horizontal distance from the point of entry to the terminus [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(8)].
(7)    "Horizontal well" shall mean a well drilled, completed, or recompleted with one or more laterals which, for at least one lateral, the horizontal component of the completion interval exceeds the vertical component of the completion interval and the horizontal component extends a minimum of 150 feet in the formation [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(6)].
(8)    "Horizontal well unit" shall mean a drilling and spacing unit established by the Commission, after application, notice, and hearing, for a common source of supply into which a horizontal well has been or will be drilled.
(9)    "Horizontal well unitization" shall mean a unitization for a targeted reservoir created pursuant to 52 O.S. § 87.6 et seq. [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(7)].
(10)    "Lateral" shall mean the portion of the wellbore of a horizontal well from the point of entry to the terminus [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(9)].
(11)    "Multiunit horizontal well" shall mean a horizontal well in a targeted reservoir or targeted reservoirs wherein the completion interval of the well is located in more than one unit formed for the same targeted reservoir, with the well being completed in and producing from such targeted reservoir in two or more of such units [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(10)].
(12)    "Non-standard horizontal well unit" shall mean a horizontal well unit that is not a standard horizontal well unit.
(13)    "Point of entry" shall mean the point at which the borehole of a horizontal well first intersects the top of the common source of supply [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(12)].
(14)    "Standard horizontal well unit" shall mean a horizontal well unit that is a square 10-, 40-, 160-, or 640-acre tract or a rectangular 20-, 80-, 320- or 1,280-acre tract in accordance with OAC 165:10-1-22.
(15)    "Targeted reservoir" shall mean one or more common sources of supply which will be encountered by the horizontal lateral portion of a horizontal well, and which has been designated by the Commission as part of an order, rule or emergency rule as potentially suited for development for the applied for multiunit horizontal well or horizontal well unitization pursuant to 52 O.S. § 87.6 et seq. Provided, however, that more than one common source of supply may only be granted by the Commission and included in the targeted reservoir upon a showing of reasonable cause by the applicant requesting the multiunit well in the application requesting authority for the multiunit well prior to the drilling of said multiunit well that the inclusion of the additional common source(s) of supply shall prevent waste and protect the correlative rights of all of the owners of the oil and gas rights [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(14)].
(16)    "Terminus" shall mean the end point of the borehole of a horizontal well in the targeted reservoir [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(15)].
(17)    "True vertical depth" shall mean that depth at the point of entry perpendicular to the surface as measured from the elevation of the kelly bushing on the drilling rig.
(18)    "Unconventional reservoir" shall mean a common source of supply that is a shale or a coal bed. "Unconventional reservoir" shall also mean any other common source of supply designated as such by Commission order or rule.
(19)    "Vertical component" shall mean the calculated vertical distance from the point of entry to the terminus of the lateral [52 O.S. § 87.6(B)(20)].
(c)     General horizontal well requirements.
(1)    Within 60 days after completion of a horizontal well, the operator shall show that the location of the completion interval complies with the applicable general rule, location exception order, or other order of the Commission by submitting the following to the Technical Services Department:
(A)    A directional survey run in the horizontal well shall be submitted within 45 days of the release of the rig used to drill such well. The survey shall be submitted electronically using a program provided by the Commission.
(B)    An "as drilled" plat constructed from the results of the directional survey showing the completion interval, including the depths of the first and last perforations and footages with latitude and longitude from the quarter section. The depths of the first and last perforations reflected in the "as drilled" plat must correspond to the information included in the OCC Form 1002A Completion Report for the well. The "as drilled" plat must be submitted to the Conservation Division with the OCC Form 1002A Completion Report for the well.
(2)    The completion interval of an oil and or gas horizontal well shall be located not closer than the minimum distance as set out below from any other oil or gas well completed in the same common source of supply except as authorized by a special order of the Commission:
(A)    Three hundred feet from any other oil or gas well completed in the same common source of supply, the top of which is less than 2,500 feet in true vertical depth.
(B)    Six hundred feet from any other oil or gas well completed in the same common source of supply, the top of which is 2,500 feet or more in true vertical depth.
(C)    This paragraph does not apply to horizontal wells drilled in a unit created for secondary or enhanced recovery operations pursuant to 52 O.S. § 287.1 et seq. or to horizontal wells drilled in a horizontal well unitization created pursuant to 52 O.S. § 87.6 et seq. or to any wells operated by the same operator in the unit. Notification to working interest owners must be indicated on Form 1000. Furthermore, the above-described requirements for the distance between any such oil and/or gas horizontal well and any such other oil or gas well shall not apply if such wells are operated by the same operator, and notification to working interest owners in such oil and/or gas horizontal well shall be indicated on Form 1000 for such horizontal well.
(3)    The perforated interval of an oil or gas non-horizontal well shall be located not closer than the minimum distance as set out below from the completion interval of any oil or gas horizontal well completed in the same common source of supply, except as authorized by a special order of the Commission:
(A)    Three hundred feet from any completion interval of any oil or gas horizontal well completed in the same common source of supply, the top of which is less than 2,500 feet in true vertical depth.
(B)    Six hundred feet from any completion interval of any oil or gas horizontal well completed in the same common source of supply, the top of which is 2,500 feet or more in true vertical depth.
(C)    This paragraph does not apply to non-horizontal wells drilled in a unit created for secondary or enhanced recovery operations pursuant to 52 O.S. § 287.1 et seq.
(d)     Horizontal well requirements in an unspaced common source of supply. In a horizontal well drilled in a common source of supply in which the Commission has not established any drilling and spacing units or horizontal well units, the completion interval of a horizontal well may not be located closer to the boundaries of the applicable mineral estate, oil and gas leasehold estate, or voluntary unit than the minimum distance set out below except as authorized by a special order of the Commission:
(1)    Not less than 165 feet when the top of the common source of supply is less than 2,500 feet in true vertical depth.
(2)    Not less than 330 feet when the top of the common source of supply is 2,500 feet or more in true vertical depth.
(e)     Drilling and spacing units.
(1)    A horizontal well may be drilled on any drilling and spacing unit.
(2)    A horizontal well unit may be created in accordance with 165:10-1-22 and 165:5-7-6. Such units shall be created as new units after notice and hearing as provided for by the Rules of Practice, OAC 165:5.
(3)    The Commission may create a non-standard horizontal well unit covering contiguous lands in any configuration or shape deemed by the Commission to be necessary for the development of a conventional reservoir or an unconventional reservoir by the drilling of one or more horizontal wells. A non-standard horizontal well unit may not exceed 1,280 acres plus the tolerances and variances allowed pursuant to 52 O.S. § 87.1.
(4)    A horizontal well unit may be established for a common source of supply for which there are already established non-horizontal drilling and spacing units, and said horizontal well unit may include within the boundaries thereof more than one existing non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit for the common source of supply. Upon the formation of a horizontal well unit that includes within the boundaries thereof one or more non-horizontal drilling and spacing units, the Commission shall provide that such horizontal well unit exists concurrently with one or more of such non-horizontal drilling and spacing units, and each such unit may be concurrently developed.
(f)     Horizontal well location requirements for horizontal well units and horizontal well unitizations.
(1)     Conventional reservoirs. In a conventional reservoir, the completion interval of a horizontal well in a horizontal well unit shall be located not less than the minimum distance from the unit boundary as follows:
(A)    Not less than 165 feet from the boundary of any 10-, 20-, or 40-acre horizontal well unit.
(B)    Not less than 330 feet from the boundary of any 80- or 160-acre horizontal well unit.
(C)    Not less than 660 feet from the boundary of any 320-, 640- or 1,280-acre horizontal well unit.
(2)     Unconventional reservoirs. In an unconventional reservoir, the completion interval of a horizontal well in a horizontal well unit shall be located not less than the minimum distance from the unit boundary as follows:
(A)    Not less than 165 feet from the boundary of any 10-, 20-, or 40-acre horizontal well unit.
(B)    Not less than 330 feet from the boundary of any 80-, 160-, 320-, 640- or 1,280- acre horizontal well unit.
(3)     Horizontal well unitizations. The completion interval of a horizontal well in a horizontal well unitization shall not be located less than 330 feet from the unit boundary.
(g)     Alternative well location requirements. The Commission may establish well location requirements different from those provided in subsection (f) of this Section when necessary to prevent waste and protect correlative rights. These requirements may be established in the order creating a standard or non-standard horizontal well unit or through a special rule of the Commission covering a conventional or unconventional reservoir in a designated geographic area. (see OAC 165:10, Subchapter 29, Special Area Rules).
(h)     Allowable.
(1)    Horizontal oil well allowables may be established administratively using the standard allowables provided in Appendix A (Allocated Well Allowable Table) supplemented by the additional allowables provided in Appendix C (Table HD) to this Chapter.
(2)    The allowable for a horizontal gas well shall be computed in the manner prescribed for a non-horizontal gas well in the same common source of supply. The allowable for a horizontal well in a horizontal well unit 640-acres in size or less shall be the minimum well allowable as established in the current proration order determining the allowable formula issued pursuant to OAC 165:10-17-11, unless a higher allowable is established by conducting a flow potential test. The allowable for a horizontal well in a horizontal well unit in excess of 640-acres in size shall be calculated by multiplying the minimum well allowable by the quotient of the number of acres in the unit divided by 640. If an allowable higher than the minimum well allowable is established by way of a flow potential test, then the higher allowable will be utilized in calculating the appropriate allowable for a horizontal well in a horizontal well unit in excess of 640-acres in size.
(3)    The allowable for a horizontal well unit or horizontal well unitization with multiple horizontal gas wells shall be the sum of the allowables for the separate horizontal gas wells. For this summation, the allowable for each horizontal gas well will be calculated as if it were the only well in the unit.
(4)    The allowable for a multiunit horizontal well shall be allocated to each affected unit using the allocation factors determined in accordance with 52 O.S. § 87.8(B)(1).
(5)    A non-horizontal well in a non-horizontal drilling and spacing unit which exists concurrently with a horizontal well unit shall be assigned the same allowable as a horizontal well in the horizontal well unit producing from the same common source of supply, except as otherwise specified by Order of the Commission.
(i)     Pooling. Horizontal well units, horizontal well unitizations and multiunit horizontal wells may be pooled as provided in 52 O.S. § 87.1, 52 O.S. § 87.6 et seq. and Commission Rules of Practice, OAC 165:5.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Underground Injection Control
165:10-5-5.  Application for approval of injection and disposal operations
(a)     Application. Each application for the approval of a proposed injection well, disposal well, or commercial disposal well shall be filed with the UIC Department on Form 1015 and shall be verified by a duly authorized representative of the operator.
(b)     Application. The application for the approval of an injection or disposal well(s) shall be accompanied by:
(1)     Plat.
(A)     Noncommercial disposal well or injection well. A plat showing the location and total depth of the well(s) and each abandoned, producing or drilling well, and dry hole within one- quarter (1/4) mile of the proposed injection well or disposal well for volumes less than 20,000 barrels per day and within one-half (1/2) mile of the proposed injection well or disposal well for volumes equal to or greater than 20,000 barrels per day, and identifying the surface owner of the land on which the injection or disposal well is to be located, and each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within one-half (1/2) mile of each injection or disposal well with a requested injection rate of less than five thousand barrels per day, and each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within one (1) mile of each injection or disposal well with a requested injection rate of five thousand barrels per day or more.
(B)     Commercial disposal well. A plat showing the location and total depth of the well(s) and each abandoned, producing or drilling well and dry hole within one-half (1/2) mile of the disposal well, and identifying the surface owner of the land on which the disposal well is to be located, and each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within one (1) mile of each disposal well.
(C)     Additional required information. The following information must be submitted in a separate document regarding wells listed on such plats:
(i)    Well name and number and API number;
(ii)    Current operator of well;
(iii)    Well status;
(iv)    Total depth of well;
(v)    Geologic name of any producing interval in the well and/or any interval used for injection or disposal purposes;
(vi)    The diameter of and setting depth for the surface casing, intermediate casing (if set), production casing (if set) and liner (if used) in the well;
(vii)    Top of cement obtained from Forms 1002A or 1002C, if specified, or a cement bond log, temperature log or cased hole log, if available, in the outermost string of casing in the well perforating the injection interval to be used by the proposed noncommercial or commercial disposal well or injection well. If such logs are not available, a calculated top of cement will be acceptable;
(viii)    The size and amount of casing pulled, if any, and the depths of any plugs set, if any, in any plugged well;
(ix)    Identify any well or borehole that penetrates the top of the proposed injection/disposal zone which is mud plugged and/or is configured in a manner that will not prevent the potential movement of fluids from the injection/disposal zone into treatable water strata. The applicant is required to submit the corresponding Form 1003 Plugging Records for such wells identified in this unit. If such Form 1003 Plugging Records are not available, the applicant must provide a corrective action plan to prevent injected/disposed fluids from impacting treatable water strata, which corrective action plan may include, but not be limited to, a written request by the applicant for a technical conference with the Conservation Division; and
(x)    Identify any well where the top of cement is behind the long string below any portion of the proposed injection/disposal zone. The applicant is required to submit the corresponding Form 1002A Completion Reports for such wells identified in this unit. If such Form 1002A Completion Reports do not contain enough information to make the foregoing determination, or if Form 1002A Completion Reports are not available, the applicant must provide a corrective action plan to prevent injected/disposed fluids from impacting treatable water strata, which corrective action plan may include, but not be limited to, a written request by the applicant for a technical conference with the Conservation Division.
(2)     Completion Report. If the well has been drilled, a copy of the Completion Report (Form 1002A) and any available electric or radioactivity log of the well.
(3)     Schematic diagram. A schematic diagram of the well showing:
(A)    The total depth or plugback depth of the well.
(B)    The depth of the injection or disposal interval indicating both the top and bottom.
(C)    The geological name (geological group) of the injection or disposal zone.
(D)    The depths of the tops and bottoms of the casing and cement to be used in the well.
(E)    The size of the casing and tubing, and the depth of the packer.
(4)     Proposed zone information. Information showing that injection into the proposed zone will not initiate fractures through the overlying strata which could enable the injection fluid or formation fluid to enter fresh water strata.
(A)    When the fluid injection rate is 1,000 barrels per day or less, or equivalent rate for any fraction of twenty-four (24) hours, an overlying strata of at least 200 feet in thickness between the lowest base of fresh water and the top of the proposed interval of injection is considered sufficient evidence of fresh water protection.
(B)    When the fluid injection rate is greater than 1,000 barrels per day or equivalent rate for any fraction of twenty-four (24) hours, an overlying strata of at least 500 feet in thickness between the lowest base of fresh water and the top of the proposed interval of injection is considered sufficient evidence of fresh water protection.
(C)    When the fluid injection rate is greater than 10,000 barrels per day or equivalent rate for any fraction of twenty-four (24) hours, an overlying strata of at least 3,000 feet in thickness between the lowest base of fresh water and the top of the proposed interval of injection is considered sufficient evidence of fresh water protection.
(D)    lf the overlying strata is less than required in (A), (B), or (C) of this paragraph, the Commission may administratively approve injection provided a finding is made that such injection will not initiate fractures through the overlying strata into the fresh water strata. Applicant is required to furnish to the Commission, sworn evidence and data in support of such findings. The Commission, when issuing an order approving fluid injection, shall consider the following:
(i)    Maximum injection rate.
(ii)    Maximum surface injection pressure.
(iii)    lnjection fluid.
(iv)    The lithology and rock characteristics of the injection zones and overlying strata.
(5)    Proposed operating data:
(A)    Daily injection rates and pressures. The maximum permitted surface injection pressure may be the pressure requested in the application or 1/2 psi per foot of depth to the top of the injection/disposal interval, whichever is less, unless the results of a fracture pressure step-rate test support a higher pressure. The Conservation Division may designate areas of interest in which pressures and volumes may be more restrictive. The UIC Department may request that the applicant perform a fracture pressure step-rate test.
(B)    Geologic name, depth, and location of injection fluid source.
(C)    Qualitative and quantitative analysis of fresh water from two (2) or more fresh water wells within one (1) mile of the proposed injection or disposal well showing location of wells and dates samples were taken, or statement why samples were not submitted. The analysis shall include at a minimum chloride, sodium, and total dissolved solids. Sample collection date(s) must be no more than 12 months prior to the date the application is filed.
(D)    Qualitative and quantitative analysis of representative sample of Class II fluids to be injected. The analysis shall include at a minimum chloride, sodium, and total dissolved solids. The legal location of where the sample was obtained and the date the sample was taken must be provided. The sample collection date must be no more than 12 months prior to the date the application is filed.
(c)     Application for approval. A copy of the Form 1015 application for approval of injection or disposal of Class II fluids in a well and, where noted, required attachments to Form 1015, except for proofs of publication, fresh water analyses, analyses of representative samples of Class II fluids to be injected, and electric or radioactivity logs, shall be served by the applicant within five (5) business days of the date the application is filed by regular mail or delivered to the following, and applicant must submit an affidavit of mailing or delivery to the UIC Department not later than five (5) business days after the date the application is filed:
(1)    The owner of the surface of the land on which the proposed injection or disposal well is to be located;
(2)    For a proposed commercial disposal well, to each surface owner and surface lessee of record on each tract of land adjacent and contiguous to the site of the proposed well;
(3)    For a proposed injection or noncommercial disposal well with a requested injection rate of less than five thousand (5,000) barrels per day, to each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within one-half (1/2) mile of such proposed well along with required Form 1015 attachments;
(4)    For a proposed noncommercial disposal well with a requested injection rate of five thousand (5,000) barrels per day or more, or a commercial disposal well, to each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within two (2) miles of such proposed well along with required Form 1015 attachments;
(5)    For a proposed horizontal injection or noncommercial disposal well with a requested injection rate of less than five thousand (5,000) barrels per day, to each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within one-half (1/2) mile of the lateral of such proposed well along with required Form 1015 attachments;
(6)    For a proposed noncommercial horizontal disposal well with a requested injection rate of five thousand (5,000) barrels per day or more, or a horizontal commercial disposal well, to each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within two (2) miles of the lateral of such proposed well along with required Form 1015 attachments;
(7)    For a proposed injection well with a requested injection rate of five thousand (5,000) barrels per day or more, to each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within one (1) mile of such proposed well along with required Form 1015 attachments; and
(8)    For a proposed horizontal injection well with a requested injection rate of five thousand (5,000) barrels per day or more, to each operator of a producing spacing unit or well within one (1) mile of the lateral of such proposed well along with required Form 1015 attachments.
(d)     Notice of application. Notice of an application relating to injection, disposal or commercial wells shall be published one time for injection and noncommercial disposal wells and two times for a commercial disposal well in a newspaper of general circulation published in Oklahoma County, Oklahoma, and in a newspaper of general circulation published in each county in which land embraced in the application are located. Applicant shall file with the UIC Department proof of publication regarding the notice of application. The notice shall include:
(1)    UIC tracking number.
(2)    Name and address of applicant.
(3)    Location of proposed well to nearest 10 acre tract.
(4)    Well name.
(5)    The geological name of the injection formation.
(6)    The top and bottom of the injection interval.
(7)    Maximum injection pressures.
(8)    Maximum BID or MCFID injection rate.
(9)    The type of well (injection, disposal, commercial).
(10)    For a proposed directional or horizontal injection or disposal well, the bottomhole location to the nearest 10 acre tract and the measured depth and true vertical depth.
(e)     Written objection. If a written objection to the application is filed within fifteen (15) days after the application is published for injection and noncommercial disposal wells or thirty (30) days after the last publication date for commercial disposal wells, or if hearing is required by the Commission, the application shall be set for hearing and notice thereof shall be given in the same manner as required for the filing of the application on the pollution docket. If no objection is filed and the Commission does not require a hearing, the matter shall be presented administratively to the Manager of Underground Injection Control who may sign the permit.
(f)    Surety requirements for commercial disposal well facilities.
(1)    Any operator of a commercial disposal well facility shall file with the Surety Department for the Conservation Division an agreement to properly plug the well and reclaim the site upon termination of operations. The agreement shall be on forms available from the Conservation Division and shall be accompanied by surety. The agreement shall provide that if the Commission finds that the operator has failed or refused to comply with Commission rules or take remedial action as required by law and Commission rules, the surety shall pay to the Commission the full amount of the operator's obligation up to the limit of the surety.
(2)    The Commission shall establish the amount of surety in the order or permit for the authority to operate a commercial disposal well facility. The amount of surety shall be based on factors such as the depth of the well, dimensions of the facility, and costs of plugging the well, reclamation, monitoring, plugging of monitor wells, any pit closure, trucking of any deleterious substances, remediation and earth work. The amount may be subject to change for good cause. The surety shall be maintained for as long as monitoring is required. The type of surety shall be a corporate surety bond, certificate of deposit, irrevocable commercial letter of credit, or other type of surety approved by order or permit of the Commission. Any type of surety that expires shall be renewed prior to 30 days before the expiration date.
(3)    Operators of commercial disposal well facilities authorized prior to the effective date of this subsection must either comply with this subsection or close such facilities within one (1) year of the effective date of this subsection.
(g)    In addition to the requirements listed above, the Manager of Underground Injection Control may request the applicant to submit the following information as a prerequisite to approval of the application:
(1)    For those wells included in OAC 165:10-5-5(b)(1) which penetrate the top of the injection interval, a tabulation of the wells indicating the following information, if available, from public records:
(A)    Dates the wells were drilled.
(B)    The present status of the wells.
(C)    The identity of any abandoned well which was improperly plugged or remains unplugged.
(2)    A list of the following information, if available, to the applicant:
(A)    The shut-in bottom hole formation pressure in psi; or the stabilized shut-in surface pressure and fluid level in the proposed injection well.
(B)    The permeability of the proposed injection zone expressed in millidarcies.
(C)    The porosity of the proposed injection zone expressed as a percentage of pore volume.
(D)    Documentation of the methods used to arrive at the data requested above.
(h)    Authorization of an injection well or a disposal well or a commercial disposal well will expire and become null and void if no well completion report (Form 1002A) is filed or if no mechanical integrity test is performed pursuant to OAC 165:10-5-6 within sixty (60) days from the date of completion or conversion of the well.
(i)    In addition to the well construction requirements as set out in 165:10-3-1, commercial disposal wells shall comply with the following requirements:
(1)    At a minimum, the well shall be constructed with a wellhead, surface casing, production casing, tubing, and packer.
(2)    The surface casing shall be set and cemented at least fifty (50) feet below the base of the treatable water bearing zone. The production casing will not be allowed to also serve as the surface casing.
(3)    The production casing must be set and cemented through the injection zone with the cement circulated behind the casing to a height at least two hundred fifty (250) feet above the disposal zone. A cement bond log showing quality and placement of the cement must be furnished to and acceptable to the Conservation Division before any perforating of the production casing takes places. The Conservation Division shall notify the operator by electronic mail as to whether the cement bond log is acceptable. Information regarding the proposed perforations shall be supplied to the Conservation Division with the cement bond log. The Manager of Underground Injection Control may approve the Arbuckle Formation for open hole completion.
(4)    The annulus between the tubing and the casing must be open from the surface to the packer to allow for pressure testing and monitoring of the injection tubing and packer and the annulus filled with a packer fluid that protects against corrosion.
(5)    The packer must be set at least within seventy-five (75) feet of the top of the perforations.
(6)    Adequate gauges shall be installed on each annulus to allow proper monitoring of the disposal operation.
(7)    Tubing must be internally coated or lined to prevent corrosion from injected fluids. PVC, Plastic Coated, Stainless Steel or Fiberglass will qualify.
(8)    The packer must be either internally coated or stainless steel.
(9)    Commercial disposal wells authorized with a positive injection pressure must be equipped with a down hole shut-off device with a seal divider installed between the packer and the tubing. A Stainless Steel Profile Nipple and an "ON-OFF" Tool will qualify under this Section.
(j)    No Commercial disposal well will be permitted whose injection pressure approaches or exceeds the demonstrated frac gradient of the injection zones(s).
(k)    The geologic injection intervals authorized by the order or permit which are not perforated during the initial or subsequent completion of the disposal well will not expire until the disposal well is plugged, or the authority to inject is terminated or vacated.
(l)    In the event the Commission has evidence that an applicant for a commercial disposal well may not possess a satisfactory compliance history with Commission rules, the Director of the Conservation Division may seek an order of the Commission, issued after application, notice, and hearing, determining whether the applicant should be authorized to operate such commercial disposal well.
165:10-5-6.  Testing and monitoring requirements for injection wells and disposal wells
(a)     Mechanical integrity during injection. The operator of an injection, disposal or commercial disposal well must maintain mechanical integrity in order to continue operation of the well.
(b)     Initial pressure test requirements for wells permitted on or after December 2, 1981.
(1)     Mandatory initial mechanical test. Before commencement of operation, each well authorized for injection or disposal by a Commission order issued on or after December 2, 1981, must pass an initial pressure test of the casing tubing annulus according to the minimum testing standards of (2) of this subsection, unless a Commission order or permit authorizes other test procedures of the mechanical integrity of the well. Any operator failing to comply with initial mechanical integrity testing and reporting requirements may be fined up to $500.00.
(2)     Minimum testing standards for initial tests. For each initial test required by (1) of this subsection, the minimum testing standards are:
(A)     Witnessing of the test. The test shall be witnessed by an authorized representative of the Conservation Division. It shall be the responsibility of the well operator to secure the presence of the CommissionConservation Division representative.
(B)     Down-hole equipment. Injection and disposal shall be through adequate tubing and packer.
(C)     Aboveground extensions and fittings. Adequate aboveground extensions shall be installed in each annulus in the well. In addition, the operator shall install an adequate working pressure gauge with a cutoff valve to the tubing, so that the amount of injection pressure may be measured by the CommissionConservation Division representative. An operator is required to keep adequate working gauges on the tubing and annulus of the well.
(D)     Packer setting depth under the order. The mechanical packer shall be set within 40 feet of the packer setting depth prescribed by the order permitting the well for injection or within 75 feet of the perforations of the injection zone(s) opened.
(E)     Verification of packer setting depth. The CommissionConservation Division District Manager may require the operator of the well to verify the packer setting depth by running a wireline or other method approved by the Manager of the Underground Injection Control Department.
(F)     Minimum testing pressure for noncommercial disposal and injection wells. Noncommercial disposal and injection wells shall be tested as follows:
(i)    If the maximum authorized injection pressure for the well is less than 300 psig under the order or permit authorizing the well for injection, the minimum testing pressure shall be 300 psig.
(ii)    If the maximum authorized injection pressure is greater than 300 psig under the order or permit authorizing the well for injection, the minimum testing pressure shall be the lesser of 1000 psig or the maximum authorized injection pressure under the order permitting the well.
(G)     Minimum testing pressure for commercial disposal wells. Commercial disposal wells shall be tested at the maximum injection pressure authorized in the order or permit authorizing the well for injection, but not less than 300 psig.
(H)     Thirty minute minimum testing period. The minimum testing period shall be 30 minutes at the testing pressure.
(I)     Ten percent maximum permitted bleed-off. The maximum permitted change in pressure during the testing period shall be ten percent of the maximum testing pressure used.
(J)     Test report on Form 1075. The Field Inspector shall submit the results of the mechanical integrity test on Form 1075 within 30 days from the date the test is performed.
(K)     Cement circulated above injection zone. The annulus between the casing and the borehole must be cemented through the injection or disposal zone to a height at least two hundred fifty (250) feet above the injection or disposal zone.The production casing must be set and cemented through the injection or disposal zone with the cement circulated behind the casing to a height at least two hundred fifty (250) feet above the injection or disposal zone. If a cement squeeze is necessary to raise annular cement to the minimum height of two hundred fifty250(250) feet, a cement bond log showing quality and placement of the cement must be furnished to and acceptable tobe approved by the CommissionConservation Division before the well may be used for injection or disposal.
(L)     Packer setting depth. The packer must be set at a depth which is at least 50 feet below the depth of the top of cement behind the production casing.
(3)     Alternative testing procedures. Operators can test at a maximum of 500 psi if there is in place an automatic and continuous pressure monitor on the tubing-casing annulus that will shut-in the well if there is a pressure increase of 250 psi on the annulus. Application for this alternative test procedure shall be made in writing to the Manager of the UIC Department. The Manager of the UIC Department may allow the alternative test procedure to be used as the initial mechanical integrity test, which permission shall be reflected in the order or permit regarding the well.
(4)     Use of fluid seal without a mechanical packer. Use of a fluid seal without a mechanical packer is prohibited.
(c)     Initial pressure test requirements for wells permitted prior to December 2, 1981.
(1)     Mandatory initial pressure test or monitoring test.
(A)    Each well authorized for injection or disposal by Commission order issued prior to December 2, 1981, must pass an initial mechanical integrity test according to the minimum testing standards of (2) of this subsection.
(B)    In lieu of casing test required in (A) of this paragraph, the operator shall monitor and record during actual injection the pressure in the casing-tubing annulus monthly and report the pressure annually on Form 1075. A measurable positive pressure must be maintained at the casing valve and be continuously measured to qualify.
(2)     Minimum testing standards for initial mechanical integrity tests.
(A)     Wells with casing-tubing annulus. The minimum testing standards of (b)(2) of this Section for an initial test of a well with a casing tubing annulus shall apply with the following modifications:
(i)    The Conservation Division District Manager shall have the option to waive witnessing of the test.
(ii)    If the test is not witnessed, the well operator shall submit documentation of the test to the Conservation Division within 30 days after the test on Form 1075.
(iii)    The minimum testing pressure shall be 200 psig.
(B)     Wells without a casing-tubing annulus or wells with perforations above the packer. The minimum testing standards for an initial test of a well without a casing-tubing annulus or wells with perforations above the packer are:
(i)     Witnessing of the test. The test shall be witnessed by an authorized representative of the Conservation Division unless the District Manager for the Conservation Division waives the requirement of witnessing the initial test. It shall be the responsibility of the well operator to secure the presence of the commission representative for witnessing the test.
(ii)     Documentation for unwitnessed tests. If the test is not witnessed, then the operator shall submit on Form 1075 documentation of the test to the Conservation Division within 30 days after the test.
(iii)     Aboveground extensions and fittings. The operator shall install a one- fourth (1/4) inch female fitting, with cutoff valve to the tubing, so that the amount of injection pressure may be measured by the Commission representative using a gauge having a one-fourth (1/4) inch male fitting.
(iv)     Setting depth for plug. For purposes of the test, a mechanical packer, retrievable bridge plug, or seating nipple plug shall be placed in the injection string not more than 75 feet above the top of the injection interval.
(v)     Pressure testing of tubing string. The well operator shall pressure test the tubing string for at least 30 minutes. The minimum testing pressure shall be the greater of 300 psig, or the maximum authorized injection pressure provided that the actual working injection pressure for the well may be used instead of the maximum authorized injection pressure when necessary to prevent damage to the casing or packer.
(vi)     Ten percent maximum permitted bleedoff. The maximum permitted bleedoff during the testing period shall be ten percent of the maximum testing pressure used.
(vii)     Radioactive tracer survey. A radioactive tracer survey shall be run demonstrating that the injected fluid is going into the authorized zone when there is no cement bond log or cementing reports to demonstrate sufficient cement behind pipe to isolate the injection zone or to insure the packer is properly set.
(viii)     Pressure test using a gas media. In lieu of a pressure test using a liquid testing media, the UIC Department may approve a mechanical integrity test using a gas media if it conforms to a method previously approved by the EPA.
(ix)     Test report on Form 1075. The Field Inspector shall submit the results of the mechanical integrity test on Form 1075 to the Conservation Division within 30 days after the test.
(d)     Subsequent mechanical integrity test requirements for noncommercial disposal wells and injection wells.
(1)     Pressure tests.
(A)     Noncommercial disposal wells permitted for injection at volumes equal to or greater than 20,000 barrels per day. Unless a well has been approved by an order or permit of the Commission for other testing procedures or monitoring, each noncommercial disposal well permitted for injection at volumes equal to or greater than 20,000 barrels per day shall demonstrate mechanical integrity by using one of the following methods:
(i)    Conduct a pressure test of the casing tubing annulus at least once every year according to the minimum testing standards of (3) of this subsection, or
(ii)    If a continuous pressure monitor is installed on the casing tubing annulus that will automatically notify the operator of a mechanical failure, then the well shall demonstrate mechanical integrity at least once every five years according to the minimum testing standards of (3) of this subsection.
(B)     Noncommercial disposal wells permitted for injection at volumes less than 20,000 barrels per day and injection wells. Unless a well has been approved by an order or permit of the Commission for other testing procedures or monitoring, each noncommercial disposal well permitted for injection at volumes less than 20,000 barrels per day, and each injection well permitted for injection shall demonstrate mechanical integrity at least once every five years according to the minimum testing standards of (3) of this subsection.
(C)     Penalty for noncompliance. Any operator failing to comply with periodic mechanical integrity testing and reporting requirements may be fined up to $500.00.
(2)     Required retest if down-hole equipment is moved or replaced. After a well passes a pressure test required by this Section, if the operator moves the packer or replaces either the packer or the tubing, then the operator shall notify the Commission and retest the well according to the minimum testing standards of (3) of this subsection.
(3)     Minimum testing standards.
(A)     Wells with casing-tubing annulus. For a five year test or retest required by this subsection, the minimum testing standards of (b)(2) of this Section shall apply to wells with casing-tubing annulus with the following modifications:
(i)    The Conservation Division District Manager shall have the option to waive witnessing of the test.
(ii)    If the test is not witnessed due to waiver, the well operator shall submit documentation of the test to the Conservation Division within 30 days after the test.
(iii)    The minimum testing pressure shall be 200 psig for a noncommercial disposal or injection well.
(B)     Wells without a casing-tubing annulus or wells with perforations above the packer. For a five year test or retest required by this subsection, the minimum testing reporting standards of (c)(2)(B) of this Section, shall apply to wells without a casing-tubing annulus or wells with perforations above the packer.
(e)     Subsequent mechanical integrity test requirements for commercial disposal wells.
(1)     Pressure tests.
(A)    The well shall be tested a minimum of every twelve (12) months according to the minimum testing standards of (b)(2) of this Section.
(B)    After a well passes a pressure test required by this Section, if the operator moves the packer or replaces the packer or tubing, then the operator shall notify the Commission and retest the well according to the minimum testing standards of (b)(2) of this Section.
(C)    Any operator failing to comply with periodic mechanical integrity testing and reporting requirements may be fined up to $500.00.
(2)     Alternative testing procedures. Operators can test at a maximum of 500 psi if there is in place an automatic and continuous pressure monitor on the tubing-casing annulus that will shut-in the well if there is a pressure increase of 250 psig on the annulus. Application for this alternative test procedure shall be made in writing to the Manager of the UIC Department. The Manager of the UIC Department may allow the alternative test procedure to be used as the initial mechanical integrity test, which permission shall be reflected in the order or permit regarding the well.
(f)     Fluid level monitoring required by UIC orders or permits to address wells ascertained during the permitting process that may require remediation.
(1)     Fluid level monitoring. The operator must perform on an annual basis fluid level monitoring tests if required by a UIC order or permit.
(2)     Fluid level test procedures.
(A)    Unless otherwise stated in UIC orders or permits for fluid level monitoring, the well must be shut in for a minimum of 48 hours before a fluid level test is performed. A variance to the 48-hour shut-in period may be granted by the Manager of the UIC Department if it can be demonstrated that reservoir pressure will stabilize prior to the expiration of the 48-hour time period.
(B)    Fluid level test procedures shall be designed to determine reservoir pressure and such tests must be approved by the Conservation Division.
(C)    The appropriate Field Inspector shall be notified at least 48 hours in advance of a fluid level test to allow a Commission representative an opportunity to witness the test.
(D)    The operator is required to perform the fluid level monitoring test annually during the two month time period in May and June and submit the annual monitoring test results by June 30 of each year to the Manager of the Underground Injection Control Department.
(3)     Fluid level monitoring test failure. If the fluid level in a well is determined to be within 150 feet or less below the base of treatable water, the test shall be deemed a failure, and the following actions must be performed:
(A)    The operator shall immediately cease injection or disposal operations.
(B)    The operator shall notify the Manager of the Underground Injection Control Department of the results within 24 hours of the performance of the fluid level test, and shall submit the results of the test and a corrective action plan in writing to such Manager within 7 days of the test.
(4)     Failure to perform fluid level test. Any operator who fails to perform annual fluid level tests as required by a UIC order or permit pursuant to this subsection is subject to the following:
(A)    Injection or disposal into the UIC well is prohibited until the operator performs the test and submits the results to the Manager of the Underground Injection Control Department.
(B)    The operator may be fined up to $1,000.00, and
(C)    The UIC order or permit is subject to termination after notice and hearing.
165:10-5-7.  Monitoring and reporting requirements for wells covered by 165:10-5-1
(a)     Scope. This Section applies to:
(1)    Notice of Initial Commencement of Disposal Operations.
(2)    Report of Injection Projects, disposal wells and LPG storage wells on Form 1012 or Form 1012C.
(3)    Notice of Voluntary Termination of Operations on Form 1072.
(4)    Notice of mechanical failure or down-hole problems on Form 1075.
(b)     Notice of initial commencement of disposal operations. The operator of a well permitted as a disposal well in the Arbuckle formation shall give at least 48 hours notice by electronic mail or facsimile to the Manager of the Underground Injection Control Department regarding the time when initial disposal operations will begin.
(c)     Report of injection projects, disposal wells and LPG storage wells.
(1)     Submit Form 1012. Each operator of a disposal well, LPG storage well or an authorized waterflood, pressure maintenance project, gas repressuring project, or other enhanced recovery project shall submit a Form 1012 for every well to the Conservation Division by January 31 for the previous calendar year for all noncommercial wells.
(2)     Submit Form 1012C. Each operator of a commercial disposal well shall submit a Form 1012C for every well to the Conservation Division by January 31 and July 31 for the previous six-month period.
(3)     Failure to submit Form 1012 or Form 1012C. Any operator who fails to submit the report on Form 1012 or Form 1012C as required by (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this Section may be fined up to $500.00 and:
(A)    Injection into the project is prohibited until the operator submits Form 1012 or Form 1012C for each injection or disposal well.
(B)    The order or permit is subject to termination.
(4)     Required monitoring.
(A)    On a monthly basis, the operator of each injection well and disposal well and LPG storage well shall monitor and record the injection rate and surface injection pressure for the well.
(B)    On a daily basis, the operator of each well authorized for disposal into the Arbuckle formation shall monitor and record the volumes, the casing tubing annulus pressure and the surface injection pressure for the well. The operator must maintain the information required by this subparagraph for a minimum of three years. This information shall be produced upon request by an authorized representative of the Commission.
(5)    Requested monitoring and reporting within areas of interest regarding seismicity or potentially critical environmental or public safety impacts. Upon request by the Manager of the Induced Seismicity Department, the following actions must be performed and the information provided to the Manager of the Induced Seismicity Department:
(A)    Operators shall monitor on a daily basis volumes and pressures for wells authorized for disposal within areas of interest designated by the Oil and Gas Conservation Division regarding seismicity or potentially critical environmental or public safety impacts. The information shall be submitted on Form 1012D at a minimum on a weekly basis or as designated by the Manager of the Induced Seismicity Department.
(B)    Operators of wells authorized for disposal within areas of interest designated by the Oil and Gas Conservation Division regarding seismicity or potentially critical environmental or public safety impacts shall supply bottom hole pressure data using a method approved by the Manager of the Induced Seismicity Department.
(6)     All UIC wells. Information regarding disposal wells, injection wells and storage wells shall be reported on Form 1012 or Form 1012C individually according to the order or permit authorizing disposal.
(d)     Monitoring requirements for commercial disposal well.
(1)    The operator of a commercial disposal well shall monitor and record the casing tubing annulus pressure and the injection pressure on a daily basis.
(2)    The operator of a commercial disposal well shall make available upon request of the Commission a log of all loads of Class II fluids disposed at the well. The log shall be kept on file for a period of at least five (5) years. The log of record shall include at a minimum, the date and time the load was received, the volume, the legal description of the well and/or source, and the operator and/or owner of the source of the Class II fluids.
(e)     Notice of voluntary termination.
(1)    If an operator permanently terminates injection into a well, the operator shall submit to the Conservation Division Form 1072 within 30 days after termination of injection. Form 1072 shall stateinclude:
(A)    The legal description of the well.
(B)    The reason for termination.
(C)    Monthly data for daily average pressure rate and total monthly volumes injected for that portion of the calendar year the operator has operated the well prior to submitting the Form 1072 or Form 1003 to the Conservation Division.
(2)    TheIf a well has been plugged, the operator is also required to file, along with thea Form 1072, or and a Form 1003 Plugging Record,with the Conservation Divisiona Form 1012 or Form 1012C for that portion of the calendar year the operator has operated the well prior to submitting the Form 1072 or Form 1003 to the Commission.
(3)    Submission of Form 1072 to permanently terminate injection or a Form 1003 Plugging Record shall terminate the authority under the order.
(f)     Notice of mechanical integrity problem.
(1)    Notice of mechanical failure or down-hole problem. When a mechanical problem occurs, then:
(A)    The well operator shall notify the Field Inspector for the Conservation Division within 24 hours after discovery of the problem.
(B)    Within five days after discovery of the problem, the well operator shall submit to the Manager of the Underground Injection Control Department written notice of the failure and a plan to repair and/or retest the well.
(C)    The well must be brought into compliance within ninety days after discovery of the problem.
(D)    Repair shall be reported on the Form 1012 or Form 1012C for the well.
(E)    Any operator failing to timely notify the Commission or bring the well into compliance may be fined up to $1,500.00.
(2)     Notice of unreported repairs. Any prior unreported repair of the well shall be reported on the next Form 1012 or Form 1012C to be submitted to the Manager of the UIC Department.
(g)     Shutdown or other action.
(1)     Administrative shutdown or other action regarding a well. The Conservation Division may shut down or take other action, including the issuance or execution of administrative agreements, regarding a well pursuant to 17 O.S. § 52, 52 O.S. §139(D)(1) and other applicable authority, to address matters including, but not limited to, seismic activity, or if a mechanical failure or down-hole problem indicates that injected substances are not or may not be entering the injection interval authorized by order or permit of the Commission.
(2)     Request for technical conference. If an operator objects to the shutdown or other action regarding its well by the Conservation Division, the operator shall submit a written request for a technical conference to the Director of the Conservation Division or designee within five business days of the date of the shut down notice or other Conservation Division action regarding the well. If a resolution of the shutdown or other action regarding the well is not reached by the operator and the Conservation Division after a technical conference occurs, then the provisions of paragraph (5) below are applicable.
(3)     Failure to request a technical conference. Except for good cause shown, if an operator fails to timely submit a written request for a technical conference pursuant to paragraph (2) above, such failure shall be deemed to constitute an agreement by the operator to the shutdown or other Conservation Division action regarding the well.
(4)     Administrative authority to recommence injection. After receiving a written request for a technical conference from an operator pursuant to paragraph (2) above, the Conservation Division may consider, but not be limited to, the following in determining whether the operator will be authorized to recommence injection into the well:
(A)    the mechanical integrity of the well for injection; and
(B)    if construction of the well demonstrates the injected substances are going into and are confined to the permitted injection interval.
(5)     Resolution of disputes by order of the Commission. In the event of a dispute between the Conservation Division and the operator as to the suitability of a well for injection, the operator or the Conservation Division may seek relief by order of the Commission. Upon application, notice, and hearing pursuant to OAC 165:5-7-1 and other applicable Commission rules, the Commission may issue an order determining whether or not the well should be used for further injection.
165:10-5-10.  Transfer of authority to inject
(a)    An order or permit authorizing an injection well(s), disposal well, commercial disposal well, or hydrocarbon storage well(s) shall not be transferred from one operator to another without the following:
(1)    The new operator, or transferee, must comply with 165:10-1-10 before a change in operator is approved.
(2)    Change of operator Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW must be signed by both the transferor and transferee, with both stipulating that the facts presented are true and correct as to the area covered and the wells being transferred. The new operator shall file Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW to notify the Conservation Division of any change of operation of any underground injection well within thirty (30) days of transfer of the well.
(3)    Notice in writing to the Commission on Form 1073IMW. For transfers involving more than ten (10) wells, a transferor and transferee may file a single Form 1073IMW with the Conservation Division indicating the transfer of multiple wells, provided that such multiple well transfer shall be accompanied by a well list containing the following information for each well transferred:The Form 1073IMW is intended to be used for multiple well transfers of ten (10) or more wells and must contain a list with the following information for each well:
(A)    API number of the well;
(B)    Well name and number;
(C)    Legal location of the well, described by section, township, and range, and quarter, quarter, quarter section calls; and
(D)    The Commission Order or permit number(s) authorizing the injection, disposal, or hydrocarbon storage activity.; and
(E)    Date the most recent mechanical integrity test was performed on the well and the result of the test.
(4)    The well list may be provided in spreadsheet form, if possible, and may be filed in digital format specified by the Conservation Division. In lieu of the information listed in subparagraphs (a)(3)(A) through (D), the transferor and transferee, at their option, may file one Form 1073IMW indicating the transfer of multiple wells with an OCC Form 1002A Completion Report attached for each well transferred.A current Form 1002A Completion Report must be on file with the Conservation Division in accordance with OAC 165:10-3-25. Upon review by the Conservation Division, it may require additional information from the transferor and/or the transferee to assist in identifying the specific well(s) being transferred. The additional information may include, but not be limited to, the quarter, quarter, quarter section calls, footages from the south and west quarter section lines, and the drilling and completion dates, and initial injection, disposal or storage dates.
(5)    Notice in writing to the Commission on Form 1075 demonstrating that a mechanical integrity test and/or any required tracer survey was performed within one year prior to the date of transfer. For commercial disposal wells, the Mechanical Integrity Testmechanical integrity test and/or any required tracer survey shall be conducted within 30 days prior to the date of transfer.
(6)    The performance of the mechanical integrity test required in (a)(5) of this subsection shall not apply to any operator transfer when the following conditions are present:
(A)    The interest of the currently designated operator is transferred to its subsidiary or parent company, or a subsidiary of a parent company;
(B)    The interest of the currently designated operator is transferred to a surviving or resulting corporation or business entity due to, respectively, a merger, consolidation or reorganization involving the transferor and transferee. As used in this subparagraph, "business entity" means a domestic or foreign partnership, whether general or limited; limited liability company; business trust; common law trust, or other unincorporated business; or
(C)    The currently designated operator undergoes a name change. The relief afforded by this subparagraph is not applicable to situations where the name change involves the following conditions:
(i)    The assignment of a new Federal Employer Identification number by the Internal Revenue Service to the new company;
(ii)    The name change is accompanied by a change in the majority of partners in a partnership;
(iii)    The name change is associated with a divorce between a husband and wife when the husband and wife comprise a partnership;
(iv)    The name change is associated with the death of one spouse in a partnership comprised of a husband and wife;
(v)    The name change involves a sole proprietorship; or
(vi)    The name change is associated with such other circumstances where the Commission determines upon application, notice and hearing that the relief provided in this subparagraph is not applicable, or that an exception to any exclusion should be granted.
(vii)    As used in this subparagraph, the term "partnership" means a domestic or foreign partnership, whether general or limited.
(7)    A Form 1012, Form 1012C or Form 1012D for that portion of the calendar year the transferor has operated the well prior to submitting the Form 1073I to the Commission.
(b)    The Conservation Division shall notify both the transferor and transferee in writingby electronic mail or regular mail within thirty (30) days of the Conservation Division's approval or disapproval of the transfer of authority to inject for the subject well(s). If the Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW is disapproved, the operator shall have ninety (90) days from the date of the disapproval notification to correct the deficiencies. If the operator fails to correct the deficiencies and to resubmit the Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW within the ninety (90) day period, the Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW shall be considered withdrawn unless the time is extended by written request for good cause shown. The disapproval notification will explain the deficiencies that need correcting and will specify the expiration of the ninety (90) day period during which the deficiencies must be corrected.
(c)    If an operator is not in compliance with an enforceable order or permit of the Commission, the Conservation Division shall not approve any Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW transferring well(s) to said operator until the operator complies with the order or permit. The transferor of the well(s) listed on the Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW remains responsible for the well(s) until any transfer is approved by the Commission.
(d)    Before the operatorship of a well can be transferred to a new operator when the current or former operator is unavailable for signature, one of the following may be submitted as proof of operatorship:
(1)    A certified copy of a recorded lease or assignment transferring all rights, title, and interest to the wells described on Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW to the new operator.
(2)    A certified copy of a journal entry of judgment rendered by a district court of Oklahoma having jurisdiction over the wells described on Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW vesting legal title to the new operator.
(3)    A certified copy of a bankruptcy proceeding by the bankruptcy court having jurisdiction over the wells described on Form 1073I or Form 1073IMW.
165:10-5-11.  Notarized reports  [REVOKED]
     In lieu of notarization, all Conservation Division reports shall contain the following statement signed and dated by the responsible party representing the entity which is submitting the report: "I declare that I have knowledge of the contents of this report, which was prepared by me or under my supervision and direction, with the data and facts stated herein to be true, correct, and complete to the best of my knowledge and belief".
165:10-5-15.  Application for order or permit for simultaneous injection well
(a)     General.
(1)    Simultaneous injection of salt water without a valid permit from the Underground Injection Control Department (UIC Department) or Commission order may result in the assessment of a fine up to $5,000 per day of operation.
(2)    A simultaneous injection well shall be inspected by a representative of the Commission prior to operation.
(b)     Criteria for approval.
(1)    Simultaneous injection may be permitted if the following conditions are met and injection will not adversely affect offsetting production nor endanger treatable water:
(A)    Injection zone is located below the producing zone in the borehole.
(B)    Injection pressure is limited to less than the local fracture gradient.
(C)    A 1/4 mile plat will be required for all simultaneous injection well applications containing the information specified in OAC 165:10-5-5(b)(1)(A) and OAC 165:10-5-5(b)(1)(C). If unplugged or mud-plugged boreholes are located within the 1/4 mile radius, the operator of the proposed simultaneous injection well will be required to submit a corrective action plan in writing to the UIC Department to address such boreholes so as to protect treatable water prior to an order or permit being issued.
(D)    Simultaneous injectors must meet the requirements of OAC 165:10-3-4 as they apply to producing wells.
(E)    Class II fluids from other wells operated by the operator of a simultaneous injection well may be disposed of in such simultaneous injection well if the operator applies on Form 1015 and obtains the issuance of a new permit or order pursuant to the requirements in OAC 165:10-5-5 pertaining to authorization of noncommercial disposal wells. The filing fee specified in OAC 165:5-3-1(b)(1)(E) must accompany the Form 1015 application.
(2)    Required form and attachments. Each application for simultaneous injection shall be submitted to the UIC Department on Form 1015SI. The forms must be properly completed and signed. Attached to the application form shall be the following:
(A)    Affidavit of mailing a copy of the completed Form 1015SI to each operator of a producing lease within 1/2 mile of the subject well.
(B)    Schematic diagram of the well showing all casing and tubing strings, packers, perforations and pumps.
(C)    Representative open hole wire-line log for the well.
(3)    Monitoring, testing and reporting requirements for simultaneous injection wells.
(A)    Upon receiving an order or permit, the operator shall file a Form 1002A Completion Report or an amended Form 1002A Completion Report within 60 days of completion or recompletion of the well.
(B)    Mechanical integrity will be demonstrated by the operator performing a radioactive tracer survey on the well before the well is operated as a simultaneous injection well, and thereafter on an annual basis, reflecting that the injection fluids are going into the authorized zone(s). The radioactive tracer surveys must be submitted to the UIC Department within 7 days of the performance of the surveys, and the results of the surveys must be acceptable to the UIC Department before the well can be used as a simultaneous injection well.
(C)    Annual Report Form 1012 shall be submitted to the UIC Department by January 31 of each year for the previous calendar year.
(4)    If no protest is received within 15 days of the mailing of Form 1015SI, the application shall be submitted to the UIC Department for administrative review. If a protest is received within the protest period, the operator shall, within 30 days, set the application for hearing and give proper notice of a date for the hearing on the Pollution Docket before an Administrative Law Judge.
(c)     Expiration of the order or permit. The simultaneous injection well order or permit shall expire on its own terms if the operator fails to perform the initial radioactive tracer survey on the well and submit the results of the survey to the UIC Department within 18 months after the effective date of the order or permit.
SUBCHAPTER 10.  Brownfield Program
165:10-10-2.  Brownfield defined
(a)    A "Brownfield" is a real property (site) where expansion, redevelopment, normal use or reuse may be complicated by the presence or potential presence of a deleterious substance, pollutant, or contaminant. This includes land that is contaminated by petroleum, petroleum products, and related wastes, including crude, condensate, gasoline and diesel fuel, produced water/brine, glycol and/or drilling mud. A proposed Brownfield site is a defined area; it does not need to be the entire property or lease.
(b)    Sites excluded from program participation are:
(1)    Sites controlled by responsible parties (RPs);
(2)    Sites listed on the National Priorities List (NPL) maintained by EPA;
(3)    Sites subject to order or consent decree under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), commonly known as Superfund;
(4)    Sites permitted under certain federal programs including the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), CERCLA, the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA), or the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA);
(5)    Lands where closure of the remediation process has been approved by or where a closure plan concerning remediation has already been submitted to the Commission;
(65)    Sites owned or under the control of the federal government;
(76)    Portions of sites with PCB (polychlorinated biphenyls) pollution subject to remediation under TSCA;
(87)    Portions of facilities with an approved or ongoing federal Leaking Underground Storage Tank (LUST) Fund remediation; however the Oklahoma LUST fund and the Oklahoma Petroleum Storage Tank (PST) Indemnity fund areis potentially available for assessing and cleaning upcorrective action and/or remediation efforts of newly listed PST Brownfield sites in Oklahoma.
(c)    Responsible party (RP) and other ineligible parties defined. A person, corporation, company, non-profit organization, or any other entity that:
(1)    Caused the pollution at the proposed Brownfield site or knew about the pollution and allowed it to occur; or
(2)    Contributed to already existing pollution at the site; or
(3)    Hindered or otherwise knowingly attempted to obstruct efforts to perform environmental assessments of or to remediate pollution caused by an RP at the site; or
(4)    Is not in compliance with a final agency order or any final order or judgment of a court of record secured by any state or federal agency for any of the responsible party's actions at the site which could have led to a leak, spill, and/or other cause of the pollution in violation of agency rules, or
(5)    Has demonstrated a pattern of uncorrected noncompliance with state or federal environmental laws or rules; or
(6)    Has past operations at the site and/or at other sites that indicate a reckless disregard for the protection of human health and safety or the environment.
165:10-10-3.  Administration and enforcement of rules
(a)    The Manager of Pollution Abatement and the Brownfield program staff shall supervise and coordinate the administration and enforcement of the rules of this Subchapter under the direction of the Director of Oil and Gas Conservation and the Commission.
(b)    The primary goal of the implementation of Brownfield site assessments and remediation projects shall be the protection and/or restoration of the beneficial use of the land, the soil and any surface or subsurface waters of the State adversely impacted or impaired by pollution from a Commission regulated Brownfield site.
(c)    Site assessments and remediation projects conducted under the supervision and coordination of the Manager of Pollution Abatement and/or Pollution Abatement/UIC/BrownfieldPollution Abatement/Brownfield staff shall adhere to the general practices appearing in the Oil and Gas Conservation Division's Guardian Guidance document for petroleum and produced water site assessment and remediation oversight, enforcement, approval and verification including the Guidelines and Numerical Criteria for New or Historic Produced Water/Brine Spills.
(d)    Applicant may request in writing, and the Manager of Pollution Abatement may grant, an administrative exception to a Commission Brownfield rule if applicant can demonstrate that:
(1)    Requirements in pertinent state laws and federal Brownfield rules and laws are still met, and
(2)    The exception will protect human health, safety and the environment and the beneficial use of the land at least as well as strict adherence to the Commission Brownfield rule.
165:10-10-4.  Determination of Brownfield eligibility
(a)     Applicant eligibility. An applicant may be any non-responsible party (non-RP) including:
(1)    The legal owner in fee simple, the tenant or lessee of the property, or a person who has a written firm option to purchase or operate the property at the time the application is filed and who has the ability to implement a redevelopment proposal, if needed, once site assessment and/or remediation is complete;
(2)    Any person who acquired the ownership, operation, management, or control of the site through foreclosure or under the terms of a bona fide security interest in a mortgage or lien on, or an extension of credit for the property, or foreclosed on the property, or received an assignment or deed instead of foreclosure or some other indicia of ownership and thereby becomes the owner of the property;
(3)    An agency, non-profit organization or other entity who chooses to clean up or otherwise rehabilitate a property for the owner or tenant in order for it to be returned to productive use or become green space;
(4)    The Oklahoma Energy Resources Board (OERB), regarding sites in its surface restoration program which meet the definition of a Brownfield property appearing in OAC 165:10-10-2. There is no requirement that OERB sites be designated as Brownfield sites, or
(5)    A non-RP who wishes to restore property for a potential or known RP. If an entity that is not the RP wants to apply to the Brownfield program and is accepted and completes the process, such a site would be granted limited liability protection for the non-RP. The RP will not be granted any form of liability protection through the Brownfield program.
(b)     Eligibility of site. The following conditions must be met and information provided to be considered for eligibility as a Brownfield site:
(1)    Any facility or real property where normal use, reuse, expansion or redevelopment is hindered by pollution or suspected pollution of a substance or substances caused by releases from activities regulated by the Commission may qualify as a Brownfield site.
(2)    The applicant will need to provide an Applicant Eligibility form with the following information included on the form:
(A)    A physical address for the land or property;
(B)    A legal description of the land or property;
(C)    Driving directions from nearest major intersection.;
(3D)    A site survey by a surveyor, or a site plan containing global positioning system (GPS) coordinates made under the supervision of a qualified environmental professional defining the area to be addressed must be submitted for each Brownfield site once it is accepted into the program.
(c)     Determination of eligibility. The Commission's Brownfield staff will determine the initial eligibility for any allegedly contaminated portion of a Brownfield project. Brownfield staff will determine to the extent possible:
(1)    If any funds have already been spent on the site, and the source of any such funds;
(2)    If there are any viable responsible parties. Commission records will be checked by Commission staff for all Brownfield sites; and
(3)    Whether the current or immediate past owner and/or operator of the site caused or made the pollution worse and whether such parties took reasonable corrective steps with regard to any pollution.
165:10-10-5.  The Commission's Brownfield program process
(a)     Pre-application informational exchange. The applicant may want to consider a pre- application conference by telephone, e-mail, mail, or in person with Brownfield staff. During the pre-application conference the applicant will be advised about what information is necessary in order for Brownfield staff to determine whether the applicant and the applicant's site are eligible for the Brownfield program.
(b)     Brownfield eligibility determination. All applicants and properties must meet federal and state Brownfield eligibility requirements. Commission standards and practices in effect at the time the application is filed will also be considered in determining whether eligibility requirements have been satisfied.
(c)     Brownfield program application.
(1)    Applicants for the Brownfield program, except for sites submitted by Commission field inspectors, will be required to submit an Application for Brownfield ProgramApplicant Eligibility form, an Application for Brownfield Site Eligibility and AssessmentProgram Enrollment form, a Consent to Entry form, and any required documentation to show they are eligible.
(2)    The OERB Voluntary Environmental Program has sole discretion in determining whether it is to apply to the Commission's Brownfield program regarding abandoned exploration and production (E & P) sites which have been submitted to the OERB for consideration under its program which is limited to surface restoration. The site must meet the definition of a Brownfield property in OAC 165:10-10-2.
(3)    When a non-RP wants to apply to remediate a property under the Brownfield program, the applicant must certify by affidavit that it owns the property or has a current lease or easement which is given to accomplish the remediation, or if it does not, has provided legal notice to the property owner of applicant's desire to remediate the site.
(4)    Applicant must notify the Brownfield staff in writing of any litigation the Applicant has knowledge of concerning the site which has concluded or is pending, and any information concerning outstanding judgments, liens, tax levies, etc. filed of record at the time the application is filed or which is filed after applicant submits its application to the Commission and prior to final Commission action regarding the site.
(5)    Completed applications must be sent to the following address: Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Oil and Gas Conservation Division, Brownfield Program, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73152-2000 and/or submitted electronically to Brownfield staff.
(d)     Notification of application status. Subsequent to acceptance of an application, Brownfield staff will issue a letter to the applicant adding the site to the Brownfield site list (requirements for this list are in 165:10-10-7). If an application is denied by Brownfield staff, staff will promptly provide applicant with a written statement of the reasons for such denial.
(e)     Site assessments and/or remediation. Refer to 165:10-10-9.
(f)     Public participation. Refer to 165:10-10-10 through 165:10-10-11.
(g)     Brownfield site closure. Refer to 165:10-10-12 and 165:10-10-14.
(h)     Brownfield Certificates. Refer to 165:10-10-13.
165:10-10-9.  Assessment and remediation of site
(a)     Qualifications. All Brownfield assessment and remediation projects will be overseen by a qualified environmental professional, defined by EPA as someone who possesses sufficient specific education, training, and experience necessary to exercise professional judgment to develop opinions and conclusions regarding conditions indicative of releases or threatened releases of deleterious substances on, at, in, or to a property, sufficient to meet the objectives and performance factors of the EPA's All Appropriate Inquiries rule (40 CFR Part 312) and ASTM E1527-05ASTM E1527-21. Qualified environmental professionals must have one of the following:
(1)    A state or tribal issued certification or license (including Professional Engineer, Professional Geologist, and PST Division of the Corporation Commission licensed Remediation Consultant) and three years of relevant full-time work experience; or
(2)    A Baccalaureate or higher degree in science or engineering, including geologists as defined in 25 O.S. § 35 and engineers as defined in 59 O.S. § 475.1 et seq., and five years of relevant full-time work experience; or
(3)    Ten years of relevant full-time work experience.
(4)    Individuals who do not meet the above requirements must work under the supervision or responsible charge of an individual who meets the requirements for an environmental professional.
(b)     Assessments.
(1)    The appropriate Commission staff may conduct initial site inspections to evaluate and recommend those sites that qualify for the Brownfield program; Brownfield staff will approve inspections and assessments and list each approved site in the database.
(2)    Qualified environmental professionals will perform an assessment (Phase I and/or Phase II) of each property.
(3)    Governmental entities, quasi-governmental entities, and non-profit organizations may be eligible for a Targeted Brownfield Assessment (TBA) conducted by either the Commission or EPA.
(4)    OERB's qualified staff or contractor may perform assessments on abandoned exploration and production (E&P) sites.
(5)    Assessments of former retail petroleum storage tank sites will be overseen by Brownfield staff and coordinated with the Commission's PST Division staff.
(6)    EPA's All Appropriate Inquiry (AAI) Rule appearing in 40 CFR Part 312 shall be complied with as per the Commission's guidance.
(7)    If during an initial investigation or Phase I or Phase II assessment pollution is discovered and immediately removed from the site, as confirmed with sample analytical results, the site may qualify for No Further Action (NFA) status.
(c)     Phase I. Basic site and assessment information is necessary for exploration, production, and/or pipeline sites known or suspected to be contaminated by substances defined in OAC 165:10-10-2(a), and for PST sites. Initial site assessment information includes, but is not limited to:
(1)    Analyses from one or more soil and water background samples;
(2)    A certified survey or the results of a GPS survey defining the area of pollution,
(3)    The present and proposed uses of the site;
(4)    The operational history of the site and current use of areas contiguous to the site; and
(5)    Detailed historical and records reviews as per AAI, which may be waived by Brownfield staff until after the basic physical environmental/pollution assessment is completed and Commission staff concludes its review of sample data pertaining to the site.
(6)    A Category Index Table must be submitted for all oil and gas and pipeline sites likely or definitely polluted above action levels. The Category Index Table appears in the Commission's Guardian Guidance document, which is available on the Commission's website or by request.
(7)    Sites that are determined by the Brownfield staff to need no remediation following an acceptable Phase I assessment can be issued no action necessary certification once the Brownfield staff receives appropriate documentation.
(d)     Phase II. Phase II sites are those sites where the Phase I assessment demonstrates the need for additional assessment, action level determination, and (often) remediation guidance.
(1)    Phase II oil and gas sites and pipeline (crude and refined product and produced water) sites will be overseen by the Oil and Gas Conservation Division's Brownfield staff;
(2)    Phase II retail petroleum storage tank sites will be referred tooverseen by Brownfield staff in coordination with the Commission's PST Division and will adhere to the Oklahoma Risk-Based Corrective Action guidelines for assessment and remediation;
(3)    Necessary information generally includes but is not limited to concentrations of pollutants in the soils, surface water or groundwater at the site; the vertical and horizontal extent of pollution in the soils, surface water or groundwater at the site; a determination that risk based criteria to protect human health and the environment at and around the site are or are not being met; and recommendations on how to meet risk based criteria, including remediation as needed;
(4)    Sites that are determined by the Brownfield staff to need no remediation following appropriate environmental and risk assessment can be issued no action necessary certificates once the Brownfield staff receives appropriate documentation.
(e)     Status of site when no action is necessary.
(1)    A no action necessary determination is appropriate for a site if at the conclusion of the initial inspection, TBA, Phase I or Phase II investigation, or subsequent to the immediate removal of pollution from a site, the Brownfield staff or other appropriate Commission staff finds or concurs that the site poses no significant risk to human health or safety or the environment according to the proposed use of the site.
(2)    Brownfield staff will issue a no action necessary certificate when the site is restored for beneficial use and other required program elements, if any, are completed.
(f)     When pollution is likely present or is present above action levels. If pollution is likely present or is present above action levels at a site, further assessment and remediation will adhere to one of the following regimens:
(1)    The Oil and Gas Conservation Division's Guardian Guidance document and rules for petroleum and produced water site assessment and remediation oversight, enforcement, approval and verification; or
(2)    The PST Division's guidance document and rules for site assessment and cleanup oversight, enforcement, approvals and verification; or
(3)    For E&P sites where there is no RP, the OERB Voluntary Environmental Program may, in its sole discretion, submit to the Commission's Brownfield program those abandoned E & P sites which have qualified for the OERB's program, which is limited to surface restoration in order that such sites may be assessed and remediated by OERB in accordance with the Commission's Brownfield rules; and
(4)    The Commission's Brownfield staff will act as the regulator for the Brownfield program and ensure that applicable Brownfield laws and rules are followed.
165:10-10-10.  Notice
(a)     Public notice. Public notice is necessary for remediation sites (Phase II sites requiring remediation or cleanup). The applicant must provide public notice that its proposal regarding the site is ready for public review. The notice must be published one time in newspapers of general circulation published in Oklahoma County, Oklahoma, and in a newspaper of general circulation published in each county where the lands that are the subject of the application are located. The applicant shall also submit the notice to the Brownfield staff for posting on the Commission's website. The notice must contain the:
(1)    Name and address of the location where the application and related documentation, including any proposed remediation plan, may be reviewed, in addition to the days of the week and hours during which such information may be reviewed;
(2)    Applicant's name, mailing address, telephone number, email address and contact person, as well as the Commission's mailing address and a telephone number and email address of a contact person at the Commission;
(3)    Name, address and legal description of the Brownfield site;
(4)    Purpose of the notice;
(5)    Description of the proposed cleanup, monitored natural attenuation, institutional control, and/or other remedial action being sought;
(6)    Other pertinent information required by Brownfield staff and rules;
(7)    Other information the applicant may deem relevant; and
(8)    Time period of at least thirty (30) days after the notice is published for the submission of written public comments and written requests for a public meeting regarding the site, in addition to the mailing address and e-mail address to which public comments and requests for public meetings can be sent, the name of a contact person and any facsimile numbers, if available. The notice must also provide that any written public comments and requests for a public meeting are to be sent to the Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Oil and Gas Conservation Division, Brownfield Program, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73152-2000 and/or sent electronically to Brownfield staff.
(b)     Public meeting.
(1)    If the Commission receives a timely written request for a public meeting, if the Commission determines there is a significant degree of public interest in the site remediation proposal and the action being sought, or if the applicant chooses to have a public meeting, then the applicant must publish notice of the date, time and address of a public meeting at least thirty (30) days prior to the meeting in the manner described in paragraph (a), above, and include in the notice the information appearing in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a) (8), above.
(2)    The notice must provide for a time period of at least thirty (30) days after the notice is published for the submission of written public comments, and that verbal comments may be made at the meeting. The mailing address and e-mail address to which public comments can be sent, the name of a contact person and any facsimile numbers, if available, must also be included in the notice. The notice must also provide that any written public comments are to be sent to the Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Oil and Gas Conservation Division, Brownfield Program, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73152-2000 and/or sent electronically to Brownfield staff.
(3)    The public meeting will be held in a convenient location near the proposed Brownfield site.
(c)     Publisher's affidavits. The applicant is required to provide to the Brownfield staff the publisher's affidavits regarding the public notice for comments and/or a public meeting within twenty (20) days after the date(s) of publication;
(d)     When public notice is not required. Applicant is not required to publish a notice regarding those sites Brownfield staff or other appropriate Commission staff find or concurs need no further action after staff's review of applicant's site assessment information or which are remediated for the applicant by a responsible party.
SUBCHAPTER 17.  Gas Well Operations and Permitted Production
165:10-17-7.  Well tests
(a)     Wells in special allocated pools.
(1)    An initial test shall be filed for each newly completed gas well in each special allocated pool. The well shall be tested into a pipeline no later than 30 days after the date of the first sale of gas. Test procedures shall be those specified in the applicable pool rules subject to the uniform requirements of 165:10-17-6.
(2)    An annual test shall be filed in accordance with the requirements of the applicable pool rules, subject to the following provisions specific to the Guymon-Hugoton special allocated pool.
(3)    Wells in the Guymon-Hugoton special allocated pool.
(A)    The Conservation Division staff will not be required to witness any well test on any well in the Guymon-Hugoton special allocated gas pool unless requested to do so by an offset operator. Operators have a right to witness any well test on any well offsetting said operator's well in the pool. Operators of offsetting wells will be given sufficient prior notice of testing to allow for a representative to be present to witness testing, and will be provided access to the designated witness throughout testing.
(B)    Wells in the Guymon-Hugoton special allocated gas pool which are not capable of producing 450 Mcf/day will be exempt from biannual deliverability tests. Operators shall have the right to elect to receive the minimum allowable by deciding not to conduct well deliverability tests on any such wells in the pool. No well shall be exempt from the annual wellhead shut-in pressure test requirements. For the purpose of the annual wellhead shut-in pressure test, the shut-in pressure shall be measured after the well has been shut-in for approximately 48 hours. In no case shall the well have been shut-in for less than 44 hours at the time the shut-in pressure is taken.
(b)     Wells in unallocated pools.
(1)     Testing of newly completed or newly recompleted wells.
(A)    An initial test shall be submitted to the Conservation Division for each newly completed gas well or recompleted gas well involving a new formation in an unallocated gas pool under 165:10-17-2. The well shall be tested into a pipeline no later than 30 days after the date of first sale of gas into a pipeline. The flow period for the initial test shall be 24 hours.
(B)    It shall not be necessary for the operator to submit the initial flow potential test for an unallocated well with a maximum flow rate of less than the minimum allowable. Only a current 24-hour wellhead shut-in pressure is required, unless otherwise requested by the Commission. A copy of the Form 1002A Completion Report may be submitted in lieu of Form 1016 to establish the minimum allowable, provided the section on the Form 1002A Completion Report requesting a minimum gas allowable is explicitly marked, and the following items are reported:
(i)    current 24 hour shut-in pressure;
(ii)    date of first sales and date of recompletion, if applicable;
(iii)    Oklahoma Tax Commission production unit number; and
(iv)    name of reporting entity of monthly gas volumes for the well (either the purchaser/measurer, or self-reporting operator). If the required information is not provided on the Form 1002A Completion Report submitted to the Commission, an initial test on Form 1016 containing the information must be filed with the Commission to establish an initial allowable for the well.
(C)    An initial potential test is required to receive an allowable greater than a minimum allowable. The established allowable shall be from the date of first sales of gas, provided that a complete and correct Form 1002A Completion Report for the well is filed with the Commission within 60 days after the date of first sales. If the Form 1002A Completion Report is filed with the Commission after the 60 day period, the allowable will become effective on the first day of the month in which the Form 1002A Completion Report is approved by the Commission. A request to extend the time to test may be granted by the Conservation Division in order to recover fluids introduced into the well. The request shall be submitted in writing to the Conservation Division with the expected test date.
(2)     Testing or retesting of established gas wells. A potential test to assign a new allowable for an initially tested well may be submitted on Form 1016 at any time after three months from the date of the initial test. To establish or maintain an allowable greater than the minimum allowable after the initial potential test, a potential test shall be run at least once every 12 months for the first two years, and every two years thereafter. The established allowable from any potential test shall be valid for 12 months from the date of first sales of gaswithin that specific 12-month or two year period, based on the appropriate anniversary dates of the first gas sales of the well. The Director of the Conservation Division may require additional tests at any time. Tests become effective the first day of the month following acceptance of the test by the Conservation Division.
(A)    Unless specifically requested by the Director of the Conservation Division, it shall not be necessary to run a potential test or retest for an established well having a flow rate of less than the minimum allowable.
(B)    Upon expiration of a potential test, the well will revert to a minimum allowable status, unless superseded by a later potential test.
(C)    If two or more potential tests are submitted for a well, and the effective periods of the tests overlap or conflict, the test having the greatest calculated open flow potential shall be utilized to determine the well's allowable for the overlapping period.
(3)     One-point tests. The potential test required for each gas well in each unallocated pool shall use the one-point back pressure method and an assumed flow characteristic of 0.85 shall be used in establishing the wellhead absolute open flow. The test shall be governed by the requirements of OAC 165:10-17-6.
(4)     Durability of minimum allowable. Once an initial allowable is established for a well, that well shall be assigned at least a minimum allowable until such time the well is plugged, reclassified, recompleted or commingled into an additional formation, or is found to be in violation of a rule or order of the Commission. If a potential test is submitted for the well, that test will supersede the minimum allowable for the effective period of the test set out herein.
(5)     Test exemptions for certain minimum wells.
(A)    The following types of gas wells shall be exempt from initial and annual potential and shut-in tests:
(i)    Minimum gas wells producing exclusively from coal bed methane formations.
(ii)    Minimum gas wells producing from shale formations or including shale formations, if commingled.
(iii)    Minimum gas wells using down hole pumps for artificial lift of produced liquids.
(iv)    Minimum gas wells producing less than 100 mcf/day.
(B)    For these exempt wells operators shall report the initial stabilized rate of production on Form 1002A "Completion Report" in lieu of reporting an initial test on Form 1016 "Backpressure test for Natural Gas Wells".
(6)     Alternate shut-in pressure. The Conservation Division may allow the equivalent of the 24-hour shut-in pressure required in this Section and in OAC 165:10-17-6 to be derived from accepted industry methodologies if the operator sufficiently demonstrates to the Division that such calculations will result in an appropriate representation of the actual 24-hour shut-in pressure.
(7)     Minimum compliance. Each operator shall be responsible for conducting and submitting the required potential tests on the applicable form. All submitted tests must contain complete and accurate information. Permitted production rates will be granted only to those wells which meet this requirement and all other rules or orders of the Commission.
SUBCHAPTER 21.  Applications for Tax Exemptions
PART 21.  PRODUCTION FROM SECONDARY AND TERTIARY RECOVERY PROJECTS
165:10-21-101.  General
(a)     Scope. Exemption from the levy of gross production tax on production which results from a secondary and tertiary recovery project shall be determined according to the provisions of this Part, 68 O.S. § 1001(D) and other applicable sections of such statute.
(b)     Definitions. "Project start date" means the date on which the injection of liquids, gases, or other matter begins on an enhanced recovery project.
(c)     Exemption. For secondary and tertiary recovery projects approved or having an initial project start date on or after July 1, 2022, all production which results from such secondary and tertiary recovery projects is exempt from the gross production tax levied pursuant to 68 O.S. § 1001 for a period not to exceed five (5) years from the initial project start date or for a period ending upon the termination of the secondary and tertiary recovery process, whichever occurs first.
(d)     Approval. For new secondary and tertiary recovery projects approved on or after July 1, 2022, by order of the Commission pursuant to OAC 165:10-5-4, such approval constitutes qualification for the exemption.
165:10-21-102.  Refund procedure
(a)     Applicants. The operator of the secondary or tertiary recovery project or a working interest owner of record at the time of production from the secondary or tertiary recovery project shall file claims for refunds on behalf of such operator and such working interest owners.
(b)     Application. The applicant shall file an application with the Oklahoma Tax Commission regarding the claim for refund. The claim for refund shall be in the amount of gross production taxes paid on oil and gas production subsequently determined to be exempt from gross production taxes during a given fiscal year. The applicant shall include copies of the application filed with the Commission pursuant to OAC 165:10-5-4, the order issued by the Commission approving the secondary or tertiary recovery project, and the specific project start date.
(c)     When application can be filed. An application to claim a refund shall not be filed until after the end of the fiscal year. A fiscal year begins on July 1 and ends on June 30. No claim for refund shall be filed more than eighteen (18) months after the first day of the fiscal year in which the refund is available.
(d)     Claim information. The Oklahoma Tax Commission may require the applicant filing a claim for refund to furnish information or records concerning the application as is deemed necessary by the Oklahoma Tax Commission.
(e)     Claim limitations. Applications filed with the Oklahoma Tax Commission for refund claims are subject to limitations pursuant to 68 O.S. §§ 1001(F)(6) and 1001(F)(7).
165:10-21-103.  Election of exemption
     On and after July 1, 2022, persons entitled to exemption from the gross production tax based upon production from qualifying oil, gas, or oil and gas wells shall only be entitled to either an exemption granted pursuant to 68 O.S. § 1001(D) or 68 O.S. § 1001(E). Provided, however, expiration of an exemption available for production from a qualifying well pursuant to 68 O.S. § 1001(E) does not prohibit any person from qualifying for the exemption in 68 O.S. § 1001(D).
PART 23.  PRODUCTION FROM WELLS COMPLETED WITH RECYCLED WATER
165:10-21-107.  General
(a)     Scope. Exemption from the levy of gross production tax on production from wells which are completed with the use of recycled water will be determined according to the provisions of this Part, 68 O.S. § 1001(E) and other applicable sections of such statute.
(b)     Definitions. "Recycled water" means oil and gas produced water and waste that has been reconditioned or treated by mechanical or chemical processes into a reusable form.
(c)     Exemption. The production of oil, gas, or oil and gas from wells drilled but not completed as of July 1, 2021, which are completed with the use of recycled water on or after July 1, 2022, shall qualify for an exemption from the gross production tax levied pursuant to 68 O.S. § 1001 for a period of twenty-four (24) months from the date of first sales. The exemption shall be proportional to the percentage of recycled water to the total amount of water used to complete the well.
(d)     Approval. The Commission's Oil and Gas Conservation Division shall indicate on the Form 1002A Completion Report for the well whether the well qualifies for the exemption.
165:10-21-108.  Refund procedure
(a)     Applicants. The operator of the well or a working interest owner of record in the well at the time of production from the well shall file claims for refunds on behalf of such operator and such working interest owners.
(b)     Application. The applicant shall file an application with the Oklahoma Tax Commission regarding the claim for refund. The claim for refund shall be in the amount of gross production taxes paid on oil and gas production subsequently determined to be exempt from gross production taxes during a given fiscal year. The applicant shall include a copy of the Form 1002A Completion Report for the well containing the Commission Oil and Gas Conservation Division's determination that the well qualifies for the exemption.
(c)     When application can be filed. An application to claim a refund shall not be filed until after the end of the fiscal year. A fiscal year begins on July 1 and ends on June 30. No claim for refund shall be filed more than eighteen (18) months after the first day of the fiscal year in which the refund is available.
(d)     Claim information. The Oklahoma Tax Commission may require the applicant filing a claim for refund to furnish information or records concerning the application as is deemed necessary by the Oklahoma Tax Commission.
(e)     Claim limitations. Applications filed with the Oklahoma Tax Commission for refund claims are subject to limitations pursuant to 68 O.S. §§ 1001(F)(6) and 1001(F)(7).
165:10-21-109.  Election of exemption
     On and after July 1, 2022, persons entitled to exemption from the gross production tax based upon production from qualifying oil, gas, or oil and gas wells shall only be entitled to either an exemption granted pursuant to 68 O.S. § 1001(D) or 68 O.S. § 1001(E). Provided, however, expiration of an exemption available for production from a qualifying well pursuant to 68 O.S. § 1001(E) does not prohibit any person from qualifying for the exemption in 68 O.S. § 1001(D).
[OAR Docket #23-685; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 15.  Fuel Inspection
[OAR Docket #23-686]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Fuel Specialists, Testing, Accessibility, and Assistance
Part 7. Storage Tanks and Ancillary Equipment
165:15-3-22. Equipment Installation [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Specifications, Standards, and Labeling for Motor Fuels
165:15-7-2. Gasoline [AMENDED]
Appendix A. Tolerances for Retail and Wholesale Devices [REVOKED]
Appendix A. Tolerances for Retail and Wholesale Devices [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; 17 O.S. §§ 306(12), 307, 322, 342, and 347.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on October 12, 2022.
COMMENT PERIOD:
October 12, 2022 through December 15, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 15, 2022
ADOPTION:
December 15, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
December 22, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved on May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules clarify that all Commission standards apply only to "regulated facilities" and not all facilities, remove a subsection that refers to a previously revoked subchapter, correct a statutory citation, and clarify that the rules allow a 50 or 100 gallon prover for checking high-volume dispensers.
CONTACT PERSON:
Aaron D. Johnson, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-6963, aaron.johnson@occ.okg.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Fuel Specialists, Testing, Accessibility, and Assistance
PART 7.  STORAGE TANKS AND ANCILLARY EQUIPMENT
165:15-3-22.  Equipment installation
     Fuel Specialists must ensure that tanks and ancillary equipment are installed properly and conform to Commission standards. These standards apply to allregulated facilities. Requirements are listed in detail in OAC 165:25 and 165:26.
(1)     Unattended self-service stations.
(A)    Operating instructions must be conspicuously posted.
(B)    There must be a properly placed emergency shutoff device and conspicuously posted emergency instructions. A telephone or other approved means of communication to notify the fire department.
(2)     Emergency pressure release venting. Aboveground storage tanks must have some form of construction or device that will relieve excessive internal pressure caused by exposure to fires, and have some form of emergency pressure venting. This applies to all compartments and interstitial spaces of tanks, and any enclosed spaces around tanks that can contain liquid.
(3)     Release vent construction. An aboveground tank must have some form of pressure-relieving construction to appropriately control and direct a tank rupture. The tank owner or operator must present, upon request, evidence certifying the construction if the owner has the information.
(4)     Venting and venting specifications. The Fuel Specialist will ensure that vent piping size, height, width, placement and construction meet approved standards, vent vapors upward and do not present collision or fire hazards.
(5)     Piping requirements. The Fuel Specialist must ensure piping is appropriately constructed and protected from physical damage and corrosion where appropriate. Appropriate valves must be in place in piping to prevent leaks and fires. Aboveground storage tank piping and associated parts such as flanges and bolts must be constructed to resist fire to the appropriate extent.
(A)    All new aboveground or underground piping must be installed in accordance with requirements of either OAC 165:25 and 165:26.
(B)    Pressurized piping must have automatic line leak detectors with one sensor, float or similar mechanical device at each submersible pump, or at the lowest sump at the lowest island for each tank, whichever is at the lowest end of the piping gradient.
(6)     Equipment and materials. All pipes, valves, couplings, faucets, flexible connectors, fittings and other pressure-containing parts must meet material specifications and pressure and temperature limitations, adhering to Commission standards. Underground equipment must be cathodically protected where appropriate and aboveground equipment must resist fire to the approved extent. Impact/shear valves and breakaway valves must be in place to prevent leaks and stop their flow in an emergency.
(7)     Electrical equipment. All electrical equipment must meet the requirements NFPA 70, the National Electrical Code, as it applies to wet, damp and hazardous conditions. All electrical wiring and equipment must be suitable for the locations in which it is installed, and required emergency switches must be installed and appropriately placed.
(8)     Vault requirements. Vaults are not required, can be used above or below grade, and must meet NFPA 30 and NFPA 30A requirements. The Fuel Specialist will ensure that those standards are met.
(9)     Fill pipes. Fill pipes must be properly installed and labeled, and overfill sump lids must be color-coded or properly labeled with permanent markings.
(10)     Collision barriers. Aboveground storage tanks and all dispensers exposed to traffic must be resistant to damage from the impact of a motor vehicle or be protected by suitable collision barriers. Secondary containment may serve as a collision barrier.
(11)     Fencing requirements. All aboveground tanks must be enclosed by an appropriate security fence.
(12)     Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasure Plan. Owners or operators of aboveground storage tanks must have a Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasure Plan (SPCC Plan) completed in strict accordance with the requirements of Environmental Protection Agency 40 CFR 112, and updated every five (5) years. Each facility location must have its own plan.
(13)     Corrosion protection. Any portion of a tank or its piping system that routinely contain regulated substances or product and in contact with the soil must be protected from corrosion by a properly engineered, installed and maintained cathodic protection system in accordance with recognized standards of design listed in OAC 165:26 Subchapter 2, Part 4 of Commission rules. A tank sitting on a concrete pad will be considered in contact with the soil unless it is insulated from the concrete by some dielectric material.
(14)     Storage tank spacing and buffer distances.
(A)    Aboveground storage tanks must be appropriately spaced; the Fuel Specialist will determine whether the spacing is in accordance with OAC 165:26 Subchapter 2, Part 1, of Commission rules.
(B)    Minimum distances from aboveground storage tanks must also be maintained between tanks and the nearest important building, fuel dispensers, public ways, and property lines.
(15)     Secondary containment requirements for aboveground storage tanks. Double-walled tanks do not require additional containment if conditions listed in OAC 165:26-2-31 are satisfied.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Specifications, Standards, and Labeling for Motor Fuels
165:15-7-2.  Gasoline
(a)     Characteristics. Gasoline must be essentially free of undissolved water, sediment, and suspended matter, and must be suitable for use as a fuel in a spark ignition, internal combustion engine. It must be clear and bright at the ambient temperature or 70°F, whichever is higher.
(b)     The minimum value for (R+M)/2 for unleaded motor fuel. The minimum value for (R+M)/2 stated in this subsection applies to all unleaded fuel sold in the State of Oklahoma.
(1)    The measuring devices must be labeled as follows and the motor fuel dispensed must meet or exceed the stated value corresponding to the stated grade. At a minimum, labeling of measuring devices for unleaded product grade must state as follows:
(A)    West of 99 degrees west longitude, 86
(B)    87
(C)    88
(D)    89
(E)    90
(F)    91
(G)    92
(H)    93
(I)    94
(2)    In addition to the labeling requirements of (1), labels may read as follows:
(A)    East of 99 degrees west longitude
(i)    Unlead or Unleaded or Unleaded Regular: 87 or 88
(ii)    Unleaded Plus or Mid-Grade Unleaded or Mid-Grade UL: 89 or 90
(iii)    Premium Unleaded or Super Unleaded or Premium UL or Super UL: 91 and above.
(B)    West of 99 degrees west longitude
(i)    Unlead or Unleaded or Unleaded Regular: 86 or 87
(ii)    Unleaded Plus or Mid-Grade Unleaded or Mid-Grade UL: 88 or 89
(iii)    Premium Unleaded or Super Unleaded or Premium UL or Super UL: 90 and above.
(3)    Any labeling of measuring devices for grade(s) of products other than those described in (1) and (2) above require an application to the Director of the Petroleum Storage Tank Division.
(c)     Gum content. The gum content of gasoline must not exceed 5 milligrams per 100 milliliters.
(d)     Additives. Ethanol, MtBE or TAME added to gasoline as a component must not exceed concentrations permitted by the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
(e)     Other. Any other type, grade, or mixture of gasoline must be certified pursuant to the provisions of Subchapter 5 of this Chapter.

APPENDIX A.  Tolerances for Retail and Wholesale Devices  [REVOKED]
APPENDIX A.  Tolerances for Retail and Wholesale Devices  [NEW]
165_15A1R.tif

165_15A2R.tif
[OAR Docket #23-686; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 16.  Antifreeze
[OAR Docket #23-687]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Testing of Antifreeze
165:16-5-1. Testing of ethylene glycol antifreeze [AMENDED]
165:16-5-2. Testing of methanol type antifreeze [AMENDED]
165:16-5-3. Testing of prediluted aqueous ethylene glycol antifreeze [AMENDED]
165:16-5-4. Testing of propylene glycol antifreeze [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; Article IX, Section 18 of the Oklahoma Constitution; 17 O.S. Section 348.5.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on October 12, 2022.
COMMENT PERIOD:
October 12, 2022 through December 15, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 15, 2022
ADOPTION:
December 15, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
December 22, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved on May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
• Standard specification D3306-21(2021)
• Standard test method D1120-17 (2017)
• Standard test method D1287-11 (2020)
• Standard test method D1121-11 (2020)
• Standard test method D1384-05 (2019)
• Standard test method D1177-17 (2017)
• Standard test method D1121-11 (2020)
Incorporating rules:
165:16-5-1
165:16-5-2
165:16-5-3
165:16-5-4
Availability:
8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, at Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-2255
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules update the rules to include the current editions of the standards incorporated within the rules.
CONTACT PERSON:
Aaron D. Johnson, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-6963, aaron.johnson@occ.okg.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Testing of Antifreeze
165:16-5-1.  Testing of ethylene glycol antifreeze
     The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) standard D3306 (2014)specification D3306-21 (2021) shall be used to make the following tests of antifreeze.
(1)     Boiling point test. The boiling point of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1120 (2016) teststandard test method D1120-17 (2017). The boiling point of a concentrated antifreeze shall not be below 311°F or 155°C. When added to the cooling system of a motor vehicle, at atmospheric pressure, an antifreeze shall increase the boiling point to a degree not less than the following:
(A)    50% antifreeze: 226° F or 108° C
(B)    40% antifreeze: 221° F or 105° C
(C)    33 1/3% antifreeze: 219° F or 104° C
(D)    20% antifreeze: 214° F or 101° C
(2)     pH test. The pH of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1287 (2011) teststandard test method D1287-11 (2020). The pH of an antifreeze shall be run by using a solution composed of 50% concentrated antifreeze and 50% water, by volume. The pH of this antifreeze solution shall not be below 7.5.
(3)     Corrosion inhibition test. The reserve alkalinity of antifreeze as determined by the ASTM D-1121 (2011)standard test method D1121-11 (2020) shall be reported. The corrosion inhibitive properties of antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM D-1384 Test Method (2012)standard test method D1384-05 (2019). The average weight loss of each metal coupon shall not exceed the maximums stated as follows: copper 10 mg, solder 30 mg, brass 10 mg, steel 10 mg, cast iron 10 mg, and aluminum 30 mg.
(4)     Freezing point test. The freezing point of antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1177 (2016) teststandard test method D1177-17 (2017). The freezing points of the various water antifreeze solutions shall be such as to protect according to the chart in Appendix A of this Chapter.
165:16-5-2.  Testing of methanol type antifreeze
     The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) standards shall be used to make the following tests of antifreeze.
(1)     Boiling point test. The boiling point of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1120 (2016) teststandard test method D1120-17 (2017). The boiling point of a concentrated antifreeze when added to the cooling system of a motor vehicle at atmospheric pressure shall not be below 133° F or 56° C.
(2)     pH test. The pH of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1287 (2011) teststandard test method D1287-11(2020). The pH of an antifreeze shall not be below 7.5. The pH of an antifreeze shall be run by using a solution composed of 50% concentrated antifreeze and 50% water, by volume.
(3)     Reserve alkalinity test. The reserve alkalinity of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1121 (2011) teststandard test method D1121-11 (2020). The reserve alkalinity shall not be below 10.0.
(4)     Freezing point test. The freezing point of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1177 (2016) teststandard test method D1177-17 (2017). The freezing point of the various water antifreeze solutions shall be such as to protect according to the chart in Appendix B of this Chapter.
165:16-5-3.  Testing of prediluted aqueous ethylene glycol antifreeze
     The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) standards shall be used to make the following tests of antifreeze.
(1)     Boiling point test. The boiling point of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM D-1120 (2016) teststandard test method D1120-17 (2017). The boiling point of the prediluted coolant as packaged shall be at least 226°F or 108°C.
(2)     pH test. The pH of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1287 (2011) teststandard test method D1287-11 (2020). The pH of an antifreeze shall be run by using a sample of the prediluted coolant as packaged. The pH of this antifreeze solution shall not be below 7.5.
(3)     Corrosion inhibition test. The reserve alkalinity of antifreeze as determined by the ASTM D-1121 (2011)standard test method D1121-11 (2020) shall be reported. The corrosion inhibitive properties of antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM D-1384 Test Method (2012)standard test method D1384-05 (2019). The average weight loss of each metal coupon shall not exceed the maximums stated as follows: copper 10 mg, solder 30 mg, brass 10 mg, steel 10 mg, cast iron 10 mg, and aluminum 30 mg.
(4)     Freezing point test. The freezing point of antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1177 (2016) teststandard test method D1177-17 (2017). The freezing point of the concentrated antifreeze solution shall be at least to -34° F or -37° C.
165:16-5-4.  Testing of propylene glycol antifreeze
     The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) standards shall be used to make the following tests of antifreeze.
(1)     Boiling point test. The boiling point of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1120 (2016) teststandard test method D1120-17 (2017). The boiling point of a concentrated antifreeze shall not be below 305° F or 152° C. When added to the cooling system of a motor vehicle, a 50% antifreeze solution at atmospheric pressure shall increase the boiling point to a degree not less than 219° F or 104° C.
(2)     pH test. The pH of an antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1287 (2011) teststandard test method D1287-11 (2020). The pH of an antifreeze shall be run by using a solution composed of 50% concentrated antifreeze and 50% distilled water, by volume. The pH of this antifreeze solution shall not be below 7.5.
(3)     Corrosion inhibition test. The reserve alkalinity of antifreeze as determined by the ASTM D-1121 (2011)standard test method D1121-11 (2020) shall be reported. The corrosion inhibitive properties of antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM D-1384 Test Method (2012)standard test method D1384-05 (2019). The average weight loss of each metal coupon shall not exceed the maximums stated as follows: copper 10 mg, solder 30 mg, brass 10 mg, steel 10 mg, cast iron 10 mg, and aluminum 30 mg.
(4)     Freezing point test. The freezing point of antifreeze shall be determined by the ASTM designation D-1177 (2016) teststandard test method D1177-17 (2017). The freezing points of a 50% concentrated antifreeze and 50% distilled water solution shall not be above -26°F or -32°C.
[OAR Docket #23-687; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 20.  Gas & Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Safety
[OAR Docket #23-688]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Safety Regulations for Gas Pipelines
Part 1. General Provisions
165:20-5-3. Annual reports and incident reports; federal reporting requirements [REVOKED]
Part 3. Telephonic Notice and Reporting Requirements
165:20-5-11. Telephonic notice of certain incidents [AMENDED]
165:20-5-14. Transmission and gathering systems reporting requirements [AMENDED]
Part 5. Minimum Safety Standards for Gas
165:20-5-21. Adoption of federal safety regulations [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Safety Regulations for Hazardous Liquids
165:20-7-1. Adoption of federal safety and reporting regulations [AMENDED]
Subchapter 10. Non-DOT Regulated Gas Gathering Pipelines [REVOKED]
165:20-10-1. Authority [REVOKED]
165:20-10-2. Definitions [REVOKED]
165:20-10-3. Telephonic notice of certain non-DOT gathering pipeline incidents [REVOKED]
165:20-10-4. Non-DOT gathering pipeline incident reports [REVOKED]
165:20-10-5. Remedial action [REVOKED]
165:20-10-6. Record confidentiality [REVOKED]
Subchapter 17. Obligations Under the Oklahoma Underground Facilities Damage Prevention Act Subject to Commission Enforcement
165:20-17-7. Immediate notice of excavation damages caused by excavator to gas distribution mains, gas transmission pipelines, gas gathering pipelines, and all hazardous liquid pipelines [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; The Commission has authority to initiate this permanent rulemaking pursuant to the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S. Sections 250 et seq., 52 O.S. Sections 5 and 47.3, and Article IX, Sections 4 and 18 of the Oklahoma Constitution.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on January 26, 2023.
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 25, 2023, through March 14, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023, and March 14, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 14, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 24, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
49 C.F.R. Parts 191 and 192
Title 63 o.S. Section 142.2
Incorporating rules:
165:20–5–21
165:20–17–7
Availability:
8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, at Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-2255
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules strike rules that have become redundant, update a web address, correct numbering and a reference error, clarify that the Commission's Transportation Division regulates compliance with 49 C.F.R. Parts 191 and 192, and clarify excavation damage reporting requirements.
CONTACT PERSON:
Michael P. Copeland, Office of General Counsel, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, (405)522-1638, Michael.Copeland@occ.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Safety Regulations for Gas Pipelines
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS
165:20-5-3.  Annual reports and incident reports; federal reporting requirements  [REVOKED]
     The reporting requirements of 165:20-5-11, 165:20-5-12, 165:20-5-13, and 165:20-5-14 do not relieve the operator of its federal reporting requirements as found in 49 C.F.R. §§ 191.5, 191.7, 191.9, 191.11, 191.13, 191.15 and 191.17.
PART 3.  TELEPHONIC NOTICE AND REPORTING REQUIREMENTS
165:20-5-11.  Telephonic notice of certain incidents
(a)    At the earliest practicable moment, but no more than one (1) hour following discovery, each operator shall give notice in accordance with (b) and (c) of this Section of each incident as defined in 49 C.F.R. § 191.3.
(b)    Each notice required by (a) of this Section shall be made by telephone to the Pipeline Safety Department at 405-521-2258 or submitting a report online at www.occeweb.com/TRPipelinesafety@occ.ok.gov and shall include the information as listed in (c) of this Section.
(c)    The following information will be provided:
(1)    Names of operator and person making report and their telephone numbers.
(2)    The location of the incident.
(3)    The time of the incident.
(4)    The number of fatalities and personal injuries, if any.
(5)    All other significant facts known by the operator that are relevant to the cause of the incident or extent of the damage.
165:20-5-14.  Transmission and gathering systems reporting requirements
(a)    Except as provided in (2) of this subsection, each operator of a transmission or a gathering pipeline system shall submit United States Department of Transportation PHMSA Form F 7100.2 as soon as practicable but not more than thirty (30) days after detection of an incident.
(b)    When additional, relevant information is obtained after the incident report is submitted under (1)(a) of this subsection, the operator shall make supplementary reports as deemed necessary by referencing the date and subject of the original report.
PART 5.  MINIMUM SAFETY STANDARDS FOR GAS
165:20-5-21.  Adoption of federal safety regulations
     The Commission adopts the provisions of 49 C.F.R. Parts 191 andPart 192, with all amendments and appendices thereto, subject to the following:
(1)    49 C.F.R. § 192.1 is replaced by the following:
(A)    This Part prescribes minimum safety requirements for intrastate pipeline facilities and the transportation of gas subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission.
(B)    This Part shall not apply to:
(i)    Interstate transmission facilities; and
(ii)    Onshore gathering of gas through a pipeline that operates at less than 0 psig or through a pipeline that is not a regulated onshore gathering line as determined by 49 C.F.R. § 192.8.
(2)    The definition of "Administrator" and "State" are deleted and replaced as follows:
(A)    All references to the "Administrator" are replaced with the "Commission".
(B)    All references to the "State" refer to the State of Oklahoma.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Safety Regulations for Hazardous Liquids
165:20-7-1.  Adoption of federal safety and reporting regulations
     The Commission adopts the provisions of 49 C.F.R. Part 195, with all amendments and appendices thereto, subject to the following:
(1)    49 C.F.R. § 195.0 is replaced by the following: "This Part prescribes safety standards and accident reporting requirements for pipeline facilities used in the intrastate transportation of hazardous liquids subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission."
(2)    49 C.F.R. § 195.l(a) is replaced by the following: "Except as provided in paragraph (b) of 49 C.F.R. §195.l(b), this Part applies to pipeline facilities and the transportation of hazardous liquids associated with those facilities used in the intrastate transportation of hazardous liquids subject to the jurisdiction of the Commission."
(3)    The definition of "Administrator" shall be deleted and all references to the "Administrator" are replaced with the "Commission".
(4)    49 C.F.R. § 195.52(b) is replaced by the following: "(b) Reports made under paragraph (a) of 49 C.F.R. § 195.52(a) are made by telephone to 405-521-2258 (Pipeline Safety Department in Oklahoma City, OK) or submitting a report online at www.oklahoma.gov/occ TRPipelinesafety@occ.ok.gov and 800-424-8802 (in Washington, D.C. 202-462-2675), and must include the following information:
(A)    Name and address of the operator.
(B)    Name and telephone number of the reporter.
(C)    The location of the failure.
(D)    The time of the failure.
(E)    The fatalities and personal injuries, if any.
(F)    All other significant facts known by the operator that are relevant to the cause of the failure or extent of the damages."
(5)    49 C.F.R. § 195.54(a) is replaced by the following: "Each carrier that experiences an accident that is required to be reported under this subpart, as soon as practicable but not later than thirty (30) days after discovery of the accident, shall prepare and file an accident report on DOT Form 7000-1, or a facsimile, with the Pipeline Safety Department, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, in accordance with OAC 165:20-1-6 of this Chapter, and the Information Resources Manager, Office of Pipeline Safety, Department of Transportation, Washington, D.C. 20590."
(6)    49 C.F.R. § 195.54(b) is replaced by the following: "Whenever an operator receives any changes in the information reported or additions to the original report on DOT Form 7000-1, the operator shall submit a supplemental report within thirty (30) days with the Pipeline Safety Department, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, in accordance with OAC 165:20-1-6 of this Chapter, and the Information Resources Manager, Office of Pipeline Safety, Department of Transportation, Washington, D.C. 20590."
SUBCHAPTER 10.  Non-Dot Regulated Gas Gathering Pipelines  [REVOKED]
165:20-10-1.  Authority  [REVOKED]
     Pursuant to 52 OKLA. STAT. Section 5.B., the Commission has adopted this Subchapter establishing rules relating to incidents on a gathering pipeline unit that is not subject to the U.S. Department of Transportation Pipeline Safety Regulations at 49 C.F.R. Parts 191 and 192.
165:20-10-2.  Definitions  [REVOKED]
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"DOT" means the United States Department of Transportation,
"Gathering pipeline unit" means the portion of the nonregulated gathering pipeline involved in the incident not to exceed one mile of pipeline.
"Non-DOT gathering pipeline incident" means any of the following events:
(A)    An event that involves a release of gas from a gathering pipeline unit and that results in one or more of the following consequences:
(i)    A death, or personal injury necessitating in-patient hospitalization;
(ii)    Estimated property damage of $50,000.00 or more, including loss to the operator and others, or both, but excluding cost of gas lost; or
(iii)    Unintentional estimated gas loss of three million cubic feet or more.
(B)    Any other event that is significant in the judgment of the operator, even though it did not meet the criteria of paragraph A.
165:20-10-3.  Telephonic notice of certain non-DOT gathering pipeline incidents  [REVOKED]
(a)    At the earliest practicable moment, but no more than 24 hours following determination of a non-DOT gathering pipeline incident, an operator shall give notice of each non-DOT gathering pipeline incident.
(b)    Notice shall be made by telephone to the Pipeline Safety Department at 405-521-2258, and shall include the following information:
(1)    Name of the operator.
(2)    Name and telephone number of the person making the report.
(3)    The location of the non-DOT gathering pipeline incident.
(4)    The time of the non-DOT gathering pipeline incident.
(5)    The number of fatalities and personal injuries, if any.
(6)    All other significant facts known by the operator that are relevant to the cause of the non- DOT gathering pipeline incident or extent of the damages.
165:20-10-4.  Non-DOT gathering pipeline incident reports  [REVOKED]
(a)    Each operator that experiences a non-DOT gathering pipeline incident shall, as soon as practicable but not later than 30 days after discovery, prepare and file a report on DOT PHMSA Form F 7100.2 with the Pipeline Safety Department, In addition to the information required on Form F 7100.2, the report shall contain:
(1)    In the narrative description of the event, the remedial action taken and any action taken to mitigate a similar non-DOT gathering pipeline incident on the gathering pipeline unit: and
(2)    A map depicting the location of the non-DOT gathering incident.
(b)    Whenever an operator receives any changes in the information reported on the original report, it shall file a supplemental report within 30 days. Where additional relative information is obtained after a report is submitted under paragraph (a) of this Section, the operator shall make a supplemental report as soon as practicable with a clear reference by date and subject to the original report.
165:20-10-5.  Remedial action  [REVOKED]
     Each operator that experiences a non-DOT gathering pipeline incident shall make all repairs in accordance with 49 C.F.R. §§ 192.309, 192.311, 192.711, 192.713, 192.715, 192.717, and192.719.
165:20-10-6.  Record confidentiality  [REVOKED]
(a)    Except as provided in (b) of this Subchapter, all reports, data, maps or other information which the Commission may be authorized to obtain under the provisions of this Subchapter may be filed as confidential and the Commission shall maintain them as confidential and such records shall not be subject to the provisions of the Oklahoma Open Records Act. Only authorized Commission employees may obtain or access such confidential records.
(b)    Notwithstanding the above, the following information will be available upon request from the Pipeline Safety Department:
(1)    Date and time of the non-DOT gathering pipeline incident.
(2)    Location of the non-DOT gathering pipeline incident.
(3)    Name of the operator.
(4)    External diameter of the gathering pipeline unit involved in the non-DOT gathering pipeline incident.
(5)    Number of fatalities and injuries.
SUBCHAPTER 17.  Obligations Under the Oklahoma Underground Facilities Damage Prevention Act Subject to Commission Enforcement
165:20-17-7.  Immediate notice of excavation damages caused by excavator to gas distribution mains, gas transmission pipelines, gas gathering pipelines, and all hazardous liquid pipelines
(a)    At the earliest practicable moment following discovery, but no later than one hour after confirmed discovery, each operator must give notice in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section of excavation damage occurring to gas distribution mains, gas transmission pipelines, gas gathering pipelines and hazardous liquid pipelines that exceeds Ten Thousand dollars ($10,000) in property damage. Property damage shall include cost to excavator, operator, property owner and lost product as defined in the Oklahoma Underground Facilities Damage Prevention Act (Title 63 O.S. § 142.2).
(b)    Each notice required by paragraph (a) of the section must be made to the Commission's Pipeline Safety Department either by telephone to 405-521-2258 or electronically at TRPipelinesafety@occ.ok.gov and must submit the following information:
(1)    Names of operator and person making report and their telephone numbers.
(2)    The location of the excavation damage.
(3)    The time operator confirmed the excavation damage.
(4)    The number of fatalities and personal injuries, if any.
(5)    Name, contact number, and address of party causing excavation damage, if known at the time of notification.
(6)    All other significant facts that are known by the operator that are relevant to the cause of the excavation damage.
[OAR Docket #23-688; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 25.  Underground Storage Tanks
[OAR Docket #23-689]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
Part 11. Recordkeeping
165:25-1-53. Availability of records [AMENDED]
Subchapter 2. General Requirements for Underground Storage Tank Systems
Part 1. Codes and Standards
165:25-2-2. Incorporated codes and standards [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; Article IX, Section 18 of the Oklahoma Constitution; 17 O.S. Sections 306(12), 307, 322, 342, and 347.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on October 12, 2022.
COMMENT PERIOD:
October 12, 2022 through December 15, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 15, 2022
ADOPTION:
December 15, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
December 22, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved on May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
National Fire Protection Association Standards:
• Standard Number 385, 2022, "Tank Vehicles for Flammable and Combustible Liquids."
National Association of Corrosion Engineers:
• Standard Number SP0285 2021, "External Corrosion Control of Underground Storage Tank Systems by Cathodic Protection."
• International Test Method, TM 0497 2022, "Measurement Techniques Related to Criteria for Cathodic Protection on Underground or Submerged Metallic Piping Systems."
Underwriter's Laboratory Standards:
• Standard UL1316, 2018 "Glass-Fiber-Reinforced Plastic Underground Storage Tanks for Petroleum Products, Alcohols, and Alcohol-Gasoline Mixtures."
• Standard UL567, 2021, "Emergency Breakaway Fittings, Swivel Connectors and Pipe-Connection Fittings for Petroleum Products and LP-Gas."
Petroleum Equipment Institute:
• PEI/RP 1000-22 (2022 Edition) "Marina Fueling Systems."
NLPA/KWA Standard 823, "Preventative Maintenance, Repair and In-situ Construction of Petroleum Sumps."
Incorporating rules:
165:25-2-2
Availability:
8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, at Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-2255
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules update the Commission's previously adopted industry standards to the current editions, clarify that records not kept at the facility can be emailed to the inspector as long as they are received before the inspection is complete, and clarify that walkthrough inspections, spill and overfill testing as well as containment sump testing are required beginning October 13, 2018, and at least every three (3) years thereafter.
CONTACT PERSON:
Aaron D. Johnson, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-6963, aaron.johnson@occ.okg.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
PART 11.  RECORDKEEPING
165:25-1-53.  Availability of records
(a)    Owners and operators of underground storage tank systems regulated by this Chapter must cooperate with PSTD requests for submission of records.
(b)    Each owner/operator must provide written notice of any address change within thirty (30) days to the PSTD office.
(c)    All leak detection records, including but not limited to, sampling, testing, inventory and monitoring records, must be available on site for each tank for the preceding three (3) years. Emergency generator tanks at unmanned locations are not required to keep leak detection records at the facility, and may forward any required records to the PSTD office or upon request to the PSTD Fuel Specialist.
(d)    Copies of the following records must be readily available to, or emailed and received by, the PSTD Fuel Specialist before the inspection is completed:
(1)    Tank tightness tests, thirty (30) day inventory reconciliation, statistical inventory reconciliation, vapor or groundwater monitoring, automatic tank gauge tests, and interstitial monitoring results that demonstrate compliance with release detection for tanks.
(2)    Line tightness tests, electronic line tests, all sensor and alarm history results, and line leak detector function tests that demonstrate compliance with release detection for lines.
(3)    Installation and repair records for spill containment, overfill prevention, tank and piping construction must be maintained for three (3) years and readily available to PSTD.
(4)    Cathodic protection records specified in this Subchapter (OAC 165:25-1-56), tank lining certificates, and any other records that demonstrate compliance with corrosion protection for the tank system must be maintained and readily available to PSTD.
(5)    Current owner and tank system registration and current permit for all tanks located at the facility.
(6)    Current certificate(s) of training for all classes of operators.
(7)    Records that document compatibility with underground petroleum storage tank systems storing regulated substances containing greater than ten percent (10%) ethanol or twenty percent (20%) biodiesel. These records must be maintained at the facility for as long as the tank system is used to store these substances.
(8)    Beginning October 13, 2018, owners and operators must maintain records of annual operation and maintenance tests on the electronic and mechanical components of release detection equipment. Records must be maintained for three (3) years and at a minimum must list each component tested, indicate whether each component needed to have action taken and describe any action taken to correct the issue. Walkthrough inspections, spill and overfill testing as well as containment sump testing are also required beginning October 13, 2018, and at least every three (3) years thereafter.
(9)    A copy of the site assessment for groundwater or vapor monitoring must be kept at the facility for as long as this method is used as release detection.
(e)    Failure to have the required records available upon request by PSTD may result in enforcement action.
(f)    Release detection records, overfill prevention equipment inspection records, spill prevention equipment testing records, and containment sump testing records must be maintained on Commission forms.
SUBCHAPTER 2.  General Requirements for Underground Storage Tank Systems
PART 1.  CODES AND STANDARDS
165:25-2-2.  Incorporated codes and standards
     Specific references to documents are made in this Chapter. Each of these documents or part thereof is included by reference as a standard. New editions of codes and standards supersede all previous editions. Commission rules will supersede in all conflicts between PSTD rules and any industry standard. These codes and standards will be updated periodically through a formal rulemaking procedure initiated by PSTD to reflect any substantive or relevant changes.
(1)    National Fire Protection Association Standards:
(A)    Standard Number 30, 2021, "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code."
(B)    Standard Number 329, 2020, "Handling Releases of Flammable and Combustible Liquids and Gases."
(C)    Standard Number 385, 2017 2022, "Tank Vehicles for Flammable and Combustible Liquids."
(D)    Standard Number 326, 2020, "Safeguarding Tanks and Containers for Entry, Cleaning and Repair."
(E)    Standard Number 30A, 2021, "Motor Fuel Dispensing Facilities and Repair Garages."
(2)    American Petroleum Institute Standards
(A)    Recommended Practice 1615, "Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems." Sixth Edition, April 2011, Reaffirmed May 2020.
(B)    Recommended Practice 1632, "Cathodic Protection of Underground Storage Tank and Piping Systems." Third Edition, May 1996, Reaffirmed December 2020
(C)    Recommended Practice 1604, "Closure of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks." Fourth Edition, February 2021.
(D)    Recommended Practice 1631, "Interior Lining and Periodic Inspection of Underground Storage Tanks." Fifth Edition, June 2001, Reaffirmed May 2020.
(E)    Recommended Practice 1621, "Bulk Liquid Stock Control at Retail Outlets." Fifth Edition, May 1993, Reaffirmed May 2020.
(F)    Recommended Practice 1626, "Storing and Handling Ethanol and Gasoline - Ethanol Blends at Distribution Terminals and Filling Stations." Second Edition, August 2010, Errata February 2011, Addendum August 2012, Reaffirmed May 2020.
(G)    Recommended Practice 1627, "Storing and Handling of Gasoline - Methanol/Cosolvent Blends at Distribution Terminals and Service Stations." First Edition, August 1986, Reaffirmed January 2000.
(H)    Publication 1628, "A Guide to the Assessment and Remediation of Underground Petroleum Releases." Third Edition, July 1996.
(I)    Recommended Practice 2200, "Repairing Hazardous Liquid Pipelines" Fifth Edition, September 2015.
(J)    Standard 2015, "Requirements for Safe Entry and Cleaning of Petroleum Storage Tanks." Eight Edition, January 2018.
(K)    Recommended Practice 1637, "Using the API Color Symbol System to Identify Equipment, Vehicles and Transfer Points for Petroleum Fuels and Related Products at Dispensing and Storage Facilities and Distribution Terminals." Fourth Edition, April 2020.
(3)    National Association of Corrosion Engineers:
(A)    Standard Number SP0169-2013, "Control of External Corrosion on Underground or Submerged Metallic Piping Systems."
(B)    Standard Number SP0285-20112021, "External Corrosion Control of Underground Storage Tank Systems by Cathodic Protection."
(C)    Standard Number SP0286-2007, "Electrical Isolation of Cathodically Protected Pipelines."
(D)    International Test Method, TM 0101 2012, "Measurement Techniques Related to Criteria for Cathodic Protection of Underground Storage Tank Systems."
(E)    International Test Method, TM 0497 20182022, "Measurement Techniques Related to Criteria for Cathodic Protection on Underground or Submerged Metallic Piping Systems."
(4)    Underwriter's Laboratory Standards:
(A)    Standard UL58, 2018, "Steel Underground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids."
(B)    Standard UL1316, 2018, "Glass-Fiber-Reinforced Plastic Underground Storage Tanks for Petroleum Products, Alcohols, and Alcohol-Gasoline Mixtures."
(C)    Standard UL1746 Bulletin 2013, "External Corrosion Protection Systems for Steel Underground Storage Tanks."
(D)    Standard UL567, 2021, "Emergency Breakaway Fittings, Swivel Connectors and Pipe-Connection Fittings for Petroleum Products and LP-Gas."
(E)    Standard UL971 Bulletin 2011, "Nonmetallic Underground Piping for Flammable Liquids."
(5)    American Society for Testing Materials:
(A)    ASTM E1739-95 (2015), "Standard Guide for Risk-Based Corrective Action Applied at Petroleum Release Sites."
(B)    ASTM G158-98 (2016), "Three Methods of Assessing Buried Steel Tanks."
(6)    Petroleum Equipment Institute:
(A)    PEI/RP 100-20 (2020 Edition) "Recommended Practices for Installation of Underground Liquid Storage Systems."
(B)    PEI/RP 400-18 (2018 Edition), "Recommended Procedures for Testing Electrical Continuity of Fuel Dispensing Hanging Hardware."
(C)    PEI/RP 500-19 (2019 Edition), "Recommended Practices for Inspection and Maintenance of Motor Fuel Dispensing Equipment."
(D)    PEI/RP 900-21 (2021 Edition), "Recommended Practices for the Inspection and Maintenance of UST Systems."
(E)    PEI/RP 1000-141000-22(2014 Edition)(2022 Edition) "Marina Fueling Systems."
(F)    PEI/RP 1200-19 (2019 Edition), "Recommended Practices for the Testing and Verification of Spill, Overfill, Leak Detection and Secondary Containment Equipment at UST Facilities."
(G)    PEI/RP 1700-18 (2018 Edition), "Recommended Practices for the Closure of Underground Storage Tank and Shop-Fabricated Aboveground Storage Tank Systems."
(7)    Steel Tank Institute:
(A)    STIP3®, "Specification and Manual for External Corrosion Protection of Underground Steel Storage Tanks."
(B)    STI-R892-91, "Recommended Practice for Corrosion Protection of Underground Piping Networks Associated with Liquid Storage and Dispensing Systems."
(C)    STI-R894-91, "Specification for External Corrosion Protection of FRP Composite Underground Steel Storage Tanks."
(D)    RP-972-10, "Recommended Practice For The Addition of Supplemental Anodes to STI-P3 USTs."
(E)    STI-ACT-100-U®, F961, "Specification for External Corrosion Protection of Composite Steel Underground Storage Tanks".
(F)    STI-F841, "Standard for Dual Wall Underground Steel Storage Tanks."
(G)    STI-F922, "Specification for Permatank®."
(H)    RP-R051, "Cathodic Protection Testing Procedures for STI-P3® Underground Storage Tank Systems."
(8)    Factory Mutual 1920, "Flexible Pipe Couplings."
(9)    National Leak Prevention Association (NLPA) Standard 631, "Spill Prevention, Minimum 10 Year Life Extension, Existing Steel UST by Lining without Additional Cathodic Protection."
(10)    National Groundwater Association, 1986, "RCRA Ground Water Monitoring Technical Enforcement Guidance Document (TEGD)."
(11)    U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Office of Water, 1997, Drinking Water Advisory: "Consumer Acceptability Advice on Health Effects Analysis on Methyl Tertiary-Butyl Ether (MTBE)."
(12)    Ken Wilcox Associates, Inc., First Edition: "Recommended Practice for Inspecting Buried Lined Steel Tanks Using a Video Camera."
(13)    NLPA/KWA Standard 832823, "Preventative Maintenance, Repair and In-situ Construction of Petroleum Sumps."
[OAR Docket #23-689; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 26.  Aboveground Storage Tanks
[OAR Docket #23-690]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
Part 5. Standards and Codes
165:26-1-31. Codes and standards [AMENDED]
Part 7. Notification and Reporting Requirements
165:26-1-42. New tank systems [AMENDED]
Part 15. Licensing Procedures
165:26-1-110. Licensing procedure for AST Licensee Installers [AMENDED]
165:26-1-110.1. Licensing procedure for AST Removers [NEW]
Subchapter 2. General Requirements for Aboveground Storage Tank Systems
Part 1. Design and Installation
165:26-2-1.1. Aboveground storage tank installation [AMENDED]
Part 19. Repairs to Aboveground Storage Tank Systems
165:26-2-191. Repairs to aboveground tank systems [AMENDED]
Part 21. Removal and Closure of Aboveground Storage Tank Systems
165:26-2-210. Tank removal and closure [AMENDED]
165:26-2-213. Permanent closure [AMENDED]
Appendix G. Fine Citations Table [REVOKED]
Appendix G. Fine Citations Table [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; Article IX, Section 18 of the Oklahoma Constitution; 17 O.S. Sections 306(12), 307, 322, 342, and 347.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on October 12, 2022.
COMMENT PERIOD:
October 12, 2022 through January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023
ADOPTION:
January 5, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
January 12, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved on May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Underwriter's Laboratory (UL) Standards:
• Standard UL142, (2021), "Steel Aboveground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids." Petroleum Equipment Institute:
• RP 1000-22, "Marina Fueling Systems" (2022 Edition). "Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasure Regulation," 40 CFR 112.
Incorporating rules:
165:26-1-31
Availability:
8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, at Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-2255
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules update previously adopted standards to current editions, strike several references to Aboveground Storage Tank ("AST") Licensees, insert references to AST Installers and AST Removers, separate the AST License into AST Installers and AST Removers licenses, allow compliance staff to confirm samples will be taken in the locations appropriate for identifying the presence of a release before closure activities begin, and in Appendix G, strike references to AST Licensees and insert references to AST Installers and AST Removers.
CONTACT PERSON:
Jamie Andrews, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-522-0114, jamie.andrews@occ.okg.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
PART 5.  STANDARDS AND CODES
165:26-1-31.  Codes and standards
(a)    Specific references to documents listed below are made throughout the Aboveground Storage Tank Rules. Each of these documents or parts thereof is adopted and incorporated by reference as a standard. In the event these rules are in conflict with any of the standards set forth below, the provisions of these rules shall prevail. New editions of codes and standards supersede all previous editions. These codes and standards will be updated periodically through a formal rulemaking procedure initiated by PSTD to reflect any substantive or relevant changes. A copy is available for inspection at the Offices of the Petroleum Storage Tank Division during regular business hours.
(1)    American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Standards: American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME):
(A)    ASME B31.3 2020, "Process Piping."
(B)    ASME B31.4 2019, "Pipeline Transportation Systems for Liquids and Slurries."
(2)    American Petroleum Institute (API) Standards:
(A)    API Recommended Practice 652, "Linings of Aboveground Petroleum Storage Tank Bottoms," Fifth Edition, 2020.
(B)    API Publication1628 SET, "A Guide to the Assessment and Remediation of Underground Petroleum Releases." Third Edition, July 1996
(C)    API Standard 653, "Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Reconstruction." Fifth Edition, (2014), Addendum 1 (2018), Addendum 2 (2020).
(3)    American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) Standards: ASTM E1739-95 (2015), "Standard Guide for Risk-Based Corrective Action Applied at Petroleum Release Sites."
(4)    National Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) Standards: NACE SP0169-2013, "Control of External Corrosion on Underground or Submerged Metallic Piping Systems."
(5)    National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standards:
(A)    Standard Number 30, 2021, "Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code."
(B)    Standard Number 30A, 2021, "Motor Fuel Dispensing Facilities and Repair Garages."
(6)    Underwriter's Laboratory (UL) Standards:
(A)    Standard UL142, 2019(2021), "Steel Aboveground Tanks for Flammable and Combustible Liquids."
(B)    Standard UL842, 2020, "Valves for Flammable Fluids."
(C)    Standard UL971, 2011, "Nonmetallic Underground Piping for Flammable Liquids."
(7)    Petroleum Equipment Institute:
(A)    RP 200-19, "Installation of Aboveground Storage Systems" (2019 Edition).
(B)    RP 1000-141000-22, "Marina Fueling Systems" (2014 Edition)(2022 Edition).
(C)    RP 1700-18, "Recommended Practices for the Closure of Underground Storage Tank and Shop-Fabricated Aboveground Storage Tank Systems" (2018 Edition).
(8)    "Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasure Regulation," 40 CFR 112.
(b)    The standards set forth in (a) of this Section are also available from the following sources:
(1)    American National Standards Institute (ANSI), Thirteenth Floor; 11 West 42nd Street, New York City, New York, 10036; Telephone: (212) 642-4900.
(2)    American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), Three Park Ave., 23S2, New York, NY 10016-5990; Telephone (800) 843-2763.
(3)    American Petroleum Institute (API), Publications and Distribution, 1220 "L" Street, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20005-4070; Telephone (202) 682-8000.
(4)    American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Bar Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, Pennsylvania 19428-2959; Telephone (610) 832-9585.
(5)    National Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE), 1440 South Creek Drive, Houston, Texas 77084; Telephone (281) 492-0535.
(6)    National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269-9101; Telephone (800) 344-3555.
(7)    National Groundwater Association (NGWA), 601 Dempsey Road, Westeville, Ohio 43081; Telephone (614) 898-7791.
(8)    Underwriter's Laboratory (UL), 333 Pfingsten Road, Northbrook, Illinois 60062; Telephone (847) 272-8800, extension 2612.
(9)    Petroleum Equipment Institute, P.O. Box 2380, Tulsa, Oklahoma, 74101-2380; Telephone (918) 494-9696.
PART 7.  NOTIFICATION AND REPORTING REQUIREMENTS
165:26-1-42.  New tank systems
(a)    Persons intending to install a new aboveground storage tank and/or new aboveground or underground piping must give PSTD notification of the installation at least forty-eight (48) hours before the tank and/or lines are to be installed in the online format established by PSTD and receiving confirmation of the scheduled installation and the Temporary Authorization for Receipt of Fuel from PSTD. If events require the owner to change the date of installation, the Division should be given forty-eight (48) hourshours' notice of the new date. Any storage tank system permanent removal or a removal associated with replacement of tanks or lines requires at least fourteen (14) day notification prior to the removal activity.
(b)    After the tank installation is complete, the PSTD registration must be submitted to PSTD in the online format established by PSTD along with copies of required installation testing, photographs of the tank and piping system components before they are covered, an as-built drawing of the entire tank system, and manufacturer installation checklists within thirty (30) days. The tank owner and the AST LicenseeInstaller are both responsible for timely submittal of all installation paperwork. The registration must be approved and tank fees paid in order to receive a tank permit to dispense fuel. No regulated storage tank system can be operated without a valid permit from the Corporation Commission.
(c)    Owners and AST LicenseesInstaller must certify on the PSTD Registration that the installation of tanks and piping meet the requirements of this Chapter. A PSTD Certification of Installation Inspection Form may also be submitted to satisfy certification of tank and piping installation.
PART 15.  LICENSING PROCEDURES
165:26-1-110.  Licensing procedure for AST Licensee Installers
(a)    Any individual who would like to become an AST Licensee Installer must:
(1)    Complete an OCC AST Installer application form.
(2)    Provide sufficient proof of two (2) years' related work experience, completed within the last five (5) years.and of Applicants must have active participation in the completion of at least three (3) aboveground storage tank handling activities, two (2) of which must be installations. If applicant is a current AST installer license holder in another state, the work experience from another state may be substituted for each confirmed year he or she held the license.
(3)    Pass an examination approved by PSTD.
(4)    Pay fees for applications, examinations, and licensing prior to examination and license issuance as set forth in OAC 165:5.
(5)    Certify that theyhe or she will comply with all PSTDCommission rules and requirements for aboveground storage tanks, and applicable Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 29 CFR 1910.120 Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER) standards.
(b)    All examinations and licensing procedures must be completed within one (1) year of approval of the application. Failure to complete the exam and licensing procedures will result in forfeiture of fees and will require a new application and appropriate fees.
(c)    Continuing education is required to maintain an AST Installer license; this consists of four (4) hours of continuing education through a Commission PSTD approved program every year. Licensees may request to rollover a maximum of four (4) credit hours from the current year to satisfy the following year's continuing education requirements. Approval of any rollover hours will be at the discretion of PSTD after evaluating the class, course, or seminar.
(d)    Any person who holds an AST license may install or remove AST systems.
165:26-1-110.1.  Licensing procedure for AST Removers
(a)    Any individual who would like to become a licensed AST Remover must:
(1)    Complete an OCC AST Remover application form.
(2)    Provide sufficient proof of two (2) years related work experience, completed within the last five (5) years. Applicants must have active participation in the completion of at least three (3) AST removals. If applicant is a current AST remover license holder in another state, the work experience from another state may be substituted for each confirmed year he or she held the license.
(3)    Pass an examination approved by the PSTD.
(4)    Pay fees for applications, examinations, and licensing prior to examination and license issuance as set forth in OAC 165:5.
(5)    Certify that he or she will comply with all Commission rules and requirements for removal of aboveground storage tanks, and applicable Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 29 CFR 1910.120 Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER) standards.
(b)    All examinations and licensing procedures must be completed within one (1) year of approval of the application. Failure to complete the exam and licensing procedures will result in forfeiture of fees and will require a new application and appropriate fees.
(c)    Continuing education is required to maintain an AST Removers license; this consists of four (4) hours of continuing education through a PSTD-approved program every year. Licensees may request to rollover a maximum of four (4) credit hours from the current year to satisfy the following year's continuing education requirements. Approval of any rollover hours will be at the discretion of PSTD after evaluating the class, course, or seminar.
SUBCHAPTER 2.  General Requirements for Aboveground Storage Tank Systems
PART 1.  DESIGN AND INSTALLATION
165:26-2-1.1.  Aboveground storage tank installation
     All tanks, piping, and associated equipment used in conjunction with an AST installation shall be installed by personnel possessing appropriate skills, experience, applicable certification, and required PSTD license to complete the installation in accordance with recognized industry standards and this Chapter. An AST LicenseeInstaller must be present at all times during the installation. The PSTD Fuel Specialist monitoring the installation must be contacted before underground piping is backfilled so piping and sump tests may be observed and/or inspected. Photos of the installation of tank(s) and line(s) must accompany a completed registration form within thirty (30) days of installation and tank fees must be paid before a permit is issued.
PART 19.  REPAIRS TO ABOVEGROUND STORAGE TANK SYSTEMS
165:26-2-191.  Repairs to aboveground tank systems
     Repairs to an aboveground storage tank system, excluding electrical work, must be performed by an AST LicenseeInstaller. Routine maintenance such as painting and repairs to a product dispensing unit will not be considered repairs to the storage tank system.
PART 21.  REMOVAL AND CLOSURE OF ABOVEGROUND STORAGE TANK SYSTEMS
165:26-2-210.  Tank removal and closure
(a)    Owners and Operators of all aboveground storage tank systems must notify the Petroleum Storage Tank Division at least fourteen (14) days prior to the removal or permanent closure of aboveground storage tanks and/or lines by submitting the PSTD scheduling form and receiving confirmation of the scheduled removal from PSTD. When scheduling a removal, a site map of where samples are to be taken should be attached to the scheduling form. If events require a change in the date of removal, the Division shall be given forty-eight (48) hourshours' notice prior to the new date.
(b)    An authorized agent of PSTD may be present to observe the removal and to inspect the closed tank system and the surrounding environment prior to backfilling.
(c)    Tanks, lines and ancillary equipment must be removed upon closure unless a Commission order grants a variance.
(d)    An AST Licensee Remover must remove aboveground storage tank systems.
(e)    Photos must be taken of tank(s), line(s), and soil at removal. In the event there is a hole in a tank or line, further photographic evidence is required. If tank(s), line(s) or excavated soil show evidence of a release, photos of the apparent release must be taken that indicate the release source.
165:26-2-213.  Permanent closure
     Owners and/or operators of aboveground storage tank systems who do not intend to use the tanks for fuel storage in the future must close the tank systems after they have been out of service for more than twelve (12) months by performing the following:
(1)    Empty, clean, purge and devaporize the tank of all flammable products.
(2)    Separate the piping from the tank. All underground piping and ancillary equipment must be removed unless a Commission order grants a variance.
(3)    Perform a site assessment pursuant to 165:26-2-214, "Assessing the site at tank closure or change in service".
(4)    An AST Licensee Remover must be on site at all times during the removal of an aboveground storage tank and/or lines.
(5)    All UST's currently being used as AST's must be destroyed upon closure. A certificate of destruction must be included with the AST Closure Report and submitted to PSTD within forty-five (45) days of closure.

APPENDIX G.  Fine Citations Table  [REVOKED]
APPENDIX G.  Fine Citations Table  [NEW]
165_26G1R.tif

165_26G2R.tif

165_26G3R.tif

165_26G4R.tif
[OAR Docket #23-690; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 27.  Indemnity Fund
[OAR Docket #23-691]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Eligibility Requirements
165:27-3-2. Eligible person [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Reimbursement
165:27-7-1. Reimbursable expenses [AMENDED]
165:27-7-6. Conditions for reimbursement [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; 17 O.S. §§ 306(12), 307, 322, 342, and 347.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on October 12, 2022.
COMMENT PERIOD:
October 12, 2022 through December 15, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 15, 2022
ADOPTION:
December 15, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
December 22, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules remove unnecessary language found in 17 O.S. § 327.3(O)(2)(c), correct a statutory citation, and remove unnecessary language found in 17 O.S. § 327.3(b)(1).
CONTACT PERSON:
Jamie Andrews, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-522-0114, jamie.andrews@occ.okg.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Eligibility Requirements
165:27-3-2.  Eligible person
     An eligible person can be any of the following who has costs incurred as the result of a confirmed eligible release from a petroleum storage tank system, who has satisfied requirements for PSTD eligibility, and has been issued an Indemnity Fund Eligibility Letter by the PSTD Director.
(1)    An owner or operator of a storage tank system who fulfills the requirements of 17 O.S. § 327.3 and OAC 165:25 or OAC 165:26.
(2)    An owner whose property has been impacted by a release from an on-site or off-site petroleum storage tank system that was never owned or operated by the property owner and has no responsibility for the release.
(3)    A town or city which has obtained assignments from the property owners to act in their stead as "eligible party" and/or be deemed an "eligible party" itself for purposes of investigation and remediation of abandoned tank sites where a release of regulated substances has occurred on the property where the tanks are or were located and/or on nearby property within the limits of a single town or city. In any case where an abandoned petroleum storage tank system has released regulated substances onto the property where tanks are located or onto nearby property, within the limits of a single town or city, the city or town may obtain assignments from the property owners to act in their stead as "eligible party" and/or be deemed an "eligible party" itself for the purpose of investigation and remediation of the site(s).
(43)    Adjacent property owner or impacted party.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Reimbursement
165:27-7-1.  Reimbursable expenses
     The Fund may reimburse eligible persons for:
(1)    Reasonable, integral and necessary costs directly related to the corrective action. These costs may include but are not limited to such items as waste disposal, soil and groundwater remediation techniques, laboratory analyses, professional services, drilling, sampling, coring, transportation, and for use of third party property, on a case by case basis, for corrective actions.
(2)    Backfill on active confirmed cases.
(3)    Suspicion of release, and other costs deemed investigatory in nature.
(4)    Costs that are reasonable, integral and necessary.
(5)    Third Party property damage costs and medical injury costs that have been paid by the eligible person as set forth in 17 O.S. § 327.3(I)(H).
(6)    Reasonable, integral and necessary costs for any county, municipality or state agency imposed permit fees, disposal fees or other such fees that may be needed to further corrective actions.
165:27-7-6.  Conditions for reimbursement
(a)    Action taken as a result of an eligible release, other than in an emergency, may be made by competitive bid of at least two (2) bidders. When a requirement for bidding is made by PSTD, all bids received shall be forwarded to PSTD and the bid results discussed between the eligible person, PSTD and the PSTD Licensed Environmental Consultant. Acquisition or contracts or subcontracts for corrective action or for labor or equipment which exceed Two Thousand Five Hundred Dollars ($2,500.00) from any one vendor or subcontractor for any one (1) site shall be awarded to the lowest or best bidder as determined by PSTD. Professional engineering, geological, land surveying and other professional services or services provided by a PSTD Licensed Environmental Consultant required for investigation and the preparation of work plan and/or purchase orders, proposed corrective action plans and oversight of remediation will be reimbursed at current approved reasonable costs, or at the PSTD Director's discretion.
(ba)    When current costing systems cannot accommodate specific situations, contracts awarded shall be to the lowest or best bidder. The Indemnity Fund Program requires review and approval of all competitive bid actions.
(cb)    The owner/eligible and Licensed Environmental Consultant shall keep, and have available for review by the Indemnity Fund Program, records pertaining to the corrective action. These records include but are not limited to:
(1)    Corrective action plans.
(2)    Remedial action plans
(3)    Contracts and contract negotiations.
(4)    Accounts
(5)    Invoices
(6)    Sales tickets
(7)    Subcontractor invoices
(8)    Other forms of documentation for expenses incurred relating to such investigation, corrective action, remedial action, injury or damage.
(dc)    All records of costs incurred shall be certified by affidavit as true and correct and shall contain invoice dates, invoice numbers and amount of invoices being submitted.
(ed)    Reimbursement shall be made by the Fund only for costs that PSTD determines were actually incurred, were reasonable, allowable and are integral and necessary towards the corrective action performed.
(fe)    An eligible person with a release or whose property has been impacted by a release, shall not retain an environmental consulting firm to perform remediation in which the Applicant has more than a ten percent (10%) interest.
(gf)    An eligible person shall provide application information that will enable the Fund to determine which reimbursement method to use.
(1)    Initial, supplemental and final payments. An eligible person may submit an Initial Reimbursement Request and periodic Supplemental Reimbursement Requests followed by a Final Reimbursement Request after case closure if they:
(A)    Make application within two (2) years from the date of a closure letter issued by PSTD.
(B)    Been determined to be eligible (eligible person, eligible release, eligible tank system) to access the Fund.
(2)    An application for eligibility and all claims for reimbursement to the Fund must be made within two (2) years of the case closure letter issued by the PSTD or the date the Final Claim Confirmation form is received by the PSTD. Eligible persons are encouraged to submit claims for reimbursement as the costs are incurred and in the order incurred.
[OAR Docket #23-691; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 29.  Corrective Action of Petroleum Storage Tank Releases
[OAR Docket #23-692]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Release Prevention, Detection and Correction
Part 1. Release Prohibition, Reporting, and Investigation
165:29-3-3. Release investigation; confirmed release; suspected release; emergency suspected release and release reporting [AMENDED]
Part 3. Removal and Closure of Petroleum Storage Tank Systems
165:29-3-65. Assessing the site backfill material at closure or change in service [AMENDED]
Part 5. Corrective Action Requirements
165:29-3-71. General applicability; exception [AMENDED]
165:29-3-73. Initial response [AMENDED]
165:29-3-80. Remedial Action Plan [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; 17 O.S. §§ 306(12), 307, 322, 342, and 347.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on October 12, 2022.
COMMENT PERIOD:
October 12, 2022 through December 15, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 15, 2022
ADOPTION:
December 15, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
December 22, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules match language in the corresponding rule in OAC 165:25, update a heading to better reflect the content of the rule, strike references to fax, and make a grammatical insert.
CONTACT PERSON:
Jamie Andrews, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-522-0114, jamie.andrews@occ.okg.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Release Prevention, Detection and Correction
PART 1.  RELEASE PROHIBITION, REPORTING, AND INVESTIGATION
165:29-3-3.  Release investigation; confirmed release; suspected release; emergency suspected release and release reporting
(a)     Duty to inspect for release. Owners and operators of storage tanks must routinely inspect and conduct necessary testing of their storage tanks to prevent spilling, overfilling, or leaking from a storage tank system into the native environment. The owner or operator of a petroleum storage tank system must take the following steps or use other procedures approved by PSTD:
(1)     System test. Owners or operators must conduct petroleum storage tank system tightness tests and, if applicable containment testing, that will determine whether a release exists in the portion of the tank that routinely contains regulated substances and the attached delivery piping or a breach of either wall of the secondary containment has occurred. If the test results for the system, tank, delivery piping, or interstice indicate that a leak exists, the owner or operator must repair, remove, replace, or permanently closed as defined in OAC 165:25-2-135 the petroleum storage tank system, delivery piping, or interstice and begin a site check. Further investigation is not required if the test results for the system, tank, delivery piping, and interstice do not indicate that a leak exists and if indicator chemical concentrations detected in soil or water are not the basis for suspecting a release. However, the owner or operator must conduct a site check as described in (B) below if the test results for the system, tank, delivery piping and interstice do not indicate that a release exists, but indicator chemical concentrations detected in soil or water are above action levels cited in (b) of this Section.
(2)     Site check. The owner or operator must measure for the presence of a release where released regulated substances are most likely to be present at the petroleum storage tank system site. In selecting sample types, locations, depths and measurement methods, owners or operators must consider the nature of the stored substance, the type of initial alarm or cause for suspicion, the type of native soil, the depth of groundwater, and other factors appropriate for identifying the presence and source of the release. Sample locations should be approximately five feet (5') from the outside of the petroleum storage tank system in native soil or another location approved by the PSTD. Analyses for both BTEX constituents and the appropriate TPH must be obtained in all cases. For sites where used oil may be involved, as determined through a TPH analysis, TCLP analysis for metals, semi-volatiles, and volatiles may be required. The TCLP results will be used on a case-by-case basis to establish cleanup levels or to refer the case to the DEQ for regulation. The selected method must be able to detect the most stringent cleanup levels required in this Chapter. The Total Petroleum Hydrocarbon (TPH) Laboratory Methodology 418.1 will not be accepted for this Chapter.
(A)    If the test results for soil and/or groundwater taken outside the excavation zone or the petroleum storage tank system site confirm that a release has occurred, the owner or operator must begin the required corrective action in accordance with this Subchapter.
(B)    If the test results for the native soil and/or groundwater or the petroleum storage tank system site do not indicate that a release has occurred, further investigation is not required.
(b)     Confirmed release.
(1)    When one or more of the following is present from a petroleum storage tank system, a release may be considered confirmed and a confirmed release case may be activated by PSTD staff.
(A)    Free product.
(B)    Contaminated groundwater and/or soil that exceed OCC action levels.
(C)    Organic vapor readings above background levels.
(D)    Actionable levels of petroleum staining or odors.
(E)    Any other indication that a release from a regulated petroleum storage tank system has occurred that is harmful to human health, safety or the environment.
(2)    Laboratory analysis of levels of chemical constituent concentrations that may be required to confirm a case are:
(A)    Benzene
(i)    Native Soils - 0.5 mg/kg
(ii)    Groundwater - 0.005 mg/l
(B)    Toluene
(i)    Native Soils - 40.0 mg/kg
(ii)    Groundwater - 1.0 mg/l
(C)    Ethyl Benzene
(i)    Native Soils - 15.0 mg/kg
(ii)    Groundwater - 0.7 mg/l
(D)    Xylene
(i)    Native Soils - 200.0 mg/kg
(ii)    Groundwater - 10.0 mg/l
(E)    TPH
(i)    Native Soils - 50.0 mg/kg
(ii)    Groundwater - 2.0 mg/l
(iii)    If BTEX concentrations are below action levels, a TPH concentration of 500 mg/kg in soil may be required to confirm a case at the discretion of PSTD.
(c)     Suspected release. When an owner, operator, or their agent has reason to believe that a release from a storage tank may have occurred, he or she must notify PSTD within twenty-four (24) hours and receive authorization from the Division prior to initiating any investigation for which subsequent payment from the Indemnity Fund may be sought.
(d)     Emergency suspected release. Owners, operators, or their agent may begin investigation of suspected releases when the suspected release may cause immediate harm to the public health, safety, welfare or the environment. The Petroleum Storage Tank Division will approve and reimburse expenses for an investigation after it has been performed and prior to the issuance of a Suspicion of Release by the Petroleum Storage Tank Division when the owner or operator has reasonably acted upon the belief that the suspected release gave rise to the need for immediate emergency action. The determination of whether or not action was reasonable is within the discretion of PSTD.
(e)     Release reporting. Within twenty (20) days after the reporting of a release, the owner or operator must submit a report to PSTD summarizing the steps taken under this Section and any resulting information. If a release is confirmed through performance of the steps taken under this Section, then the report must be submitted in a format established by PSTD within the required timeframe, after which corrective action may be required under the provisions of this Chapter.
PART 3.  REMOVAL AND CLOSURE OF PETROLEUM STORAGE TANK SYSTEMS
165:29-3-65.  Assessing the sitebackfill material at closure or change in service
(a)    As directed by PSTD, backfill material that is removed when an underground storage tank or associated piping is removed from the subsurface may be tested for BTEX, TPH (GRO and/or DRO, whichever is appropriate) and total lead, if appropriate.
(b)    As directed by PSTD excavated backfill material may be sampled at a rate of one composite sample (composed of 10 grab samples) per 50 cubic yards of material, which must be analyzed by a laboratory certified by DEQ.
(c)    The consultant or tankowner may put excavated backfill back into the tankpit while waiting for sampling results, but if the backfill needs to be re-excavated and replaced with clean backfill, the re-excavation is not a reimbursable expense.
(d)    After reviewing analytical results, PSTD will determine if concentrations of Chemicals of Concern are at levels that pose a threat to human health, safety and/or the environment, and should be removed. This decision will be based upon analytical levels and specific site conditions such as, but not limited to, lithology of the tankpit walls and surrounding native soils, gradient and direction of groundwater flow, and potential receptor exposure to Chemicals of Concern.
(e)    Contaminated backfill and tankpit water that poses a threat to human health and/or the environment as determined by PSTD must be removed from the site to a proper disposal site and replaced by clean backfill, or may be remediated above grade to concentrations below action levels or ORBCA-related cleanup levels.
(f)    Expenses incurred in the removal and disposal (but not re-excavation, see (c) above) of contaminated backfill and tankpit water may be reimbursable by the Fund only with written or documented verbal pre-approval (i.e., confirmed by fax or email) from PSTD Technical staff. Reimbursement of eligible backfill disposal costs can only be paid when associated with an active, confirmed release case.
(g)    Reimbursable backfill expenses identified in Section (f) above do not apply to new tank installations. If existing tanks are removed and replaced with new tanks, in order to ensure the efficacy of the cathodic protection, old backfill must be removed and new backfill must be placed in the tankpit. If the backfill is contaminated to the degree that it must be taken to a landfill, backfill removal and disposal costs are not reimbursable expenses.
(h)    No soil, backfill material, or groundwater is to be removed from the site without prior PSTD approval and proper laboratory characterization unless otherwise directed by PSTD.
PART 5.  CORRECTIVE ACTION REQUIREMENTS
165:29-3-71.  General applicability; exception
(a)    Every owner or operator of a petroleum storage tank system must, in response to a confirmed release from a petroleum storage tank system, comply with the requirements of this Part, with the exception of those systems excluded from regulation in OAC 165:25 and 165:26.
(b)    All work associated with the assessment, characterization, investigation, remedial action, and closure from a release or suspected release of a regulated substance should be pre-approved by PSTD.
(c)    Upon confirmation of a release, or after a release from the petroleum storage tank system is identified, the owner or operator must perform the following initial response actions:
(1)    Report the release to PSTD using the link provided on the release reporting tab located on PSTD's webpage on the Commission website; by email at PSTReleaseReporting@occ.ok.gov; by telephone at 405-521-4683 or 1-888-621-5878, or fax to 405-521-4945. If after hours, or on weekends or holidays call the PSTD emergency number at 405-823-0994.
(2)    Take immediate action to prevent any further release of the regulated substance into the environment, and prove that any system still containing fuel is tight by having a system tightness test performed.
(3)    Identify and mitigate any fire, explosion, and vapor hazards.
(4)    Remove free product to the extent practicable as determined by PSTD while continuing, as necessary, any actions required by this Subchapter.
(d)    Any corrective action work performed at a release site must have prior documented verbal or written approval by a member of PSTD staff to be considered reimbursable by the Indemnity Fund. This requirement for pre-approval excludes required emergency spill mitigation measures. Additionally, field work associated with all corrective actions requires 48-hour (two working days excluding holidays and weekends) written notice to PSTD of scheduled field activities. Notice must be made to the PSTD staff member assigned to the case, his/her Supervisor and the PSTD Technical Manager.
165:29-3-73.  Initial response
     Upon confirmation of a release or after a release from a petroleum storage tank system is identified in any other manner, the owner or operator must perform the following initial response actions within 24 hours of a release:
(1)    Report the release to the PSTD either by telephone, electronic mail, or facsimile.
(2)    Take and document immediate action to prevent any further release of the regulated substance into the environment.
(3)    Identify any fire, explosion, and vapor hazards and mitigate them immediately.
165:29-3-80.  Remedial Action Plan
(a)    At any point after reviewing the information submitted, PSTD may require additional information or a Remedial Action Plan for contaminated soils and groundwater. If a plan is required, it must be submitted in the online format specified by PSTD.
(b)    PSTD will approve a Remedial Action Plan only after the Licensed Environmental Consultant ensures that implementation of the plan will adequately protect human health, safety, and the environment as determined by using the process outlined in the ORBCA Guidance Document.
(c)    As directed by PSTD, the owner or operator must implement the Remedial Action Plan, including any modifications to the plan made by PSTD. Implementation for the purposes of this Chapter means that the Remedial Action Plan approved by PSTD is fully operational and is performing the task for which it was designed.
(d)    The owner or operator will be required to perform remediation and compliance monitoring as directed by PSTD.
(e)    The owner or operator may, with verbal pre-approval documented by fax or email of PSTD staff, begin cleanup of soil and groundwater before the Remedial Action Plan is approved, provided that the owner or operator:
(1)    Notify PSTD of the intention to begin cleanup at least seven (7) days prior to initiating any cleanup action, unless it is an emergency.
(2)    Comply with any conditions imposed by PSTD, including halting cleanup or mitigating adverse consequences from cleanup activities.
(3)    Incorporate these self-initiated cleanup measures in the Remedial Action Plan or closure by risk assessment that is submitted to PSTD for approval.
[OAR Docket #23-692; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 30.  Motor Carriers, Private Carriers and Transportation Network Companies
[OAR Docket #23-693]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 19. Registration Pursuant to the International Registration Plan
165:30-19-3. Registration [AMENDED]
165:30-19-12. Supplemental application [AMENDED]
Subchapter 21. International Fuel Tax Agreement
165:30-21-7. Application processing [AMENDED]
Subchapter 23. Motor License Agents ("MLA")
165:30-23-1. Responsibility for errors in application and computation [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; The Commission has jurisdiction to initiate this permanent rulemaking pursuant to the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S. §§ 250 et seq., 68 O.S. §§ 601 et seq., 47 O.S. §§ 1101 et seq., and Article IX, Sections 4 and 18 of the Oklahoma Constitution.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on January 26, 2023.
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 25, 2023, through March 14, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023, and March 14, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 14, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 24, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules encourage electronic International Registration Plan ("IRP") registration of large fleets, encourages electronic International Fuel Tax Agreement ("IFTA") registration of large fleets, clarify deletion obligations when removing vehicles from an IRP registered fleet, and clarify a motor license agents' responsibility to adhere to the IRP application and processing requirements.
CONTACT PERSON:
Michael P. Copeland, Office of General Counsel, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 North Lincoln Boulevard, Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, (405)522-1638, Michael.Copeland@occ.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 19.  Registration Pursuant to the International Registration Plan
165:30-19-3.  Registration
(a)    Before a vehicle can be proportionally registered in the state of Oklahoma the applicant or registrant must:
(1)    Have an established place of business located in Oklahoma. Absent an established place of business in any IRP jurisdiction, an applicant must satisfy the residency requirements in 165:30-19-6, prior to being allowed to base plate in Oklahoma. Under no circumstances can an independent contractor be used to establish a place of business or residence on behalf of a registrant;
(2)    Complete the application, all required schedules, and provide backup documentation required by the Commission to verify the information submitted by the applicant:
(A)    The application must include the email address, mailing address and telephone number of the applicant. In addition to providing the applicant's telephone number, the applicant may provide the telephone number of a third party who has knowledge of the applicant's whereabouts and is able to contact the applicant within a reasonable period upon request. An applicant or registrant may not utilize a telephone listing indicating the same telephone number as that of any other person in this state as a qualifying telephone number under this Section.
(B)    If the application is signed by someone other than the applicant or registrant, pursuant to a power of attorney, the name or names of the individuals to whom such authority is granted must be included in the power of attorney executed by the applicant.
(3)    Provide proof of payment (or suspension from levy) of Federal Heavy Vehicle Use Tax;
(4)    Provide proof of financial responsibility pursuant to 47 O.S. § 7-602 (liability insurance);
(5)    Motor vehicles operated by a motor carrier with valid liability insurance on file with FMCSA or this Commission are exempt from subsection (a) (4) of this Section;
(6)    If the applicant is leased to a motor carrier, the applicant must provide a copy of the lease to satisfy Oklahoma's financial responsibility requirements (47 O.S. § 7-602). If multiple vehicles are under lease, a letter from the motor carrier listing each vehicle's year, make, model and vehicle identification number (VIN) under lease to the carrier may be provided in lieu of the lease, provided a copy of all leases shall be made available to the Commission upon request. The Commission does not perform analysis to ensure compliance with applicable CFRs on lease agreements provided to the Commission for administrative purposes under this Chapter. It is the lessor's responsibility to ensure leases are compliant with the federal CFR's;
(7)    Provide proof of ownership;
(8)    Provide proof of payment of prior registration fees, if the vehicle was registered pursuant to the IRP in another jurisdiction;
(9)    Pay all applicable fees to complete registration. Continuous registration is required; therefore registration fees shall be assessed from the last vehicle registration date or the date of sale;
(10)    Provide the USDOT number and the social security number, federal employee identification number or taxpayer identification number of the carrier responsible for safety of each vehicle in the apportioned application; and
(11)    Be the owner, the lessee, the motor carrier responsible for safety or an entity contracted by the owner or motor carrier responsible for safety.
(b)    Application for registration may be made at any time during a registration year.
(c)    Applicants for proportional registration, whose fleet size exceeds 25 vehicles, are required to file electronically to avoid additional processing fees. Fleet size is determined by the number of vehicles registered or to be registered by the registrant.
(dc)    Application for registration may be submitted through the mail to the IFTA/IRP Section, Transportation Division, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, P.O. Box 52948, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73152-2948address posted on the Commission's website, or by applying in person at the address posted on the Commission's website 2101 N. Lincoln Blvd., in Oklahoma City. A list of other locations where application may be submitted is available from the IFTA/IRP Section or the Commission website under the Transportation Division (www.occeweb.com).
(ed)    No application for proportional registration shall be processed unless the applicant has submitted the documentation required in (a) of this Section. Failure to submit the required documentation shall result in denial of the application.
(fe)    If an approved IRP application must be unapproved, corrected, and/or re-approved due to additional information submitted by the applicant after the initial approval or due to an error committed by the applicant, a reprocessing fee may be assessed as established by OAC 165:5-3- 1.
(gf)    Since registration with the Plan can affect other jurisdictions' registration fees and tax receipts, the Transportation Division must be diligent in ensuring that those registrants with Oklahoma as their base jurisdiction are indeed entitled to base in Oklahoma.
(1)    If after approval of the application and during the registration year, the Transportation Division has reason to believe that critical account information submitted on an application has changed, the Transportation Division shall allow the registrant thirty (30) days to provide the updated information. If the information is not provided within that time or is deemed insufficient, the Transportation Division shall revoke the registrants' credentials in accordance with OAC 165:5-25.
(2)    If after approval of the application and during the registration year the Transportation Division has evidence that critical account information submitted on an application was submitted erroneously or falsely, the Transportation Division shall revoke the registrants' credentials in accordance with OAC 165:5-25.
(hg)    Non-expiring commercial trailer license plates are issued for trailers used in commercial enterprises regardless of their size or weight (other than trailer mounted special mobilized machinery and trailers used for transporting forest products). Once statutory registration fee(s) and any additional fees set by the Commission established by OAC 165:5-3-1 are remitted, a license plate will be issued upon the initial registration or any subsequent transfer of ownership. Trailer renewal fees, as established by statute and OAC 165:5-3-1, shall be paid annually to maintain active registration status.
(ih)    Buses operating in more than one IRP jurisdiction are the only buses eligible for registration by the Commission and are subject to applicable rules of this Chapter. Registration fees for such vehicles are generally based on seating capacity.
165:30-19-12.  Supplemental application
(a)    After an original application has been filed, vehicles can be added, deleted, or registration weight increased by filing a supplemental application form.
(b)    Registration fees for supplemental applications are calculated from the date of purchase or lease, unless the vehicle was previously registered in the fleet, then the fees shall be calculated upon an annual rate. For registrants who do not have possession of equipment on the date they purchased it, fees may be calculated from the date the equipment came into possession of the registrant. Registrants who wish to avail themselves of this provision must provide documentation of the receipt date of the equipment to the Transportation Division. In no case should the effective date of the registration be after equipment is placed in service.
(c)    When a supplemental application is filed to add a unit and delete a similar unit, a credit of the registration fees paid on the deleted unit will be given toward registration of the added unit for those states that allow credit. Credit is only available for vehicles subsequently added to the fleet in the registration year in which the credit was created. In no event shall credit be allowed for fees beyond such registration year. Credits are not transferable between fleets. In order for credit to be given on the registration fees, the cab card and license plate for the deleted vehicle must be returned with the supplemental application, or an affidavit of destruction must be submitted with the supplemental application. Under no circumstances can a license plate be transferred from one vehicle to another. No refund for unused deletion credits will be given for a deleted vehicle.
(d)    Supplemental applications may be filed with a future effective date to add a unit before the unit is placed in service. In no case shall the registration effective date be more than sixty (60) days after the filing date of the supplemental application. When a unit is added with a future effective date but the unit does not become part of the fleet, no refund of the fees will be allowed. The unit may be deleted and the resulting deletion credits may be used toward the addition of subsequent unit.
(e)    If the license plate is lost, an affidavit may be submitted in lieu of the plate.
(f)    When the motor carrier is responsible for safety changes during a registration year, the registrant is required to file for a cab card change for each vehicle. The cab card change application shall include the new motor carrier responsible for safety's USDOT number and taxpayer identification number (social security or federal employee).
(g)    When an owner operator is no longer contracted with a motor carrier, the motor carrier must delete that vehicle from its IRP vehicle registration fleet. The Transportation Division may delete a vehicle from a registrant's IRP fleet if the new registrant presents the proper documentation showing a new carrier responsible for safety.
SUBCHAPTER 21.  International Fuel Tax Agreement
165:30-21-7.  Application processing
(a)    Upon receipt of an IFTA fuel tax license application from a new or renewing applicant, the Commission shall check all entries on the application to ensure that they are complete. If the Commission feels more information is required, the licensee should immediately be contacted requesting the required information. Upon being satisfied that the application is correct and all fees prescribed by law or Commission rule have been paid, the Commission shall issue the fuel tax credentials for the fleet.
(b)    The Transportation Division may withhold issuing requested decals if fulfilling the request would result in the licensee having over 25% more decals in their possession than their fleet size. If the Division withholds decals under this provision, it will only withhold that portion of the decal request that causes the licensee's decal inventory to exceed the 25% figure.
(c)    IFTA licensees are required to account for all decals issued to them under the IFTA program. Licensees must ensure that decals are assigned only to vehicles that are subject to the fuel and distance requirements of the IFTA program of the licensee. Decals, not issued to vehicles subject to fuel and distance requirements, must be produced for inspection upon request of the Transportation Division. Failure to adequately account for decals, or produce decals for inspection, may subject the licensee to penalty of $250 per decal.
(d)    Applicants for an IFTA fuel tax licensee are required to file for their license electronically if theirfleet size exceeds 25 vehicles to avoid additional processing fees. Fleet size is determined by the number of decals applied for in the current license year.
(e)    Licensees whose fleet size exceeds 25 vehicles are required to file all quarterly returns electronically to avoid additional processing fees. Fleet size is determined by the number of decals purchased in the current license year.
SUBCHAPTER 23.  Motor License Agents ("MLA")
165:30-23-1.  Responsibility for errors in application and computation
(a)    A motor license agent shall adhere to the IRP application and processing requirements as conveyed by the Commission. A motor license agent's permission to process IRP applications may be rescinded without notice for repeated failure or refusal to follow such requirements.
(ab)    A motor license agent shall be responsible for errors in tax application, computations, and/or fee computations and collections while performing registration of vehicles pursuant to Section 1120 of Title 47 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
(bc)    Upon demand for payment, the motor license agent must, within 15 days, remit the full amount of any error determined to be due, or if unable to pay the full amount, the agent may make a written request to the Commission for consideration of an extension of time to remit monies due.
[OAR Docket #23-693; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 55.  Telecommunications Services
[OAR Docket #23-694]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Certificates, Reports, and Records
Part 1. Certificates of Convenience and Necessity
165:55-3-1. Certificate of Convenience and Necessity [AMENDED]
165:55-3-3. Approval of initial tariffs [AMENDED]
Part 5. Record Requirements
165:55-3-22. Records to be provided to the Commission [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Rates and Tariffs
Part 5. Tariff Structure and Composition
165:55-5-20. Requirements as to size, form and identification of tariffs [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Directories, Telephone Numbers, and Customer-Provided Equipment
165:55-7-1. Telephone directories [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Customer Billing and Deposits
Part 1. Billing and Payment Requirements
165:55-9-1. Billing period [AMENDED]
Subchapter 11. Service Denial, Suspension, and Disconnection
Part 3. Suspension and Disconnection Procedures
165:55-11-10. Suspension or disconnection for nonpayment or failure to make security deposit [AMENDED]
Subchapter 13. Operating and Maintenance Requirements
Part 5. Service Quality Standards
165:55-13-20. Responsibility for adequate and safe service [AMENDED]
Part 11. Interruptions of Service
16:55-13-52. Notice of service interruptions [AMENDED]
Subchapter 15. Notifications of Transactions Affecting Customers or Business Operations
165:55-15-1. Notification of certain transactions affecting the customers or operations of a telecommunications service provider or IXC [AMENDED]
165:55-15-5. Cessation of business in Oklahoma [AMENDED]
Subchapter 22. Resolution Disputes
165:55-22-5. Formal non-expedited dispute resolution [AMENDED]
Subchapter 23. Eligible Telecommunications Carriers
Part 1. General Provisions
165:55-23-3. Records to be provided to the Commission [AMENDED]
165:55-23-16. Limitations on Marketing of Supported Services by ETCs [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; Article IX, Section 18, Oklahoma Constitution and 17 O.S. §§ 131 et seq.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on February 8, 2023.
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 7, 2023 through March 28, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 28, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 28, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules comply with the Governor's Executive Order 2020-03 by removing costly, ineffective, duplicative, and outdated rules. The adopted rules also accomplish the following: remove the requirement to file a specific number of paper copies of certain documents that should instead be filed or submitted electronically, remove the requirement to submit exchange maps in paper format and instead require electronic submission, remove references to facsimile, remove the requirement to submit the Federal Communications Commission ("FCC") Form 481, change the reporting deadline for proof of surety to align with other reporting obligations, remove the requirement that telecommunications service providers provide telephone directories yearly, require that all bills be delivered to an end-user electronically unless the end-user opts to receive the bill through the United States Mail, change time limitations on suspension or disconnection of service, remove the time limit for completion of service orders, remove the requirement to maintain a record of temporary drops and cables, require carriers to submit photographic evidence of completion of work after notice of safety concerns, remove the estimated time for repair when reporting an outage to the Commission, require additional information be provided when a company requests to cease doing business in Oklahoma, speed up the process for the cessation of business in Oklahoma, prohibit Eligible Telecommunications Carriers ("ETCs") from conducting door-to-door enrollment of Lifeline services, change "cause" to "case" throughout, change "Commission" to "PUD" in certain instances, and correct grammatical errors.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kenneth B. Behrens, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 N. Lincoln Blvd., Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-6989, Ken.Behrens@occ.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Certificates, Reports, and Records
PART 1.  CERTIFICATES OF CONVENIENCE AND NECESSITY
165:55-3-1.  Certificate of Convenience and Necessity
(a)     Requirement for Certificate of Convenience and Necessity. No person, firm, association, corporation or cooperative shall furnish telecommunications service to any end-user or customer in the State of Oklahoma without first having secured a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity from the Commission.
(b)     Requirement for Certificate of Convenience and Necessity prior to receiving funding from the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund. Any provider, excluding OneNet, requesting funding from the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund for the provision of Special Universal Services shall first obtain a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity from the Commission.
(c)     Application for Certificate of Convenience and Necessity. Every provider of telecommunications services making application to the Commission for a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity in accordance with 17 O.S. § 131 et seq. shall be required to demonstrate its financial, managerial and technical ability to provide the requested telecommunications services in the State of Oklahoma. An application for a certificate to provide telecommunications service in the State of Oklahoma shall be made pursuant to and in conformance with the requirements of Oklahoma law and any additional requirements set forth in this Chapter. An original and five (5) copies of the application for Certificate of Convenience and Necessity shall be filed atwith the Commission's Office of the Court Clerk. A filing fee pursuant to the Commission's Rules of Practice, OAC 165:5, shall be required.
(d)     Application requirements for Certificate of Convenience and Necessity. An application for a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity shall include information and attachments which are certified as true and correct by an officer of any corporate applicant, or an authorized representative of an unincorporated applicant. The Commission reserves the right to deny or dismiss, without prejudice, any application found not to be in compliance with this subchapter. If an applicant is unable to produce any information required in this subsection, the applicant must provide a statement explaining why the information is not included.
(1)    The application shall contain the following information:
(A)    The complete name, including any and all trade name(s) under which business will be conducted pursuant to 18 O.S. § 1140, corporate or other headquarters street address and names/addresses of principal or corporate officers of the entity proposing to sell telecommunications service or provide Special Universal Services to the public in the State of Oklahoma. The telephone number and, if applicable, the toll-free number will also be included.
(B)    If different from those provided pursuant to subparagraph (1)(A) of this Section, the names and address(es) of all officers and corporate or primary offices of the applicant for a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity located in the State of Oklahoma and the name(s) and address(es) of senior management personnel responsible for Oklahoma operations.
(C)    A description of any facilities that will be used to provide services in Oklahoma, and whether applicant intends to add additional facilities that will be used to provide services in Oklahoma.
(D)    A written affirmation, signed before a Notary Public by someone with authority to bind the corporation or entity, containing the following statements:
(i)    That the information contained in the application is true and correct;
(ii)    That the applicant is familiar with and will comply with all federal and state laws, and the rules and orders of this Commission;
(iii)    That for each area or exchange(s) an applicant proposes to serve, the applicant agrees to offer the provisioning of service to all end-users within that area or exchange(s) on a nondiscriminatory basis;
(iv)    That the applicant understands the Commission's contempt authority;
(v)    That the applicant will contribute to the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund pursuant to OAC 165:59;
(vi)    That the applicant will comply with the provisions of 165:55-13-10.1 and will include a statement to this effect in its tariffs;
(vii)    That the applicant is a data-only provider or is seeking a CCN exclusively in order to seek reimbursement from the OUSF under 17 O.S. § 139.109.1(B)(4) for the provision of Special Universal Services, or, if not, that prior to commencing to provide local exchange service the applicant will notify each Public Safety Answering Point ("PSAP") within their service area that they will be providing service within the area served by the PSAP, and provide each PSAP with contact information in case there are issues with the completion of calls by the customers of the Applicant. The attachment shall also state that the Applicant will comply with the requirements of 17 O.S. § 131 and will collect and disburse the E911/911 fee as required by 63 O.S. § 2814. Such affirmation should also include a statement that applicant will provide proof to the Commission of such compliance within thirty (30) days following Applicant's initial provisioning of local service;
(viii)    That the applicant understands that before it ceases, discontinues, or curtails operations and/or service, it must file with the Commission and provide each affected customer, in the manner required by the Commission, notice of the intended action, and, if the change impacts the availability or operation of E911 service, must also provide notice to any E911/911 Database Management Service Provider, pursuant to OAC 165:55-15-5;
(ix)    A statement that the applicant, its owners (individuals and/or entities) or investors holding more than five (5) percent ownership, or companies, or officers and senior management, are not currently under investigation or involved in any pending or concluded investigations or litigation, either in this state or in another state or jurisdiction, for violation of any deceptive trade or consumer protection law or regulation related to the operation of a regulated industry, if that is the case;
(x)    A statement that the applicant, or its owners (individuals and/or entities) or investors holding more than five (5) percent ownership, or companies, or officers and senior management, have not been fined, found guilty, sanctioned or otherwise penalized either in this state or in another state or jurisdiction for violation or any consumer protection law or regulation related to the operation of a regulated industry, if that is the case; and
(xi)    If either of the statements required in (ix) and (x) above is untrue, a detailed explanation of the circumstances of the investigation or fine, sanction, or penalization including a detailed description of the cause(s)case(s), the number of customers involved, and current status of the proceeding.
(xii)    A statement as to whether applicant currently seeks state or federal universal service funding of any kind for services provided in the state(s) in which applicant is currently authorized to provide service, and whether applicant intends to seek Oklahoma Universal Service Fund funding in Oklahoma.
(2)    The attachments to the application shall include the following:
(A)    Copies of the applicable Articles of Incorporation, Articles of Organization, and/or partnership agreement, and/or Joint Venture agreement and, where they exist, by-laws or operating agreement of the applicant for a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity and any entity or individual owning a whole or controlling interest in the applicant for a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity.
(B)    A copy of the applicable certificate, issued by Oklahoma's Secretary of State, to transact business in the State of Oklahoma, and evidence that applicant is in good standing with the Oklahoma Secretary of State.
(C)    A copy of the Corporate Trade Name Report, issued by Oklahoma's Secretary of State, shall be provided for each and every trade name utilized by the telecommunications service provider, data-only provider, or IXC, i.e. a "d/b/a".
(D)    Proof that the third-party surety bond, surety bond or letter of credit required in subsection (h) of this Section has been obtained, if applicable.
(E)    Documentation indicating the applicant's organizational structure and ownership such as:
(i)    For corporations, limited liability companies, partnerships and/or joint ventures, the applicant's stockholders annual reports and SEC 10Ks for the last three (3) years, if applicable, or, if the company is not publicly traded, its financial statements for the last three (3) years, if available, or other documentation as may be requested by the Commission.
(ii)    A sole proprietor, as well as a limited liability company, shall provide financial statements for the last three (3) years, if available, or other documentation as may be requested by the Commission.
(F)    A brief description of its history of providing the requested telecommunications service, Special Universal Services, or other telecommunications services, in order to demonstrate its managerial experience. The history shall include a list of the geographic areas in which it previously provided service and/or is currently providing service and such other documentation as may be requested by the Commission. Applicants for a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity without prior experience shall list the experience of each principal officer, partner, or the sole proprietor in order to demonstrate its managerial ability, and/or provide other documentation as may be requested by the Commission.
(G)    A description of the applicant's experience in providing telecommunications services or Special Universal Services in order to demonstrate its technical abilities. In the case of applicants for a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity without prior experience, the applicant shall provide documentation which supports its technical abilities or other documentation as may be requested by the Commission.
(H)    The name, address, and toll-free telephone number that an end-user may contact concerning repairs and maintenance, complaints, billing questions, refunds and any other customer service-related inquiries.
(I)    The contact name, address, and telephone number of the individual with overall responsibility for repairs and maintenance, complaints, billing questions, refunds, and any other customer service-related inquiries. This will be the principal contact for CSD regarding complaints involving the telecommunications service provider, IXC or data-only provider.
(J)    The contact name, address, and telephone number of the principal contact to be utilized by the Commission's Public Utility Division regarding any questions which are not related to customer service.
(K)    A list of all other states, if any, where:
(i)    The applicant is authorized to operate;
(ii)    Authorization to operate is pending;
(iii)    A request for authorization has been denied, including the reason stated for denial, with a certified copy of the denial document attached; and/or,
(iv)    Authorization has been revoked, with a certified copy of the revocation document attached.
(L)    A complete set of proposed initial tariffs which include the terms and conditions of service and all rates and charges for each service classification shall be in a format consistent with Subchapter 5 of this Chapter or a statement that the applicant will file tariffs pursuant to OAC 165:55-3-3. A company may elect to post Terms of Service on a publicly available website, subsequent to the approval of their initial tariffs.
(M)    A description of the applicant's proposed service territory.
(N)    A description of the deposit, if the applicant intends to collect deposits, and disconnection rules to be applied to end-users by the applicant, all of which shall conform to Subchapters 9 and 11 of this Chapter.
(O)    A statement setting forth the accounting system to be utilized by the applicant (the FCC-approved Uniform System of Accounts or another accounting system) and a Chart of Accounts.
(P)    A listing of the complete name(s), including any trade name(s), corporate or primary headquarters street address(es) and names/addresses of principal officers of any affiliates, individuals or investors holding more than five (5) percent ownership, and/or subsidiaries providing telecommunications and/or other services to the entity making the application proposing to sell the requested telecommunications service or Special Universal Services to the public in the State of Oklahoma, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.
(Q)    An affirmation that the Applicant will maintain a record of complaints in a manner consistent with OAC 165:55-3-23.
(R)    A copy of the applicant's proposed letter of authorization to be used by the telecommunications service provider to obtain written authorization from an end-user to switch telecommunications service providers or a copy of the text of the proposed script of the verification, which must be approved by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division, consistent with OAC 165:55-19-1.
(S)    A statement regarding whether the applicant intends to utilize the services of a billing agent to issue bills to end-users.
(T)    A description of applicant's parameters for determining creditworthiness if applicant intends to perform credit checks prior to providing service to a potential end-user.
(3)    The Public Utility Division Staff may issue data requests for additional information during its initial review of an application.
(4)    Agreements in accordance with OAC 165:55-17-7, if any, between telecommunications service providers shall be provided to the Public Utility Division as soon as such agreement(s) become available. Protective relief may be sought pursuant to 51 O.S. § 24A.22.
(e)     Requirements applicable to CCN requests exclusively for purposes related to 17 O.S. § 139.109.1(B)(4). An applicant for a CCN for the limited purpose of qualifying as an eligible provider, as that term is defined at 17 O.S. § 139.102(11), in order to be eligible to seek reimbursement from the OUSF for the provision of Special Universal Services as provided at 17 O.S. § 139.109.1(B)(4) shall submit an application consistent with the requirements of this subsection.
(1)    All applications for a CCN pursuant to this subsection shall include the information specified at OAC 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(A), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(B), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(i), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(ii), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(iv), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(v), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(vii), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(ix), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(x), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(xi), 165:55-3-1(d)(1)(D)(xii), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(A), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(B), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(C),165:55-3-1(d)(2)(E), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(F), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(G), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(H), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(I), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(J), 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(K), and 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(P).
(2)    The application shall also contain the following information:
(A)    A full description of any investigations of the applicant, its owners (individuals and/or entities) or investors holding more than five (5) percent ownership, or companies, or officers or senior management in conjunction with participation in any local, state or federal universal service fund or subsidy program.
(B)    A full description of any investigations of the applicant, its owners (individuals and/or entities) or investors holding more than five (5) percent ownership, or companies, or officers or senior management officers, owners, senior management, investors or affiliates for potential violations of laws, rules or regulations related to the operation of an entity within a regulated industry.
(C)    For each investigation described in (A) and/or (B) provide an indication of the disposition of any ongoing investigations and, if concluded, the investigating agency's findings.
(D)    A listing of all affiliates, subsidiaries, or partnerships that participate or collaborate in any manner with the applicant in providing and/or administering any services supported by a local, state or federal universal service fund or subsidy program.
(E)    An affirmative statement that the applicant understands and agrees that any request for CCN authority beyond the limited purpose of qualifying for reimbursement from the OUSF for the provision of Special Universal Services under 17 O.S. § 139.109.1(B)(4) would require an application for authority under OAC 165:55-3-1(C).
(F)    An informational tariff describing the services to be offered, any limitations on the availability of those services within Oklahoma, and general terms and conditions.
(f)     Requirements for expanding authority under an existing CCN. An Applicant wishing to expand its service authority under an existing Certificate of Convenience and Necessity granted pursuant to Chapters 55, 56, 57 and/or 58, must make application to the OCC and provide all information and notice as required in Sections 165:55-3-1(c) and 165:55-3-2. However, information submitted in support of a previous Application for certification, if such Application was approved by the OCC, may be used in support of the current Application by providing a written affirmation, signed before a Notary Public, and by someone with authority to bind the Applicant, stating that the previously submitted information is still true and correct, and circumstances have not changed. If the previously submitted information is no longer true and correct, or if circumstances have changed, Applicant shall submit updated information along with a written affirmation fully explaining all changed circumstances. This section shall not apply to an Applicant wishing to expand its existing service territory granted under an existing CCN. Such an application shall be filed pursuant to OAC 165:55-17-3.
(g)     Approval requirement. No Certificate of Convenience and Necessity shall be granted except by order of the Commission, after notice and hearing, if any, as directed by the Commission or unless otherwise provided in this Chapter, or by the laws of the State of Oklahoma.
(h)     Surety requirements for an applicant for Certificate of Convenience and Necessity. To ensure the protection of the applicant's end-users, the applicant that intends to collect deposits from end-users, for a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity shall maintain a third-party surety bond, surety bond or irrevocable letter of credit, as may be determined by the Commission during the certification process, as set forth in this subsection.
(1)    An applicant that does not have at least one million dollars ($1,000,000) net book value invested in telephone plant and/or telephone facilities located in Oklahoma shall be required to post and maintain a third-party surety bond, surety bond or irrevocable letter of credit in, at a minimum, an amount sufficient for the indemnification of one hundred ten percent (110%) of its projected customer deposits.
(2)    The third-party surety bond, surety bond or irrevocable letter of credit shall be maintained as long as the telecommunications service provider is furnishing telecommunications services in the State of Oklahoma pursuant to this Chapter, unless modified or released pursuant to Commission order.
(3)    The Commission may modify the requirements of this subsection for good cause shown, after such notice and hearing, if any, as the Commission may require.
(i)     Transferability of certificates. Any certificate granted under this section shall not be transferable without prior approval of the Commission and shall continue in effect until further order of the Commission.
(j)     Interoperability test. Prior to providing service in Oklahoma, the Applicant shall jointly test interoperability with the 911/E911 PSAPs in their service area and provide verification of interoperability to the Commission PUD and the PSAP. If testing is not applicable to the services for which CCN authority has been requested, a statement to that effect will be included in the CCN application.
165:55-3-3.  Approval of initial tariffs
(a)    No later than twelve (12) months af ter being granted a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity, pursuant to OAC 165:55-3-1, a telecommunications service provider, or IXC shall file an application requesting approval of its initial tariffs, unless filed pursuant to OAC 165:55-3-1(d)(2)(L), which include the terms and conditions of service and all rates and charges for each service classification, in a format consistent with Subchapter 5 of this Chapter. Notice of such filings shall comply with OAC 165:55-5-11(d).
(b)    The initial tariffs shall not become effective except by order of the Commission after such notice and hearing, if any, as directed by Commission.
(c)    Not later than thirty (30) days after approval of the initial tariffs, an original and two (2) copies an electronic copy of the approved tariffs, which conform to OAC 165:55-5-20, shall be provided to the Public Utility Division.
(d)    With the application requesting approval of a complete set of proposed initial tariffs, the telecommunications service provider, or IXC, shall file proof that the third-party surety bond, surety bond or letter of credit required in OAC 165:55-3-1(h) has been obtained, if applicable.
(e)    This subsection does not apply to providers with a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity limited to authority to receive reimbursement for the provision of Special Universal Services in accordance with 17 O.S. § 139.109.1(B)(4). Such entities will provide informational tariffs in accordance with OAC 165:55-3-1(e)(2)(F).
PART 5.  RECORD REQUIREMENTS
165:55-3-22.  Records to be provided to the Commission
(a)     Annual report of operations. Each telecommunications service provider and IXC shall provide to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division an annual report, in a format developed by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division, no later than April 1 of the year following the reporting year. Proposed revisions to the Annual Report format will be posted to the OCC website at least ninety (90) days prior to their effective date. All carriers will be notified of the posting via e-mail, based on addresses supplied by carriers. Any carrier that objects to the proposed revisions to the Annual Report format may file an Application with the Commission, requesting relief from the applicability of the format changes. The filing of an Application will suspend the applicability of the proposed format revisions until an Order is issued by the Commission. Unless an Order revising the Annual Report format is entered at least 90 days prior to the April 1 filing deadline, carriers will not be required to file an Annual Report in the revised format until the following year.
(b)     Confidentiality of annual report. All non-publicly available information included in the annual report or an ETC's FCC Form 481 or FCC Form 555 will be considered confidential by the OCC.
(c)     Proof of third-party surety bond, surety bond or irrevocable letter of credit. Where applicable, not later than MayApril 1 of each year, each telecommunications service provider and IXC which does not have at least one million dollars ($1,000,000) net book value invested in telecommunications plant and/or telecommunications facilities located in the State of Oklahoma, shall provide annually, to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division, proof of the continuing existence and sufficiency of the required third-party surety bond, surety bond or irrevocable letter of credit providing coverage at a level of at least one hundred and ten percent (110%) of customer deposits. Such proof shall be in a format developed by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division and approved by the Commission.
(d)     Exchange maps. Each telecommunications service provider shall provide the PUD Director of the Public Utility Divisiontwo (2) copiesan electronic copy of updated exchange maps when the boundaries of an exchange(s) are changed. The maps and descriptions shall be in sufficient detail to permit the location of exchange boundaries on the ground, and be consistent with the format set forth in this subsection.
(1)    Each exchange map provided after the effective date of this Chapter shall conform to the following:
(A)    One exchange service area per sheet.
(B)    Each map shall be on eight and one-half by eleven inches (8.5" x 11") (or larger sheet which folds down to eight and one-half by eleven inches (8.5" x 11"), twenty pounds (20 lbs.) or heavier, white paper provided in an electronic format.
(C)    Each township and range will be specified along the side of the map and, at a minimum, each corner section will be numbered.
(D)    The outline of the exchange service area will be a heavy black line with an "E" every one inch (1") or two inches (2") along the boundary.
(E)    The name of adjacent incumbent LEC exchanges will be indicated on the exchange map to identify their relative location.
(2)    When said boundary map changes involve more than one telephone exchange and more than one incumbent LEC, the changes involved shall be coordinated between the incumbent LECs concerned and a "Joint Application" submitted. After an order is issued by the Commission the incumbent LECs shall submit revised exchange maps containing the revised territory, the new certificate number, the causecase number, the order number, and the date of the order approving the change. A copy of each current exchange map shall be made available for review to any interested person upon reasonable notice containing:
(A)    Application number.
(B)    Maps showing the changes in contrasting colors.
(C)    Metes and bounds of changes.
(D)    Proposed orders (one for each exchange) with complete metes and bounds of the revised exchange(s).
(e)     Competitive LEC service territories maps. Each competitive LEC shall either identify the LEC exchanges of their service territory or maintain up-to-date maps showing its service territory. The maps and descriptions shall be in sufficient detail to establish the location of incumbent LEC exchange boundaries on the ground. Each map provided shall conform to the format set out in OAC 165:55-3-22(c)(1). Two (2) copies An electronic copy of each map shall be provided to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division.
(f)     Contracts and agreements. Upon request by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division, a TSP or IXC shall provide a copy of a contract entered into by the TSP or IXC for regulated services.
(g)     Contact names. Each telecommunications service provider and IXC shall notify, in writing, the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division within thirty (30) days of a change in the company-designated contacts for Public Utility Division and CSD issues. If the below information is unavailable, the telecommunications service provider or IXC may seek a waiver from the PUD Director by making a request in writing.
(1)    The update shall include the name(s), physical street address(es), electronic mail addresses and telephone number(s) of the designated individual(s).
(2)    The contact name(s) provided pursuant to this subsection shall be the individual(s) primarily responsible for:
(A)    Providing customer service;
(B)    Repair and maintenance;
(C)    Answering complaints;
(D)    Authorizing and/or furnishing refunds to customers;
(E)    Tariff issues;
(F)    Billing inquiries;
(G)    Regulatory matters;
(H)    Oklahoma Universal Service Fund (and Monthly Payout, Fee Assessment, Requests for Funding, if different);
(I)    PUD Fee Assessment (and Fee Assessment Payments, if different);
(J)    Primary emergency;
(K)    Afterhours emergency;
(L)    Annual reporting;
(M)    Attorney for regulatory matters; and
(N)    Community Liaison.
(h)     Other information. Each telecommunications service provider and IXC shall promptly furnish such other information as the PUD or the Commission may request, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Rates and Tariffs
PART 5.  TARIFF STRUCTURE AND COMPOSITION
165:55-5-20.  Requirements as to size, form and identification of tariffs
(a)    Except as provided for in OAC 165:55-5-1, when applying for, or after receiving, a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity for authority to operate as a telecommunications service provider or IXC in the State of Oklahoma, the telecommunications service provider or IXC shall file with the Commission an original and five (5) copies of Commission's Court Clerk its tariff containing schedules of all its rates, tolls, charges, rules, and regulations pertaining to all of its telecommunications services. It shall also file an original and five (5) copies of with the Commission's Court Clerk, or submit each subsequent revision to the PUD Director, in accordance with OAC 165:55-5-1. Each revision shall be accompanied by a cover page which contains a list of the pages being revised, a statement describing each change, its effect, if any, and a statement as to the impact on rates of the change by customer class, if any. The telecommunications service provider shall also file a copy of the current tariff page with changes superimposed thereon. If a proposed tariff revision constitutes an increase in existing rates of a particular customer class or classes, the Commission shall require that notice be given to the affected customer class.
(b)    All tariffs shall be in loose-leaf form of a size eight and one-half by eleven inches (8 1/2" x 11"), provided electronically to the PUD in 10 point or larger type and shall be plainly printed or reproduced on paper of good quality. The front page of the tariff shall contain the name of the telecommunications service provider, including all trade names under which the telecommunications service provider is providing telecommunications service in the State of Oklahoma, and the location of its principal office. Incumbent LEC local exchange tariff map sheets reflecting the physical bounds of the exchange may be on larger sheets, when required for the purposes of clarity and legibility.
(c)    Each rate tariff must clearly state the territory, city, county, or exchange wherein said tariff is applicable.
(d)    Tariff sheets are to be numbered consecutively per schedule. Each sheet shall show the Cause Case Number wherein the tariff was approved by the Commission and, where applicable, the Order Number for such approval. Each sheet shall show an effective date, a revision number, section number or title, sheet number, name of the telecommunications service provider, along with all trade names used in the State of Oklahoma, and the name of the tariff, each in a consistent manner. Sheets issued under new numbers are to be designated as original sheets. Sheets being revised should show the number of the revision, and the sheet numbers shall be the same.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Directories, Telephone Numbers, and Customer-Provided Equipment
165:55-7-1.  Telephone directories
(a)     Provision of directory to end-users; frequency. Each telecommunications service provider shall provide in conjunction with the provisioning of local exchange service, or make arrangements to provide to its end-users an alphabetical telephone directory for each service territory, exchange or group of exchanges. Telecommunications service providers may furnish white page directories in a variety of electronic formats, including CD-ROM, via the internet, or as printed directories. Such directory shall be issued at intervals consistent with satisfactory service, which, in the absence of unusual circumstances, will be at least once each year every eighteen (18) months. However, if a telecommunications service provider received ten (10) or fewer requests for a printed paper directory for the area served by that directory in any year, the telecommunications service provider will not be required to print a paper directory for that area in following years. If any alternative format of a white page directory is to be provided in place of a printed paper directory, or if a printed paper directory will no longer be produced due to the absence of requests, impacted customers are to be furnished with notification that the telecommunications service provider will no longer provide a printed directory at least ninety (90) calendar days prior to the date the printed directory will no longer be made available. The notification to impacted customers shall, at a minimum, include notice by bill insert. A directory for an exchange or calling area may be issued.
(b)     Listing in directory. Each telecommunications service provider shall provide its end-users in conjunction with the provisioning of local exchange service, without charge, one listing in the white page directory issued pursuant to this Chapter and inclusion in a database used to provide directory assistance for the end-user's geographic area.
(c)     Provision of directory. Unless the Commission directs otherwise, a telecommunications service provider that issues a printed paper directory shall furnish each customer, at the customer service address, one (1) directory under current tariffs, unless the customer and the telecommunications service provider that issues a directory, regardless of format, agree this requirement can be fulfilled in an alternative manner. Each telecommunications service provider shall make available its directory to telecommunications service providers for distribution to their end-users.
(d)     Contents of directory. The directory provided to end-users pursuant to this Section shall contain the following information:
(1)    Minimum requirements. Each telecommunications service provider shall assure that its end-users receive a directory which includes the following information:
(A)    The name of the exchange or area covered and the date of issue prominently displayed;
(B)    Emergency numbers;
(C)    Instructions to access directory assistance;
(D)    Instructions to access repair service;
(E)    Instructions for placing long distance and local calls;
(F)    Instructions for obtaining an itemization of the end-user's current monthly statement;
(G)    Instructions to access Telecommunication Relay Service; and
(H)    A notice prominently displayed which shall state: "This directory contains important information about your rights as a telephone end-user described at (Here the telecommunications service provider will insert a clear reference to the location at which the notice shall appear)". Said notice shall be prominently displayed within the directory.
(2)    A statement shall be submitted to CSD for approval, at least thirty (30) days prior to being submitted for publication or inclusion in a directory or distributed as a mailing or otherwise. Unless notified to the contrary by CSD within fifteen (15) days after submission, the statement shall be considered approved. Once approved by CSD, the statement need not be resubmitted to CSD for further approval, unless and until this Chapter is changed by the Commission to require additional data. The statement shall at least describe or include:
(A)    Billing procedures.
(B)    Customer payment requirements and procedures.
(C)    Deposit and guarantee requirements.
(D)    Conditions of termination, discontinuance, and reconnection of service.
(E)    Procedures for handling inquiries.
(F)    A procedure whereby an end-user may avoid discontinuance of service during a period of absence.
(G)    The telephone number and address of all offices of CSD.
(H)    The statement that the telecommunications service provider is regulated by the Commission.
(I)    Notification that the end-user may request an adjustment if service is interrupted for periods in excess of twenty-four (24) hours.
(3)    Additional information. The directory shall contain additional information concerning a telecommunications service provider, as requested by a telecommunications service provider, to the same extent that the directory provider includes similar information for itself or its affiliates offering local exchange service within the geographic area covered by the directory based on rates, terms and conditions that are just, reasonable and nondiscriminatory.
(e)     Liability for errors. The liability of the telecommunications service provider for an error or omission in its telephone directory, or for an error or omission on intercept service, shall not exceed the amount of actual damage suffered, and in no event shall its liability exceed an amount equal to local exchange service charged to the end-user for the listed service for the period during which the directory containing the error or omission is the last published directory of the exchange.
(f)     Access to publishing information. Upon request, a telecommunications service provider shall provide directory listings gathered in its capacity as a provider of local exchange service on a timely and unbundled basis, under nondiscriminatory and reasonable rates, terms, and conditions, and to any person upon request for the purpose of publishing directories.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Customer Billing and Deposits
PART 1.  BILLING AND PAYMENT REQUIREMENTS
165:55-9-1.  Billing period
(a)    All TSPs and IXCs shall comply with the Truth-in-Billing Rules 47 C.F.R. § 64.2401.
(b)    All end-users who are residential customers as of July 1, 2012, shall receive their bills via the United States Mail, unless the end-user opts to receive a bill through different means, such as electronically, via the internet. CustomersResidential customers who begin service with a provider after July 1, 2012, may be provided an electronic bill unless they opt the end-user opts to receive a bill through the United States Mail. All end-users who are business customers may be provided an electronic bill unless the end-user business customer opts to receive the bill through the United States Mail. In no event shall there be a charge for providing a bill through the United States Mail. Whatever the method of delivery, bills shall comply with OAC 165:55-9-2.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Service Denial, Suspension and Disconnection
PART 3.  SUSPENSION AND DISCONNECTION PROCEDURES
165:55-11-10.  Suspension or disconnection for nonpayment or failure to make security deposit
(a)    When service to an end-user is to be disconnected for nonpayment of a bill for telephone service after service has been suspended or failure to make a security deposit after a reasonable time, the TSP shall give at least ten (10) days from the date of notice to the end-user of the TSP's intent to discontinue service. Said notice shall be given by the TSP as follows:
(1)    mailed or delivered to the end-user's billing address;
(2)    electronically via the internet to the emailelectronic mail address provided by the end-user; or
(3)    telephonically to the end-user's assigned telephone number or other number provided by the end-user;
(b)    If the mailed notice is returned from that address as undeliverable, the notice may be delivered to the premises at which the service was rendered. Mailed notice will be deemed given to the end-user three (3) business days after mailing by the TSP.
(c)    If electronic notice is returned from the emailelectronic mail address as undeliverable, the TSP shall give notice to the end-user using an alternative method as listed above. If the electronic notice is not returned, notice shall be deemed given to the end-user on the date the emailelectronic mail was sent.
(d)    If telephonic notice is not confirmed to have reached the end-user's telephone number, the TSP shall give notice to the end-user using an alternative method as listed above. If confirmation of telephonic notice is obtained by the TSP, notice shall be deemed given to the end-user on the date the telephonic notice is confirmed as given.
(e)    Unless a dangerous condition exists or the end-user requests disconnection, a TSP may suspend or disconnect service only on the date specified in the notice or within thirty (30) days thereafter, during regular business hours, so long as the suspension or disconnection does not occur within the last two (2) hours of the business day, nor shall service be disconnected on a holiday, nor after noon (12:00 p.m.) on Fridays until Monday morning, unless the TSP has the capability to remotely reconnect service twenty-four (24) hours per day, seven (7) days per week. However, if a TSP has procedures in place where the customer can be reconnected within a reasonable time, then the TSP may submit such procedures to the PUD Director for approval. Upon approval by the PUD Director, the TSP may execute disconnections in accordance with those procedures going forward.
SUBCHAPTER 13.  Operating and Maintenance Requirements
PART 5.  SERVICE QUALITY STANDARDS
165:55-13-20.  Responsibility for adequate and safe service
(a)    A telecommunications service provider is responsible for providing adequate and efficient telephone service to every end-user served by it.
(b)    A telecommunications service provider that uses its own local exchange facilities to provide service shall install and maintain its system so as to render safe, efficient, and continuous service, and shall keep all of its lines, equipment, and facilities in a good state of repair.
(c)    The recommendations contained in the 2014 Edition of the National Electrical Code (NEC) and the 2012 Edition of the National Electrical Safety Code (NESC) are hereby adopted as the minimum standards governing the installation, construction, and maintenance of communication lines. The recommendations contained in the 2014 NEC will apply on a prospective basis effective September 1, 2017. Local and municipal electrical codes shall not apply to the installation of telecommunications facilities.
(d)    The dominant criteria for these standards is voice grade service quality.
(e)    All telecommunications service providers, that install temporary drops and temporary cables as interim facilities to ensure service to customers pending permanent placement of those facilities, are required to:
(1)    Permanentlypermanently remove, bury, or install drops and temporary cables as soon as practical, but in no circumstances shall that time exceed ninety (90) days without notification and justification being provided to CSD prior to expiration of the ninety (90) day period.
(2)    Keep records of all temporary drops and temporary cables in each of its exchanges and provide the records to the Commission upon request.
(f)    If, after inspection, the PUD informs the telecommunications service provider of any safety concerns relating to the telecommunications service provider's plant, equipment, or facilities and identifies the relevant National Electrical Code, National Electrical Safety Code, Commission rule, or other applicable Federal or State laws implicated by the safety concerns, the telecommunications service provider shall take steps to correct the reported safety concerns and shall electronically provide photographic evidence to the PUD showing completion of work and that the issue has been resolved.
PART 11.  INTERRUPTIONS OF SERVICE
165:55-13-52.  Notice of service interruptions
(a)    The Commission shall be notified as soon as possible, through the Director of the Public Utility Division and the Commission's Public Information Officer, of planned or unplanned interruptions in telecommunications services which:
(1)    affect the entire system of the reporting telecommunications service provider, or; a major division thereof;
(2)    affect 911/E911 access within any system; or which,
(3)    in the judgment of the telecommunications service provider, may cause a high degree of public interest or concern.
(b)    The Commission notification process required in subsection (a) of this Section, may be accomplished by contacting the PUD Director and the Commission's Public Information Officer, byfacsimile or by electronic mail methods, twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week; or by phone, during the business hours of 8:00 a.m. through 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, and should consist of the following:
(1)    An initial contact to advise of the outage; the cause of such outage; the area affected; and the estimated time for repair if known;
(2)    Intermediate contact to provide status reports, to include the estimated time for repair or an updated estimated time for repair, as available to deemed necessary by the telecommunications service provider, or as otherwise may be requested by the Commission Staff; and,
(3)    A conclusory contact detailing the results and completion of the restoration of service.
(c)    Each interconnected telecommunications service provider shall provide to the other's surveillance management center, or equivalent facility, a twenty-four (24) hour contact number for notification of unplanned network traffic management or service interruption issues and an electronic mail address to facilitate communications for planned service interruptions.
SUBCHAPTER 15.  Notification of Transactions Affecting Customers or Business Operations
165:55-15-1.  Notification of certain transactions affecting the customers or operations of a telecommunications service provider or IXC
(a)    The parties to an agreement, the performance of which will result in the movement of some or all of the regulated telecommunications services customers of one or more certificated telecommunications services providers or IXCs to a different legal entity, shall, at least forty-five (45) days before the effective date of such proposed transaction, file an original and five (5) copies of a the Notification of Transaction with the Commission's Office of the Court Clerk, accompanied by the applicable filing fee, in order to notify the Commission of the transaction. Any related relief, including but not limited to new Certificates of Convenience and Necessity or tariffs, shall be filed as separate causescases.
(b)    The parties to an agreement, the performance of which will result in the transfer of a Certificate of Convenience and Necessity, with or without the transfer of a tariff, from one legal entity to another legal entity shall, at least forty-five (45) days before the effective date of such proposed transaction, file an original and five (5) copies of a Notification of Transaction with the Commission's Office of the Court Clerk, accompanied by the applicable filing fee, in order to notify the Commission of the transaction.
(c)    The parties to an agreement, the performance of which will result in the merger of one or more legal entities with a surviving legal entity which is certificated to provide local and/or interexchange telecommunications services, shall, at least forty-five (45) days before the effective date of such proposed transaction, file an original and five (5) copies of a Notification of Transaction with the Commission's Office of the Court Clerk, accompanied by the applicable filing fee, in order to notify the Commission of the transaction.
(d)    This Section shall not require notification to the Commission of transactions which involve only changes in the ownership of the stock of a telecommunication service provider or IXC. Such transactions are not subject to regulation by the Commission.
(e)    The Notification of Transaction shall include a copy of the agreement, with all exhibits and schedules, and set forth the following information, if applicable:
(1)    The name of the acquiring entity and the acquired entity.
(2)    Identification of the acquired assets.
(3)    The anticipated completion date and the effective date (if different) of the transaction.
(4)    The name of the entity(ies) which will be providing telecommunications services in Oklahoma subsequent to the effective date of the transaction (the "surviving entity").
(5)    The name, address and telephone number of a contact person for purposes of the Notification of Transaction.
(6)    The names and qualifications of the individuals who will serve as officers and management of the surviving entity.
(7)    The name(s), address(es) and telephone number(s) of the representatives of the surviving entity who will be the contact(s) for the Public Utility Division and CSD and will be primarily responsible for:
(A)    Providing customer service;
(B)    Repair and maintenance;
(C)    Answering complaints;
(D)    Authorizing and/or furnishing refunds to customers
(E)    Tariff issues; and,
(F)    Receiving Notices related to causescases docketed at the Commission.
(8)    An affidavit that states that the surviving entity possesses the financial ability to provide telecommunications services in the State of Oklahoma.
(9)    A copy of the notice which will be provided to affected customers informing them of the transaction and any change in the name of the entity which provides telecommunications services to them or in their rates, charges or terms and conditions of service as a result of the transaction.
(10)    Identification of any changes in services to be offered or tariffed rates to affected customers required by the transaction.
(11)    A narrative and/or schematic description of the relationship between or among the acquired and acquiring entities and the surviving entity.
(12)    An acknowledgment that any tariff revisions shall only be accomplished in a separate filing.
(13)    A statement of the approximate number of Oklahoma customers.
(14)    In addition, this Section shall not apply to transactions between affiliates that have an Oklahoma Certificate of Convenience and Necessity or to transactions involving the merger of two affiliates, only one of which has an Oklahoma Certificate of Convenience and Necessity, provided that the surviving entity operates under the name of the affiliate that held the Oklahoma Certificate of Convenience and Necessity prior to the merger, and remains subject to the Commission's jurisdiction. If the transaction is going to modify the company name on the customer's bill, forty-five (45) days advance notice must be provided to affected customers.
(f)    At the time of filing the Notification of Transaction, the acquiring entity shall provide a copy of the Notification of Transaction, with all attachments thereto, to the Office of the Attorney General of the State of Oklahoma.
(g)    The Commission Staff shall review the Notification of Transaction for the purpose of determining whether the proposed transaction should be approved and, in the case of mergers, whether the surviving entity should be allowed to provide telecommunications service in Oklahoma after the effective date of the transaction under the authority of any existing Certificate of Convenience and Necessity. The Commission shall act on a notification within forty-five (45) days of the date the notification is filed. No reportable transaction shall be consummated except by order of the Commission. Any person wishing to object to the proposed filing must file an objection with the Commission's Office of the Court Clerk no later than fifteen (15) days after the proposed filing. The Attorney General of the State of Oklahoma shall be granted intervention in such proceeding, if requested.
(h)    Within forty-five (45) days of the filing of the Notification of Transaction, the Commission Staff may file a Continuance of Review in the CauseCase stating that the Commission Staff has not completed its review of the transaction and shall require an additional specified time, not to exceed an additional thirty (30) calendar days, in which to complete such review. The Commission Staff shall accompany such a Continuance of Review with a specification of the additional information, if any, needed to complete this review.
(i)    The Commission Staff may, if it determines appropriate, file a Notice in the Cause Case requiring the acquiring entity and/or the surviving entity to show cause that the proposed transaction and/or merger is lawful, fair to the customers and in the public interest. The filing of such Notice by the Commission Staff will not alone suspend the authority of any entity to operate under an existing Certificate of Convenience and Necessity. Simultaneously with the filing of any such Notice, the Commission Staff shall propose a procedural schedule, including a date for hearing which shall be held within ninety (90) calendar days of the date of the filing of the Notification of Transaction, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission. If such a Notice is filed by the Commission Staff, the acquiring entity and/or surviving entity shall have the burden of establishing that the proposed transaction(s) is lawful, fair to the customers and in the public interest.
(j)    After approval of notification of transaction(s), and not later than thirty (30) days after transaction consummation, an original and two (2) copies of the approved tariffs, if necessary, which conform to OAC 165:55-5-20, shall be provided to the Public Utility Division.
165:55-15-5.  Cessation of business in Oklahoma
(a)    At least thirty (30) days before the effective date of the cessation of the provisioning of telecommunications service(s) in the State of Oklahoma, a telecommunications service provider or IXC shall file an original and five (5) copies of an application for withdrawal of its Certificate of Convenience and Necessity and cancellation of its tariffs and provide Notice of such filing to the Attorney General of the State of Oklahoma and the PUD.
(b)    An application for withdrawal shall include as attachments the following information, which must be certified as true and correct by an officer of any corporate applicant with authority to bind the applicant, or an authorized representative of an unincorporated applicant with authority to bind the applicant:
(1)    The contact person who will be responsible for concluding all outstanding business with the Commission and customers;
(2)    A statement that the company completed its reporting obligations to the PUD Fee Assessment, OUSF Assessment, and/or Oklahoma Telecommunications Annual Report, as applicable, for the previous calendar year;
(23)    A statement regarding the amount of any outstanding customer deposits and the date refund checks will be sent to customers; and,
(34)    The date of withdrawal.
(c)    Notice of discontinuance shall be provided at least thirty (30) days prior to the date that service will cease by regular mail to all of the customers of the telecommunications service provider or IXC. The form and method of notice shall be approved by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division, and shall give the exact date that service will cease and contain information as to the procedure for any refunds due customers.
(d)    Notice of discontinuance will be sent at least thirty (30) days prior to the date service will cease, by certified mail, to any E911/911 Database Management Service Provider within the exchanges served by the applicant. Notice shall include:
(1)    The exact date the applicant will cease to do business in Oklahoma.
(2)    A statement that until the date applicant ceases to do business in Oklahoma, the applicant will continue to submit transactions to the E911/911 Database Management Service Provider for transferring and keeping up-to-date customer's information.
(3)    A statement that the applicant will unlock or release all E911/911 records effective with its termination date, thereby enabling the migration of existing E911/911 records with a telephone number ported by the customer to a different telecommunications service provider.
(e)    Unless provided otherwise in this Chapter, no application for withdrawal and/or cancellation of an existing Certificate of Convenience and Necessity and tariff shall be granted except by Order of the Commission, after such notice and hearing, if any, as directed by the Commission.
(f)    The CommissionPUD Staff may file an application to cancel an existing Certificate of Convenience and Necessity and tariff, at the company's request and at the option of the CommissionPUD Staff. The request may be in the form of a letter submitted to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division. The letter will conform to OAC 165:55-15-5 (b) and (c). If no objection is filed to the application within thirty (30) calendar days, the application may be approved by Order of the Commission without a hearing before an ALJ.
SUBCHAPTER 22.  Resolution Disputes
165:55-22-5.  Formal non-expedited dispute resolution
(a)     Commencement. This procedure is a formal proceeding for dispute resolution and will commence when a party ("complainant") files a complaint with the Court Clerk of the Commission and, on the same day, delivers a copy of the complaint either by hand delivery, certified mail, electronic mail or facsimile to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division, to the other party ("respondent") to the interconnection agreement from which the dispute arises, to the Office of General Counsel, and to the Office of the Attorney General. If facsimile is used, a certificate of service shall be provided.
(b)     Process. Unless otherwise ordered by the arbitrator, parties shall file with the Commission Court Clerk's office five (5) Commission's Court Clerk copies of pleadings. The complaint shall be in a consistent format approved by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division and shall include:
(1)    The name, electronic mail address, address, and telephone number, facsimile number of each party to the interconnection agreement, and the complainant's designated representative;
(2)    A description of the parties' efforts to resolve their differences by negotiation;
(3)    A detailed list of the precise issues in dispute, with a cross-reference to the area or areas of agreement applicable or pertaining to the issues in dispute; and
(4)    An identification of pertinent background facts and relevant law or rules applicable to each disputed issue.
(5)    The complainant's proposed solution to the dispute.
(c)     Arbitrator. Upon receipt of a dispute resolution complaint filed under this Section, an arbitrator shall be selected to act for the Commission, unless two or more of the Commissioners choose to hear the complaint en banc. The parties shall be notified of the Commission designated arbitrator, or of the Commissioners' decision to act as arbitrator themselves. The arbitrator may be advised on legal and technical issues by members of the Commission Staff. The Commission staff members selected to advise the arbitrator shall be determined by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division and shall be identified to the parties. Within five (5) days of the selection of the arbitrator being named, any challenge to the appointment shall be brought forth. No parties to the dispute resolution process may have ex parte discussions with the arbitrator regarding the complaint, except those persons designated by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division.
(d)     Response to complaint. The respondent shall file a response to the complaint within twenty (20) days after the filing of the complaint and shall serve a copy of the response on the complainant, the Office of the Attorney General, the Office of General Counsel, and to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division. The response shall specifically affirm or deny each allegation in the complaint. The response shall include the respondent's position on each issue in dispute, a cross-reference to the area or areas of the contract applicable or pertaining to the issue in dispute, and the respondent's proposed solution on each issue in dispute. In addition, the response also shall stipulate to any undisputed facts and identify relevant law or rules applicable to each disputed issue.
(e)     Reply to response to complaint. The complainant may file a reply within five (5) business days after the filing of the response to the complaint and serve a copy to the respondent, the Office of the Attorney General, the Office of General Counsel, and to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division. The reply shall be limited solely to new issues raised in the response to the complaint.
(f)     Notice and hearing. As soon as possible after his or her selection, the arbitrator shall schedule a prehearing conference with the parties to the arbitration. The arbitrator shall make arrangements for the hearing to address the complaint, which shall commence no later than fifty (50) days after filing of the complaint. The arbitrator shall notify the parties, not less than fifteen (15) days before the hearing of the date, time, and location of the hearing. The hearing shall be held in Oklahoma City unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.
(g)     Transcripts. The hearing shall be transcribed by a court reporter designated by the arbitrator. Copies of the transcript may be obtained from the designated court reporter at the expense of the requesting party.
(h)     Participation. Only parties to the interconnection agreement, the Commission Staff, or the Office of the Attorney General, may participate as parties in the dispute resolution process subject to this Subchapter, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission upon a showing of good cause.
(i)     Authority of the arbitrator. The arbitrator has broad discretion in conducting the dispute resolution proceeding. The arbitrator shall have the authority within the Commission to award remedies or relief deemed necessary by the arbitrator to resolve a dispute subject to the procedures established under this Subchapter.
(j)     Discovery. Parties may obtain discovery by submitting a discovery request consistent with the Commission's Rules of Practice, OAC 165:5, which include requests for inspection and production of documents, requests for admissions, and depositions by oral examination, as provided by the Commission rules and as allowed within the discretion of the arbitrator.
(k)     Pre-filed evidence and witness list. The arbitrator may require the parties to file a direct case, under the same deadline, and a joint issues list on or before the commencement of the hearing under the following guidelines:
(1)    The prepared direct case shall include all of the party's direct evidence, including written direct testimony of all its witnesses and all exhibits that the party intends to offer. The joint issues list shall identify all issues to be addressed, the witnesses who will be addressing each issue, and a short synopsis of each witness's position on each issue. Confidential information shall be treated in accordance with the Commission's Rules of Practice, OAC 165:5.
(2)    Each witness presenting written direct testimony shall be available for cross-examination by the other parties to the complaint. The arbitrator shall judge the credibility of each witness and the weight to be given his or her testimony based upon his or her response to cross-examination. If the arbitrator determines that a witness' responses are evasive or non-responsive to the questions asked, the arbitrator may disregard the witness' testimony on the basis of lack of credibility.
(3)    The arbitrator may ask clarifying questions at any point during the proceeding and may direct a party or witness to provide additional information as needed to fully develop the record of the proceeding. If a party fails to present information requested by the arbitrator, the arbitrator shall render a recommendation on the basis of the best information available from whatever source derived.
(4)    The arbitrator may require the parties to submit post-hearing briefs or written summaries of their positions. The arbitrator shall determine the filing deadline and any limitations on the length of such submissions.
(l)     Recommendation. Timelines and appeals to the arbitrator's recommendation shall be governed by the following guidelines:
(1)    The written recommendation of the arbitrator shall be filed with the Commission within fifteen (15) days after the close of the hearing and shall be faxed to all parties of record in the dispute resolution proceeding. The recommendation of the arbitrator shall be based upon the record of the dispute resolution hearing, and shall include a specific ruling on each of the disputed issues presented for resolution by the parties. The recommendation shall include a narrative report explaining the arbitrator's rationale for each of the rulings included in the final decision.
(2)    Within ten (10) days from the date of the arbitrator's recommendation is issued, any party may appeal the arbitrator's recommendation to the Commission en banc by the filing of a written appeal. The appellant shall serve, concurrent with filing, copies of the appeal and notice of hearing for the appeal to all parties of record and the arbitrator. The appeal shall be heard by the Commission en banc within ten (10) days of the filing of such appeal, unless the Commission orders otherwise.
(3)    With respect to the recommendation by the arbitrator, the Commission en banc may affirm, reverse, or modify the findings of fact or conclusions of law of the arbitrator based on the record, hold additional hearings, or may remand the causecase to the arbitrator for further hearing. The Commission shall enter its order on the complaint no later than one hundred (100) days after the filing of the complaint, unless otherwise agreed to by the parties.
SUBCHAPTER 23.  Eligible Telecommunications Carriers
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS
165:55-23-3.  Records to be provided to the Commission
(a)     Terms, conditions and rates for Supported Services. An ETC shall maintain current terms, conditions and rates applicable to its Supported Services in an approved tariff on file with the Commission or pursuant to Terms of Service posted on its website and provided to the Commission. Any modification to an ETC's terms, conditions and rates for Supported Services, shall be submitted to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division prior to the effective date of such modification. Failure to comply with this Section may result in the filing of an application by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division to revoke the Telecommunication Service Provider's or wireless provider's ETC designation.
(b)     Location of records. All records including terms, conditions and rates for its Supported Services, required by this Subchapter shall, be kept at the general office of each ETC, and shall be made available to the Commission or its designee upon reasonable request. The ETC shall make such records available to the Commission or its designee at reasonable times for examination and inspection at a location designated by the Commission.
(c)     Retention of certification records. All records, including the Lifeline application form showing proof of eligibility and a report from the third party verification system that shows the identity and address of the Lifeline customer was verified (unless the ETC has obtained a waiver from the requirement to utilize a third party verification system), shall be preserved for a minimum of three (3) years.
(d)     Required information to be reviewed. Each ETC shall obtain information as follows: At the time a prospective Lifeline subscriber signs up for initial service, each ETC shall obtain:
(1)    a legible copy of the subscriber's Lifeline application or service request form showing the customer's name, physical address and proof of eligibility;
(2)    the subscriber's information necessary to demonstrate eligibility under 47 C.F.R. § 54.410; and
(3)    the subscriber's government issued photo identification unless the ETC utilizes a third party verification system that has been approved by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division.
(4)    Each ETC shall provide annually to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division a copy of the ETC's FCC Form 555 as filed with Universal Service Administrative Company ("USAC") and the FCC.
(e)     Contact names. Each ETC shall notify, in writing, the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division within thirty (30) days of a change in the company-designated contacts for Public Utility Division and CSD issues.
(1)    The update shall include the name(s), address(es) and/or telephone number(s) of the designated individual(s).
(2)    The contact name(s) provided pursuant to this subsection shall be the individual(s) primarily responsible for:
(A)    Providing customer service;
(B)    Repair and maintenance;
(C)    Answering complaints;
(D)    Authorizing and/or furnishing refunds to customers; and,
(E)    Terms, conditions and rates of Supported Services.
(f)     Other information. Each ETC shall promptly furnish such other information as the Commission Staff may reasonably request, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.
(g)     Supported Services. Each ETC shall provide confirmation that each Lifeline plan of the ETC provides the Supported Services.
(h)     Exchanges. Each ETC shall retain a listing of all of the exchanges within which the ETC has provided Lifeline Service during the preceding twelve (12) months and the addresses of households who requested service and were denied Lifeline service for reasons other than the household did not meet eligibility requirement.
(i)     Annual report of operations. No later than MayApril 1 each year, unless otherwise determined by the Commission, each ETC shall provide an annual report of operations for the preceding calendar year, to the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division, in a format approved by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division. In addition, each ETC shall provide a copy of any annual report required to be filed with any federal regulatory agency(ies). As a component part of the annual report of operations, each ETC shall attach a copy of its Annual Report to Stockholders. All non-publicly available information included in the annual report will be considered confidential by the OCC. On or before July 1, of each year, each ETC shall submit its FCC Form 481 to the Commission, in accordance with FCC regulations.
(j)     Complaints report. Each ETC shall maintain a record of customer complaints that it has received regarding Supported Services provided by the ETC, consistent with 47 CFR § 54.313(a)(4) and 47 CFR § 54.422(b)(2).
(k)     Report attestation. All reports required by this subchapter to be submitted to the Commission shall be attested to by an officer or authorized agent of the ETC.
(l)     Due dates of reports. All periodic reports required by this Commission must be received on or before the due dates unless otherwise agreed to by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division.
(m)     Changes affecting Customers or Business Operations. An ETC proposing changes to operations that affect either customers or business operations in the State, including but not limited to name changes; and additions, modifications or deletions of trade names under which Supported Services will be operated, shall comply with Subchapter 15 of this Chapter.
165:55-23-16.  Limitations on Marketing of Supported Services by ETCs
(a)    All marketing efforts, including outdoor mobile marketing and door to door sales, must clearly identify the ETC by its d/b/a name.
(b)    All enrollment in any Lifeline Services from any outdoor mobile location is prohibited unless the following conditions are met:
(1)    There are at least two banners identifying the name of the ETC, in print that is readable from at least thirty (30) feet away;
(2)    The banners are at least three (3) foot by five (5) foot in size and the identification of the ETC takes up at least fifty percent (50%) of the banner;
(3)    Employees must wear a shirt that has the ETC's d/b/a name permanently affixed to the shirt;
(4)    The available terms, conditions and rates for the Lifeline product(s) must be prominently posted at the location where the marketing is taking place;
(5)    The marketer must have written permission from either the owner of the property where the marketing is taking place or from the individual responsible for the property;
(6)    The marketer must have all required state, city, and county licenses necessary for selling a service at that location; and
(7)    The marketing must be done in a manner that it does not create a traffic hazard or distraction.
(8)    Marketing may only be done from a tent of at least ten (10) foot x ten (10) foot in size or from an enclosed trailer or panel truck that has the name of the ETC permanently affixed on the truck or trailer in letters that are at least eighteen (18) inches in height. If the tent is clearly marked with the name of the ETC on the top of the tent, the tent markings may be considered as one of the two banners required by paragraph (b)(1) of this Section.
(9)    The ETC must provide PUD a list of locations by emailelectronic mail where mobile marketing is taking place, including the date, time and location, prior to the mobile marketing taking place, in a format prescribed by the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division. The carrier must also notify PUD of any changes to times or cancellations of previously scheduled events, prior to the change or cancellation. In addition, the ETC shall maintain an active phone number the Commission can call to obtain information regarding past marketing events. The information regarding past marketing events shall be retained by the ETC for a minimum of six (6) months.
(10)    The ETC has obtained a waiver from the PUD Director of the Public Utility Division regarding a specific requirement of this paragraph.
(c)    All enrollment from door to door marketing is prohibitedunless the following conditions are met:
(1)    Enrollment forms used for door to door marketing must have clear disclosure that customers will lose any existing landline Lifeline service if they enroll for Lifeline service from the door to door activity;
(2)    Employees conducting door to door sales must wear a shirt that has the ETC's d/b/a name permanently affixed to the shirt;
(3)    The customer must be offered a copy of the terms, conditions and rates for the Lifeline product they select;
(4)    The marketer must have appropriate licenses for door to door sales;
(5)    The marketer must provide PUD an address range, date and time where door to door marketing will take place, prior to the marketing being initiated.
(6)    The ETC has obtained a waiver from the Director of the Public Utility Division regarding a specific requirement of this paragraph.
[OAR Docket #23-694; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 165.  Corporation Commission
CHAPTER 59.  Oklahoma Universal Service and Oklahoma Lifeline
[OAR Docket #23-695]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Oklahoma Universal Service Fund
Part 3. Oklahoma Universal Service Fund
165:59-3-10. Use of the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund [AMENDED]
165:59-3-11. How the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund shall be funded [REVOKED]
165:59-3-13. Establishment of OUSF Assessment [AMENDED]
Part 5. Administration of the OUSF
165:59-3-31. Recipients of Primary OUSF annual reporting [NEW]
Part 9. Request for OUSF Funding
165:59-3-60. Requests for funding from the OUSF [AMENDED]
165:59-3-70. Procedures for requesting funding from the OUSF-Primary UniversalService [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Corporation Commission; Article IX, Section 18 of the Oklahoma Constitution; 17 O.S. § 139.106(A).
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
Although the Oklahoma Corporation Commission is not subject to the requirements of Executive Order No. 2019-11, the proposed rules were submitted to the Governor and Cabinet Secretary on February 8, 2023.
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 7, 2023 through March 28, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 21, 2023 and March 28, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 28, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
October 1, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The adopted rules reflect updated statutory changes, comply with the requirements in the Governor's Executive Order 2020-03, establish an annual and quarterly update process for modifying the OUSF assessment, require recipients of Primary Universal Service funding to submit annual reports, update "cause" to "case" throughout, correct grammatical errors, and state that determinations of funding shall be based on a Return on Equity and/or Return on Investment established by the Commission or, in the absence thereof, rely on the Rate of Return prescribed by the Federal Communications Commission.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kenneth B. Behrens, Deputy General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Oklahoma Corporation Commission, Will Rogers Memorial Office Building, 2401 N. Lincoln Blvd., Suite 414, P.O. Box 52000, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, 405-521-6989, Ken.Behrens@occ.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF OCTOBER 1, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Oklahoma Universal Service Fund
PART 3.  OKLAHOMA UNIVERSAL SERVICE FUND
165:59-3-10.  Use of the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund
     The Oklahoma Universal Service Fund is a state fundOUSF provides financial support for demonstrated necessity or statutory entitlement. Funds from the Oklahoma Universal Service FundFunding may be sought as necessary to maintain rates for primary universal services that are reasonable and affordable, and for special universal services, and for E911 and Technology Training Fund contributions, consistent with the Oklahoma Telecommunications Act.
165:59-3-11.  How the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund shall be funded  [REVOKED]
     The OUSF shall be funded consistent with 17 O.S. § 139.107.
165:59-3-13.  Establishment of OUSF Assessment
(a)     Annual Case. On or before January 15th of each year, the The Administrator shall file a cause case with the Commission's Court Clerk within which to establishconsider or adjust the OUSF Assessment, as necessary, or on an annual basis, and assess the contributing providers required to contribute to the fund under 17 O.S. § 139.107.
(b)     Periodic Status Reports. Within the annual case filing, the Administrator shall file periodic status reports for the Commission's consideration in determining whether any adjustments to the assessment are necessary. These reports shall be filed each quarter, no later than March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31. Should an adjustment be necessary, the Administrator shall include in the status report all information in order that the Commission may set the assessment at a level sufficient to recover costs of administration and payments for OUSF requests for funding as provided for in the Oklahoma Telecommunications Act of 1997. The Administrator shall file status reports more frequently than quarterly if the Administrator determines it necessary to change the assessment.
(c)     Information to include in status reports. In the status report, the Administrator shall provide a written narrative describing how the recommended assessment was determined. The Administrator's report shall include information regarding known and measurable demands on the OUSF, reasonable estimates of future demand, estimated future contributions to the OUSF, and, if recommended, a proposed adjusted assessment with a proposed effective date. The Administrator's filing shall include anticipated payouts and expenses from the OUSF for, at least, the following categories:
(1)    Payment to the Attorney General, pursuant to 17 O.S. § 139.104(A);
(2)    Management contract fees;
(3)    Internal administrative, oversight, and accounting expenses;
(4)    External Audits of Fund Manager and Administrator;
(5)    Accounting and expert witness contracts;
(6)    Bank fees;
(7)    Oklahoma Lifeline;
(8)    Primary Universal Services; and
(9)    Special Universal Services.
(d)     Notice. Notice of thisthe annual case filing shall be sent to the Oklahoma Attorney General and to all contributing providers via electronic mail to the contributing provider's contact information contained in the contributing providers'their annual report submitted pursuant to OAC 165:59-3-40 and to any other electronic mail address so designated by the contributing provider. Notice of the periodic status reports shall be provided via electronic mail to all parties that have filed an entry of appearance in the current year's annual case, the Commission offices, and the Oklahoma Attorney General.
(e)     Objections to assessment.
(1)    Within fifteen (15) days after filing a status report pursuant to section (b) above, any contributing provider or the Oklahoma Attorney General may file an objection to the proposed assessment with the Court Clerk. The objection shall include sufficient evidence to allow the Commission to fully evaluate the objection.
(2)    Notice of the objection shall be served via electronic mail to the OUSF Administrator, the Commission offices, and the Oklahoma Attorney General, and all parties who have filed an entry of appearance in the current year's annual case.
(3)    The Commission may, within its sole discretion, conduct a hearing to resolve the objection. If the Commission chooses to conduct a hearing, it shall provide at least five (5) business days' notice to the parties in the case. Any contributing provider or the Oklahoma Attorney General may participate in the hearing by filing an entry of appearance and a statement of position setting forth their position on the objection. The entry of appearance and statement of position shall be served on all parties to the case, the Commission offices, and the Oklahoma Attorney General. If an entry of appearance has been previously filed in the current annual case, then no additional entry of appearance need be filed for the party to participate in the hearing on objections. However, the party must file their statement of position to participate in the hearing. If the Commission does not issue an order on the objection within thirty (30) calendar days of the objection being filed, then the objection is denied.
(f)     Approval or rejection. If no objection is filed, the Commission may approve, reject, or modify the adjustment without a hearing by issuing an order.
(bg)     Effective date. By posting on the Commission's website, the Administrator shall notify each contributing provider of the effective dates and rates of the ordered OUSF and OLF factors to be applied to OUSF Assessed Revenues. Following the issuance of an order by the Commission adjusting the assessment and effective date, the Administrator shall notify each contributing provider in the same manner as notice is provided in section (d), and shall post the modified information to the Commission's website.
(ch)     Reporting and payment. Contributing providers are to report revenues and make payment to the OUSF and OLF as described in OAC 165:59-3-44.
PART 5.  ADMINISTRATION OF THE OUSF
165:59-3-31.  Recipients of Primary OUSF annual reporting
     Each eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider, as defined in 17 O.S. § 139.102 receiving Primary Universal Service funding after December 31, 2022, shall submit financial reports reflecting information for the preceding calendar year by December 31, 2023, and by November 1 of each succeeding year. Such financial reports shall be consistent with the relevant separations process, to include depicting the financial impact of the jurisdictional separations, and shall include information sufficient to allow the Commission to review the company's intrastate regulated earnings for the reported year in a manner consistent with the application of the cost methods set forth in 17 O.S. § 139.106(H) and applicable Commission rules. To the extent an eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider is not required to utilize the separations processes established by federal rules, alternative financial reports demonstrating similar information can be submitted with an explanation as to how such alternative financial reports reflect the required information.
PART 9.  REQUEST FOR OUSF FUNDING
165:59-3-60.  Requests for funding from the OUSF
(a)    Eligible local exchange telecommunications service providers and eligible providers may request funding from the OUSF as allowed by the Oklahoma Telecommunications Act.
(b)    Any eligible provider may request funding from the OUSF as necessary for the provision of Special Universal Services.
(ca)    Should the OUSF at any time experience a shortfall, the costs associated with administering the fund will be paid first, followed by the payment due to the Oklahoma Attorney General, pursuant to 17 O.S. § 139.10317 O.S. § 139.104. Thereafter, any residual funds will be distributed to eligible providers and eligible local exchange telecommunications service providers on a pro rata basis, pursuant to their approved requests. The balance of each approved request for OUSF funding will be paid at such time as additional funds become available.
(d)    Each request for OUSF funding by an eligible ILEC serving less than seventy-five thousand (75,000) access lines shall be in accordance with the Oklahoma Telecommunications Act.
(e)    The OUSF Administrator shall process any request for OUSF funding by an ILEC serving seventy-five thousand (75,000) or more access lines or a CLEC, in accordance with the Oklahoma Telecommunications Act.
(fb)    Requests for OUSF funding for the provision of Special Universal Service, including OUSF administrative preapproval requests, shall contain the following caption: In the matter of the request by (name of school/library/eligible healthcare provider /consortium) of (name of city / library system or city / health care system or city / Consortium lead) for funding from the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund.
(gc)    Requests for OUSF funding for primary universal service shall contain the following caption: In the matter of the request by (name of eligible telecommunications service provider) for the (insert basis of request) for funding from the Oklahoma Universal Service Fund.
165:59-3-70.  Procedures for requesting funding from the OUSF - Primary Universal Service
(a)    An eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider may seek and obtain funds from the OUSF for Primary Universal Service by filing a "Request for OUSF Funding" and "Notice of Request for OUSF Funding" with the Commission's Court Clerk. On the date of filing the Request for OUSF Funding, the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider shall deliver a filed copy of the Request for OUSF Funding to the OUSF Administrator for processing.
(b)    Unless a waiver is granted by the OUSF Administrator, the following minimum filing requirements are necessary for causescases filed pursuant to 17 O.S. § 139.106(G), and must be made available at the time of filing:
(1)    The name and address of the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider;
(2)    A description of the provisions of the Oklahoma Telecommunications Act relied on for the request;
(3)    The amount requested for funding;
(4)    A chart of corporate organization listing all employees, and detailing any affiliate relationships;
(5)    A list of affiliates, a description of the service(s) or goods provided to or by the requesting eligible telecommunications service provider for each affiliate, and the total expense charged to the requesting eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider by each affiliate in sufficient detail to demonstrate that any affiliate company utilizing employees or assets of the company are allocated or reimbursed in accordance with 47 C.F.R, 32.27. This information shall be provided for the reimbursement year and the previous three (3) years (4 total), and shall include, but not be limited to, all contracts, memorandum, timesheets, calculations, and studies;
(6)    A written description and documentation showing how costs are separated for each regulated and non-regulated service that the requesting eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider provides to, or receives from, any affiliate that is associated with the Request for OUSF Funding. This description must show compliance with the cost allocation standards and procedures as set forth in 47 C.F.R. 64.901. This information shall be provided for the reimbursement year and the previous three (3) years (4 total), and shall include, but not be limited to, all contracts, memorandum, timesheets, calculations, and studies;
(7)    If applicable, copies of the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider's Cost Allocation Manual (CAM), to include any changes to the CAM for the last three (3) years, including documentation supporting the cost allocation procedures and a current example of the application of the CAM's manual. If a CAM is unavailable, similar documentation must be provided;
(8)    The most recent three (3) years preceding the request of audited financial statements, or if not subject to an audit, then reviewed financial statements, (including balance sheet, income statement, statement of cash flows accompanying notes, and any associated management letter);
(9)    A description of network facilities, identifying all facilities included in the Request for OUSF Funding, with actual documentation available upon request by the OUSF Administrator;
(10)    A description of the cost and accounting methodologies used to support the Request for OUSF Funding;
(11)    A trial balance and general ledger in Excel format, or other format as agreed to by the Administrator;
(12)    If applicable, a fully distributed cost study based on the FCC's Part 32, 36 and 64; provide plant reserve, rate base, income (revenue, expenses, and taxes), and other schedules included in the filing made with NECA or the FCC; a schedule of separations cost study for the reimbursement year. Underlying work-papers to be available onsite;
(13)    Copies of the company's annual Federal Universal Service Fund (USF) High Cost Loop Data Collection forms for the reimbursement year and the previous three (3) years (4 total);
(14)    The total number of full-time and part-time employees, officers, and/or contractors to include a listing of each of the above positions that includes title, duties, responsibilities, wages and/or salaries and benefits for the reimbursement year and the previous three (3) years (4 total);
(15)    A list of expenses sought, including any prior period adjustments and/or contingent liabilities that were reported on the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider's books and records and are part of this request, including but not limited to any:
(A)    reimbursed employee business expense, including travel, mileage, car rental, lodging, meals, etc.;
(B)    lobbying;
(C)    listing of all legal services and fees by law firm;
(D)    advertising expenses;
(E)    external relation costs;
(F)    community outreach;
(G)    entertainment;
(H)    food, including travel, normal business, and company events;
(I)    political contributions;
(J)    charitable donations;
(K)    penalties for fines or violations;
(L)    membership fees and dues;
(M)    gifts
(16)    The Federal tax classification (C-Corp, Sub-Chapter S, Partnership, etc.) of the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider, and copies of the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider's Federal and State tax returns for the reimbursement year and the previous three (3) years (4 total);
(17)    A Description of the time tracking and reporting methods used by the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider to distribute payroll dollars between regulated and non-regulated affiliates. Provide all supporting documentation for the reimbursement year and the previous three (3) years (4 total);
(18)    A list of plant in-service retirements for the reimbursement year and the three (3) years prior to the reimbursement year (4 total);
(19)    A plant in-service schedule by account that provides existing plant and additions, for the reimbursement year and the three (3) years prior to the reimbursement year (4 total);
(20)    Listing by account of all revenues, including aggregate customer revenues by category (residential, business, wholesale, etc.), that were used to off-set the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider's OUSF funding request. This should include any amount received from the Federal USF, OUSF, and any other federal or state funding sources;
(21)    The total number of customers by category (residential, business, wholesale, etc.) for the reimbursement year and the three (3) years prior to the reimbursement year (4 total);
(22)    A copy of the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider's regulated Continuing Property Records (CPR). If the CPRs do not tie to the general ledger, provide a reconciliation of the differences; and
(23)    A list and copies of any audits or reviews to include letters, reports, memorandum, etc. conducted by the National Exchange Carriers Association (NECA), USAC, or FCC conducted during the reimbursement year and three (3) years prior to the reimbursement year (4 total).
(c)    Unless a waiver is granted by the OUSF Administrator, the following minimum filing requirements are necessary for causescases filed pursuant to 17 O.S. § 139.106(K), and must be made available at the time of filing:
(1)    The name and address of the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider;
(2)    A description of the provisions of the Oklahoma Telecommunications Act relied on for the request;
(3)    The amount requested for funding;
(4)    Documentation necessary to substantiate the requested funding; and
(5)    The most recently filed jurisdictional cost study;
(6)    For highway relocation cases, the additional following minimum filing requirements are necessary:
(A)    Copies of all bids;
(B)    The request for proposal;
(C)    Copies of all invoices and work orders;
(D)    Documentation showing internal material accounting;
(E)    Documentation showing internal labor accounting, including time sheets, and separate documentation showing accounting of overtime work;
(F)    A certificate of completion of the relocation.
(d)    No amended Requests for OUSF Funding shall be accepted. Eligible local exchange telecommunications service providers may withdraw the originally filed Request for OUSF Funding and file a new request at any time prior to the issuance of the Determination. Upon the filing of a Withdrawal of Request for OUSF Funding, the Commission's Court Clerk shall close the file, without Commission order. If a new request is filed, it shall be filed under a new cause case number.
(e)    Requests for OUSF Funding found to be incomplete (missing information required by the form and instruction package contained on the Commission website) may be denied.
(f)    It is the intention of the OUSF Administrator that each funding request will be independently evaluated and reviewed on a case-by-case basis.
(g)    The eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider requesting OUSF funding for primary universal service shall make every reasonable and timely effort to obtain funding from alternative funding sources designated to support universal service, and shall submit all documentation of the effort to obtain funding from alternative funding sources designated to support universal service as a part of its Request for OUSF Funding, or an explanation for why alternative funding is not available. Upon the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider producing the documentation that it has sought alternative funding sources or an explanation for why alternative funding is not available, the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider shall not be precluded from having its Request for OUSF Funding processed.
(h)    If an eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider receives funding from alternative funding sources for an investment or expense already reimbursed by the OUSF, the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider shall refund the double collection to the OUSF by either reducing a prospective funding request from the OUSF by an equivalent amount or remitting cash payment to the OUSF. Under no circumstances will double recovery be allowed.
(i)    Concurrent with the filing of the Request for OUSF Funding, the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider shall:
(1)    Provide copies of its Request for OUSF Funding and Notice of the Request for OUSF Funding to the OUSF Administrator and the Oklahoma Attorney General.
(2)    Provide Notice of the Request for OUSF Funding, which shall include the dollar amount of the request for lump sum and any recurring amounts, to the contributing providers by providing an electronic copy of such Notice to the OUSF Administrator on the date the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider files its Request for OUSF Funding with the Commission's Court Clerk, for posting on the Commission website. The OUSF Administrator will then place the Notice on the Commission website within five (5) business days.
(j)    The OUSF Administrator and/or contracted agent shall independently evaluate, review, and determine the accuracy of the complete request and issue a determination of the eligibility for funds, which details the amount of funding recoverable from the OUSF, within ninety (90) calendar days. Simultaneously with the OUSF Administrator or contracted agent advising the provider and parties to the causecase, the OUSF Administrator or contracted agent shall file the written Determination inwith the Commission's Court Clerk and post it to the Commission's website. The eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider shall provide a copy of the OUSF Administrator's Determination to all parties of record within five (5) calendar days after it is filed.
(k)    Any affected party, as defined in 17 O.S. § 139.106(D)(5), may file a Request for Reconsideration within fifteen (15) calendar days of the Determination being filed by the OUSF Administrator, by following the procedures in OAC 165:59-3-72.
(l)    If no Request for Reconsideration is filed, the Determination shall be deemed final on the sixteenth (16) calendar day after the Determination is filed, and the cause case with the Commission's Court Clerk shall automatically be closed upon the filing of a Notice of Disbursement by the OUSF Administrator. The OUSF Administrator or contracted agent shall issue payment within forty-five (45) calendar days of the previously mentioned sixteenth (16) day, without an order of the Commission.
(m)    Unless good cause is shown, any Request for OUSF Funding pursuant to this Section should be made within a reasonable time from the date the requesting local exchange telecommunications service provider can determine the impact of occurrence of the circumstance giving rise to the request, including receipt or notification of alternative funding designed to support universal service. However, this shall neither preclude a local exchange telecommunications service provider from filing a Request for OUSF Funding, nor shall it preclude such a Request from being processed, prior to the time a final decision is made regarding alternative funding from a program designed to support universal service.
(n)    A Request for OUSF Funding, pursuant to this Section, shall be signed by an attorney for the eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider.
(o)    For causescases filed pursuant to 17 O.S. § 139.106(G), consistent with OAC 165:59-3-64(d), and when the OUSF Administrator has previously issued an initial Determination or a Commission final order has been issued, an eligible local exchange telecommunications service provider may file an OUSF request pursuant to 17 O.S. § 139.106(G) and request a variance and risk-based review, provided that:
(1)    Requests for OUSF Funding made pursuant to the variance and risk-based review shall be filed with the Commission's Court Clerk and provided on the date of filing to the OUSF Administrator for processing.
(2)    The above provisions in OAC 165:59-3-70(d)-(f) and (i)-(l) are applicable to causescases processed using the variance and risk-based review.
(3)    The OUSF Administrator shall develop an annual variance and risk-based review procedure and reporting format that specifies the information to be made available for purposes of such variance and risk-based review.
(4)    The annual variance and risk-based review process shall include the submission of all information requested, in a format to be developed by the OUSF Administrator.
(5)    Such annual variance and risk-based review shall be based on comparisons between and among the documentation provided with the initial Request for OUSF Funding, and the information subsequently provided in conjunction with an annual variance and risk-based review.
(6)    In no case shall an increase in OUSF funding based on an annual variance and risk-based review exceed five (5) percent of the initial amount granted by the Administrator's Determination or a final order issued by the Commission.
(p)    For cases filed pursuant to 17 O.S. § 139.106(G), determinations of funding shall be based on a Return on Equity and/or Return on Investment factor or methodology applicable to all RLECs as established by the Commission after notice and hearing. In the event of an absence of a Commission established Return on Equity and/or Return on Investment, the Administrator shall rely on the authorized rate of return prescribed by the FCC for the test year.
[OAR Docket #23-695; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 175.  State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering
CHAPTER 1.  Administrative Operations
[OAR Docket #23-599]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
175:1-1-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Board Structure and Agency Administration
175:1-3-1 [AMENDED]
175:1-3-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Rules of Practice
175:1-5-13 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. § 199.3 and § 199.6; State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering
SUBMISSION OF THE PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 6, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 to March 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 9, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 13,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 22, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Accepted May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule changes, if approved, will clarify the total number of appointments to the Board and how the appointments are made. The proposed rule change corrects the location of the Board office and simplifies the process of a request for rulemaking. The proposed rule also fixes several typographical errors. The proposed rule specifies that any request for a rule change will be responded to within thirty days of submission. Finally, the proposed rule adds a definition for "eyelash extensions" and a definition for an "Eyelash Extension Specialist."
CONTACT PERSON:
John Funderburk, Oklahoma, State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering. Tel. 405-522-7616, John.Funderburk@cosmo.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
175:1-1-2.  Definitions
     The terms and phrases defined in the Oklahoma Cosmetology Act shall have the same meaning when applied in the rules which are herein set forth in this Chapter to substantiate the Cosmetology and Barbering Law. The following rules and terms shall have the same meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Act" means the Oklahoma Cosmetology and Barbering Act.
"Apprentice" means a person who is engaged in learning the practice of cosmetology or barbering in a cosmetology or barber establishment. [Title 59 O.S. Section 199.1]
"Assigned practice or clinic work" means demonstrations and lesson practice in which services may be performed on patron, student or model on clinic floor in classroom for the benefit of student observation, notes, etc. The practice or demonstration shall be assigned by or with approval of the instructor in charge and materials/supplies used for the education demonstration are the responsibility of the school.
"Barber/Barber Stylist" means any person who engages in the practice of barbering.
"Barber Establishment" means an Establishment or place of business where one or more persons are engaged in the practice of barbering but shall not include barber schools or colleges.
"Barbering" means any one or combination of practices done upon the upper part of the human body for cosmetic purposes and when done for payment either directly or indirectly for the general public, constitutes the practice of barbering, to wit: shaving or trimming the beard or cutting the hair; giving facial or scalp massages or treatment with oils, creams, lotions or other preparations, either by hand or mechanical appliances; singeing, shampooing or applying lighteners or color to the hair, applying hair tonics; applying cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, powders, oils, clays or lotions to scalp, face, neck or upper part of the body, but excluding the application of makeup; and removing superfluous hair from the face, neck or upper part of the body.
"Barber school or college" means an Establishment operated for the purpose of teaching barbering.
"Board" means the State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering.
"Clean" means removal of surface and/or visible debris by using soap, detergent or chemical "cleaner", followed by a clean water rinse.
"Clock hour" means a measure of time determined to be sixty (60) minutes that a student spends in an educational or training activity.
"Contact time" means the amount of moist contact time required for a disinfectant to be effective against the pathogens on the label. Clean items or surfaces must remain completely immersed or visibly wet (sprays, wipes) for full contact time to be effective.
"Cosmetic studio" means any place or premises where demonstrators give demonstrations, without compensation, for the purpose only of advertising and selling cosmetics.
"Cosmetician" means a person licensed by the Board to perform patron services limited to hair arranging and application of make-up, including, but not limited to using hairstyling tools and products. Services must be performed in a licensed establishment.
"Cosmetologist" means any person who engages in, follows or performs any of the practices of cosmetology.
"Cosmetology" means any one or combination of practices generally and usually performed by and known as the occupation of beauticians, beauty culturists, beauty operators, cosmeticians, cosmetologists, or hairdressers, or any other person holding himself or herself out as practicing cosmetology by whatever designation and within the meaning of the Oklahoma Cosmetology and Barbering Act and in or upon whatever place or premises. Cosmetology shall include, but not limited to, any one or combination of the following practices: bleaching, cleansing, curling, cutting, coloring, dressing, removing, singeing, styling, waving or similar work upon the hair of any person by any means, whether with hands or mechanical or electrical apparatus or appliances. Nothing in the Oklahoma Cosmetology and Barbering Act shall be construed to prohibit the use of hands or mechanical or electrical apparatus or appliances for the non-permanent removal of hair from the human body without puncturing of the skin or the use of stimulating exercising, beautifying or similarly working the scalp, face, neck, arms or the manicuring of the nails of any person, exclusive of such of the foregoing practice as are within the scope of practice of the healing arts as provided by law.
"Cosmetology Establishment" means an Establishment or place of business where one or more persons are engaged in the practice of cosmetology but shall not include barber schools and colleges.
"Cosmetology" or "Barber school" means a school or department that is approved by the Board to conduct and provide cosmetology and/or barber training and education in Oklahoma. It means any place or premises where instruction in any or all the practices of cosmetology and or barbering are given. Any person, firm, institution or corporation, who holds himself, firm, institution or corporation who shall teach and train any other person or persons in any of the practices of cosmetology and/or barbering is hereby declared to be engaged in operating a cosmetology and/or barbering school, and shall be operating cosmetology and/or barbering school, and shall be subject to the provisions of the Oklahoma Cosmetology and Barbering Act. Licensed cosmetology and barbering schools may offer education to secondary and post secondary students in this state.
"Credit hour" means a unit of value awarded to a student for successful completion of a program, course or course lesson and credit to clock ratio as recognized by the United States Department of Education or a regional or national accreditation entity recognized by the United States Department of Education.
"Demonstrator" means a person who is not licensed in this state as a Cosmetologist, Barber or Instructor and who demonstrates any cosmetic preparation. The person shall be required to obtain a Demonstrator license from the Board before making any such demonstrations.
"Disinfect" means the process of making a non-porous item safe for use. Requires the use of a chemical intended to kill or denature a bacteria, virus or fungus. Proper disinfection requires adherence to manufacturers label with regard to concentration and contact time. UV light is not acceptable disinfection.
"Dry sanitizer" means a clean, dry, closed (covered) cabinet, drawer, chest or other type container used in a cosmetology/barber establishment or school for the purpose of storing clean, dry disinfected combs, brushes and other implements without fumigant after the articles have been cleaned and disinfected in a wet sanitizer (or by other approved method in the case of metal implements).
"Emergency circumstances" means a serious injury, illness or death in the immediate family of applicant for registration, examination, licensure, etc.
"Establishment" means a place or premises, cosmetology salon or barber shop, cosmetic or other specialty shop/salon where any one or combination of cosmetology or barbering practices are performed on the public except that the term shall not include a cosmetology or barbering school.
"Esthetician/Facialist/Facial Operator" means a person licensed by the Board to perform skin care, make-up and hair removal services to the public provided the hair removal services shall not include electrolysis.
"Eyelash Extensions" means the application, removal, and trimming of threadlike natural or synthetic fibers to an eyelash, and includes the cleansing of the eye area and lashes, as well as tinting, laminating and lifting lashes. "Eyelash extensions" do not include any other cosmetology service, including, but not limited to, hair removal, make-up application, or skin care treatments.
"Eyelash Extension Specialist" means a person who is not a Cosmetologist or Esthetician/Facialist/Facial Operator, but who holds a limited specialty license and is authorized to perform eyelash extensions as defined by this rule.
"Facial/Esthetics Instructor" means a person licensed by the Board as a qualified teacher of the art and science of skin care theory and practice.
"Hairbraiding Technician" means a person certified by the Board to perform hairbraiding, hairweaving techniques, and hair extensions in a licensed cosmetology establishment.
"Hybrid learning" means courses that combine face-to-face classroom instruction with on-line computer based learning.
"Manicurist/Nail Technician" means a person licensed by the Board to perform nail care services to the public in a place licensed by the Board where nail care/manicuring/pedicuring services may be performed.
"Manicurist/Nail Technician Instructor" means a person licensed by the Board as a qualified teacher of the art and science of nail technology theory and practice.
"Master Barber Instructor" means a person licensed by the Board who gives instruction in barbering or any practices thereof and trained in a school after November 1, 2014.
"Master Cosmetology Instructor" means a person licensed by the Board as a qualified teacher of cosmetology theory and practice.
"Mobile Establishment" means a specialty Establishment that is operated in a self-contained, self-supporting, enclosed mobile unit.
"Non-Porous" means material that has no pores and does not allow for liquids to be absorbed or pass through. Common non-porous materials include glass, metal and plastic.
"Post secondary institution" means a school licensed to teach students according to prescribed curriculum as in Title 59 O.S. § 199.7 (F) 1 Board rule 175:10-3-34(a).
"Porous" means material that has minute spaces or holes through which liquid or air may pass.
"Secondary institution" means a school licensed to teach students eligible for credit for 500 hours of related subjects as prescribed in Title 59 O.S. § 199.7 (f)2 and in Board rule 175:10-3-34(b).
"Sterilize" means the eradication of all microbial life through the use of heat, pressure, steam or chemical sterilant.
"Student" means a person who is enrolled in a cosmetology or barber school and appropriately registered with the Board for the purpose of being educated and trained in the practice of cosmetology or barbering.
"Threading" means a form of temporary hair removal by using thread that is twisted and rolled along the surface of the skin, entwining the hair in the thread and lifting it out of the follicle.
"Threading Technician" means a person with a limited specialty cosmetology license issued by the Board to perform threading in a licensed establishment.
"Unassigned practice or clinic work" means a personal service of cosmetology or barber practice (on student on another etc.); which shall be elective practice which one student chooses to perform or to receive (routine shampoo not included); and in which school supplies may be used (i.e. bleach/color/perm, etc.); and which practice and service is not assigned by the instructor and/or performed for the benefit of a group of students who have been scheduled to observe as a classroom or clinic demonstration; and for which a reasonable cost for supplies used in the practice may be charged to the student receiving the unassigned services.
"Wet sanitizer" means a large, pan-type covered container which shall contain a liquid chemical disinfecting agent used in a school or Establishment for the purpose of disinfecting combs, brushes and other non-metal tools and implements used in training and practice.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Board Structure and Agency Administration
175:1-3-1.  Composition, powers and duties of Board
(a)    The Board is composed of eleven (11) members appointed by the Governor for four-year terms, who serve at the Governor's pleasure for staggered terms to four (4) year staggered terms. Six (6) cosmetologist members are appointed, one (1) from each of six (6) congressional districts of the state. One (1) member is appointed to represent public cosmetology schools, one (1) to represent privately owned cosmetology schools, one (1) to represent privately owned barber school, and one (1) is appointed as a lay/public member, one (1) barber member is appointed at largeOne member shall be appointed from each congressional district and the additional members shall be appointed at-large. . . . Six members shall, at the time of appointment, have had at least five (5) years' continuous practical experience in the practice of cosmetology in this state; one member shall be appointed at large and, at the time of the appointment, have had at least five (5) years' continuous practical experience in the practice of barbering in this state; one member shall be a lay person; one member shall be an administrator of a licensed private cosmetology school; one member shall be an administrator of a licensed barber school; and one member shall be an administrator of a public school licensed to teach cosmetology or barbering Pursuant to [59 O.S., § 199.2].
(b)    The Board shall employ an Executive Director who shall be in charge of the Board office.
(1)    The Executive Director shall devote entire time to the duties of the agency.
(2)    The Executive Director shall hold a current Oklahoma Master Instructor license.
(3)    The Executive Director must be qualified by education and experience.
(c)    The Board elects a chair and vice chair from its membership in July each year.
(1)    The chair presides over all Board meetings.
(2)    The chair has the authority to call meetings if the need arises.
(d)    An Assistant Attorney General is assigned to the agency as liaison and serves as the Board's legal advisor.
(e)    In order to safeguard and protect the health and general welfare of the people of the State of Oklahoma, the Board has the power and duty to carry out the provisions of the Cosmetology and Barber Act 59 O.S. Section 199.1 et. seq. and to make and enforce all reasonable and necessary rules and regulations for that purpose. In addition to the general powers, the Board shall have the following powers and duties:
(1)    The Board shall promulgate rules relating to the standards of sanitation which shall be observed and practiced by all cosmetology and barber Establishments and schools.
(2)    Conduct examinations for licensure at such times and places determined by the Board.
(f)    The Board may exercise its official powers at any location in the State of Oklahoma.
175:1-3-2.  Agency administration; description of agency
(a)    The State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering shall create positions, make appointments and fix salaries of officials and employees necessary to carry out the purposes of the Cosmetology and Barbering Act [59 O.S. Sections 199.1 et. seq] and the administration thereof.
(b)    The Board's Executive Director is in charge of the office and directly supervises all employees.
(c)    The office of the State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering is located at 2401 N.W. 23rd Street, Suite 84, (Shepherd MallCenter) in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73107. Phone number (405) 521-2441. Fax number (405) 521-2440.
(d)    Board office hours are from 7:30 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. Monday through Friday inclusive except legal holidays established by statute or proclamation by the Governor. With Board approval, office hours are subject to change.
(e)    All application and other forms and instructions which pertain to a permit or license, shall be available at the Board's principal office during regular business hours.
(f)    All Board meetings are conducted at the Board's office location. Rule makingRulemaking and disciplinary hearings may be held in other locations if additional space is needed or if considered necessary for other legal valid reasons.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Rules of Practice
175:1-5-13.  Agency rulemaking
(a)    All rules shall be promulgated and submitted for gubernatorial and legislative approval in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act and rules established for agency rulemaking. Adopted rules shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Rules in compliance with the applicable rule and law.
(b)    Any person may request the Board to adopt, amend or repeal a rule in this chapterTitle. The request shall be made in writing and shall include the followfollowing:
(1)    theThe name, address and telephone number of the person making the request;
(2)    theThe name, address and telephone number of the agency or organization the person represents, if any;
(3)    anAn explanation for the reason for requesting the adoption, amendment, or repeal of a rule;
(4)    theThe number used to identify the rule if the request is to amend or repeal an existing rule; and
(5)    theThe proposed language if the request is to amend an existing rule or adopt a new rule.
(c)    It is the Board's policy to request made in accordance with subsection (b) within 30 calendar daysWithin thirty (30) calendar days of submission of a request, the Board shall initiate rulemaking proceedings or provide a written response explaining why rulemaking proceedings were not initiated.
[OAR Docket #23-599; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 175.  State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering
CHAPTER 10.  Licensure of Cosmetologists, Barbers, Schools and Related Establishments
[OAR Docket #23-600]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Licensure of Schools
Part 3. Student Registration and Entrance Requirements
175:10-3-16. Student entrance requirements [AMENDED]
Part 5. Equipment and Curriculum Requirements
175:10-3-30. Required library copies of cosmetology law/rules [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Sanitation, Disinfection and Safety Standards for Establishments and Schools
175:10-7-1. Cosmetology and Barber Establishment separate from residence or other business [AMENDED]
175:10-7-29. Facial procedures, devices and equipmentScope of practice for Cosmetologists and Facialists/Estheticians [AMENDED]
175:10-7-33. Make-up and strip eyelashes/Eyelash Extensions [AMENDED]
175:10-7-33.1. Eyelash extension services [NEW]
Subchapter 9. Licensure of Cosmetologists, Barbers and Related Occupations
Part 5. Demonstrators; Cosmetic Studios; Trade Shows; Guest Artists; Wig Dressing; Other Practices of Cosmetology and Barbering
175:10-9-54. Cosmetology and barber-related high fashion photography or similar Establishment requirements [REVOKED]
175:10-9-55. Practices of cosmetology and barbering [AMENDED]
Subchapter 11. License Renewal, Fees and Penalties
175:10-11-2. Cosmetology and Barber license and penalty fees [AMENDED]
Subchapter 13. Reciprocal and Crossover Licensing
175:10-13-1. Reciprocal license requirements [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. § 199.3 and § 199.6; State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering
SUBMISSION OF THE PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 6, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 to March 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 9, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 13, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 22, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule changes also: 1) allow schools to use electronic versions of the rule book (OAC 175:10-3-30); 2) distinguish between services provided in a licensee's residence and those provided in a patron's residence, consistent with newly-enacted 59 O.S., § 199.18 (OAC 175:10-7-1); 3) define with particularity what kinds of services "puncture the skin," and therefore are outside the scope of practice of Cosmetologists and Facialists/Estheticians (OAC 175:10-7-29); and 4) revoke OAC 175:10-9-54, consistent with the newly-enacted exemption from licensing for services that are incidental to theatrical, radio, television or motion picture productions, modeling or photography, in 59 O.S., § 199.6(E)(5).
Finally, several of the amended rules and the new rule defining Eyelash Extension Specialists and procedures. See OAC 175:10-3-16; 175:10-7-33; 175:10-7-33.1; 175:10-11-2; and 175:10-13-1. The amended rules and newly establish examination requirements; sanitation, disinfection, and safety requirements; set a licensure fee; and allow the Board to grant reciprocity for licensed specialists from other states. This addition clearly defines eyelash extensions and how to perform them in a safe and sanitary manner.
CONTACT PERSON:
John Funderburk, Oklahoma, State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering. Tel. 405-522-7616, John.Funderburk@cosmo.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Licensure of Schools
PART 3.  STUDENT REGISTRATION AND ENTRANCE REQUIREMENTS
175:10-3-16.  Student entrance requirements
     Student entrance requirements for the Basic Cosmetologist, Manicurist/Nail Technician, Cosmetician, Esthetician/Facialist/Facial Operator, Eyelash extension specialist, Barber and Barber Instructor courses are as follows:
(1)    The student must:
(A)    beBe at least sixteen (16)16 years of age by November 1st of the current year.
(B)    submitSubmit completed student registration application accompanied by a fee of $5.00 before attending classes.
(C)    submitSubmit a copy of the completed student/school contract with the student registration application.
(D)    submitSubmit proof of at least eighth grade education or equivalency or submit proof of having satisfactorily passed an ability to benefit exam.
(E)    submitSubmit, if under eighteen (18)18 years of age, a photocopy of birth certificate or other legal proof of age.
(F)    submitSubmit 2" X 2" current full-face photograph of the applicant as requested on registration form. A current photograph is one taken within the last six (6)six months. No embellishments or filters of any kind that alter the face of the applicant are allowed.
(2)    Each student shall be registered with the Board before attending school.
(3)    Each student shall be provided with an approved textbook or manual upon commencing training.
(4)    All applicants who register with the Board as students or who apply for a license will be considered without regard to race, sex, creed, color, religion, or national origin provided they have met all requirements of cosmetology and barber law and rules of the Board. All students shall be considered for enrollment in a school. Admission to public schools is governed by applicable state and federal laws.
PART 5.  EQUIPMENT AND CURRICULUM REQUIREMENTS
175:10-3-30.  Required library copies of cosmetology law/rules
(a)    At least six (6) copies of the Oklahoma Cosmetology/Barbering Law and Board rule book must be maintained in library of each school and available to students; provided, however, that schools may use electronic versions of the rule book. The books will be provided by the Board at a current cost of printing and delivery to each school.
(b)    Reference manuals or other material shall be kept current by replacement or supplement as pertains to all areas of the curriculum. Each school shall maintain a quality reference library addressing various major subjects as pertain to the total field of cosmetology or barbering.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Sanitation, Disinfection and Safety Standrards for Establishments and Schools
175:10-7-1.  Cosmetology and Barber Establishment separate from residence or other business
(a)    No Establishment licensed pursuant to 59 O.S. § 199.9 shall operate in a residence or beauty/barber supply house or other business unless athe room or rooms in which cosmetology or barbering services are being provided are separate and apart from the residence residence/supply house or business and with a separate entrance. Establishment must be separate from beauty supply house/business. The Establishment area shall have a separate entrance and must be identified/ with signedsignage, in order for the Board and consumers to determine the specific area of inspection authority and responsibility. The Establishment area shall be separated by a solid divider, partition, wall, display counter or shelves. This dividerDivider wall must measure at least six (6) feet from floor to top in such manner as to assure compliance with Board standards of sanitation and safety for the Establishment operation. All doors and windows between the residence/living quarters and the Establishment shall be kept closed during Establishment hours.
(b)    Nothing in this rule shall be interpreted as prohibiting licensees from providing services to patrons or consumers in the patrons' or consumers' private residences, in accordance with 59 O.S., § 199.18.
175:10-7-29.  Facial procedures, devices and equipmentScope of practice for Cosmetologists and Facialists/Estheticians
(a)    Licensees are prohibited from performing facial procedures using cosmetic exfoliating substances or devices that effect more than the top layer (stratum cornium) or outer most layer of dead cells on the skin. Procedures which use any cosmetic exfoliation substance or device to remove viable (living) skin below the stratum cornium are deemed beyond the scope of practice of persons and Establishments licensed by the Board of Cosmetology and Barbering.
(b)    Cosmetic exfoliating substances may include alpha hydroxyl acids (glycolic and lactic acids), beta hydroxyl acids, salicylic acid, Jessner's solutions, resorcinol and other substances intended to affect no more than the stratum cornium.
(c)    Cosmetic exfoliating devices may include FDA (U.S. Food and Drug Administration) registered and/or approved devices, provided that such devices affect no more than the stratum cornium.
(d)    Invasive procedures which ablate or destroy, remove, or make an incision or pierce the skin beyond the stratum cornium is prohibited.
(e)    Roll on wax products are prohibited.
(f)    Superficial exfoliation treatments on the stratum cornium using commercially available products and devices used in accordance with manufacturer's written instructions.
(1)    Only the stratum cornium may, by any method or means, be removed, and then only for the purpose of improving the appearance of the skin.
(2)    Skin removal techniques and practices which result in destruction of living tissue beyond the stratum cornium layer of skin is prohibited.
(g)    Use of esthetic devices approved by rule, that are intended to be used for cosmetic skin care purposes, beautifying, and improving the appearance of the skin. Including but not limited to:
(1)    galvanic current
(2)    High frequency
(3)    Mechanical brushes
(4)    Vacuum spray devices
(5)    Steamers
(6)    Micro current devices
(7)    Microdermabrasion devices
(8)    Low Level radio frequency devices
(9)    Light emitting Diode devices
(h)    Extraction techniques including but not limited to; Metal extractor tool
(i)    Esthetic devices must be commercially available and be operated within manufacture written guidelines and be FDA registered if required under 201 (h) of the Federal Drug and Cosmetic (FD&C) Act and may not fall within class 3 designation.
(a)    Cosmetology means any one or combination of practices generally and usually performed by and known as the occupation of beauticians, beauty culturists, beauty operators, cosmeticians, cosmetologists, or hairdressers or of any other person holding himself or herself out as practicing cosmetology by whatever designation and within the meaning of the Oklahoma Cosmetology and Barbering Act, but expressly does not include services that puncture the skin or that are within the scope of practice of the healing arts pursuant to 59 O.S., § 199.1 and OAC 175:1-1-2,.
(1)    For the purposes of the Oklahoma Cosmetology and Barbering Act ("Act"), "puncturing the skin" is defined as perforating the skin by any means, including, but not limited to:
(A)    The application of permanent makeup;
(B)    Microblading, which is a semi-permanent technique for enhancing the appearance of eyebrows in which pigment is scratched into the skin using a hand tool with a blade formed of tiny needles;
(C)    Microneedling or "collagen induction treatment or therapy," which is a procedure that uses a multi-needled device to create microchannels in the skin at a depth greater than 0.25 mm to stimulate the body's natural healing process while minimizing cellular damage;
(D)    The use of laser treatments; ultrasound and high intensity focused ultrasound ("HIFU") treatments; radiation; plasma pen; injections, including, but not limited to, injections performed by means of needle-free injection devices; and Food and Drug Administration ("FDA") approved Class 3 medical devices;
(E)    Cryolipolysis or "fat freezing," which is a fat reduction procedure that uses cold temperature to reduce fat deposits in certain areas of the body;
(F)    Dermabrasion, which is a procedure that uses a specialized instrument to "sand" or scrape away the top layers of the skin; and
(G)    The removal of tattoos, skin tags, moles or angiomas.
(2)    Services that puncture the skin or that are within the scope of practice of the healing arts are beyond the scope of a cosmetology license and a facialist/esthetician license.
(b)    Esthetic devices approved by rule, that are intended to be used for cosmetic skin care purposes, beautifying, and improving the appearance of the skin, include, but are not limited to:
(1)    Galvanic current;
(2)    High frequency;
(3)    Mechanical brushes;
(4)    Vacuum spray devices;
(5)    Steamers;
(6)    Micro current devices;
(7)    Microdermabrasion devices;
(8)    Low level radio frequency devices;
(9)    Light emitting Diode devices, including, but not limited to, intense pulsed light therapy devices; and
(10)    Metal extractor tools.
(c)    Cosmetologists and Facialists/Estheticians may only exfoliate stratum corneum cells. With proper training, Cosmetologists and Facialists/Estheticians may use any chemical, mechanical or electrical service to exfoliate cells of the stratum corneum, including, but not limited to:
(1)    Chemical exfoliating agents, including, but not limited to, alpha hydroxyl acids (glycolic and lactic acids), beta hydroxyl acids, salicylic acid, Jessner's solutions, and resorcinol. Provided, however, that chemical peels performed by a Cosmetologist or Facialist/Esthetician shall be mixed and used at an ingredient concentration of thirty percent (30%) solution or less at final formulation, or with a pH value not less than three (3), unless all of the following conditions are met:
(A)    The chemical peel preparation is a commercially available product approved for use by Cosmetologists and/or Facialists/Estheticians;
(B)    The licensee can provide documentation from the manufacturer that the specific product does not penetrate below the stratum corneum when used as directed;
(C)    The licensee can provide documentation of training and/or certification in the use of the product;
(D)    The licensee follows all manufacturer's directions in the use of the chemical peel preparation; and
(E)    The preparation is stored according to the manufacturer's specifications and is discarded after its expiration date.
(2)    Microdermabrasion; provided, however, that any microdermabrasion equipment used by a Cosmetologist or Facialist/Esthetician must be a Class 1 or Class 2 device under the FDA's classification system. The Cosmetologist or Facialist/Esthetician must prominently display a certificate of training proficiency for each type of microdermabrasion equipment used. The use of Class 3 FDA-approved devices for microdermabrasion is prohibited.
(d)    Licensees using a device, equipment, chemical or a product shall comply with the manufacturer's directions when using, storing and disposing of the device, equipment, chemical or product.
175:10-7-33.  Make-up and strip eyelashes/Eyelash Extensions
(a)    Make-up pencils that do not require sharpening, should not be used.
(b)    Make-up pencils that require a sharpener, must be sharpened prior to each use.
(c)    Pencil sharpeners must be cleaned out and properly disinfected by immersion or spray with an EPA-registered disinfectant after each use.
(d)    Disposable applicators must be used in the application of mascara.
(e)    Liquid foundation must be dispensed with a pump-style bottle or removed from container without allowing mouth of container to be contaminated.
(f)    Make-up that is in a cake format should be scraped off onto a single use or disinfected surface, such as a palette for application.
(g)    When make-up displays are accessible to the public, disposable applicators for all make-up must be readily available.
(h)    Eyelash extensions may only be performed by a licensed cosmetologist or esthetician
(i)    Tables/Beds/Chairs used during eyelash services must be covered by a:
(1)    Disposable sheet/paper
(2)    Non-Porous Plastic cover (disinfected between clients)
(3)    Clean sheet or linen
(4)    Disposable paper towel like product or hand sized towel may be used under the head of each new client.
(jh)    Tray Barrier - aAfresh/new disposable barrier, such as a freshly laundered towel or paper towel,willshall be used placed on the tray or counter space on which items for clients replaced before each service begins. and underneath any implements, tools or supplies to be used when providing services to a client.
(k)    Mask will be worn properly over both nose and mouth during eyelash service.
(l)    Forehead Barrier - disposable, single use or freshly laundered forehead barrier must be used.
(mi)    LashStrip eyelash use and Storagestorage
(1)    Lashes must be stored in covered container.
(2)    Once lashes are removed from original container, they cannot be placed back in original container and may not be used on another client and may not be stored for later use of same client.
(3)    Any cutting implement used to cut lashes into sections (to render lash strips on time use) must be disinfected and stored in covered container.
(4)    Glue stones, lash tiles, lash pallets and like items used to pull lasseslashes from during service, must be disinfected between clients.
(nj)    De-tacking tape used for taping back eye lid skin or lashes cannot be de-tacked on skin. De-tacking must be done on a clean towel.
(ok)    Any nozzle or dropper used for rinsing or flushing the eye during the service cannot come in direct contact with the eye or skin.
(pl)    Make-up application on the face and beautifying lashes and brows with the use of commercially-available products must be useperformed in accordance with manufacturermanufacturer's written instructions, include but not limited to;:
(1)    LashStrip eyelash extension application;
(2)    Lightening hair on the body except the scalp; and
(3)    Temporary tattoo application, i.e. henna, crystals.
175:10-7-33.1.  Eyelash extension services
(a)     Work environment. There shall be at least one (1) seat available for each individual performing eyelash extensions. There shall be at least one (1) seat or bed for each client receiving eyelash extension services.
(1)    Chairs and beds, including headrests, shall be cleaned and disinfected after providing services to each client.
(2)    The chairs and beds shall be made of or covered in a non-porous material that can be disinfected.
(3)    The chairs and beds must be covered by a disposable sheet, non-porous plastic cover (disinfected between clients), clean sheet or linen.
(4)    A disposable paper-towel-like product or hand-sized towel may be used under the head of each client.
(5)    A barrier, such as a freshly laundered towel or paper towel, shall be placed on the tray or counter space and underneath any implements, tools or supplies to be used when providing services to a client.
(6)    Each licensee performing eyelash extensions shall wash his or her hands with soap and water prior to performing any services on a client. A disposable, single-use or freshly laundered forehead barrier must be used.
(b)     Implements. Implements shall be cleaned and disinfected or disposed of, in accordance with the guidelines, below.
(1)    The following implements shall be cleaned and disinfected after each client: tweezers; nasal aspirator or electric eyelash dryer and other items used for a similar purpose; cutting implements; and glue stones, lash tiles, lash pallets and like items used to pull lashes.
(2)    The following items that are used during services shall be replaced with clean items for each client: disposable and terry cloth towels; hair caps; headbands; brushes; gowns; and spatulas that contact skin or products from multi-use containers.
(3)    The following implements are single-use items and shall be discarded in a trash receptacle after use: disposable gloves; tissues; disposable wipes; fabric strips; surgical tape; eye pads; extensions; cotton swabs; face masks; brushes; and extension pads and other items used for a similar purpose.
(c)     Glue and tape. Only properly-labeled, semipermanent glue and glue remover, that is intended for use on the human body, shall be used. De-tacking tape used for taping back eyelid skin or lashes cannot be de-tacked on skin. De-tacking must be done on a clean towel.
(d)     Extensions. Extensions must be stored in a sealed bag or covered container and shall be kept in a clean and dry, debris-free storage area.
(1)    When removing eyelashes from the container or package to portion out eyelashes for a service, a licensee must use disinfected scissors, blade, or other tool to snip a portion of a strip; or must use a disinfected tweezer to portion out the lashes for each service.
(2)    Eyelash extensions that are removed from the container or original packaging for a client's eyelash service and not used, must be disposed of and must not be used for another client.
(e)    Nozzle or dropper. Any nozzle or dropper used for rinsing or flushing the eye during the service cannot come in direct contact with the eye or skin.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Licensure of Cosmetologists, Barbers and Related Occupations
PART 5.  DEMONSTRATORS; COSMETIC STUDIOS; TRADE SHOWS; GUEST ARTISTS; WIG DRESSING; OTHER PRACTICES OF COSMETOLOGY AND BARBERING
175:10-9-54.  Cosmetology and barber related high fashion photography or similar Establishment requirements  [REVOKED]
(a)    Any high fashion photography and similar cosmetology/barber related business/Establishment providing any one or combination of services separately or in conjunction with photography or similar services to the public shall be appropriately licensed by the Board.
(b)    Any employee or other person performing any one or combination of cosmetology or barber services in such Establishment shall be appropriately licensed by the Board.
175:10-9-55.  Practices of cosmetology and barbering
(a)    Only licensed Facialist/Esthetician, Cosmetologist, Threading Technician or Barber may perform threading.
(b)    Only a licensed Facialist/Esthetician,or Cosmetologist or Eyelash Extension Specialist may perform eyelash extensions. Only a licensed Cosmetology Instructor or licensed Facial/Esthetics Instructor may teach Eyelash Extension Specialist courses or classes.
(c)    Only licensed Facialist/Esthetican, Cosmetologist or Barber may perform body sugaring.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  License Renewal, Fees and Penalties
175:10-11-2.  Cosmetology and Barber license and penalty fees
(a)    The Board is authorized the following license and penalty fees:
(1)    Student/apprentice registration - $5.00
(2)    Examination registration - $35.00
(3)    Cosmetology and barber school license (initial) - $400.00
(4)    Cosmetology and barber school license (renewal) - $125.00
(5)    Master Cosmetology Instructor license - $50.00
(6)    Master Barber Instructor license - $50.00
(7)    Facial/Esthetics Instructor license - $30.00
(8)    Manicurist/Nail Technician Instructor license - $30.00
(9)    Cosmetology license - $25.00
(10)    Barber license - $25.00
(11)    Manicurist license - $25.00
(12)    Esthetician license - $25.00
(13)    Eyelash extension specialist license - $25.00
(14)    Cosmetician license - $25.00
(1415)    Demonstrator license - $20.00
(1516)    Advanced Operator license (renewal only) - $25.00
(1617)    Establishment license (initial) - $45.00
(1718)    Establishment license (renewal) - $30.00
(1819)    Cosmetic studio license (initial) - $50.00
(1920)    Cosmetic studio license (renewal) - $30.00
(2021)    Nail salon license (initial) - $45.00
(2122)    Nail salon license (renewal) - $30.00
(2223)    Reciprocity license - $30.00
(2324)    Reciprocity transfer of hours processing fee from out-of-state - $30.00
(2425)    Duplicate license (in case of loss or destruction of original license and/or renewal application) - $5.00
(2526)    Notary Fee - $1.00
(2627)    Certification of Records - $10.00
(b)    The Board shall charge a penalty fee of ten dollars ($10.00) for the renewal of any license delinquent after two (2) months of expiration. This sub sectionsubsection also applies to any delinquent initial license application.
(c)    All fees shall be submitted to the Board in the form of a cashier's check, money order or business check. Personal checks are not accepted by the Board.
(d)    Waiver of fee for low-income individuals; pursuant to the provisions of 59 O.S. §4003A4003(A), upon presentation of satisfactory evidence that an applicant for initial licensure or certification, or that a licensee or certificate-holder seeking renewal, is a low- income individual, the Board shall grant a one-time one-year waiver of the fee for licensure, certification or renewal. A low-income individual is a person who is enrolled in a state or federal public assistance program, including, but not limited to, the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families, Medicaid or the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, or whose household adjusted gross income is below one hundred forty percent (140%) of the federal poverty line. An applicant for licensure must provide documentation showing participation in one of the afore-mentioned programs or submit income tax returns showing income below the established threshold. The documentation must be current and must be issued by the federal or state entity administering the program. Copies of income tax returns must be from the most recent tax year prior to the date of licensure application.
SUBCHAPTER 13.  Reciprocal and Crossover Licensing
175:10-13-1.  Reciprocal license requirements  [AMENDED]
     The Board, in accordance with the Oklahoma Cosmetology and Barbering Statutes 59 O.S. Section 199.13, has ruled to accept any applicant for applicants from other states in accordance with the following requirements:
(1)    The applicant for license as a cosmetologist, manicurist/nail technician, esthetician/facialist, eyelash extension specialist, threading technician, or barber:
(A)    mustMust have met the requirements for the same licensure in another state;
(B)    mustMust hold a current license from another state as verified by a valid certification;
(C)    mustMust have successfully passed Oklahoma's state rules, regulations and law test administered by the Board.
(2)    If an applicant for a license as a cosmetologist, manicurist, facialist, eyelash extension specialist or barber is from another territory, province, or foreign countycountry that does not issue a license after required occupational training, but can provide sufficient proof that he or she has continuously engaged in the practices or occupation at issue in the reciprocity license application for at least three (3) years immediately prior to such application, the Board may approve the reciprocity license if there is sufficient proof that applicant has at least an eighth grade education, and the applicant has passed Oklahoma's state rules, regulations and law test administered by the Board.
(3)    If an applicant for a license as an instructor is from another territory, province, or foreign countycountry, that does not issue a license after required occupational training, but can provide sufficient proof that he or she has continuously engaged in the practices or occupation at issue in the reciprocity license application for at least three (3) years immediately prior to such application, the Board may approve the reciprocity license if there is sufficient proof that applicant has at least a high school education, and the applicant has passed Oklahoma's state rules, regulations and law test administered by the Board.
(4)    Any non-English speaking reciprocity licensee or transfer of hours applicant, and transfer of hours applicant must contact the Board's office concerning requirements for licensing and transfer of hours.
(5)    After the application is complete, all required documents are attached, and the application is filed, each applicant for reciprocity license must make an appointment and appear personally in the Board's office for an interview before the reciprocity license may be considered.
(6)    The applicant from a foreign country, territory or providence may be required to provide evidence that documents have been certified as valid by a creditable agency as recognized by the Board. Validation of documents is at applicant's expense.
(7)    No temporary permit shall be issued to a foreign reciprocity applicant.
[OAR Docket #23-600; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 175.  State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering
CHAPTER 20.  Massage Therapy
[OAR Docket #23-601]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 11. Grounds for Discipline
175:20-11-1. Grounds for discipline [AMENDED]
Subchapter 15. Complaints and Hearings
175:20-15-1. Massage Therapy Practice Act license and penalty fees [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. § 4200.4 and § 4200.11; State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering
SUBMISSION OF THE PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 6, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 to March 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 9, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 13,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 22, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule changes: 1) align grounds for taking disciplinary action against a licensee with 59 O.S., § 4000.1 (OAC 175:20-11-1); and 2) make licensure fees consistent with statute and remove outdated information from before 2017 (OAC 175:20-15-1).
CONTACT PERSON:
John Funderburk, Oklahoma, State Board of Cosmetology and Barbering. Tel. 405-522-7616, John.Funderburk@cosmo.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Grounds for Discipline
175:20-11-1.  Grounds for discipline
(a)    The Board may take the following disciplinary action against a licensee:
(1)    refuseRefuse to renew a license;
(2)    suspendSuspend or revoke a license;
(3)    issueIssue an administrative reprimand; or
(4)    imposeImpose probationary conditions.
(b)    The Board may take disciplinary action upon a finding that the licensee has:
(1)    pleadedPleaded guilty, nolo contendre or been convicted of or charged with a misdemeanor or felony crime that substantially relates to the practice of massage therapy and poses a reasonable threat to public safety;
(2)    pleaded guilty, nolo contendre or been convicted of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
(3)    pleaded guilty, nolo contendre or been convicted of a violation of federal or state controlled dangerous substance laws.
(42)    violatedViolated any provision of the Massage Therapy Practice Act or any rule of the Board;
(53)    engagedEngaged in any unprofessional conduct; or
(64)    beenBeen the subject of disciplinary action in another jurisdiction;.
SUBCHAPTER 15.  Complaints and Hearings
175:20-15-1.  Massage Therapy Practice Act license and penalty fees
(a)    The following license and penalty fees are hereby adopted:
(1)    Massage Therapist License (prior to May 1, 2017) - $25.00
(2)    Massage Therapist License (after May 1, 2017) - $50.00$100.00. Massage therapy licenses expire biennially Per 59 O.S. § 4200.9,.
(32)    Massage Therapist License by Reciprocity - $65.00
(43)    License Renewal - $50.00$100.00
(54)    Duplicate license (in case of loss or destruction of original license and/or renewal application) - $5.00$10.00
(65)    Notary Fee - $1.00
(76)    Certification of Records - $10.00
(87)    Late fee (for licenses renewed during the one-month grace period) - $10.00
(b)    All fees shall be submitted to the Board in the form of a cashier's check, money order or business check. Personal checks are not accepted by the Board.
(c)    Pursuant to the provisions of 59 O.S. § 4003A, upon presentation of satisfactory evidence that an applicant for initial licensure or certification, or that a licensee or certificate-holder seeking renewal, is a low-income individual, the Board shall grant a one-time one-year waiver of the fee for licensure, certification or renewal. A low-income individual is a person who is enrolled in a state or federal public assistance program, including, but not limited to, the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families, Medicaid or the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, or whose household adjusted gross income is below one hundred forty percent (140%) of the federal poverty line. An applicant for licensure must provide documentation showing participation in one of the afore-mentioned programs or submit income tax returns showing income below the established threshold. The documentation must be current and must be issued by the federal or state entity administering the program. Copies of income tax returns must be from the most recent tax year prior to the date of licensure application.
[OAR Docket #23-601; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 195.  Board of Dentistry
CHAPTER 1.  Organization, Operation, and Purposes
[OAR Docket #23-576]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
195:1-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
195:1-1-2. Board authority and purposes, composition and duties, quorum [AMENDED]
195:1-1-4. Board office [AMENDED]
195:1-1-5. Written communications to the Board [REVOKED]
195:1-1-6. Public inspection of certain records [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. Supp. 2015, SEC. 328.15 et seq.; Board of Dentistry
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 16, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 10, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 10, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 13, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revision to Chapter 1 deletes sections and verbiage that is redundant, no longer needed or has been previously moved into the Oklahoma Dental Practice Act, 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq.
CONTACT PERSON:
Susan Rogers, Executive Director and General Counsel (405) 522-4844, Oklahoma Board of Dentistry, 2920 N Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Purpose and Definitions
195:1-1-1.  Purpose
     The rules of this chapter describe the purpose and authority of the Board and set forth certain policies regarding the Board office, written communications with the Board, and public inspection of Board records. The Oklahoma Board of Dentistry is a constitutionally created and statutorily codified Board created for the purposes specified within 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq., the State Dental Act.
195:1-1-2.  Board authority and purposes, composition and duties, quorum
(a)    The Board of Governors of the Registered Dentists of Oklahoma being the statutory governing body of the Registered Dentists of Oklahoma and having its authority prescribed by the State Dental Act, Title 59 O.S. 328.1 et seq., incorporates, as its object and purpose, the said State Dental Act and specifically Section 328.2 thereof. Upon statehood, the Board of Dentistry was created in Article 5 section 39 and required to be statutorily codified.The Oklahoma legislature has declared in 59 O.S. § 328.2 that dentistry in the state of Oklahoma affects the public health safety and welfare of its citizens. This Board is duty bound by the Constitution and legislature to protectdoes therefore recognize and proclaim that the practice of dentistry in this State fundamentally affects the public health, safety and welfare of all the people of Oklahoma through the powers vested in the Board as listed in 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq.
(b)    This Board of Governors composed of eleven (11) members is vested with powers and duties:
(1)    to enforce the provisions of the State Dental Act;
(2)    to perform the executive function of the organization;
(3)    to examine all candidates for dental licenses;
(4)    to inspect dental offices and dental laboratories;
(5)    to establish minimum standards of dental care;
(6)    to examine candidates for certification as dental hygienists;
(7)    to issue dental laboratory permits upon appropriate application;
(8)    to conduct hearings regarding complaints against dentists and dental hygienists and
(9)    to exercise such disciplinary powers as are conferred by the State Dental Act.
(c)    A quorum of the Board of Governors will consist of a simple majority of the total Board membership.
(b)    The Oklahoma legislature has authorized and empowered the Board to enact Rules as may be necessary to regulate the practice of Dentistry, pursuant to 59 O.S. § 328.15.
195:1-1-4.  Board office
     The office of the Board of Governors of the Registered Dentists of Oklahoma is in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma. Regular office hours shall be maintained each day except Saturday and Sunday and any day authorized by State Officials to be closed.legal holiday established by statute or proclamation of the Governor.
195:1-1-5.  Written communications to the Board  [REVOKED]
     Every communication in writing to the Board shall be addressed to the Executive Secretary of the Board at the principal office unless the Board directs otherwise.
195:1-1-6.  Public inspection of certain records
     All public records of the Board shall be made available for public inspection pursuant to the Oklahoma Open Records Act 51 O.S. § 24A.5. at the office during regular office hours. Copies of public records of the Board shall be made and certified upon pre-payment of the copying fee set forth in the fee schedule enacted by the Board.
[OAR Docket #23-576; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 195.  Board of Dentistry
CHAPTER 2.  Internal Operations and Purposes
[OAR Docket #23-577]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
195:2-1-3. Appointment of Advisory Members [REVOKED]
195:2-1-5. Annual meeting of the Board [AMENDED]
195:2-1-6. Annual registration fee for registered members in the Armed Services, and members retired from the practice of dentistry because of age or physical disability [REVOKED]
195:2-1-7. Fees [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. Supp. 2015, SEC. 328.15 et seq.; Board of Dentistry
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 16, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 10, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 10, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 13, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revision to Chapter 1 deletes sections and verbiage that is redundant, no longer needed or has been previously moved into the Oklahoma Dental Practice Act, 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq.
CONTACT PERSON:
Susan Rogers, Executive Director and General Counsel (405) 522-4844, Oklahoma Board of Dentistry, 2920 N Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
195:2-1-3.  Appointment of Advisory Members  [REVOKED]
(a)    The president shall have authority to appoint advisory members as he deems necessary, with Board approval.
(b)    The appointee shall assist only in an advisory capacity and shall not have a vote on matters acted upon by the Board.
195:2-1-5.  Annual meeting of the Board
     The annual MeetingA regularly scheduled meeting of the Board will be held in the second quarter of each calendar year. At this time reports of the proceedings of the Board since the last annual meeting, reports of officers, and committees, and recommendations of the Board shall be received. Board member positions up for election shall be elected. The newly elected or appointed Board Members will be installed and Board officers will be elected. Newly elected Board members shall serve in an ex-officio capacity until the beginning of the next fiscal year pursuant to 59 O.S. § 328.10.
195:2-1-6.  Annual registration fee for registered members in the Armed Services, and members retired from the practice of dentistry because of age or physical disability  [REVOKED]
(a)    Should a registered person have held an Oklahoma license for twenty-five (25) years and have kept such license active by the paying of the annual registration fee, and should such person become physically disabled because of age or disability, and have retired from the practice of dentistry the annual registration fee will be waived and a renewal certificate issued without cost to the registered member. Such registered member must submit to the Secretary of the Board, a letter from the Board Member from that district, or a letter form the Secretary of his local Dental Society, that such disability has occurred. The waiver of fees may be continued so long as said retirement continues because of age or physical disability.
(b)    Each person entering the Armed Services will be charged a renewal fee in accordance with that charged to dentists licensed in Oklahoma and residing outside Oklahoma.
195:2-1-7.  Fees
     Fees charged by the Board are hereby set as follows:
(1)    LICENSE, CERTIFICATE AND PERMIT APPLICATION FEES:
(A)    License or Certificate by Examination
(i)    Dentist - $200.00
(ii)    Dental Hygienist - $100.00
(B)    License or Certificate by Credentialing
(i)    Dentist - $500.00
(ii)    Dental Hygienist - $150.00
(C)    Dental Specialty License by Examination - $300.00
(D)    Dental Specialty License by Credentialing - $500.00
(E)    Faculty Permit
(i)    Dentist - $100.00
(ii)    Dental Hygienist - $50.00
(F)    Dental Intern Permit - $100.00
(G)    Temporary Certificate to Practice Dental Hygiene - $50.00
(H)    Dental Assistant permit for Expanded Duties - $10.00
(I)    Permit to Operate Dental Laboratory - $20.00
(J)    General Anesthesia Permit Dentist - $100.00
(K)    Conscious Sedation Permit Dentist - $100.00
(2)    RE-EXAMINATION FEES:
(A)    License or Certificate by Examination
(i)    Dentist - $200.00
(ii)    Dental Hygienist - $100.00
(B)    Dental Specialty License by Examination - $300.00
(1C)    Theoretical or Written Only Re-Examination
(i)    Dentist or Hygienist - $10.00
(ii)    Dental Hygienist - $10.00
(3)    ANNUAL RENEWAL FEES:
(A)    Dentist - $150.00
(B)    Dental Hygienist - $75.00
(C)    Dental Specialty License - $150.00
(D)    Faculty Permit
(i)    Dentist - $50.00
(ii)    Dental Hygienist - $50.00
(E)    Dental Intern Permit - $50.00
(F)    Dental Assistant, permit for Expanded Duties - $25.00
(G)    Permit to Operate a Dental Laboratory - $20.00
(H)    General Anesthesia Permit Dentist - $100.00
(I)    Conscious Sedation Permit Dentist - $100.00
(4)    PENALTY FEES FOR LATE RENEWAL OF LICENSE, CERTIFICATE OR PERMIT:
(A)    Dentist - $100.00
(B)    Dental Hygienist - $50.00
(C)    Dental Specialty License - $100.00
(D)    Dental Assistant Permit for Expanded Duties - $20.00
(E)    Permit to Operate a Dental Laboratory - $20.00
(F)    General Anesthesia Permit Dentist - $100.00
(G)    Conscious Sedation Permit Dentist - $100.00
(5)    OTHER FEES:
(A)    Duplicate License - $10.00
(B)    Duplicate Certificate, Permit or Registration - $10.00
(C)    Certificate of Good Standing - $10.00
(D)    Professional Entity Certification Letter - $5.00
(E)    Professional Entity Registration or Update - $20.00
(F)    Work Authorization Books - $7.00
(G)    Preparation of list of Dentists, Dental Hygienists, Dental Assistants who hold a Permit for Expanded Duties, and holders of a permit to Operate a Dental Laboratory - $75.00 (All lists must be requested in writing noting the specific use of the list.)
(2H)    Copies of Public Records - per page - $0.25
[OAR Docket #23-577; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 195.  Board of Dentistry
CHAPTER 3.  Complaints, Investigations and Hearings
[OAR Docket #23-578]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
195:3-1-1.1. Definitions [AMENDED]
195:3-1-2. Investigations [REVOKED]
195:3-1-3.1. Emergency hearing [AMENDED]
195:3-1-4. Statement of Complaint and notice of hearing; Setting of hearing date [AMENDED]
195:3-1-4.1. Matters prior to the hearing Preliminary hearing matters, discovery and subpoenas [AMENDED]
195:3-1-5. Subpoenas and discovery [AMENDED]
195:3-1-5.1. Prehearing conference [REVOKED]
195:3-1-6. Procedure for hearings [AMENDED]
195:3-1-7. Issuance of final agency order [AMENDED]
195:3-1-8. Record of hearing [AMENDED]
195:3-1-9. Petition for promulgation, amendment, or repeal of rules [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. Supp. 2015, SEC. 328.15 et seq.; Board of Dentistry
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 16, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 10, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 10, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 13, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revision to Chapter 1 deletes sections and verbiage that is redundant, no longer needed or has been previously moved into the Oklahoma Dental Practice Act, 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq.
CONTACT PERSON:
Susan Rogers, Executive Director and General Counsel (405) 522-4844, Oklahoma Board of Dentistry, 2920 N Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
195:3-1-1.1.  Definitions
     The following words, when used in this chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Act" or "Dental Act" means the State Dental Act, Title 59 O.S. §§ 328.1 et. seq.thru 328.51(a).
"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.
"Complaint" means a written statement of complaint filed with the Board which is investigated or to be investigated by the Board and which may result in a formal Statement of Complaint in an individual proceeding filed pursuant to Article II of the Administrative Procedures Act.
"Hearing" means the trial mechanism employed by the Board in an individual proceeding.
"Individual proceeding" means the formal process by which the Board takes administrative action against a person licensed by the Board.
"License" means a license issued by the Board.
"Parties" means the respondent and the special prosecutor for the Board.
"Principal Administrative OfficerExecutive Director" means the Principal Administrative Officer of the Board and shall be definedpursuant to 59 O.S. § 328.15(B).
"Respondent" means the person against whom an individual proceeding is initiated.
"Review and investigative panel" means two Board members assigned to investigate Complaints against persons licensed by the Boardand shall be defined by 59 O.S. § 328.43(a).
"Staff" means the personnel of the Board.
195:3-1-2.  Investigations  [REVOKED]
(a)    Any person may file a written and signed complaint with the Board alleging that another person has sought to practice or has illegally practiced dentistry or dental hygiene or has violated the Act or rules of the Board. The complaint need not be on any particular form but must be in writing and signed before it is presented to the Board representative for filing.
(b)    Upon receipt of a complaint, the President of the Board shall appoint two Board members to act as a review panel during the investigation of the complaint. The review panel members shall not be from the same geographical region as that of the person named in the complaint or have a pecuniary interest in the outcome of the complaint. The review panel shall conduct or cause to be conducted an investigation and may utilize investigators and attorneys to conduct or assist in conducting the investigation. During the investigation, the review panel and investigators and attorneys may use any investigative mechanism authorized in the Act.
195:3-1-3.1.  Emergency hearing
     In the event the investigative and review panel determines that an emergency exists for which immediate action on a license is warranted, including but not limited to suspension or revocation, the investigative and review panel shall so advise the President of the Board. Upon concurrence of the President of the Board, the President may convene a special or emergency hearing of the Board pursuant to the Administrative Procedures Act of the Oklahoma Statutes to summarily take action on such license. A written statement of the allegations constituting the emergency shall be provided to the Board as soon as practicable before the hearing. Notice of the hearing and the written statement of allegations constituting the emergency shall be provided to the respondent as soon as practicable before an emergency hearing of the Board.
195:3-1-4.  Statement of Complaint and notice of hearing; Setting of hearing date
(a)    The Statement of Complaint issued by the investigative review panel Board shall set forth all allegations of violations of the Act, proposed sanctions and requests for costs and attorneys' fees. The Statement of Complaint shall be prepared by the Executive Director or attorney who assisted in the investigation, or if no attorney assisted in the investigation, or by the attorney who will prosecute the respondent in a hearing before the Board.
(b)    Upon the receipt of the statement of complaint, the Board President, shall serve as the Administrative Judge for the hearing with the assistance of judicial council, The statement of complaint shall be reviewed for sufficiency and he or she At the time the Board accepts the recommendation of the review panel that an individual proceeding be commenced,with the assistance of the judicial counselthe Board shall set a hearing date., which shall be no less than thirty (30) days after service of the Statement of Complaint on the respondent.
(c)    A "Notice of Hearing" shall be prepared by the Principal Administrative Officer Executive Director or the attorney assisting with the prosecution or acting as the prosecutor, and served on the respondent with the Statement of Complaint. The Notice of Hearing shall specify the time, place and nature of the hearing, the legal authority under which it is to be conducted and cite any relevant statutory provisions. Service of the Statement of Complaint and Notice of the Hearing may be in person or by certified mail at the official address as listed with the Board. Service of the Notice of the Hearing shall be complete upon return to the Board of a card showing receipt of certified mail by the respondent or return to the Board of an affidavit of personal service.
(d)    For the purpose of all hearing matters, in the event of a conflict of the President, the acting board president shall serve as the administrative judge.
195:3-1-4.1.  Matters prior to the hearing Preliminary hearing matters, discovery and subpoenas
(a)    The President of the Board may delegate any ministerial duties to the judicial counsel who shall serve as the Administrative Law Judge for all preliminary matters.
(b)    Attorneys representing Respondents shall file a formal entry of appearance with the Board and/or Administrative Law Judge.
(a)    At the same time the respondent is served with the Statement of Complaint and notice of the hearing, the respondent and prosecuting attorney (parties) shall be served with a scheduling order. The scheduling order shall be prepared by the attorney advising the Board and approved by the President of the Board. The scheduling order
(c)    A scheduling order shall be issued by the Administrative Law Judge and shall advise the parties of the closing date for the exchange of and filing of witness and exhibit lists, the discovery cut-off date, the cut-off date for the filing of dispositive motions and any other matters determined to be necessary. A prehearing conference date, set no less than fourteen (14) days prior to the hearing shall also be set in the scheduling order. Either party may file a written motion for modification of the scheduling order for good cause. The filing party must indicate whether the other party objects to the modification of the scheduling order.
(bd)    Either party may file a written motion for a change in the hearing date. The motion shall state the amount of time desired and the reason or reasons for the request. The motion shall be filed no less than ten (10)thirty (30) working days before the date of the action for which the motion is filed.
(c)    The President of the Board decide motions for modification of the scheduling order or for change in the hearing date for good cause shown by one of the parties. and the Board may utilize the services of an attorney on all matters arising prior to the hearing.
(d)    The President of the Board and the Board may utilize the services of an attorney on all matters arising prior to the hearing.
195:3-1-5.  Subpoenas and discovery
(a)    The parties may make written requests to the Board for the issuance of Subpoena or Subpoena Duces Tecum to persons desired as witnesses for depositions or for the hearing, and such Subpoenas Duces Tecum for the production of documents for discovery or the hearing. Such subpoenas shall may be issued by the President of the Board, the Administrative Law Judge or the Executive Director in the name of the Board. The requestor shall furnish the names and addresses of all such witnesses. The Principal Administrative officer is hereby authorized to receive requests for subpoenas and issue the same over the Principal Administrative Officer's signature with the same force and effect as if it were signed and issued by the president of the Board.
(b)    Requests for admission, requests for the production of documents, requests for inspection of property and depositions shall be permitted prior to the hearing. Objections to discovery requests will be permitted as in civil actions in the State of Oklahoma. Any dispute to the discovery requests will be decided by the President of the Board Administrative Law Judge.
195:3-1-5.1.  Prehearing conference  [REVOKED]
(a)    The scheduled prehearing conference may be held by telephone if agreed to by the parties or ordered by the President of the Board.
(b)    The attorney advising the Board shall, in the absence of the President of the Board, preside at the prehearing conference.
(c)    The purpose of the prehearing conference is to ensure that all prehearing matters have been addressed, that the issues to be addressed at the hearing have been identified, that all discovery has been completed and that all matters necessary for the conduct of an orderly hearing have been addressed.
(d)    An estimated length of the hearing shall be provided by the parties to the President of the Board.
195:3-1-6.  Procedure for hearings
(a)    The hearing shall be conducted under the Administrative Procedures Act of the Oklahoma statutes and shall be presided over by the President of the Board, with the assistance of the judicial counsel or the Vice-President in the absence of the President.In the event of the absence of of both the president and the Vice-President, the President shall designate a member of the Board to preside at the hearing in the case of absence or conflict. The rules of evidence used during the hearing shall be those specified by the Administrative Procedures Act. Witnesses shall be sworn upon oath and are subject to cross-examination. The President of the Board shall rule upon the admissibility of evidence or objections thereto, or upon other motions or objections arising in the hearing. The rulings of the President, in all questions, shall be the rulings of the Board unless reversed or modified by a majority vote of the Board.
(b)    The Board may utilize the services and advice of the judicial counselits Attorney (serving as legal advisor) regarding any matter of evidence, law, or procedure in the conduct of the hearing. All decisions concerning objections or procedure shall be made by the presiding Board member. A Board Attorney shall act as Special Prosecutor for the Board although any Board member may inquire of any witness concerning matters deemed relevant and competent and not otherwise offered into evidence.
(c)    The Board shall admit and give probative effect all competent, relevant, and probative evidence, both oral and documentary, which tends to prove or disprove the allegations of the complaint. The board may exclude incompetent, irrelevant, immaterial and unduly repetitious evidence. The Board shall, insofar as possible, give effect to the fundamental rules of evidence recognized in courts of law. True copies of documents may be received if the original is unavailable. The Board is possessed of specialized knowledge, and such knowledge will be utilized along with all the evidence in arriving at a decision, when the complaint or investigation involves questions calling for such specialized knowledge. The standard of proof upon the Board in such hearing is by clear and convincing evidence.
(d)    Whenever all the evidence has been presented, the respondent shall be afforded an opportunity to be heard in argument relative to the matters in issue.
195:3-1-7.  Issuance of final agency order
     After all parties involved in the individual proceeding have concluded their presentation, the Board jury panel shall deliberate, in executive session if desired. The Board jury panel shall vote in open session whether the Act was violated by the respondent. The Board shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law if it determines that the respondent violated the Act. If the Board finds that the Act was violated, the Board shall deliberate, in executive session if desired, to determine what, if any, sanctions shall be imposed upon the respondent. A final agency order will be prepared later in written form and mailed or to respondent at his last known officeofficial address as listed by the Board and/or their attorney. The final agency order shall include separately stated Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law and if respondent is found guilty of violations of the State Dental Act or enters his admissions thereof, the final agency order shall include the sanction or sanctions assessed. Appeals from the decision of the Board may be taken as provided by law.
195:3-1-8.  Record of hearing
(a)    A record of all hearings shall be made. The record may be made by means of electronic, digital or stenographic means whichever the presiding officer designates. A transcript of the proceeding shall not be prepared except upon written application. The party requesting the transcript shall pay for its costs. Parties to any proceeding may have the proceeding transcribed by a court reporter at their own expense.
(b)    The record of the hearing and the file containing the pleadings, motions, final agency order and other administrative records will be maintained in a place designated by the Principal Administrative OfficerExecutive Director of the Board. The tapedigital or other type of recording audio or video or transcript of the proceeding shall be maintained for a period of one year. If the matter is on appeal, these records will be maintained until all appeals have been finally exhausted.
(c)    If the respondent desires a stenographic record at the hearing, he or she shall make arrangements for the court reporter to be present at the hearing. If the stenographic record is transcribed, a copy shall be provided to the other party and the Board at the respondent's expense.
195:3-1-9.  Petition for promulgation, amendment, or repeal of rules  [REVOKED]
     All interested persons may request the Board to promulgate, amend or repeal a rule, such request to be made in writing and filed with the Executive Secretary. The request shall set forth fully the reasons for its submission; the alleged need or necessity therefor; whether or not the proposal conflicts with any existing rule, and what, if any, statutory provisions are involved. Such request shall be considered by the Board at its next regular meeting or may be continued for further consideration to a subsequent meeting. Upon this preliminary consideration, if the Board approves the proposed change, notice will be given that at a subsequent Board meeting, such proposal will be formally considered for adoption. If however, the Board initially determines that the proposal or request is not a necessary rule, amendment or repeal, the same will be refused and the decision reflected in the regular minutes of the Board.
[OAR Docket #23-578; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 195.  Board of Dentistry
CHAPTER 4.  Catastrophic Health Emergency Plan
[OAR Docket #23-579]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
195:4-1-1. Purpose [REVOKED]
195:4-1-2. Recognition of dental providers [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. Supp. 2015, SEC. 328.15 et seq.; Board of Dentistry
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 16, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 10, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 10, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 13, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revision to Chapter 1 deletes sections and verbiage that is redundant, no longer needed or has been previously moved into the Oklahoma Dental Practice Act, 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq.
CONTACT PERSON:
Susan Rogers, Executive Director and General Counsel (405) 522-4844, Oklahoma Board of Dentistry, 2920 N Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
195:4-1-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The Board of Dentistry shall recognize a declared emergency and implement the existing Catastrophic Health Emergency Plan. All alternative standards of care shall be authorized during an official declared emergency as directed by the Board of Dentistry. The Executive Director shall be responsible for coordination of the dental profession's response, maintenance of necessary dental databases and activation of an emergency "phone tree"
195:4-1-2.  Recognition of dental providers  [REVOKED]
     Dentists, dental hygienists and dental assistants should be considered as "acting within the scope of his or her profession when providing all needed care during a declared local, state or national emergency", and should be allowed to perform services requested of them when working under the supervision of a dentist or physician.
[OAR Docket #23-579; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 195.  Board of Dentistry
CHAPTER 10.  Examinations and Licensing of Dentists, Dental Hygienists and Dental Specialists
[OAR Docket #23-580]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Examination for Dentists and Dental Hygienists
195:10-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
195:10-1-2. Eligibility to take examination and applicationApplication procedure [AMENDED]
195:10-1-3. Contents of examination [REVOKED]
Subchapter 3. Examination for Dental Hygienists [REVOKED]
195:10-3-1. Purpose [REVOKED]
195:10-3-2. Eligibility to take examination and application procedure [AMENDED]
195:10-3-3. Contents of examination [REVOKED]
Subchapter 5. Reciprocity and Criteria Approval
195:10-5-2. Requirements for reciprocal licensure [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Issuance of Temporary Licenses to Dental Hygienists, Faculty Permits, and Dental Intern Permits [REVOKED]
195:10-7-1. Purpose [REVOKED]
195:10-7-2. Requirements for the issuance of temporary licenses [REVOKED]
195:10-7-3. Temporary permits for internships, residencies, and dentist Employed by the State Health Department and dental school or dental hygiene school faculty permits [REVOKED]
Subchapter 9. Recognition of Specialties
195:10-9-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
195:10-9-2. Specialties recognized by the Board and qualifying requirements [AMENDED]
Subchapter 11. Specialty Examinations [REVOKED]
195:10-11-1. Purpose [REVOKED]
195:10-11-2. Time of examinations [REVOKED]
195:10-11-3. Temporary licenses not issued [REVOKED]
195:10-11-4. Significance of specialty license; limitations of practice [REVOKED]
195:10-11-5. Recognition of graduate education [REVOKED]
195:10-11-6. Reexamination [REVOKED]
195:10-11-7. The application for examination [REVOKED]
195:10-11-8. Failure to appear; subsequent examination [REVOKED]
195:10-11-9. The Examination Committee [REVOKED]
195:10-11-10. The examination [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. Supp. 2015, SEC. 328.15 et seq.; Board of Dentistry
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 16, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 10, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 10, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 13, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revision to Chapter 1 deletes sections and verbiage that is redundant, no longer needed or has been previously moved into the Oklahoma Dental Practice Act, 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq.
CONTACT PERSON:
Susan Rogers, Executive Director and General Counsel (405) 522-4844, Oklahoma Board of Dentistry, 2920 N Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Examination for Dentists and Dental Hygienists
195:10-1-1.  Purpose
     The rules of this subchapter set forth the application procedures for the Board's requirements for licensing examination for dentists or dental hygienists. They also specify the subject matter of the examination and the passing score.
195:10-1-2.  Eligibility to take examination and applicationApplication procedure
     All persons desiring to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in the State of Oklahoma.shall be required to pass satisfactorily an examination before receiving a license. An applicant, to be acceptable for examination for a license to practice dentistry in Oklahoma, must fulfill the following requirements:
(1)    Make application to the Board in writing. Forms are available upon request, from the Office of the Board. Applicants must fill out and return a fully completed official application to the Board.
(2)    Be twenty-one years of age or over.The requirements for dental hygiene licenses are set forth in 59 O.S. § 328.21.
(3)    Return the completed application, at least thirty (30) days prior to the announced dates for the examination. The application must be accompanied by a certified check or United States Postal Money Order to pay the examination fee as required by the Board, but not to exceed Two Hundred Dollars ($200).Applicants must complete and return the official application of the Board, at least thirty (30) days prior to the next scheduled board meeting. The application must be accompanied by a check or money order to pay the application fee as set forth by law.
(4)    No application will be accepted less than thirty (30) days prior to the announced dates for the examination.
(5)    After the application has been processed and the applicant has been notified to appear before the Board for examination, and should the applicant fail to appear for the examination, his or her file and fee will be considered forfeited. Should the applicant file for a subsequent examination, such applicant will be considered a new applicant, and the fee for such examination will be as for other new applicants. A new application must be submitted each time an applicant expresses a desire to be examined.
(64)    If the applicant has not completed his or her last term in Dental or Dental Hygiene School prior to making application, the Dean of the School shouldshall certify that he or she is a candidate for graduation, in order that the application can be processed. No applicant will be allowed to take the examination until the Secretary of the Board has in possession a photostatic copy of the applicant's diploma.
(75)    Applicants who are licensed and practicing dentistry in another state must present with the application a photostatic copy of his or her degreedegree(s) and a letter of good standing from any state in which they ever held a dental or dental hygiene license.statement or certificate signed by the Secretary of the State Dental Board of the state in which he or she is licensed that the applicant is engaged in the actual, lawful, practice of dentistry.
(86)    The Board recognizes only those applicants who are students or graduates of Dental Schools in the United Statesor Canada, approved, conditionally, or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, and the applicant must have or will receive a D.D.S. or D.M.D. Degree from that school.
(97)    Applicant must attach a recent passport type photograph of self in place so designated on application blank.
(108)    Applicant must present with application, a (official) transcript of his or her grades received during his or her academic years of training in dental school.
(11)    Applicants shall be required to successfully complete Part I and Part II of the National Board (written theoretical) examination. Part I of the National Board examination shall be required prior to graduation from an accredited dental program. All dental applicants shall be required to complete Part II of the National Board examination within twenty-four (24) months of their date of graduation from an accredited dental program.
(129)    Applicant will appear for personal interview, as requested by the Board.
(1310)    Applicants qualifying for a regional examination recognized by the Board who fail to make the required grade will not be issued a license, but may retake the examination specified in 59 O.S. Section 328.21 (F). The additional examinations will require a fee as set by the Board. Clinical examinations are recognized for a period of five-years.
(1411)    Should an applicant fail the second clinical examination before further re-examination the Board may require evidence of additional education. After the third examination, the Board may deny the applicant further examination. Clinical examinations are recognized for a period of five-years.
(15)    If the applicant successfully passes the examination and is licensed to practice dentistry in Oklahoma, he or she will be required to pay an annual registration fee each year, or his or her license will be cancelled as provided by law.
(16)    A copy of the State Dental Act of Oklahoma and Rules and Regulations promulgated by the Board will be mailed to applicant with letter of notification acknowledging receipt of application.
(17)    Applicants must show proof of malpractice insurance pertaining to acts performed at, during or for the clinical examination.
(18)    Applicants must furnish their own patients, instruments, and materials.
(1912)    Address communications to the current address of the BOARD OF DENTISTRY office. Any licensee moving must notify the Board within 30 days of their new address.
(13)    Applicants must pass the Oklahoma Jurisprudence examination with a 70% or higher grade.
195:10-1-3.  Contents of examination  [REVOKED]
     The examination for a license to practice dentistry in Oklahoma will consist of:
(1)     Theoretical examination.
(A)    A theoretical examination which will be written and will usually consist of questions on the subjects of:
(i)    Operative Dentistry,
(ii)    Pharmacology, Prosthodontics,
(iii)    Oral Surgery/Anesthesia,
(iv)    Orthodontics/Pedodontics,
(v)    Oral Path/Radiology,
(vi)    Endodontics/Periodontics,
(vii)    Anatomic Sciences,
(viii)    Biochem/Physiology,
(ix)    Microbiology/Pathology, and
(x)    Dental Anatomy.
(B)    A passing score will be required to be obtained on each subject of the theoretical examination or the applicant will not be licensed to practice dentistry in the State of Oklahoma.
(C)    The Board may accept results of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations in lieu of its theoretical examination.
(2)     Written examination on the State Dental Act and the Board's rules. A passing score as determined by the Board is required on a written examination on the State Dental Act of Oklahoma and the rules promulgated by the Board.
(3)     Clinical examination.
(A)    Clinical examinations may be conducted by a national or regional testing agency recognized by the Board or at times and places determined appropriate by the Board and depending upon numbers of applications received.
(B)    A passing score must be obtained in the recognized clinical examination(s) to be eligible for licensure.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Examination for Dental Hygienists  [REVOKED]
195:10-3-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The rules of this subchapter set forth the application procedure for the Board's licensing examination for Dental Hygienists. They also specify the subject matter.
195:10-3-2.  Eligibility to take examination and application procedure  [REVOKED]
     All persons desiring to practice dental hygiene in Oklahoma shall be required to pass satisfactorily an examination before receiving a Certificate of Ability to practice. An applicant, to be acceptable for examination for a Certificate of Ability to practice dental hygiene in Oklahoma, must fulfill the following requirements:
(1)    Make application to the Board in writing. Forms are available upon request from the Office of the Board.
(2)    Applicant must be eighteen years of age or over.
(3)    Return the completed application at least thirty (30) days prior to the announced dates of the examination. The application must be accompanied by a Certified Check or United States Postal Money Order in an amount as set by the Board but not to exceed $100.
(4)    No application will be accepted for processing less than thirty (30) days before the announced dates of the examination.
(5)    After an application has been processed and the applicant notified to appear before the Board for examination, and should the applicant fail to appear for the examination, his or her file and fee will not be returned, and the fee will be considered forfeited and any temporary permit terminated. Should the applicant file for a subsequent examination, such applicant will be considered a new applicant and the fee for such examination will be as for other new applicants. New applications must be submitted each time an applicant expresses a desire to be examined.
(6)    If the applicant has not completed his or her last term in Dental Hygiene School prior to making application, the Dean of the Dental School or Director of the Dental Hygiene School should certify that he or she is a candidate for graduation in order that the application can be processed. No applicant will be allowed to take theexamination until the Secretary of the Board has in possession, a photostatic copy of his or her Dental Hygiene Certificate of Graduation or diploma.
(7)    An applicant who is not graduating from a Dental Hygiene School the year in which making application must present with the application a photostatic copy of his or her certificate and a statement or certificate signed by the Secretary of the State Dental Board of the state in which he or she is registered stating the applicant is in good standing.
(8)    The Board recognizes only those applicants who are students or graduates of a Dental Hygiene School in the United States or Canada approved, conditionally or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, and the applicant must have, or will receive a Dental Hygiene Certificate from that school.
(9)    Applicant must attach a recent passport type photograph of self in place so designated on the application blank.
(10)    Applicant must present with application a transcript of grades received during his or her academic years of training in Dental Hygiene School.
(11)    Applicant will appear for personal interview, as requested by the Board.
(12)    Applicants must furnish their patients, instruments and material. Applicants must show proof of malpractice insurance pertaining to acts performed at, during or for the examination.
(13)    Applicants qualifying for an examination formulated and administered by the Board who fail to make the required grade will not be issued a Certificate of Ability, but may retake the examination. The additional examinations will require a fee as set by the Board.
(14)    Should an applicant fail the second clinical examination before further re-examination the Board may require evidence of additional education. After the third examination, the Board may deny the applicant further examination.
(15)    If the applicant successfully passes the examination and is granted a Certificate of Ability to practice dental hygiene in the State of Oklahoma, he or she will be required to pay an annual registration fee each year or his or her Certificate of Ability will be cancelled as provided by law.
(16)    A copy of the State Dental Act of Oklahoma and Rules and Regulations promulgated by the Board will be mailed to applicant with application.
(17)    All communications should be addressed to the current address of the BOARD OF DENTISTRY, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma.
195:10-3-3.  Contents of examination  [REVOKED]
     The examination for a license to practice dentistry in Oklahoma will consist of:
(1)     Theoretical examination.
(A)    A theoretical examination which will be written and will usually consist of questions on the subjects of:
(i)    Operative Dentistry,
(ii)    Pharmacology, Prosthodontics,
(iii)    Oral Surgery/Anesthesia,
(iv)    Orthodontics/Pedodontics,
(v)    Oral Path/Radiology,
(vi)    Endodontics/Periodontics,
(vii)    Anatomic Sciences,
(viii)    Biochem/Physiology,
(ix)    Microbiology/Pathology, and
(x)    Dental Anatomy.
(B)    A passing score will be required to be obtained on each subject of the theoretical examination or the applicant will not be licensed to practice dentistry in the State of Oklahoma.
(C)    The Board may accept results of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations in lieu of its theoretical examination.
(2)     Written examination on the State Dental Act and the Board's rules. A passing score as determined by the Board is required on a written examination on the State Dental Act of Oklahoma and the rules promulgated by the Board.
(3)     Clinical examination.
(A)    Clinical examinations may be conducted by a national or regional testing agency recognized by the Board or at times and places determined appropriate by the Board and depending upon numbers of applications received.
(B)    A passing score must be obtained in the recognized clinical examination(s) to be eligible for licensure.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Reciprocity and Criteria Approval
195:10-5-2.  Requirements for reciprocal licensure
(a)    The Board of Dentistry of the State of Oklahoma pursuant to the State Dental Act may license without examination any person who has been duly licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in any state or territory of the United States, if said person produces satisfactory evidence to the Board that he or she has the required education and training and is in good standing, and does meet every other requirement set forth in 59 O.S. § 328.21(H) of the State Dental Act and as may be set forth by this board. meet the following requirements:
(b)    The applicant must:
(1)    Have been in active practice for at least five (5) years (two (2) for dental hygienists) immediately prior to making application (can include internship, residency, military, teaching, at the discretion of the Board).
(21)    Have completed required application form with all supporting data and certification of licensure in good standing from all states licensed.
(32)    Have paid required fee (non-refundable).
(4)    Have passed at least one practical examination for licensure that is equivalent to the examination required by Oklahoma.
(53)    Have taken and passed the Oklahoma Jurisprudence Examination with a 70% passage rate.
(64)    Have completed or satisfied any other requirements as may be set by the Board.
(75)    Have successfully completed the National Board examinations administered by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations.
(86)    Meet all requirements of the State Dental Act.
(9)    Submit proof of a Federal registration in good standing for prescribing, dispensing, or administering controlled dangerous substances, if applicant is a dentist.
(107)    Submit recent color passport type photograph.
(11)    Have all time units accounted for.
(128)    Application must also include copy of diploma, National Board examination grades and transcript of dental and/or dental hygiene school grades.
(139)    Three letters of recommendation from professional associates, i.e.: Associations, Boards, including letters from employers and associates listed under Practice History(Section 6 of the application). These letters should be mailed directly to the Board.
(c)    The applicant may be requested to appear for personal interview.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Issuance of Temporary Licenses to Dental Hygienists, Faculty Permits, and Dental Intern Permits  [REVOKED]
195:10-7-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The rules set forth in this subchapter establish the procedure for applying for temporary licenses to practice dental hygiene, faculty permits, and dental intern permits. They also set forth the criteria for granting such temporary licenses.
195:10-7-2.  Requirements for the issuance of temporary licenses  [REVOKED]
     Temporary licenses to practice dental hygiene may be issued by the Board at its discretion to Dental Hygienists under the following terms and conditions:
(1)     Requirements for application. An applicant for a temporary license to practice dental hygiene in Oklahoma shall file an application with the Board to take the next clinical examination required by the Board. Applicant must enclose with his or her application:
(A)    National Board scores.
(B)    Copy of Dental Hygiene Certificate of diploma from an accredited dental hygiene program.
(C)    Submit a certificate verifying the results of the examination given to the applicant by the state or jurisdiction in which such applicant was heretofore issued a license to practice dental hygiene and a copy of the current license in good standing from the state.
(C)    Must furnish proof of active practice in the two years preceding application.
(D)    Must submit four (3) letters of recommendation.
(E)    Submit an official transcript of dental hygiene school.
(2)     Issuance of a temporary license, expiration date. After examination of the documents submitted with the application, if the Board finds that the applicant successfully passed the examination given by the other state or jurisdiction, is in good standing, and that the nature and extent of the examination given by the other state was equivalent to the clinical examination required by the Board, then the Board may issue to the applicant a temporary license to practice dental hygiene in the State of Oklahoma. Such temporary license shall expire as of the date the next clinical examinations required by the Board.
(3)     Fee. A fee as set by the Board shall be charged for the issuance of a temporary license.
(4)     Examination on State Dental Act and Rules. Applicants for a temporary license must come to the Board's office and pass a test regarding the content of the State Dental Act and Rules before a temporary license will be issued.
(5)     Personal Interview. Applicant may be requested to appear for personal interview with the Board and/or its designated agent.
(6)    The issuance of a temporary license gives said dental hygienist the same rights and privileges as a license in good standing, therefore, the responsibilities will be the same as one who holds a permanent license to practice dental hygiene; such dental hygienist will be liable and governed by all rules as one who holds an active license in good standing to practice dental hygiene.
195:10-7-3.  Temporary permits for internships, residencies, and dentist Employed by the State Health Department and dental school or dental hygiene school faculty permits  [REVOKED]
     Permits for internships, residencies, dentists employed by the State Health Department, and dental school or dental hygiene school faculty members may be issued by the Board to non-licensed dentists. Requests for temporary permits must be submitted by the Department Head and an application must be filed with the Board the same as if applying to take the Board's examination. Fees for issuance of such permits will be as set by the Board not to exceed $100. Each applicant must successfully complete examination over the State Dental Practice Act
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Recognition of Specialties
195:10-9-1.  Purpose
     The rules of this subchapter set forth the requirements for applications for a specialty license pursuant to 59 O.S. § 328.22.specialties within the field of dentistry that are recognized by the Board.
195:10-9-2.  Specialties recognized by the Board and qualifying requirements
(a)    The Board will at its discretion, recognize only those specialties as listed in 59 O.S. § 328.22 and approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association or a Board or Program recognized by the National Commission on Recognition of Dental Specialties and Certifying Boards.(Title 59 O.S. 328.22).The following specialties are recognized and defined by the Board, and any dentist, must fulfill the listed requirements to be allowed to take the examination.
(b)    Candidates for licensure must meet all educational or other requirements of the CODA program or certifying specialty board to apply for a specialty dental license.
(c)    Candidates must complete all sections of the application form as requested by the Board, submit fees and proper documents in the manner as requested in the application.
(d)    A complete application with all requested documents for a specialty license must be submitted at least thirty (30) days prior to the meeting date to be heard.
(e)    Definitions of dental specialties may be considered or utilized from the Commission on Dental Accreditation and/or a CODA approved program or a definition as recognized by the National Commission on Recognition of Dental Specialties and Certifying Boards.
(1)     Oral and Maxillofacial surgery.
(A)    Definition: The diagnosis, surgical and adjunctive treatment of diseases, injuries and defects involving both the functional and esthetic aspects of the hard and soft tissues of the oral and maxillofacial region.
(B)    Requirements: Certificate of satisfactory completion of advanced training program in Oral Surgery approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association and in a hospital approved by the Council on Hospital and Institutional Dental Service of the American Dental Association. This training program shall be for a minimum of three (3) years.
(2)     Orthodontics and Dentofacial Orthopedics.
(A)    Definition: The diagnosis, prevention, interception and correction of malocclusion, as well as neuromuscular and skeletal abnormalities of the developing or mature orafacial structures.
(B)    Requirements: A minimum of two academic years of graduate training in a school approved or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.
(3)     Pediatric Dentistry.
(A)    Definition: Pediatric Dentistry is an age defined specialty that provides both primary and comprehensive preventive and therapeutic oral health care for infants and children through adolescence, including those with special health care needs.
(B)    Requirements: Two academic years of graduate study in a school approved or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.
(4)     Periodontics.
(A)    Definition: Periodontics is that specialty of dentistry which encompasses the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the supporting and surrounding tissues of the teeth or their substitutes and the maintenance of the health, function and esthetics of these structures and tissues.
(B)    Requirements: Two academic years of graduate training in Periodontics in a school or other institution approved or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.
(5)     Prosthodontics.
(A)    Definition: Prosthodontics is the dental specialty pertaining to the diagnosis, treatment planning, rehabilitation and maintenance of the oral function, comfort, appearance and health of patients with clinical conditions associated with missing or deficient teeth and/or oral and maxillofacial tissues using biocompatible substitutes.
(B)    Requirements: Successful completion of a two (2) year Prosthodontics Specialty Program resulting in a masters degree or certification approved or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.
(6)    Endodontics
(A)    Definition: Endodontics is the branch of dentistry which is concerned with the morphology, physiology and pathology of the human dental pulp and periradicular tissues. Its study and practice encompass the basic and clinical sciences including biology of the normal pulp, the etiology, diagnosis, prevention and treatment of diseases and injuries of the pulp and associated periradicular conditions.
(B)    Requirements: Applicant must be a diplomate of the American Board of Endodontics or be certified as having successfully completed at least an eighteen-month graduate training program in endodontics, which is recognized and accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association and approved by the American Association of Endodontists.
(7)     Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology.
(A)    Definition: Oral pathology is the specialty of dentistry and discipline of pathology that deals with the nature, identification, and management of diseases affecting the oral and maxillofacial regions. It is a science that investigates the causes, processes, and effects of these diseases. The practice of oral pathology includes research and diagnosis of diseases using clinical, radiographic microscopic biochemical, or other examinations.
(B)    Requirements: Two years or six quarters of graduate study in a school approved or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.
(8)    Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology
(A)    Definition: The specialty of dentistry and discipline of radiology concerned with the production and interpretation of images and data produced by all modalities of radiant energy that are used for the diagnosis and management of diseases, disorders and conditions of the oral and maxillofacial region.
(B)    Requirements: Two years of graduate study in a school approved or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.
(9)    Dental Public Health
(A)    Definition:The science and art of preventing and controlling dental diseases and promoting dental health through organized community efforts. It is that form of dental practice which serves the community as a patient rather than the individual. It is concern with the dental health education of the public, with applied dental research, and with the administration of group dental care programs as well as the prevention and control of dental diseases on a community basis.
(B)    Requirements: A two-year dental public health program must encompass a minimum of two academic years in duration or a one- year dental public health program must encompass a minimum of twelve (12) months in duration with the applicant's possession of the degree of M.P.H. or a comparable degree. The advanced study program shall be a school approved or provisionally approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Specialty Examinations  [REVOKED]
195:10-11-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The rules of this subchapter set forth the procedures governing applications for specialty examinations. These rules set forth the subject matter of these examinations.
195:10-11-2.  Time of examinations  [REVOKED]
     Specialty examinations will be conducted in June of each year. At the discretion of the Board and upon receipt of a sufficient number of applications, specialty examinations may also be conducted in January.
195:10-11-3.  Temporary licenses not issued  [REVOKED]
     No temporary licenses will be issued.
195:10-11-4.  Significance of specialty license; limitations of practice  [REVOKED]
     The issuing of a specialist license by the Board is a special privilege granted to that member, which allows him to announce to the public that he is especially qualified in a particular branch of dentistry. Any member granted this special privilege must limit his practice to the specialty in which he is licensed.
195:10-11-5.  Recognition of graduate education  [REVOKED]
     The Board will not recognize any graduate education except that which is obtained at a University level. Only advanced dental specialty educational programs accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association shall be recognized.
195:10-11-6.  Reexamination  [REVOKED]
     An applicant who fails to achieve the required grade of 75% will not be issued a license but may take the examination at a subsequent date as announced by the Board. The applicant will be entitled to one additional examination for an additional fee. An applicant failing the examination on a second time may be re- examined, at the discretion of the Board. The fee for any subsequent examination will be the regular fee. After a third failure, the Board may deny applicant another examination or a specialty license.
195:10-11-7.  The application for examination  [REVOKED]
     An applicant who has fulfilled the necessary requirements and desires to take the examination for licensure in a Specialty, must:
(1)    Make application to the Board in writing. Forms will be furnished and are available at the Office of the Board.
(2)    Return the completed application, with all supporting documents attached thereto, at least thirty (30) days prior to the announced dates for the examination. The application must be accompanied by a certified check or postal money order for the required fee, not to exceed $300. No application will be accepted for processing less than thirty (30) days prior to the announced dates for the examination.
(3)    Submit a certificate reflecting completion of an accredited advanced training program. If the applicant has not yet graduated, the program chair or department head must send a letter designating the date of completion. No applicant will be allowed to take the specialty examination unless an official letter is confirmed.
195:10-11-8.  Failure to appear; subsequent examination  [REVOKED]
     After the application has been processed and the applicant has been notified to appear before the Board for examination, and should the applicant fail to appear for said examination, the file and fee will not be returned and the fee shall be considered forfeited. Should the applicant file for a subsequent examination, applicant will be considered a new applicant and the fee for such examination shall be as for other new applicants.
195:10-11-9.  The Examination Committee  [REVOKED]
(a)    The Specialty Examination Committee will consist of two or more members who are licensed in the Specialty in which the examination is being given, together with one or more Members of the Board. The Chairperson of the Committee will be a Dentist Member of the Board. All members of this Committee are to be appointed by the President of the Board. At the close of the examination, each Member of the Examination Committee will submit to the Board, a written report as to the passing or failing of the applicant.
(b)    If the Board elects to change the majority decision of the Examination Committee as to the passing or failing of the applicant, the Board will request the presence of the Members of the Examination Committee who are not Members of the Board to sit with the Board and discuss the examination. The Board hereby declares that the report of any Examination Committee is advisory only, and that it reserves the right in its discretion to adopt or reject such report. Only the Board shall designate the time and date or release the results of the examination. Specialty examiners shall not change the date, time, or content of examination.
195:10-11-10.  The examination  [REVOKED]
     An applicant for licensure in a Specialty shall satisfactorily pass such examination as the Board may require. The examination will be both theoretical and practical.
(1)    Theoretical examination. The theoretical examination shall be in writing and will include all the subjects that are pertinent to the Specialty in which the applicant desires to be licensed. Written examinations may be supplemented by oral examinations. The Board shall accept any and all test results from the respective American Board(s) regarding written examinations for all specialties. Written specialty examinations recognized by a regional testing agency may also be accepted as approved by the Board.
(2)    Practical examination. The practical examination will be designed to test the applicant's knowledge and skill of all phases of diagnosis and treatment in the specialty in which the applicant desires to be licensed. This may consist of case reports, clinical procedures on patients, and laboratory work. The following practical examinations will be required in the respective specialties:
(A)    Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery.
(i)    Surgical anatomy of the Head and Neck with both written and oral examination on subjects relating to Oral Surgery.
(ii)    Applicant will furnish a list of fifteen (15) (within three (3) years) hospital cases (including case histories), certified by the Hospital Administrator, demonstrating diversities of experience in Oral Surgery.
(B)    Orthodontics.
(i)    Applicants for examination must submit the following pretreatment and post-treatment record materials for two cases treated exclusively by the applicants: Cephalometric radiographs, Cephalometric analysis, study models, extraoral photographs (profile and front view) and general radiographs or panoramic radiographs. One case must be treated by extraction of first or second premolars. Mutilated cases and surgical cases are not eligible. Applicants enrolled in a residency whose term is more than 24 months (or whose term is more than 30 days past the examination date in June) will be allowed to bring records of one case in progress in lieu of a completed case with case records as described for finished cases, provided that these cases have been treated solely by the applicant and have been in treatment at least 18 months.
(ii)    Applicant must be prepared to demonstrate his ability to construct appliances on models or typodont submitted by applicant.
(iii)    Applicant will be expected to diagnose and treatment plan cases provided by the Examining Committee.
(C)    Pediatric Dentistry.
(i)    Evaluation of the oral and perioral soft and hard tissues of a child.
(ii)    Evaluation of the growth and development of a child and interceptive procedures as indicated.
(iii)    Oral disease prevention and control for a child. Operative procedures for a child including amalgam, composite, and stainless steel crowns.
(D)    Periodontics.
(i)    Each applicant must submit two case reports that must be original, composed by the applicant, and of periodontal cases treated by the applicant. Both cases must have been treated within the last five (5) years. Both cases must document generalized moderate periodontitis (AAP Case Type III or greater) in both arches; there should be at least moderate pocket depth and moderate bone loss. Cases must be of sufficient complexity to test the diagnostic and therapeutic competence of an expert in periodontics.
(ii)    The applicant will successfully complete an oral examination on periodontics and the cases presented.
(iii)    The applicant will successfully complete a written examination on periodontics.
(E)    Prosthodontics.
(i)    All applicants must submit a patient history and treatment record of a patient for whom the required fabrication of at least two partial dentures involving both the maxilla and the mandible has been completed. One of the partial dentures must be fixed, replacing one or more teeth; and one must be removable, incorporating a unilateral or bilateral distal extension base.
(ii)    The applicant will successfully complete an oral examination on prosthodontics and the case presentation.
(iii)    The applicant will successfully complete a written examination on prosthodontics.
(F)    Endodontics.
(i)    The presentation of ten cases, which were treated by the applicant, and which have follow-up radiographs.
(ii)    An oral and written examination.
(G)    Oral Pathology.
(i)    An oral examination with a qualified pathologist as specified, required, and selected by the Board.
(ii)    A written microscopic and clinical examination.
[OAR Docket #23-580; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 195.  Board of Dentistry
CHAPTER 15.  Duties for Dental Assistants and the Rules Regulating the Practice of Dental Hygiene
[OAR Docket #23-581]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
195:15-1-1.1. Definitions [AMENDED]
195:15-1-2. Responsibility of employing dentist for dental hygienists and dental assistants [AMENDED]
195:15-1-3. Duties that may be delegated to dental assistants [REVOKED]
195:15-1-4. Education and Training for Expandedexpanded duty permits for dental assistants; fees [AMENDED]
195:15-1-5. Duties not assignable to dental assistants [AMENDED]
195:15-1-6. Procedures that may be delegated to dental hygienists [AMENDED]
195:15-1-6.1. Advanced procedures for dental hygienists [AMENDED]
195:15-1-8. Guide to curriculum development for expanded duties or advanced procedures [REVOKED]
195:15-1-9. Committee on Allied Dental Education [REVOKED]
195:15-1-10. Dental Hygiene Advisory Committee [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. Supp. 2015, SEC. 328.15 et seq.; Board of Dentistry
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 16, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 10, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 10, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 13, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revision to Chapter 1 deletes sections and verbiage that is redundant, no longer needed or has been previously moved into the Oklahoma Dental Practice Act, 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq.
CONTACT PERSON:
Susan Rogers, Executive Director and General Counsel (405) 522-4844, Oklahoma Board of Dentistry, 2920 N Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
195:15-1-1.1.  Definitions
     The definitions in 59 O.S. Section 328.3 shall apply to this chapter.The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Advanced procedure" means a dental procedure for which a dental hygienist has received special training in a course of study approved by the Board.
"Dental hygiene" means the science and practice of the promotion of oral health and prevention and treatment of oral disease through the provision of educational, therapeutic, clinical and preventive services.
"Direct supervision" is defined by Title 59 O.S. Section 328.3 (State Dental Act).
"Expanded duty" means a dental procedure for which a dental assistant has received special training in a course of study approved by the Board.
"General supervision" is defined by Title 59 O.S. Section 328.3 (State Dental Act).
"Indirect supervision" is defined by Title 59 O.S. Section 328.3 (State Dental Act).
"Patient" or "patient of record" means an individual who has given a medical history, and has been examined and accepted for dental care by a dentist.
"Supervision" means direct supervision, indirect supervision, or general supervision.
195:15-1-2.  Responsibility of employing dentist for dental hygienists and dental assistants
     Every dentist who employs or supervises one or more dental hygienists or dental assistants has the primary responsibility to ensure that the dental hygienists or dental assistants do not perform any procedure or duty except as authorized by this Chapter or the State Dental Act. No dentist shall delegate to a dental hygienist or dental assistant, nor shall any dental hygienist or dental assistant perform, any procedure or duty not authorized by this Chapter or the State Dental Act.
195:15-1-3.  Duties that may be delegated to dental assistants  [REVOKED]
(a)    It is the determination of the Board that many duties performed by a dental assistant are of a nature which do not require formal training or a permit from the Board in order to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public. Except as otherwise provided in 195:15-1-4 and 195:15-1-5, a dentist may delegate to a dental assistant any duty for which the dental assistant has received adequate office-based training by the supervisory dentist to ensure that the dental assistant is properly aware of all requirements and responsibilities of each duty to be performed.
(b)    Duties delegated to a dental assistant may be performed only on a patient of record and only under the direct supervision of a dentist.
195:15-1-4.  Education and Training for Expanded expanded duty permits for dental assistants; fees
(a)    It is the determination of the Board that certain duties may be performed by a dental assistant who has satisfactorily completed a course of study regarding the performance of such duties. Applicants who successfully complete recognized expanded duty training at a formal dental assisting program approved by the Board and the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association shall be eligible for permits. Pursuant to paragraph 9 of subsection B of Dental assistants may apply for up to seven (7) expanded duty permits as found at 59 O.S., Section 328.15 328.24, upon successful completion of the following education and training requirements: the Board hereby establishes four (4) expanded duty permits for dental assistants with definitions, requirements, and course guidelines as follows:
(b)    Courses for dental assistant expanded duties as found at 59 O.S. §328.24(D), shall be provided in a CODA (Commission on Dental Accreditation) accredited school or affiliated with a CODA approved program, or another course meeting the same requirements as a CODA approved program and approved by the Board. Within thirty (30) days of completion of the course, each program shall send a copy of the syllabus and a list of the students that have passed the course to the Board. Programs must maintain class and syllabus records for five (5) years. Courses offered pursuant to this rule are subject to unannounced audits by the Board. Any Board member or designee of the Board shall be provided full access to course materials or the classroom or clinic during instruction. Failure to provide access pursuant to this provision may subject the provider to invalidation of course results.
(c)    Courses and/or certification programs for assisting a dentist with anesthesia, vaccinations, venipuncture and phlebotomy shall be approved by the Board.
(d)    All courses shall include State Dental Act statutes and rules and the United States Center for Disease Control (CDC) and United States Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) guidelines, safety protocols and requirements as utilized with each expanded duty.
(e)    Written examinations over didactic portions shall have a requirement of a 70% accuracy rate.
(f)    Student faculty ratio for each course shall be as required by CODA.
(g)    Students must submit an application for the expanded duty to the Board within two (2) years after the date of the completion of the course or the course will have to be repeated.
(h)    A dental assistant that has a previous action or sanction by the board within the previous (5) five years, shall not be eligible for an elder care public health permit.
(1)    Radiation Safety.
(A)    Definition: A dental assistant holding this expanded duty permit may expose intra-oral intraoral and extraoral radiographs.
(B)    RequirementRequirements: Satisfactory completion of a course of study in radiation safety and protection, consisting of a minimum of four (4)seven (7) hours of instruction., approved by the Board. After satisfactory completion of the course of study, each applicant shall submit written verification from the applicant's current employing dentist attesting to competent clinical experience.All applications shall contain both signatures of the employing dentist and the student.
(C)    Course Guidelines: The Radiation safety course shall be taught by licensed dentists or hygienists; or a dental assistant with a minimum of five (5) years of experience with a valid expanded duty permit. This course will
(i)    Minimum standards for courses to train dental assistants with a valid permit, to expose intraoral and extraoral radiographs.are as follows:
(DI)    The didactic portion shall include radiation physics and biology, health safety and protection and radiographic quality.The instruction level shall meet level 4 of the Board's Guide to Curriculum Development for Expanded Duties.
(II)    Courses shall be taught by licensed dentists, licensed dental hygienists or dental assistants who have been issued expanded duty permits in radiation safety by the Board. Further, instructors shall have a minimum of one year of experience exposing radiographs.
(III)    The course shall be a minimum of seven (7) hours in length for the instructional portion.
(IV)    Expanded duty permits will require a clinical portion in which each student shall complete 200 radiographs, no more than five can be panoramic, as certified by employing dentist.
(ii)    The course shallbe designed and conducted to provide each student with a thorough knowledge about the exposure of radiographs. Upon completion of the course, students shall be able to apply this knowledge to expose radiographs safely as instructed.
(iii)    The instruction portion of the course shall include instruction in:
(I)    Radiation physics;
(II)    Radiation biology;
(III)    Radiation health, safety and protection;
(IV)    Radiographic films and film quality;
(V)    Principles of radiographic techniques;
(VI)    Darkroom and processing techniques;
(VII)    Film mounting.
(iv)    Students shall be provided a course outline setting forth materials to be presented in the course and evaluation criteria established by the course provider for the course.
(v)    At one point during the course and upon completion of the class, students shall be evaluated by the course presenters by written examination. The examination shall cover the didactic portion of the course. Each student's written examinations shall be maintained by the course provider for a minimum period of one (1) year following completion of the examination. Each course provider shall, prior to beginning a course, allow a member of the Board or its designee to review the examination. The passing grade is set at 70%.
(vi)    Each course provider shall, within thirty (30) days after completion of a course, submit to the Board a list of the names of each of the students at the course and each student's final grade in the course.
(vii)    The course provider shall create and maintain records on each student, including test score for a one (1) year period. The director of the educational portion of the program shall sign a statement in the scholastic record attesting to the student's proficiency in the expanded duty.
(viii)    Courses offered pursuant to this rule are subject to unannounced audits by the Board. Any Board member or designee of the Board shall be provided full access to course materials or the classroom or clinic during instruction. Failure to provide access pursuant to this provision may subject the provider to invalidation of course results.
(2)    Coronal Polishing/Topical Fluoride.
(A)    Definition: A dental assistant holding this expanded duty permit may:
(i)    polish coronal surfaces of teeth, or prepare teeth for band cementation or bonding of brackets utilizing a slow speed rotary hand piece and rubber cup or brush, polishing agent and the polishing is not prophylaxis. (examinationsExaminations, for calculus and scaling must be done by a dentist or dental hygienist).
(ii)    apply topical fluoride and desensitizing agents. A dental assistant may not use a prophy jet or any other instrument unless approved by the Board.
(B)    RequirementRequirements: Satisfactory completion of a courseof study, including two (2) hours of didactic education and six (6) hours of a clinical training, including demonstration, component, in coronal polishing and the application of topical fluoride and desensitizing agents., consisting of a minimum of fourteen (14) hours, approved by the Board.
(C)    Course Guidelines:
(i)    For the purposes of this section, training necessary to prepare teeth for band cementation is accomplished by proper training in coronal polishing, as set forth in this section.Training for coronal polishing and applying topical fluoride and desensitizing agents shall be undertaken only in a single course which complies with all provisions of this section. Minimum standards for courses to train dental assistants to perform coronal polishing or to apply topical fluoride or desensitizing agents are as follows:
(I)    The course shall be open only to applicants with a minimum of one year of active chair side experience as a dental assistant, of which no less than six (6) months shall be in any one practice.
(II)    The instruction level shall meet level 4 of the Board's Guide to Curriculum Development.
(CIII)    The coronal polishing course shall be taught by a licensed dentistdentists or licensed dental hygienistshygienist; or a dentalassistants assistant who have currentbeen issued expanded duty permits in coronal polishing and five (5) years of experience.polishing/topical fluoride or preparing teeth for band cementation by the Board. Dental assistants shall not conduct didactic portions of the class, but may undertake clinical training or evaluation.
(IV)    The course shall be a minimum of fourteen (14) hours in length for the instructional portion.
(ii)    The course shall be designed and conducted to provide each student the abilityUpon completion of the course, the student should be able to manipulate polishing instruments correctly and remove all plaque and extrinsic stains that do not require scaling from the exposed surfaces of teeth without trauma to the teeth or gingiva.The course shall further provide each student with necessary knowledge about currently accepted topical fluoride and desensitizing agents and demonstrate the ability to apply suchdesensitizing and fluoride agents to accomplish caries prevention.
(Diii)    The didactic portion of the course shall include instruction in:
(iI)    Principles and clinical appearance of plaque,and stain formation; and
(II)    The clinical appearance of plaque, intrinsic and extrinsic stains and calculus (removal of calculus and scaleable stains shall be accomplished only by a dentist or dental hygienist);
(III)    Thethe clinical appearance of clean and polished teeth;
(iiIV)    Tooth morphology and the anatomy of the oral cavity as they relate to the retention of plaque, stain and polishing techniques;
(iiiV)    Principles of selecting abrasives and polishing agents and their effect on tooth structure and restorative materials;
(ivVI)    Principles of polishing, including the selection and care of the armamentarium, instrumentation techniques and precautions, including the care of the mouth with fixed or removable prostheses and/or orthodontic appliances;
(VII)    Principles of aseptic technique, including the sterilization of instruments, sanitation of equipment, and control of disease transmission;
(vVIII)    Principles of selecting and applying fluoride and disclosing agents, including armamentarium, isolation of teeth, technique and precautions;
(viIX)    Principles of the preparation of teeth and the oral cavity for fluoride application; and
(X)    Thethe reaction of fluorides with tooth structure;
(XI)    Available fluoride agents;
(XII)    Principles of the preparation and storage of fluoride agents;
(XIII)    Principles of application techniques, including the selection and of armamentarium, the isolation of teeth, adaptation of trays, techniques and precautions.
(Eiv)    The clinical portion of the course shall include significant portions of the didactic portion and a patient-based hands on experience in:
(iI)    Identifying calculus, plaque, and intrinsic and extrinsic stains and evaluating the extent of plaque and stain removal;
(iiII)    Polishing exposed surfaces of teeth including the application of;
(III)    Applying disclosing agents and fluoride to the exposed surface of teeth;
(IV)    Evaluating the extent of plaque and stain removal;
(V)    Maintaining the polishing armamentarium;
(VI)    Maintaining aseptic techniques;
(VII)    Applying various fluoride agents;
(VIII)    Applying various desensitizing agents.
(v)    Students shall be provided a course outline setting forth materials to be presented in the course and evaluation criteria by the course provider for the course.
(vi)    The course shall include jurisprudence aspects, as follow:
(I)    Legal limitations of dental assistants;
(II)    Limitations on assistant services;
(III)    Penalties for violation of the State Dental Act or rules of the Board;
(IV)    Mechanisms by which a person can report violations of the State Dental Act or rules of the Board to the Board.
(vii)    The course provider shall conduct clinical experience of at least two (2) hours, including at least a one-half hour demonstration by an instructor. The clinical experience shall include all significant portions of the didactic instruction.Student/Faculty ratio shall be no greater than 1-6 on all clinical requirements.
(viii)    Upon completion of the course, students shall be evaluated by written examination. The examination shall the didactic portion of the course. The passing grade is set at 70%. A student who fails the examination may retake the examination no more than two (2) times. In the event a student takes the examination three (3) times and fails each time, the student shall not sit for the examination for a period of one (1) year. At that time, the student may retake the course and retake the examination pursuant to this rule. Results of the examination shall be retained by the course provider for a minimum period of one (1) year following successful completion of the examination. Each course provider shall, prior to beginning a course, allow a member of the Board or its designee to review the examinations.
(ix)    Each course provider shall, within thirty (30) days after completion of a course, submit to the Board a list of the names of each of the students at the course and each student's final grade in the course.
(x)    The course provider shall create and maintain records on each student, including test score of clinical testing, in the clinical test for a one (1) year period. The director of the educational portion of the program shall sign a statement in the scholastic record attesting to the student's proficiency in the expanded duty.
(xi)    Courses offered pursuant to this section are subject to unannounced audits by the Board. Any Board member or designee shall be provided full access to course materials or the classroom or clinic during instruction. Failure to provide access may subject the course provider to invalidation of course results.
(3)    Sealants.
(A)    Definition: A dental assistant holding this expanded duty permit may place pit and fissure sealants.
(B)    RequirementRequirements: Satisfactory completion of a course of study in the placement of pit and fissure sealants, consisting of a minimum of six (6)twelve (12) hours, to include 1 hour of didactic training and 5 clinical hours of training. A dental assistant must hold a current expanded duty permit in Coronal Polishing/Topical Fluoride prior to enrolling in a course of study in the placement of pit and fissure sealants.
(C)    Course Guidelines:
(i)    Minimum standards to train dental assistants in the placement of pit and fissures sealants are as follows
(I)    The instruction level shall meet level 4 of the Board's Guide to Curriculum Development for Expanded Duties.
(II)    CoursesThe course shall be taught by licensed dentists or a dental hygienists with two (2) years of experience. Instructors shall have a minimum of one year clinical experience in the placement of pit and fissure sealants.
(III)    The course shall be a minimum of twelve (12) hours in length.
(IV)    Expanded duty permits will requireThe course shall require a clinical portion in which each student shall successfully complete pit and fissure sealants on at least four teeth on a mannequin or liveat least one patient.
(V)    Each applicant who completes the clinical portion will be required to submit verification from employing dentist that he/she has completed eight additional sealants on patients under the direct supervision in a dental office. Verification shall be submitted within one year of completion of the course.
(VI)    Applicants shall have a minimum of one year clinical experience as a dental assistant.
(ii)    The Course shall be designed to provide the student with a thorough knowledge of placement of pit and fissure sealants.
(Diii)    The didactic portion of the course shall include instruction in
(iI)    Indication/contraindications for sealants;
(iiII)    Preparation, materials, armamentarium and proper isolation of teeth for sealants;
(III)    Proper isolation of teeth for sealants;
(iiiIV)    Education of patient and/or parent regarding sealants;Upon completion of the course, students shall be evaluated by written examination. The passing grade is set at 70%.
(V)    Dental materials;
(VI)    Infection control;
(VII)    Tooth anatomy; and
(VIII)    Armamentarium;
(iv)    The clinical portion of the course shall include:
(I)    Patient assessment;
(II)    Proper tooth isolation and preparation for sealants;
(III)    Infection control;
(IV)    Evaluation of proper technique in the placement of sealants;
(V)    Evaluation by instructors of completed sealants; and
(VI)    Patient education;
(v)    The clinical experience shall be at least five (5) hours, including a one (1) hour demonstration by an instructor. The clinical experience shall include all applicable portions of the didactic instruction. Each student shall complete eight sealants on eight additional teeth. Student/faculty ratio shall be no greater than 1-6 on all clinical requirements.
(vi)    Upon completion of the course, students shall be evaluated by written examination. The passing grade is set at 70%. A student who fails the examination may retake the examination no more than two (2) times. In the event a student takes the examination three (3) times and fails, the student shall not sit for the examination again for at least one (1) year. At that time the student may retake the course and retake the examination pursuant to this rule.
(vii)    Each course provider shall, within thirty (30) days after completion of a course, submit to the Board a list of the names of each student attending the course and each student's final grades.
(viii)    The course provider shall create and maintain records on each student, including all test scores for one (1) year. The director of the educational program shall sign a statement in the scholastic record attesting to the student's proficiency in the expanded duty.
(ix)    Courses offered pursuant to this section are subject to unannounced audits by the Board. Any Board member or designee shall be provided full access to course materials or the classroom or clinic during instruction. Failure to provide access may subject the course provider to invalidation of course results.
(4)    Nitrous Oxide.
(A)    Definition: A dental assistant holding this expanded duty permit may monitor and assist a dentist or a dental hygienist who holds an advanced procedure permit in the administration of nitrous oxide. A dental assistant may turn on oxygen, but the level and adjustment of nitrous oxide can only be determined and administered by the dentist or hygienist. A dental assistant may adjust the level of nitrous oxide at the verbal direction of a dentist under direct supervision. Patients utilizing nitrous oxide must be visually monitored at all times.
(B)    Requirement: Satisfactory completion of a course of study in nitrous oxide administration, consisting of a minimum of twelve (12) hours, approved by the Board. Student must have a current basic life support (B.L.S.) certification prior to beginning this course.
(C)    Course Guidelines:
(i)    The courses shall be open only to applicants with a minimum of one (1) year of active experience as a dental assistant.
(ii)    The instruction shall meet level 3 of the Board's Guide to Curriculum Development.
(iii)    The course shall be taught by licensed dentists or a licensed dental hygienist with a minimum of one (1) year experience in teaching advanced education in comprehensive pain and anxiety control and with one (1) year of clinical experience in nitrous oxide administration.
(iv)    The minimum course length shall be twelve (12) hours including ten (10) hours of didactic and two (2) hours of clinical instruction.
(v)    The ratio of faculty to student shall be no greater than 1 to 10.
(vi)    The course shall be designed and conducted to provide the student with detailed knowledge of nitrous oxide oxygen inhalation sedation and its use in dentistry. Upon successful completion of the course, the student shall be trained to assist in the administration of nitrous oxide in an office setting safely and as needed.
(Cvii)    The didactic portion of the course shall include:
(iI)    The history, philosophy and psychology of nitrous oxide-oxygen inhalation sedation;
(iiII)    Definition and descriptions of the physiological and psychological aspects of pain and anxiety;
(iiiIII)    A description of the stages of drug induced central nervous system depression through all levels of consciousness and unconsciousness, with special emphasis on the distinction between the conscious and unconscious state;
(ivIV)    The anatomy and physiology of respiration; including the
(V)    The pharmacological and physiological effects of nitrous oxide for analgesia and sedation, including physical properties, action, side effects, absorption, excretion and toxicity;
(vVI)    The advantages and disadvantages of inhalation sedation with nitrous oxide;
(viVII)    The management of reaction to, or complications of nitrous oxide;
(viiVIII)    Matters regarding patient status assessment, including:
(Ia.)     Taking and reviewing a thorough health history, including vital signs;
(IIb.)     Implications of health history problems related to sedation;
(IIIc.)     Indications and contraindications of consciousinhalation sedation;
(IX)    The description and use of inhalation sedation equipment;
(X)    Introduction of nitrous oxide to the patient;
(XI)    Precautions for the successful introduction of nitrous oxide to the patient;
(XII)    Dosages and needs of the patient;
(XIIIIV)    Patient monitoring, specifically to include vital signs and reflexes related to consciousness;
(XIVV)    Possible reaction to nitrous oxide;
(VI)    The recognition, prevention and management of complications and life-threatening situations related to nitrous oxide;
(viiiXV)    Return of the patient to pre-sedationpre inhalation sedation status and instructions for post-operative care;
(ixXVI)    Hazards of nitrous oxide to the patient and operator;
(XVII)    The recognition, prevention and management of complications and life threatening situations related to nitrous oxide;
(XVIII)    Legal considerations of nitrous oxide; and
(xXIX)    The introduction to potential health hazards of trace anesthetics and proposed techniques for the elimination thereof.
(Dviii)    The clinical portion of the course shall include:
(iI)    Patient status assessment, introduction and monitoring of nitrous oxide to the patient;
(II)    Use of various nitrous oxide machines;
(III)    Introduction of nitrous oxide to the patient;
(IV)    Monitoring of the patient;
(iiV)    Return of the patient to pre-sedation pre inhalation sedation status; and
(VI)    Post-operativepost-operative care of the patient and provision of instructions to the patient including basic life support; and
(VII)    C.P.R.
(ix)    The clinical experience shall be at least two (2) hours, including at least a one-half hour demonstration by an instructor. The clinical experience shall include all significant portions of the didactic instruction. When not medically inappropriate, each student shall be afforded the opportunity to experience the effects of nitrous oxide.Student/faculty ratio shall be no greater than 1-10 on all clinical requirements.
(x)    Upon completion of the course, students shall be evaluated by written examination. The examination shall cover the didactic portion of the course. The passing grade is set at 70%. A student who fails the examination may retake the examination no more than two (2) times. In the event a student takes the examination three (3) times and fails each time, the student shall not sit for the examination for a period of one (1) year. At that time, the student may retake the course and retake the examination pursuant to this rule. Results of the examination shall be retained by the course provider for a minimum period of one (1) year following successful completion of the examination.Each course provider shall, prior to beginning a class, allow a member of the Board or its designee to review the examinations.
(xi)    Each course provider shall, within thirty (30) days after completion of a course, submit to the Board a list of the names of each of the students at the course and each student's final grade in the course.
(xii)    The course provider shall create and maintain records on each student, including test score of clinical testing, in the clinical test for a one (1) year period. The director of the educational portion of the program shall sign a statement in the scholastic record attesting to the student's proficiency in the expanded duty.
(b)    An application by a dental assistant for an expanded duty permit shall be made on a form prescribed by the Board, which shall be accompanied by the fee set forth in 195: 2-1-7.
(c)    Except as provided in (e), an expanded duty permit shall be automatically revoked if the holder thereof fails to secure an annual renewal of the permit within three (3) months from the 31st day of December of each year.
(d)    The expanded duties specified in (a) may be performed by a dental assistant only on a patient of record and only under the direct supervision of a dentist.
(e)    Expanded duty permits for Radiation Safety need not be renewed.
(f)    Dental assistants performing expanded duties shall prominently display the expanded duty permit at their place of employment.
(g)    All students who successfully complete expanded duty courses shall have one (1) year to secure a permit. Failure to submit an application within one (1) year from the date of the course shall result in the student being denied a permit and required to retake the approved expanded duty course.
(h)    All expanded duty permit holders shall provide proof of current CPR provided by the American Heart Association/Health Care Provider Level or the American Red Cross/Professional Rescuer.
(5)    Assisting a dentist who holds a parenteral or pediatric anesthesia permit.
(A)    Definition: A dental assistant may assist a dentist while the dentist administers anesthesia and assess the patient's level of sedation. No dental assistant shall administer, evaluate or assess a level of anesthesia on a patient. This permit shall only include training for rescue of a patient as directed by a dentist with a valid provider permit during the administration of anesthesia on a patient.
(B)    Requirements: The requirements of this permit shall be the same as required for an OMS assistant pursuant to 59 O.S. §328.25.
(6)    Vaccinations, venipuncture and phlebotomy.
(A)    Definition: A dental assistant may administer vaccinations or draw blood for a platelet rich plasma procedure (PRP) or other testing under the direct supervision of a dentist.
(B)    Requirements: Completion of a phlebotomy certification program as approved by the Board. A course approved by the Board shall include a minimum of four (4) hours of safe-needle and blood-born pathogens procedures under the guidelines of the CDC.
(7)    Elder care advanced procedure pursuant to meeting the requirements in 59 O.S. § 328.58.
195:15-1-5.  Duties not assignable to dental assistants
     A dentist shall not delegate to a dental assistant, nor shall a dental assistant perform, any of the following procedures and duties:
(1)    Any procedure that may contribute to or result in an irreversible alteration of the human oral anatomy;
(12)    Diagnosis;
(23)    Treatment planning;
(34)    Prescription of medications;
(4)    Final placement or removal of orthodontic brackets and bands;
(5)    Removal of fully hardened cement with a high-speed hand piece;
(6)    Surgery or the cutting or severance of hard and soft tissue;
(7)    Placement or adjustmentFinal cementation of any removable or fixed prosthesis or delivery of a removable prosthesis;
(8)    Adjustment of a prosthesis intraorally;
(89)    Placement or removal of restorative materials in a human oral cavity;
(910)    Administration of injectable local anesthesia or any other form of injectable including anesthesia including IV sedation;
(1011)    Utilization of a laser, high-speed hand piece, power scaler, prophy jet or ultrasonic;
(1112)    Administration of nitrous oxide;
(12)    Any procedure that may contribute to or result in an irreversible alteration of the human oral anatomy;
(13)    An expanded duty as set forth in 195:15-1-4, when the dental assistant does not hold a current permit issued by the Board for the expanded duty; and
(14)    Those procedures allocated exclusively to dental hygienists or dentistsby 195:15-1-6 pursuant to the rules or the State Dental Act.
195:15-1-6.  Procedures that may be delegated to dental hygienists
(a)    The following procedures may be delegated to a dental hygienist with a valid hygiene license pursuant to 59 O.S. 328.21.Dental hygienists, having been issued a certificate of ability by the Board, which is a license to practice dental hygiene in the State of Oklahoma, may provide dental hygiene services pursuant to their education, which has a minimum of two academic years of dental hygiene curriculum, and has been accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.
(b)    The same expanded duties as a dental assistant as listed in 195:15-1-4(b). A hygienist may also be delegated duties under 195: 15-1-4. (5) and (6) upon presenting proof of similar training to the Board. A dentist may delegate to a licensed and registered dental hygienist the following procedures:
(1)    The procedures and expanded duties authorized for dental assistants as set forth in 195:15-1-3 and 195:15-1-4;
(c2)    The procedures set forth in 59 O.S., Section 328.34;
(d3)    Health history information and assessment that may include, vitals, medications, nutritional and dietary evaluation and other information as itpertainsing pertains to oral health and patient care.dental hygiene;
(e)    Dental hygiene examination and the charting of intraoral and extraoral conditions, which include periodontal charting, dental charting, and classifying occlusion, oral cancer screenings, airway assessments and other information as requested by the supervising dentist;
(f)    Dental hygiene assessment and treatment planning for procedures authorized by the supervisory dentist;
(g)    Preventive and/or therapeutic interventions, including Prophylaxisprophylaxis, scaling and root planing, which means the removal of calcareous deposits, stains, accretions, or concretions from the supragingival and subgingival surfaces of the teeth utilizing hand or power instrumentation by scaler or periodontal curette on the crown and root surfaces of human teeth. ,including rotary or power driven instruments.(This section shall not be construed to prohibit the use of a rubber cup or brush on the crowns of human teeth by a dental assistant, who holds a current expanded duty permit for Coronal Polishing/Topical Fluoride issued by the Board.);
(7)    Periodontal scaling and root planing;
(8)    Dental hygiene nutritional and dietary evaluation;
(h9)    Placement of preventative and/or therapeutic subgingival prescription drugs for prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and recommend or apply topical fluoride agents including varnish, foam, gel dentifrice, silver diamine and other agents as requested by the supervising dentist;
(i10)    Soft tissue curettage;
(j11)    Placement of temporary fillings;
(k12)    Removal of overhanging margins;
(l 13)    Dental implant maintenance;
(m 14)    Removal of periodontal packs, and;
(n15)    Polishing of amalgam restorations. and;
(o16)    Taking final impressions.
(pc)    The procedures specified in (b)this section may be performed by a dental hygienist only on a patient of record and only under the supervision of a dentist pursuant to 328.34. The level of supervision, whether direct, indirect or general, shall be at the discretion of the supervisory dentist.
(d)    Except as provided in 195:15-1-4, the procedures specified in (b), (2) through (15) may be performed only by a dental hygienist or a dentist.
(e)    A dental hygienist shall not own or operate an independent practice of dental hygiene.
195:15-1-6.1.  Advanced procedures for dental hygienists
(a)    It is the determination of the Board that certain procedures may be performed by a dental hygienist who has satisfactorily completed a course of study regarding the performance of such procedures. Pursuant to 59 O.S., Section 328.34, the Board hereby establishes two (2)six (6) advanced procedures for dental hygienists withdefinitions, requirements, and course guidelines as follows:
(b)    Each training program for an advanced procedure for hygienists must meet the same requirements as listed in 195:15-1-4(a) through (g).
(c)    An application by a dental hygienist for authorization to perform an advanced procedure shall be made on a form prescribed by the Board.
(d)    Advanced procedures permitted for dental hygienists who graduate from accredited dental hygiene programs in Oklahoma which provide Board approved instruction, will automatically be authorized after licensure.
(1)     Nitrous oxide.
(A)    Definition: A dental hygienist authorized by the Board to perform this advanced procedure may administer nitrous oxide.
(B)    Requirement: Hygienists must complete the requirements as listed in 195:15-1-4 (4) all requirements for a permit to administer nitrous oxide and in addition:Satisfactory completion of a course of study in nitrous oxide analgesia, consisting of a minimum of 12 hours, approved by the Board.
(C)    Course Guidelines:
(i)    Minimum standards for courses to train dental hygienists to administer nitrous oxide are as follows:
(I)    The instruction level shall meet level 3 of the Board's Guide to Curriculum Development for Advanced Procedures.
(II)    Instruction shall be provided in a properly equipped setting and under he supervision of an education program approved by the Board.
(III)    The minimum length of the course shall be 12 hours.
(IV)    The faculty-student ratio of not in excess of 1 to 10 for classroom training and 1 to 10 for clinical and laboratory training shall be maintained.
(V)    The course shall train students in basic C.P.R. This requirement may be waived for students with current C.P.R. training.
(VI)    Each student shall be provided at least 15 minutes of contact with each patient during clinical training.
(VII)    Faculty shall be qualified licensed dentists or licensed dental hygienists with at least one year of advanced education in comprehensive pain and anxiety control.
(VIII)    When not medically inappropriate, each student shall be afforded the opportunity to experience the effects of nitrous oxide.
(IX)    The course provider shall create and maintain records on each student, including test score of clinical testing, in the clinical test for a one (1) year period. The director of the educational portion of the program shall sign a statement in the scholastic record attesting to the student's proficiency in advanced procedures.
(ii)    The course shall be designed and conducted to provide each student with a thorough knowledge of nitrous oxide-oxygen inhalation sedation and its use in dentistry. Upon completion of the course, each student shall be able to apply this knowledge to administer nitrous oxide-oxygen inhalation to dental patients as indicated.
(iii)    The course instruction shall include:
(I)    Background information, including:
a.  A history of nitrous oxide-oxygen inhalation sedation;
b.  Instruction in the philosophy and psychology of nitrous oxide-oxygen inhalation sedation;
c.  Instruction in the definitions and descriptions of the physiological and psychological aspects of pain and anxiety;
d.  Instruction of the stages of drug-induced central nervous system depression through all levels of consciousness and unconsciousness with special emphasis made in the distinction between the conscious and unconscious state;
e.  Instruction on the anatomy and physiology of respiration;
f.  Instruction on the pharmacology and physiological effects of nitrous oxide as used as analgesia. This instruction shall include among other things, its physical properties, effects, action, side effects, absorption, excretion, and toxicity;
g.  Instruction in the advantages and disadvantages of inhalation sedation with nitrous oxide.
(II)    Students shall be trained in aspects of patients assessment, to include:
a. Taking and reviewing a thorough health history;
b.  Taking the patient's vital signs;
c.  Evaluating implications of the use of nitrous oxide based upon the patient's health history;
d.  Evaluating the indications and contraindications of nitrous oxide.
(iIII)    Students shall be trained in the proper administration of nitrous oxide, to include:
a.  The description and use of inhalation equipment;
b.  The introduction of nitrous oxide to a patient;
c.  Precautions for the successful introduction of nitrous oxide to a patient;
d.  Patient monitoring, with particular attention made to monitoring patient vital signs and reflexes related to consciousness;
(ii)    e. Determining dosages and needs of a patient.;
f.  Possible reactions of patients under nitrous oxide;
g.  How to return a patient to pre-sedation status and instruction in post-operative care;
h.  Hazards of nitrous oxide sedation for the patient and operator;
i.  The recognition, prevention and management of complications and life threatening situations involving nitrous oxide;
j.  Potential health hazards of trace anesthetics and techniques for the elimination of trace anesthetics.
(IV)    Students shall be instructed in pertinent legal aspects of the administration of nitrous oxide sedation.
(V)    The clinical experience of the course shall include:
a.  Assessment of the patient's status;
b.  The use of different types of nitrous oxide-oxygen machines;
c.  Introduction of sedation to a patient;
d.  Monitoring the patient;
e.  Returning the patient to pre-sedation status;
f.  Post operative care of the patient and instruction to the patient.
(iv)    Upon completion of the course, students shall be evaluated by course presenters by written examination. The examination shall cover both the didactic and clinical portions of the course. The passing grade is set at 70%. Each student's written examination shall be maintained by the course provider for a minimum of one (1) year following the completion of the examination. Each course provider shall, prior to beginning a course, allow a member of the Board or its designee to review the examination.
(v)    Each course provider shall, within thirty (30) days after completion of a course, submit to the Board a list of the names of each student at the course and each student's final grade in the course.
(vi)    Courses offered pursuant to this rule are subject to unannounced audits by the Board. Any Board member or designee of the Board shall be provided full access to course materials or the classroom or clinic during instruction. Failure to provide access pursuant to this provision may subject the provider to invalidation of course results.
(2)     Local anesthesia.
(A)    Definition: A dental hygienist authorized by the Board to perform this advanced procedure may administer local anesthesia.
(B)    Requirement: Satisfactory completion of a course of study in local anesthesia, consisting of a minimum of 20 ½ hours, approved by the Board.
(C)    Course Guidelines:
(i)    Minimum standards for courses to train dental hygienists to administer local anesthesia are as follows:
(I)    The instruction level shall meet level 4 of the Board's Guide to Curriculum Development for Expanded Functions.
(IIi)    Instruction shall be provided in a properly equipped setting and under the supervision of aneducational programCODA approved program or a program affiliated with a CODA approved school or other program as approved by the Board.
(iiIII)    The course shall train students in basic C.P.R.B.L.S. This requirement may be waived for students with current C.P.R.B.L.S. training.
(iiiIV)    The course provider shall conduct formal clinical testing of the student's ability to perform the advanced procedure involved. A Board proctor shall be allowed by the course provider to attend the course the first time it is offered and at random times, as determined by the Board, thereafter.
(V)    The course provider shall create and maintain records on each student, including test score of clinical testing, in the clinical test for a one (1) year period. The director of the educational portion of the program shall sign a statement in the scholastic record attesting to the student's proficiency in advanced procedures.
(VI)    The minimum length of the course shall be 20 1/2 hours of instruction.
(ivVII)    Each student in the course shall competently administerperform at least 5 patient infiltration and ten mandibular block injections on patients.
(VIII)    When not medically inappropriate, each student shall be afforded the opportunity to experience the effects of local anesthesia.
(IX)    A faculty-student ratio of not in excess of 1 to 6 shall be maintained for clinical instruction.
(vX)    Faculty shall be licensed dentists and licensed dental hygienists who are currently employed or have been employed in a dental or dental hygiene school and have experience in teaching or providing this advanced procedure.
(ii)    The course shall be designed and conducted to provide each student with a thorough knowledge of local anesthesia and local anesthetic injection techniques and their uses in dental hygiene. Upon completion of the course, each student shall be able to apply this knowledge to safely administer local anesthetics to dental patients as indicated.
(vi)    Course instruction shall include:
(I)    Background information, including:
a.  Introduction and objectives of the course;
(I)    Theory of pain control;
b.  History of local anesthesia;
(II)    Selection of pain control modalities;
c.  Instruction in the philosophy and psychology of the use of local anesthesia;
(III)    Anatomy;
d.  A review of the physiology of nerve conduction;
(IV)    Neurophysiology;
e.  A review of regional anatomy;
(V)    Pharmacology of local anesthetics and vasoconstrictors;
f.  A survey of local anesthetic agents on nerve conduction;
(VI)    Pharmacological aspects of pain control;
g.  A review of the metabolism and excretion of local anesthetics;
(VII)    Systematic complications;
h.  Instruction on the toxicity of local anesthetic drugs;
(VIII)    Techniques of maxillary and mandibular anesthesia;
i.  Instruction on the clinical manifestations of toxic reactions;
(IX)    Safe needle and bloodborne pathogens including infection control;
j.  Instruction on the treatment of toxic reactions;
(X)    Local anesthesia medical emergencies.
k.  Instruction on allergic reactions to local anesthetic drugs;
l.  Instruction on the clinical manifestations of allergic reactions;
m.  Instruction on the treatment of allergic reactions to local anesthetics;
n.  Instruction regarding vasoconstrictor drugs used in local anesthetics;
o.  Instruction on the clinical manifestations of toxic reactions to vasoconstrictor drugs used in local anesthesia;
p.  Instruction on the treatment of toxic reactions to vasoconstrictors used in local anesthesia;
q.  Instruction on drug interactions related to local anesthesia; and
r.  Instruction on the technical aspects of syringe and cartridge care.
(II)    Students shall be trained in aspects of patient status assessment to include:
a.  Taking and recording a thorough health history, including vital signs;
b.  Assessing the implications of health history problems related to local anesthesia;
c.  Evaluating the indications and contraindications for the use of local anesthesia drugs.
(III)    Students shall be trained in the proper administration of local anesthesia, including:
a.  The use of syringes;
b.  The selection of anesthetic solutions;
c.  The identification of anatomic landmarks;
d.  The application of proper depth;
e.  The insertion of the needle to the proper depth;
f.  Performing an aspiration technique;
g.  The depositing of the anesthetic solution at the proper rate;
h.  Maintaining a sterile field throughout a procedure;
i.  Accurately evaluating the effectiveness of an anesthetic;
j.  Reinjecting when necessary;
k.  Estimating the highest safe dosage of local anesthesia according based upon the weight and/or age of the patient.
(IV)    Students shall be instructed in pertinent legal aspects of the administration of local anesthetics.
(V)    The clinical experience of the course shall include:
a.  Evaluating the patient's health status;
b.  Taking the patient's vital signs;
c.  Administering local anesthetic infiltrations;
d.  Administering local anesthetic nerve blocks;
e.  Monitoring the patient's physical status while under the effects of local anesthetics;
(VI)    Course work shall be provided in post-anesthetic care.
(iv)    Upon completion of the course, students shall be evaluated by course presenters by written examination. The examination shall cover both the didactic and clinical portions of the course. The passing grade is set at 70%. Each student's written examination shall be maintained by the course provider for a minimum of one (1) year following the completion of the examination. Each course provider shall, prior to beginning a course, allow a member of the Board or its designee to review the examination.
(v)    Each course provider shall, within thirty (30) days of completion of a course, submit to the Board a list of the names of each student at the course and each student's final grade in the course.
(vi)    Courses offered pursuant to this rule are subject to unannounced audits by the Board. Any Board member or designee of the Board shall be provided full access to course materials or the classroom or clinic during instruction. Failure to provide access pursuant to this provision may subject the provider to invalidation of course results.
(3)     Neuromodulator administration.
(A)    Definition: A dental hygienist authorized by the Board to perform this advanced procedure may administer neuromodulator under direct supervision of a dentist.
(B)    A holder of a license to practice dental hygiene with a minimum of two (2) years of experience and holds an advanced procedure for the administration of local anesthesia, may apply for an advanced procedure permit to allow them to inject a neuromodulator that is derived from Clostridium botulinum or that is biosimilar to or the bioequivalent of such a neuromodulator or who injects a dermal or soft tissue filler upon completion of a course approved by the Board that meets the minimum requirements:
(C)    Each hygienist must provide a statement along with their application for this advanced procedure certifying that each neuromodulator that has been or will be injected by the holder, and each dermal or soft tissue filler that has been or will be injected by the holder is approved for the use in dentistry by the United States Food and Drug Administration and;
(D)    Maintain malpractice insurance and provide proof of insurance annually.
(E)    A hygienist holding this advanced procedure permit shall not administer such an injection to a person other than a patient of record;
(F)    The training must be a minimum of twenty-four (24) total hours in length including a minimum of 4 hours of didactic and 4 hours of clinical training in each of the following subjects;
(i)    The use of neuromodulators that are derived from Clostridium botulinum or that are biosimilar to or the bioequivalent of such a neuromodulator in the treatment of temporomandibular joint disorder and myofascial pain syndrome;
(ii)    The use of neuromodulators that are derived from Clostridium botulinum that are biosimilar to or the bioequivalent of such a neuromodulator for dental and facial esthetics; and
(iii)    The use of dermal and soft tissue fillers for dental and facial esthetics;
(4)     Therapeutic use of lasers.
(A)    A hygienist may apply for an Advanced Procedure permit for the therapeutic use of lasers under the direct/indirect supervision of a dentist.
(B)    Definition: A hygienist with an advanced procedure permit to use a laser may be used, but limited to soft tissue decontamination, sulcular bacterial reduction, tissue disinfection.
(C)    Requirements:
(i)    The hygienist must successfully complete an educational program as approved by the Board on laser use that is a minimum of 8 hours and includes both didactic and live, in-person clinical simulation training;
(ii)    A certificate of successful course completion from the dental laser training entity shall be submitted to the Board of Dentistry.
(I)    A hygienist may use the laser within the scope of hygiene practice;
(II)    A laser may not be used for the intentional cutting of hard or soft tissue;
(III)    All lasers must be used in accordance with accepted safety guidelines and approved by the United States Federal Drug Administration for use in dentistry.
(IV)    When utilizing a laser pursuant to this Rule, at a minimum, the type of laser, settings used and details of procedures performed, must be documented in the patient's record.
(5)     Elder care and public health advanced procedure.
(A)    A dental hygienist having a minimum of two (2) years of experience may apply for a Public Health Advanced Procedure permit pursuant to 59 O.S. § 328.58.
(B)    A hygienist with a prior action from the Board within the previous five (5) years shall not be eligible for this advanced procedure.
(6)    Vaccinations, venipuncture and phlebotomy
(A)    Definition: A dental hygienist may administer vaccinations or draw blood for a platelet rich plasma procedure (PRP) or other testing under the direct or indirect supervision of a dentist.
(B)    Requirements: Completion of a phlebotomy certification program as approved by the Board. A course approved by the Board shall include a minimum of four (4) hours of safe-needle and blood-born pathogens procedures under the guidelines of the CDC.
(b)    An application by a dental hygienist for authorization to perform an advanced procedure shall be made on a form prescribed by the Board.
(c)    The advanced procedures specified in (a) may be performed by a dental only on a patient of record and only under the direct or indirect supervision of a dentist.
(d)    The advanced procedures specified in (a) may be performed only by a dental hygienist who is authorized by the Board or a dentist.
(e)    Advanced procedures permitted for dental hygienists who graduate from accredited dental hygiene programs in Oklahoma which provide Board approved instruction, will automatically be authorized after licensure.
195:15-1-8.  Guide to curriculum development for expanded duties or advanced procedures  [REVOKED]
     The following levels of instruction are hereby established by the Board for use in the development of curricula for courses in advanced procedures for dental hygienists and expanded duties for dental assistants:
(1)    Level 1 courses shall include lectures to provide familiarization with techniques, materials used, application limitations and/or contraindications.
(2)    Level 2 courses shall include lectures and demonstrations which, in addition to instruction at level 1, shall include at least one practical demonstration sufficient to allow each student to observe and recognize the successful completion of the subject task.
(3)    Level 3 courses shall include lectures, demonstrations and laboratory work which, in addition to instruction at level 2, require performance by the student of the subject task to a satisfactory level such as will assure the health, safety and welfare of patients. Performance of laboratory work shall be made without regard to time expended to necessary repetitions. The course provider shall provide manikins made for such laboratory work or provide or require students to provide live subjects as patients.
(4)    Level 4 courses shall include lectures, demonstrations, laboratory work and clinical work which, in addition to instruction at level 3, shall require the student to perform the subject task in a clinical setting sufficient to prove the student's ability to perform the task with reasonable skill and safety.
195:15-1-9.  Committee on Allied Dental Education  [REVOKED]
(a)    A Committee on Allied Dental Education is hereby established. The Committee appointments, composition, and recommendations require approval by the Board.
(b)    All written requests by dental hygienists and dental assistants shall be submitted to the Committee on Allied Dental Education or the Board to determine if completed courses outside the state are equivalent to courses as set forth by these rules. Oklahoma courses defined by these rules shall be waived and additional training shall not be required for those out of state dental hygienists and dental assistants who submit equivalent training approved by the Board.
(c)    All course providers shall submit written requests on approved forms including all course content as specified herein. Authorization will be issued to only those students who complete Board approved courses.
195:15-1-10.  Dental Hygiene Advisory Committee  [REVOKED]
(a)    A Dental Hygiene Advisory Committee is hereby established to advise the Board of Dentistry on matters relating to dental hygiene. This committee shall have the following functions:
(1)    Develop and propose recommendations to the Board regarding the education, examination, licensure, and regulation of dental hygienists.
(2)    Advise the Board in rulemaking regarding dental hygiene.
(3)    Hold meetings at least annually or no more than quarterly.
(b)    The Dental Hygiene Advisory Committee shall be composed of members as follows:
(1)    The one (1) current dental hygiene member of the Board.
(2)    Four (4) dental hygienists at large.
(c)    Members of this committee shall be appointed by the Board and serve a term of three-years. Appointments shall be made so that approximately one-third of the committee is re-appointed at any given time.
[OAR Docket #23-581; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 195.  Board of Dentistry
CHAPTER 25.  Rules for Continuing Dental Education
[OAR Docket #23-582]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
195:25-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
195:25-1-2. Continuing education required [AMENDED]
195:25-1-3. Hours required for dentists [REVOKED]
195:25-1-4. Hours required for hygienists [REVOKED]
195:25-1-5. Credits for initial reporting period [REVOKED]
195:25-1-6. Requirements for new graduates [REVOKED]
195:25-1-7. Categories of continuing education [REVOKED]
195:25-1-8. Procedure for reporting continuing education hours [AMENDED]
195:25-1-9. Monetary fine for failing to report continuing education hours [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
59 O.S. Supp. 2015, SEC. 328.15 et seq.; Board of Dentistry
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 16, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 10, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 10, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 13, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revision to Chapter 1 deletes sections and verbiage that is redundant, no longer needed or has been previously moved into the Oklahoma Dental Practice Act, 59 O.S. § 328.1 et. seq.
CONTACT PERSON:
Susan Rogers, Executive Director and General Counsel (405) 522-4844, Oklahoma Board of Dentistry, 2920 N Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
195:25-1-1.  Purpose
     The rules of this chapter set forth the requirements for completing and reporting continuing education for dentists and dental hygienists.
195:25-1-2.  Continuing education required
(a)    Pursuant toRequirements for continuing education are listed in Title 59 O.S. 328.15(11),328.41.the Board shall require continuing education as a prerequisite for renewal of registration of dentists and dental hygienists. Any course is acceptable that contributes to updating and maintaining the knowledge and skills of the dentist and dental hygienist in the treatment of the individual dental patient.
(b)    Courses directly related to provision of services and patient care shall be considered for credit. Courses dealing substantially with other subjects of professional concern are outside the scope of the continuing edental education program. Such courses or programs would include money management, investments, and professional organizational business meetings. However, the Board may allow exception as specified in Category D.
(c)    Proof of CPR course provided by the American Heart Association/Health Care Provider Level or the American Red Cross/Professional Rescuer shall be required for every licensed dentist and dental hygienist once in each three (3) year reporting cycle. Courses for the Professional Rescuer sponsored by the American Safety and Health Institute and Programs sponsored by the Veterans Administration or Armed Forces shall also be recognized for approval.
(d)    Proof of a course in Ethics shall be required for every licensed dentist and dental hygienist once in each three (3) year reporting cycle. Courses shall be given hour for hour credit. Dentists and dental hygienists may obtain continuing education in ethics from any designated category.
195:25-1-3.  Hours required for dentists  [REVOKED]
     The requirement for continuing education for Oklahoma licensed dentists will be sixty (60) credit hours for every three (3) year reporting period. The first reporting period will be July 1, 1980 through June 30, 1983.
195:25-1-4.  Hours required for hygienists  [REVOKED]
     The requirement for continuing education for Oklahoma licensed dental hygienists will be thirty (30) credit hours for every three (3) year reporting period. The first reporting period beginning on July 1, 1980 through June 30, 1983.
195:25-1-5.  Credits for initial reporting period  [REVOKED]
     Continuing education credits obtained from January 1, 1980 may be applied toward the initial reporting period requirement.
195:25-1-6.  Requirements for new graduates  [REVOKED]
     The continuing education requirements for new graduates (dentists and dental hygienists) will begin July 1, of the calendar year following their year of graduation.
195:25-1-7.  Categories of continuing education  [REVOKED]
     At least 50% of the continuing education requirement must be from category A and/or B. Not more than 50% of the requirement can be obtained from Category C. Continuing education must come from designated categories. A description of the categories of education programs is outlined below:
(1)     Category A.
(A)    Formalized structured learning situations at colleges or universities at regular undergraduate or college course levels will be allowed one (1) hour credit for each hour in attendance. Regular university or college courses are evaluated at semester hour, i.e.: A dentally related three (3) hour college credit course will be allowed three (3) hours of continuing education credit.
(B)    Any university may co-sponsor a program within the State of Oklahoma. They must send a copy of the letter to the Board.
(C)    Programs sponsored by the Veterans Administration or Armed Forces, given at a government facility will be granted hour for hour credit without university co- sponsorship.
(2)     Category B.
(A)    Formalized Meetings: Meetings of the following recognized groups will be granted hour for hour credit for the scientific portions of their programs:
(i)    National professional organizations and their components
(ii)    University sponsored professional Alumni clinical meetings
(iii)    Organized Dental or Dental Hygiene Study Club Meetings
(iv)    Seminars-sponsored by recognized Dental/Dental Hygiene constituent societies
(B)    Advanced Study: Graduate study, internships, residencies, Dentists or hygienists engaged in acceptable full-time programs will fulfill their continuing education requirements for each calendar year in which they are actively participating in such programs by nature of these activities, and will have no additional formal requirements for that year. However, persons so engaged must notify the Board.
(3)     Category C.
(A)     Publishing Papers - Presenting clinics - Lecturing- Teaching: these activities will be granted six (6) hour credit for each hour of the original presentation, and hour for hour credit for additional presentation of the same material. Full or part-time teaching will receive credit for the semester credit hours. One (1) hour credit can be recorded for every 18 hours of clinical instruction.
(B)     Self-Instructional Programs - Study Tapes- Correspondence Programs: These programs will be granted hour for hour credit. Only 50% of the total requirement may be obtained through this category. The dentists or dental hygienists must submit a certificate of registration from the sponsoring institution, organization or study club or have the participation in the course verified by the sponsoring agency in a manner specified by the Board Continuing Education Committee to be considered for approval.
(C)     Volunteer Service- Licensees who donate their expertise for the dental care and treatment of indigent and needy persons shall be granted hour for hour credit for up to ten (10) hours for a dentist and five (5) hours for a dental hygienist within a reporting cycle. Dentists and dental hygienists must submit proof of actual volunteer work from a recognized entity approved by the Board. Volunteer service submitted for credit shall not receive or have the expectation to receive any payment or compensation, either direct or indirect, for any dental care or treatment rendered.
(4)     Category D. Exceptions : Exceptions will be considered at the discretion of the Board.
(A)    No more than six (6) hours of the sixty (60) hour requirement for dentists can be from practice management type courses.
(B)    No more than three (3) hours of the thirty (30) hour requirement for dental hygienists can be from practice management type courses.
195:25-1-8.  Procedure for reporting continuing education hours
(a)    Form for reporting. Continuing education credits shall be reported by dentists and dental hygienists on the online licensing system of a form specified and furnished bythe Board.
(b)    Time for forwarding form. Forms must be forwarded to the Board office. All continuing education reporting shall be completed and entered on the online system no later than June 30th at the end of the (2) two year occur at the discretion of the licensee either annually or at the end of the three (3) year reporting period.
(c)    Hours beyond requirement. Continuing education hours acquired beyond the requirement cannot be credited to the next reporting period. Hours acquired in excess of the requirement will not be reported or maintained. New licenses shall be prorated by year of licensure. New graduate licensees shall be prorated pursuant to 59 O.S. §328.41(C)(3.).
(d)    Requirement for individuals licensed in the midst of a reporting cycle. Those individuals who are licensed in the midst of a reporting cycle will have a pro-rated requirement, beginning July 1 following the date of licensure. Dentists must accumulate twenty (20) hours per year and dental hygienists ten (10) hours per year until the end of the reporting period. All pro-rated licensees shall submit continuing education forms annually.
(e)    Random audits shall be conducted as directed by the Board at the end of the reporting period. An audit shall require documentation to match the information submitted to the Board on the continuing education formonline system.
195:25-1-9.  Monetary fine for failing to report continuing education hours
     All licensed dentists or dental hygienists who fail to submit the prerequisite number of hours during the reporting period(s) ending on June 30th shall receive a monetary fine. The Board shall send a certified notice at their official address as listed with the board, to all dentists and dental hygienists who fail to comply with the requirement sixty (60) days after the June 30 ending date of the reporting period. A monetary fine of one thousand dollars ($1000.00)for dentists and five hundred dollars ($500.00) for dental hygienists shall be assessed for failing to submit the required continuing education. All monetary fines shall be paid within sixty (60) days. All missing continuing education shall be completed and submitted to the Board within ninety (90) days after notification by the Board to the licensee. by certified check or money order to the Board of Dentistry on or before December 1st of the year the continuing education is due. Failure to secure a renewal certificate pursuant to 59 O.S. Section 328.41.Failure to complete the continuing education requirement and/or submit the monetary fine shall be considered grounds for an individual action against a licensee pursuant to 59 O.S. § 328.32.
[OAR Docket #23-582; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 10.  School Administration and Instructional Services
[OAR Docket #23-607]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 2. Parental Rights [NEW]
210:10-2-1. Parents' rights concerning their minor children [NEW]
210:10-2-2. Definitions [NEW]
210:10-2-3. Requirements [NEW]
210:10-2-4. Noncompliance [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 11-105.1; 25 O.S. §§ 2001-2005
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 17, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
APPROVED BY GOVERNOR’S DECLARATION:
Approved by Governor's declaration on June 23, 2023
FINAL ADOPTION:
June 23, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The rule addresses parents' right to be notified regarding sex education materials and inspect school materials related to sex education, expanding the existing framework (70 O.S. § 11-105.1) to encompass all instruction in sexuality, gender identity, or sexual orientation. Additionally, the rule uses the existing prohibitions on state and local employees encouraging or coercing minors to hide information from their parents (25 O.S. § 2002(C)) and defines information to include anything that relates to the child's health, social, or psychological development, including pronouns or other identity information. The rule also imposes an affirmative duty to disclose information to parents. The rule requires the State Board of Education to lower the accreditation status of any school district found in willful noncompliance with the rule or related statutes. Lastly, the rule specifically outlines the procedures for reporting, investigating, and determining noncompliance in a manner that empowers parents while ensuring due process for school districts.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 2.  Parental Rights
210:10-2-1.  Parents' rights concerning their minor children
 Purpose.      The Parents' Bill of Rights instructs that parents have broad and inalienable rights concerning their minor children and that these rights are reserved to parents without obstruction or interference by governmental entities. 25 O.S. §§ 2001-2005. Parents' rights include the right to direct the education of their minor children, to object to public schools imposing unwanted instruction on questions of sex, morality, or religion; and additional rights applicable to minor children within public schools of this state. This Subchapter (2) seeks to implement and protect the rights of Oklahoma's parents concerning the education of their children and to otherwise exercise the State Board of Education's authority to adopt policies and make rules for public schools. Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104(A)(1).
210:10-2-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter (2), shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Course" means any program or activity where instruction or activities tied to the instruction are provided by or within a School district.
"Identity information" means information including but not limited to:
(A)    any names or pronouns used by a student at school.
(B)    any social transition or other transition to a gender that differs from the student's sex.
"Information" means any form of information including but not limited to, Identity information.
"Parent" means the natural or adoptive parent or legal guardian of a minor child.
"School district" or "School" means any public school district and public charter school district that serves students in prekindergarten through twelfth grades in this state.
"Sex" means the physical condition of being male or female based on genetics and physiology, as identified on the individual's original birth certificate.
"Sex or Sexuality education" means any class, program, curriculum, instruction, test, survey, questionnaire, Course, or other instructional material that relates to sexual behavior, sexual attitudes, or sexuality, including but not limited to gender identity or sexual orientation.
210:10-2-3.  Requirements
(a)     Parental rights include Sex or Sexuality education and their children.
(1)    Advance written notice materially similar to the one described in 25 O.S. § 2003 shall be required for any Sex or Sexuality education material as defined in this Subchapter.
(2)    The right to inspect classroom materials shall extend to any Sex or Sexuality education material as defined in this Subchapter.
(3)    A written objection from a Parent pursuant to 25 O.S. § 2003, or this section may object to Sex or Sexuality education or any other instruction questioning beliefs or practices in Sex, morality, or religion.
(4)    Each School district shall ensure that it honors any requests within the meaning of paragraph (a)(2) of this section in a manner that is easily accessible to parents upon request and that makes all parts of the material available for inspection.
(b)     Parental rights include information concerning their children.
(1)    No School district, and no employee of the district or its schools, shall encourage, coerce, or attempt to encourage or coerce a minor child to withhold information from the child's Parent(s) or guardian(s).
(2)    A School district shall disclose to a child's Parent(s) or guardian(s) any information known to the School district or its employees regarding material changes reasonably expected to be important to Parent(s) regarding their child's health, social, or psychological development, including Identity information. Such disclosures shall occur within 30 days of learning the information and may include referrals to for appropriate counseling services that the Parent(s) or guardian(s) may use at their discretion.
(3)    A School district that is informed or otherwise aware of a violation of 25 O.S. § 2002(C) or of this section within its district and fails to initiate disciplinary action within 30 days of learning of the violation, or fails to administer appropriate disciplinary action, shall be found to be in noncompliance with this section.
210:10-2-4.  Noncompliance
(a)     Procedure.
(1)    If a Parent or guardian alleges a violation of 70 O.S. § 11-105.1, 25 O.S. § 2002(C), 25 O.S. § 2003, or OAC 210:10-2-3, the Parent or guardian shall provide a written complaint to the State Department of Education that summarizes the alleged violation, including the time, date, and location of the violation and the identity of any person involved. The complaint must also include a copy of any complaint to the School District and any response.
(2)    Within fourteen days of receiving a complaint, the Department shall notify the School district of the allegation and provide an opportunity for response.
(3)    The Department shall then conduct an investigation to determine whether a violation has occurred. The Department's Legal Services staff shall notify the Parent or guardian and the School district of the results of the investigation.
(4)    If the Department concludes that a violation has occurred or may have occurred, the School district shall have fourteen days to request a hearing before the Board. The Board shall review the Complaint and the record using a preponderance of the evidence standard, may take additional evidence at its discretion, and shall publish an order with its findings of fact and conclusions of law.
(b)     Penalties.
(1)    If the State Board of Education makes a finding of willful noncompliance with the provisions of 70 O.S. § 11-105.1, 25 O.S. § 2002(C), 25 O.S. § 2003, or OAC 210:10-2-3, the State Board of Education shall alter the accreditation status of the school district at issue to either Accredited With Warning or Accredited With Probation as classified in OAC 210:35-3-201. The Board shall adjust the status to Accredited With Probation if the School district is already Accredited With Warning.
(2)    If the State Board of Education makes a finding of negligent or reckless noncompliance with the provisions of 70 O.S. § 11-105.1, 25 O.S. § 2002(C), 25 O.S. § 2003, or OAC 210:10-2-3, the State Board of Education shall require the school district at issue to comply with this rule under such conditions and within such reasonable timeframes as ordered by the State Board of Education.
(3)    Failure to comply with an order of the State Board of Education under paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall constitute willful noncompliance within the meaning of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
[OAR Docket #23-607; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 15.  Curriculum and Instruction
[OAR Docket #23-715]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption of subject matter standards pursuant to 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Oklahoma Academic Standards
Part 13. The Fine Arts [AMENDED]
210:15-3-114. Overview of Artistic LiteracyOklahoma Academic Standards for Fine Arts [AMENDED]
210:15-3-114.1. Definitions for visual art Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Pre-Kindergarten [AMENDED]
210:15-3-114.2. Definitions for musicDance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Kindergarten [AMENDED]
210:15-3-114.3. Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for First Grade [NEW]
210:15-3-114.4. Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Second Grade [NEW]
210:15-3-114.5. Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Third Grade [NEW]
210:15-3-114.6. Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Fourth Grade [NEW]
210:15-3-114.7. Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Fifth Grade [NEW]
210:15-3-115. The arts for grade 1Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Sixth Grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-116. The arts for grade 2Dance, Drama/Theatre, and Visual Art Standards for Seventh Grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-117. The arts for grade 3Dance, Drama/Theatre, and Visual Art Standards for Eighth Grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-118. The arts for grade 4Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for High School Proficient Level [AMENDED]
210:15-3-119. The arts for grade 5Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for High School Advanced Level [AMENDED]
210:15-3-120. The arts for grade 6Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for High School Accomplished Level [AMENDED]
210:15-3-121. The arts for grade 7Music Standards for Novice Level [AMENDED]
210:15-3-121.1. Music Standards for Intermediate Level [NEW]
210:15-3-122. The arts for grade 8Media Arts Standards for Elementary [AMENDED]
210:15-3-123. The arts for high schoolMedia Arts Standards for High School [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a; 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1
ADOPTION:
February 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 29, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Because the Legislature did not adopt a joint resolution approving or disapproving the standards within thirty (30) legislative days after submission for review, the standards were deemed approved pursuant to 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1(C) as of May 18, 2023.
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The new rules set forth the updated Oklahoma Academic Standards for Fine Arts, as approved by the State Board of Education and the Oklahoma Legislature.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 70 O.S., SECTIONS 11-103.6A AND 11-103.6A-1, WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Oklahoma Academic Standards
PART 13.  THE FINE ARTS
210:15-3-114.  Overview of Artistic Literacy Oklahoma Academic Standards for Fine Arts
(a)     Introduction. The Oklahoma Standards for Fine Arts are designed to support all Oklahoma students to develop and achieve artistic literacy and to promote access and equity in the arts. The Standards for Fine Arts encompass dance, drama/theatre, music, and visual art. The standards specify what students should know and be able to do as learners in their discipline at the end of each grade level or course. The order of the standards at any grade level is not meant to imply a sequence of topics and should be considered flexible for the organization of any course.
(a)     Visual art - general standards. The visual arts curriculum is organized under four major strands: Presenting, Responding, Creating, and Connecting. Each strand provides a clear outline of what students are to know across grade levels while providing unifying threads of understanding in support of the goals and objectives within the Visual Art standards. Presenting, responding, creating, and connecting are the strands in which all aspects of visual art can be organized and defined as follows:
(1)    "Presenting" refers to presenting or demonstrating something about an existing artwork, informally or formally, using a process that calls upon the technical expressive, and interpretive skills of the learner.
(2)    "Responding" refers to synthesizing knowledge of visual art in relation to history, culture, heritage, or other content areas, ideas, and life-long learning.
(3)    "Creating" refers to expressing ideas and feelings through the creating of visual art.
(4)    "Connecting" refers to analyzing, critiquing, describing, and evaluating visual artworks.
(b)     General music - general standards. The strands define the major elements of music that are relevant across grade levels and provide unifying threads of understanding supporting the goals and objectives of the Oklahoma Academic Standards for General Music. Responding,Connecting, Performing, and Creating are the strands in which all aspects of music can be defined as follows:
(1)    "Responding" refers to listening, analyzing, critiquing, describing, evaluating, and moving to musical works.
(2)    "Connecting" refers to synthesizing knowledge of music in relation to history, culture, heritage, or other content areas, ideas, and life-long learning.
(3)    "Performing" refers to presenting or demonstrating an existing work, informally or formally; a process that calls upon the technical, expressive, and interpretive skills of the learner.
(4)    "Creating" refers to expressing ideas and feelings through improvising, composing, arranging, and interpreting music.
(c)     Media arts - general standards. The Media Arts standards are embedded within the visual arts and general music content standards, and can be used to design curriculum in animation, film studies, graphic design, sound design and recording, digital photography, audio-video communication technology, broadcasting, journalism, performing arts, printing technology, telecommunications, and the visual arts.
(b)     Components of the standards. The standards comprise four artistic processes, each of which has a discipline-specific definition found in the corresponding standards. The artistic processes branch into anchor standards in each discipline. The anchor standards designate specific learning targets at each grade or learning level. The four artistic processes all Oklahoma Academic Standards for Fine Arts consist of are:
(1)    Creating/Creative Process
(2)    Performing/Production
(3)    Connecting/Cultural and Historical Perspectives
(4)    Responding/Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies
(c)     Proficiency levels.
(1)     Proficiency levels for dance, drama/theatre, and visual art standards. In dance, drama/theatre, and visual art, there are elementary grade level standards for pre-kindergarten through grade eight (8). At the secondary level in these disciplines, there are three proficiency levels, which may apply to high school students at any grade level and help prepare students for a career or for college life:
(A)    Proficient
(B)    Advanced
(C)    Accomplished
(2)     Proficiency levels for music standards. The elementary music standards extend through grade six (6). The ensemble and/or secondary music standards have five proficiency levels:
(A)    Novice (for students who have started specialization and are developing artistic understanding and technique, and may participate in performance opportunities as they are able)
(B)    Intermediate (for students who are continuing study in their art form, perhaps at the middle school level)
(C)    Proficient, Advanced, Accomplished (can apply to students at any secondary grade level)
(3)     Proficiency levels for media arts standards. The media arts standards have objectives particular to grade band (i.e., elementary (PK-8) and high school (9-12).
210:15-3-114.1.  Definitions for visual art Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Pre-Kindergarten
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Abstract art" means a twentieth-century art movement which is nonrepresentational and in which the elements and principles of design may be stressed or shapes of real objects may be simplified or distorted. Noted artists include Piet Mondrian, Wassily Kandinsky and Jackson Pollack.
"Acrylic paint" means a nontoxic, water-based pigment available in tubes or jars and may be washed out of brushes.
"Aesthetics" means that branch of philosophy which focuses on the nature and value of art, the nature of beauty, and provides a criteria by which works of art are analyzed and evaluated.
"Ancient art" means prehistoric to approximately A.D. 330 (artifacts listed are a few of the noted contributions of these ancient cultures): Egyptian- including the Pyramids, Sphinx, hieroglyphics, columns and wall paintings, Greek - including architecture, pottery/vase decoration and sculpture, Roman - including panel paintings, portrait sculpture, and mosaics.
"Architecture" means the art form of designing and planning the building of structures such as homes, churches, bridges, shopping centers, office buildings, schools, etc. Architecture is common to all cultures throughout history.
"Art criticism" means the field of inquiry that describes, interprets and evaluates works of visual art, often by making comparative judgments.
"Art history" means the field of inquiry into the origins of visual art in worldwide and/or specific cultures, including the social, religious, cultural, philosophical, aesthetic and technological factors which influence changes in their production over time.
"Background" means part of the picture plane that seems furthest from the viewer, usually in the upper portion of the image.
"Ceramics" means making visual art from clay, a naturally occurring earth substance. The pottery is produced using this process, and is then fired in a kiln to make it stronger.
"Commercial art" means graphic art produced for purposes such as advertising and packaging.
"Composition" means arrangement of objects, shapes, colors in a work of art.
"Content" means message or theme the artist is trying to communicate in a particular work of art.
"Contour" means outline or outside edge of shapes. Contour lines will define something in a drawing, painting, or other work of art.
"Create" means the process of producing works of visual art using various materials, media and techniques, usually of an original concept or idea, and involving higher-order thinking skills.
"Cubism" means a twentieth-century art movement begun in the 1900s, in which subject matter is broken up or separated into cubes and other geometric shapes. These artists rejected the use of proportion and emphasized the flatness of the painted subject and subjects are sometimes shown from several viewpoints at the same time. Noted artists include Pablo Picasso and Georges Braque.
"Design" means organization, plan or arrangement of a work of art.
"Drawing" means the art of representing objects, ideas, etc. on a surface using pencil, crayon, marker, pen, or other marking material to make lines or values, usually on a flat surface.
"Easel" means a freestanding upright support for a painter's canvas.
"Elements of art (design)" means the observable components of which all works of visual art are comprised, includes: line, shape, color, texture, value (light and dark), form, and space.
"Engraving" means an intaglio printmaking method in which a sharp tool called a burin is used to scratch lines into a metal plate. This technique is used to create a print.
"Expression" means a process of conveying ideas, feelings and meanings through selective use of the communicative possibilities of the visual arts.
"Folk art" means paintings and decorative objects made in a naïve style.
"Foreground" means part of the picture plane that seems closest to the viewer, usually in the lower portion of the image.
"Foreshortening" means a way of drawing or painting an object or person (using linear perspective) so that it seems to go back in space. Prominently used during the Renaissance.
"Impressionism" means a style of painting started in France in the 1860s. This style of art emphasized the effect of sunlight on objects and used small dabs of paint that are blended in the viewer's eyes to imitate reflected light. Noted artists include Edgar Degas, Pierre-Auguste Renoir, Mary Cassatt and Claude Monet.
"Landscape" means a painting, drawing, photograph, or other work of art, which shows natural or outdoor scenes, such as rivers, lakes, mountains, or trees.
"Loom" means a machine or frame for weaving.
"Materials" means the resources used in (1) the creation of works of visual art, such as canvas, clay, fabrics, fibers, film, paint, paper, wood, etc.; and, (2) the study of works of art, such as art reproductions, books, video cassettes, film strips, slides, etc.
"Media" means visual artworks grouped according to the materials used to produce them, such as film, oils, pen and ink, pencils and watercolors, etc.
"Medium" means material used by an artist to produce a work of art. May also refer to the liquid mixed with pigment to make paint.
"Middle ground" means area of a picture between foreground and background.
"Mixed media" means creating artwork that uses more than one medium or technique in combination.
"Modern art" means the latest styles of art, often associated with revolutionary ideas and styles in art, architecture, and literature. The art that developed in the early 20th century as a reaction to traditional forms.
"Mosaic" means floor or wall decoration made of small pieces of stone, ceramic, shell, or glass set into plaster or cement.
"Original" means artwork not copied or imitated from the work of someone else.
"Paint" means pigments (color) mixed with oil or water. Pigment particles in paint stick to the surface of the support material on which the paint is applied.
"Paint brush" means a brush used to apply paint to the surface of different support materials.
"Paper machè" means modeling material made of mashed newspaper and liquid paste.
"Perception" means visual and sensory awareness, discrimination and integration of impressions, conditions and relationships with regard to objects, images and feelings.
"Perspective" means a system for giving the illusion of three-dimensional space on a two-dimensional surface.
"Photographer" means person using the technique of photography to capture optical images on light sensitive surfaces.
"Picture plane" means the surface of a painting or drawing.
"Portrait" means an image of a person's face.
"Post-Impressionism" means a French art movement that immediately followed Impressionism, in the 1880s and 1890s. Artists emphasized light, shadow, and color and added dimensions of psychological depth and emotional involvement in their art. Noted artists included Paul Cèzanne Vincent van Gogh and Paul Gauguin.
"Pottery" means a ceramic container made from clay, and then fired in a kiln.
"Primary colors" means the basic colors of red, yellow, and blue from which it is possible to mix all other colors on the color wheel.
"Principles of design" means the different ways the elements of design may be used in works of art in the Western European tradition, such as: balance, rhythm, center of interest, emphasis, contrast, repetition, movement, variety, and unity. Although, works from cultures that are not part of the Western European tradition may give evidence of such principles, they were not created according to these principles and should not be judged by them.
"Print, printmaking" means the art process used to produce an impression from one surface to another and may be repeated one or more times to produce identical images. Several basic printing processes used in the classroom include stencil, block, and monoprint.
"Process" means a complex operation involving a number of methods or techniques, such as the additive/subtractive process in sculpture, or the etching/intaglio processes in printmaking.
"Renaissance" means a revival or rebirth. An art movement during the fourteenth and fifteenth century, during which time advances in painting were made, including perspective and foreshortening. Noted artists of the time include Leonardo Da Vinci, Michelangelo and Raphael.
"Rubbing" means technique of transferring textural qualities of a surface to paper by placing the paper over the surface and repeatedly rubbing over the top of the paper with crayon or pencil until the image is clearly visible on the paper.
"Sculpture" means a three-dimensional work of art, which may be carved, modeled, constructed, or cast.
"Secondary colors" means the three colors obtained by mixing equal parts of two primary colors: red + yellow = orange; red + blue = violet; blue + yellow = green.
"Shade" means a dark value of a color made by adding black to it. Opposite of a tint.
"Shadow" means shaded areas in a drawing painting photograph, or other work of art. Shadows show the surface of the subject that reflects the least light, and are used to create the illusion of form. Opposite of highlight.
"Still life" means a painting, drawing, photograph, or other work of art that shows an arrangement of inanimate objects.
"Style" means an artist's or group of artists' characteristic way of making art or expression, often typical of a cultural group or time period.
"Subject matter" means the categories for identifying the type of content in visual works of art, such as abstractions, animals, landscapes, genre (people in everyday activities), human figures, cityscapes, seascapes, etc.
"Symbol" means a visual image that stands for or represents something else.
"Techniques" means the processes by which art materials and media are used to create/produce works of visual art, such as carving, drawing, painting, printing, etc.
"Technologies" means complex equipment used in the study and creation of art, such as lathes, presses, computers, lasers and video equipment.
"Three-dimensional" means having three qualities including depth, height, and breadth, as in a sculpture, for example.
"Tint" means light value of a color made by mixing the color with white.
"Tools" means instruments and equipment used by students to create and learn about art, such as brushes, scissors, brayers, easels, kilns, carving tools and cameras.
"Two-dimensional" means flat. Having only two qualities of height and breadth, as in a drawing or painting, for example.
"Vanishing point" means in perspective, the point at which receding lines seem to converge and vanish.
"Visual arts" means a broad category that includes the traditional fine arts, such as drawing, painting, printmaking and sculpture; communication and design arts such as film, television, graphics and product design; architecture and environmental arts such as urban, interior and landscape design; folk arts; and works of art such as ceramics, fibers, jewelry, works in wood, paper and other materials.
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Identify and move body parts and imitate movements upon request.
(ii)    Imitate basic locomotor and non-locomotor movements.
(iii)    Move safely in general space and start and stop on cue while maintaining personal space.
(iv)    Recognize food provides energy for physical activity.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Imitate and follow directional cues for moving the body in general space (e.g., forward, backward, sideways, up, down, turning) and finding and returning to a place in space.
(ii)    Imitate speed of dance as fast or slow. Move to varied rhythmic sounds at different tempi.
(iii)    Identify and apply different movement qualities (e.g., slow, smooth, wavy).
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Dance with others in a designated area or space.
(ii)    Use a simple prop as part of a dance.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Respond in movement to a variety of sensory stimuli (e.g., music/sound, visual, tactile).
(ii)    Explore basic locomotor and non-locomotor movements.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Improvise dance that starts and stops on cue.
(ii)    Engage in dance experiences moving alone or with a partner.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Follow verbal cues for changing movement through guided improvisational experiences.
(ii)    Identify parts of the body and draw a picture of a body shape or position.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Identify a learned movement in a dance.
(ii)    Demonstrate an observed or performed dance movement.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Observe a shape or movement and describe it.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Imitate a movement from a dance and explain how it feels to perform it.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Recognize emotions expressed in dance movements watched or performed.
(ii)    Observe a dance work. Imitate a movement from the dance and ask a question about the dance.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Imitate a dance movement experienced at home or elsewhere.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Tell stories, and/or imagine variations of existing stories, utilizing a variety of literature.
(ii)    Imagine technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept by using simple everyday objects to create costumes, props, and puppets.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to drama/theatre work by using the body and voice to create vivid characters appropriate to the story.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Sequence plot events in dramatic play or guided drama experience.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative skills and interdisciplinary skills by engaging in unstructured free play and playing appropriately with others.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare a unified drama/theatre work for presentation by demonstrating imagination, focus, and concentration.
(ii)    Use the body to create a vivid character with energy and movement and use the voice to create a vivid character with volume, pitch, and tone.
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by imaginatively transforming common objects (e.g., fabric, blocks, kitchen utensils, etc.) into scenery and props supporting the story.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Explore choices for movement and speaking voice and select the most supportable choice for the moment through identification of essential events.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Assume roles in a variety of dramatic forms (e.g., dramatic play, guided drama, pantomime, tableau, puppetry, story enactment, etc.) and observe, listen, and respond to the work of others.
(ii)    Make choices for multiple aspects of drama/ theatre work (including technical elements of playing space).
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Perform a non-exhibitional drama/theatre work (dramatic play and guided drama) with characters that are part of recognizable and shared human experiences (e.g., family, workers, community helpers, etc.).
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Identify choices in a drama/theatre work to understand personal reactions as a participant in a drama/theatre event (e.g., play plans, dramatic play, guided drama, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances) through discussion or drawing.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Identify favorite or least favorite parts of a drama/theatre experience (dramatic play, guided drama, and/or developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed).
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Identify favorite or least favorite parts of a drama/theatre experience (dramatic play, guided drama, and/or developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed).
(ii)    Describe and recognize technical elements (e.g., costumes, props, sets, sound effects, etc.).
(iii)    Practice audience etiquette and appropriate audience behavior for a variety of drama/theatre experiences.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Identify similarities between characters and stories and personal experiences in dramatic play, guided drama, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Recognize the reciprocal influence that drama/theatre works have on personal and societal contexts, such as family, workers, and community helpers.
(ii)    With prompting and support, explore the stories of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Identify pictures, grade-appropriate stories, and real people or fictional characters as sources for dramatic play or guided drama.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(i)    Explore the elements of music, including:
(I)    Beat/Meter (steady beat)
(II)    Pitch (high/low)
(III)    Tempo (fast/slow)
(IV)    Dynamics (loud/quiet)
(ii)    Explore melodic and rhythmic answers using voice and classroom instruments.
(iii)    Explore movement (non-locomotor and locomotor) appropriate for the musical elements heard in various listening examples.
(iv)    With guidance, explore rhythmic and melodic notation through icons and pictures.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Present or demonstrate an existing musical work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(i)    Participate in music through singing (individually and in groups, as well as accompanied and unaccompanied) and playing instruments.
(ii)    Experience matching pitches, approach singing in tune, and use appropriate tone and expression.
(iii)    Explore steady beat using instruments or body percussion to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Respond to music while demonstrating respect for others' music preferences and music performances.
(i)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by using non-locomotor or locomotor movement, body percussion, and playing classroom instruments.
(ii)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience and performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(iii)    With guidance, respond, using directional movements or manipulatives, to the melodic contour of familiar songs.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Recognize the development of music from a social, cultural, and historical context.
(i)    Sing and perform songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    With guidance, show and describe personal artwork using introductory art vocabulary (e.g., basic language and materials - shape, color, draw, paint, collage, primary, secondary, texture, etc.).
(ii)    Share observations of others' artwork.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Engage in self-directed creative play with art materials.
(ii)    Identify common tools and materials in art making (e.g., scissors, rulers, etc.).
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Describe choices involved in creating artwork through imaginative play.
(ii)    Express feelings involved in creating personal work.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Practice creating works from selected ideas.
(ii)    Create and tell about art that communicates a story about a familiar place or object.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Practice creative exploration using a variety of art materials, supplies, and tools.
(ii)    Use supplies and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create original art.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Engage in safe, creative exploration of art materials.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Follow teacher established criteria to decide when a piece of original artwork is complete.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Recognize that people make art.
(ii)    Interpret art by identifying and describing subject matter (e.g., color, shape, size, etc.).
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    With guidance, identify choices made in personal works of art.
(iii)    With guidance, explore potential art-related careers.
210:15-3-114.2.  Definitions for musicDance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Kindergarten
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"AB form" means a musical plan that has two different parts, or sections.
"ABA form" means a musical plan that has three sections. The first and last sections are the same. The middle section is different.
"Accelerando" means to perform gradually faster.
"Accompaniment" means vocal or instrumental parts that accompany a melody.
"Acoustic instruments" means traditional musical instruments that produce sound and amplify it by natural means (piano, guitar, trumpet, etc.), as opposed to instruments that produce and amplify sound electronically (synthesizers, sound modules, etc.).
"Acoustics" means the science of sound generation.
"Alto" means the lowest female voice.
"Allegro" means a quick and lively tempo.
"Andante (ahn-DAHN-tay)" means a walking pace, flowing (tempo).
"Articulation" means the degree to which notes are separated or connected such as staccato or legato.
"A tempo" means return to the previous tempo.
"Atonal" means a type of music in which tones and chords are not related to a central keynote.
"Augmentation" means a compositional device in which a melodic line is repeated in longer note values.
"Augmented interval" means a major or perfect interval raised by a half step. means relating to the sense of hearing, listening.
"Ballad" means a narrative song.
"Ballet" means a dance performance, often involving a narrative or plot sequence, usually accompanied by music. A ballet is characterized by conventional steps, poses, and graceful movements including leaps and spins.
"Bar line" means a vertical line dividing the music into measures.f.
"Bass" means the lowest male singing voice.
"Bass clef" means the symbol placed on the five-line staff in traditional notation that tells you that the fourth line of the staff is the note F.
"Beat" means the consistent pulse that occurs throughout a rhyme, song or recorded musical selection.
"Body percussion" means sounds produced by the use of the body (e.g., clap, pat, slap, tap, stamp, etc.).
"Bluegrass" means a type of American country music using acoustic instruments.
"Blues" means a genre of African-American music often expressing suffering, hardship and longing.
"Brass family" means wind instruments made out of metal with either a cup or funnel-shaped mouthpiece, such as trumpet, cornet, bugle, trombone, tuba, euphonium, saxophone, and French horn.
"Cadence" means a chordal or melodic progression which occurs at the close of a phrase, section or composition which gives the feeling of a temporary or permanent ending.
"Call and response" means a song style that follows a simple question and answer pattern in which a soloist leads and a group responds.
"Canon" means a musical form in which a melody is imitated exactly in one or more parts. Similar to a round.
"Chord" means a combination of three or more tones sounded simultaneously.
"Chorus" means the repetitive part of a song that occurs between the verses; also a large group of singers.
"Classroom instruments" means instruments typically used in the general music classroom, including, for example: recorder-type instruments, autoharp, mallet instruments, simple percussion, keyboard, and electronic instruments.
"Clef" means a symbol placed at the beginning of the staff to indicate the pitch of the notes on the staff (treble clef and bass clef).
"Coda" means closing section of a composition.
"Common time" means 4/4 meter.
"Compound meter" means a type of meter in which the beat is divided into threes or sixes.
"Composer" means a person who writes music.
"Composition" means the creation of original music by organizing sound which is usually written for others to perform.
"Concert" means a musical performance for an audience, requiring the cooperation of several musicians.
"Concerto" means a musical work for a soloist and orchestra.
"Conductor" means director of an orchestra or chorus.
"Contour" means the direction of a melodic line.
"Countermelody" means an independent melody which complements the main melody.
"Crescendo" means gradually louder.
"Cue" means a signal given by the director of a performing group to begin either at the beginning of the music or after they have concluded a section at rest.
"Cut time" means a meter in which there are two beats in each measure and a half note receives one beat.
"Dal segno, D.S. al fine" means repeat from the sign to fine (the end).
"Da capo, D.C. al fine" means repeat from the beginning to the fine(the end).
"Decrescendo" means gradually softer. Synonymous with diminuendo.
"Diminution" means the shortening of note values.
"Duet" means a composition performed by two performers.
"Duration" means how long a sound lasts.
"Dynamics" means varying degrees of loud and soft (pianissimo, piano, mezzo piano, mezzo forte, forte, fortissimo, sforzando).
"Elements of music" means:
"Flat" means - a symbol that lowers the pitch of a note one-half step.
"Folk music" means music of a particular people, nation or region, originally transmitted orally, sometimes as a rhythmic accompaniment to manual work or to mark a specific ritual.
"Form" means the organization of a musical composition according to its sections of repetition, contrast, variation or development.
"Forte- f" means loud (dynamic).
"Fortissimo - ff" means very loud (dynamic).
"Four sections of an orchestra" means:
"Fugue" means a composition in which three or more voices enter one after the other and imitate the main melody in various ways according to a set pattern.
"Genre" means a category of musical composition, such as symphony, opera, string quartet, cantata, concerto, etc.
"Harpsichord" means a keyboard instrument of European origin, resembling a piano and having horizontal strings plucked by leather or quill points connected to the keys.
"Harmony" means two or more tones sounding together.
"Improvisation" means a spontaneous creation of music.
"Instrument groupings or instrument families" means classification of instruments by the way or material by which sound is made (i.e. strings, brass, percussion, wind).
"Interval" means the distance between two tones.
"Intonation" means the degree to which pitch is accurately produced in performance, by the musicians in an ensemble.
"Jazz" means a popular style of music characterized by strong, prominent meter, improvisation, and dotted or syncopated patterns.
"Key signature" means the sharps and flats placed at the beginning of a composition or line of music denoting the scale on which the music is based.
"Major key" means tonally, a key based on a major scale; a scale that contains the following step pattern: whole, whole, half, whole, whole, whole, half; or uses the sol - fa tones of do, re , mi, fa, so, la, ti, do.
"Major scale" means a scale built on the pattern of two whole steps, one half step, three whole steps, and one half step.
"Measure" means a group of beats in written music, set off by vertical lines; the notes and rests comprised between two vertical bar lines.
"Melody" means a succession or pattern of musical tones or pitches. Arranging these pitches creates a specific tonal and rhythmic succession of sounds that makes each piece recognizable and expresses a musical idea or tune.
"Meter" means the grouping of accented and unaccented beats in a pattern of two (ONE, two, ONE, two) or three (ONE, two, three, ONE, two, three) or combinations of two and three, which gives internal organization, consistency and flow to the music.
"Meter signature" means an indication at the beginning of a musical work, the lower number indicates the unit of measurement and the upper number of which indicates the number of units that make up a measure (see also "time signature").
"Mezzo forte - mf" means medium loud.
"Mezzo piano - mp" means medium soft.
"MIDI" means an acronym for Musical Instrument Digital Interface. The standard specifications that enable electronic instruments to communicate with one another and with computers.
"Minor key" means tonally, a key based on a minor scale; a scale that contains the following step pattern: whole, half, whole, whole, half, whole, whole; or uses the sol-fa tones of la, ti, do, re, me, fa, so, la.
"Minor scale" means a scale built on the pattern of one whole step, one half step, two whole steps, one half step, and two whole steps.
"Mixed meter" means a mixture of duple and triple meters.
"Mode" means a type of scale with a specific arrangement of intervals (e.g., Aeolian, Dorian, Ionian, Locrian, Lydian, Mixolydian, and Phrygian).
"Motive" means a short melodic or rhythmic pattern.
"Movement" means the principal division or section of a musical composition.
"Notation" means a method in which music is written down, usually on a staff, indicating specific pitches and the duration of each pitch. In Western culture, this system works just like fractions (e.g., whole notes, half notes, quarter notes, eighth notes, sixteenth notes).
"Note" means a musical symbol that denotes both pitch and duration.
"Opera" means a theatrical performance involving a drama, the text of which is sung to the accompaniment of an orchestra.
"Opera glasses" means small decorative low-powered binoculars for use by people in the audience at theatrical, operatic, or ballet performances.
"Orchestra" means group of musicians playing together on instruments. In Western music, the orchestra typically includes string, wind, brass and percussion instrument groupings.
"Ostinato" means a rhythmic or melodic accompaniment figure repeated continually.
"Overture" means an extended orchestral introduction to an opera, ballet, or similar type of musical presentation.
"Percussion family" means instruments that produce sounds of definite or indefinite pitch when shaken or struck including tympani, bass drum, snare drum, xylophone, marimba, cymbal, triangle, chimes.
"Percussive sounds" means sounds made by striking, shaking and/or scraping.
"Phrase" means a relatively short portion of a melodic line which expresses a musical idea, comparable to a line or sentence in poetry.
"Phrasing" means dividing musical sentences into melodic and/or rhythmic sections, similar to the effect of punctuation in language.
"Pianissimo" means very soft.
"Piano" means a large musical instrument consisting of a wooden case with wires stretched inside it and a row of white and black keys.
"Piano - p" means soft; pianissimo -pp - very soft (dynamic). Italian for "soft."
"Pitch" means the highness or lowness of a particular note.
"Polyphony" means the simultaneous combination for different melodies and rhythms.
"Prelude" means an introductory movement of a piece.
"Presto" means very fast tempo.
"Prima donna" means the principal female singer in an opera.
"Quartet" means a composition for four instruments or voices.
"Range" means pitches from low to high which a singer or instrumentalist may perform.
"Refrain" means a short section of repeated music which occurs at the end of each stanza.
"Reggae" means Jamaican dance music, mixing African and Caribbean rhythms.
"Repertoire" means a variety of musical pieces.
"Repetition" means music that is the same, or almost the same, as music that was heard earlier.
"Rests" means symbols used to represent silence between notes.
"Rhythm" means the term which denotes the organization of sound in time or the proportion or duration of notes. Beats per measure.
"Rhythm pattern" means a group of long and short sounds/silences.
"Ritardando" means to perform gradually slower.
"Rondo" means a composition consisting of a recurring theme alternating with contrasting sections.
"Rondo form" means a musical form in which a section is repeated, with contrasting sections in between, such as ABACA.
"Round" means a song imitated at the same pitch by a second (or third) group of singers who begin at a designated time during the song (e.g., "Row, row, row your boat").
"Scale" means an organization of pitches in ascending or descending sequence.
"Score" means the written depiction of all the parts of a musical ensemble with the parts layered vertically and rhythmically aligned.
"Sequence" means the repetition of a melodic ensemble with the parts layered vertically and rhythmically aligned.
"Sharp - #" means a symbol which raises the pitch of a note one-half step.
"Solo" means playing or singing alone. A solo performer is called a soloist.
"Sonata" means an instrumental piece in several movements.
"Sonata - allegro form" means a return form consisting of three sections: exposition, development, and recapitulation.
"Soprano" means the highest female voice.
"Soul music" means a form of rhythm and blues.
"Staccato" means playing notes in a distinct, detached, separated manner. Staccato is represented by dots placed directly above or below the notehead.
"Staff" means the musical ladder made up of a set of five parallel lines and four spaces on which music is written and makes it easy for you to tell how high or low a sound is. The lines and spaces are counted from the bottom up.
"Staves" means the plural of staff. The five parallel lines on which music is written.
"String instrument family" means instruments with strings that produce sound when plucked, bowed, or struck including violin, viola, cello, and bass.
"String quartet" means an ensemble of four stringed instruments including two violins, a viola, and a cello, also music performed by the ensemble.
"Style" means the distinctive or characteristic manner in which the elements of music are treated.
"Swing era" means a period of music from 1935 to 1945.
"Symphony" means a musical work for a large orchestra usually in four movements (e.g., Symphony No. 5 by Beethoven).
"Syncopation" means deliberate shifting of the pattern of strong and weak beats.
"Synthesizer" means a machine that produces sound electronically.
"Tempo" means the speed or pace of music. Musical tempos are expressed in Italian and include lento(very slow); adagio(slow); moderato (moderate); allegro(lively); presto(fast); and vivace(very fast).
"Tenor" means the highest male voice.
"TexturE" means the way individual parts of music are layered or the number of sounds occurring simultaneously.
"Theme" means a melody that assumes importance in a composition because of its central and continued use.
"Theme and variation" means an important melody that is heard and repeated several times throughout a musical composition. Variations occur when the theme is stated and then altered in successive statements. (e.g., key changes, tempo, melodic elaborations, etc.).
"Timbre" means the quality of sound of an instrument or voice.
"Time signature" means the meter (number of beats per measure and kind of note getting one beat, e.g., 2/4 or 3/4 or 4/4 meter). See "meter signature."
"Tonality" means the key or tonal center of a piece of music.
"Tone poem" means a programmatic work for a symphony.
"Transposition" means the process of changing the key of a composition.
"Treble" means high in pitch.
"Treble clef" means a symbol placed on the five-line staff in traditional notation indicating the pitch of the notes and locating G on the second line from the bottom.
"Triad" means a three-note chord consisting of root, third, and fifth.
"Triple meter" means beats grouped into a set of three.
"Twelve-bar blues" means a chord pattern often used in blues music based on the I, IV, and V chords and the blues scale in specific order within twelve (12) bars.
"Twelve-tone scale" means a scale constructed of all twelve half steps within an octave and organized in a specific order called a tone row.
"Two-part songs" means songs written for performance by two distinct voices.
"Vibrato" means a slight wavering or pulsating of tone.
"Virtuoso" means a performer with brilliant, flawless technique.
"Unison" means two or more parts performing the same pitches or melody simultaneously.
"Waltz" means a dance in triple meter, made famous in Vienna in the late 1800s.
"Woodwind instrument family" means instruments originally made of wood, in which sound is produced by the vibration of air including piccolo, flute, clarinet, oboe, English horn, bassoon, and contrabassoon.
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Isolate body parts in relation to other body parts and imitate and recall movements upon request.
(ii)    Imitate same-side and cross-body patterning and demonstrate locomotor and non-locomotor movements.
(iii)    Move safely in general space and start and stop on cue during activities, group formations, and creative explorations while maintaining personal space.
(iv)    Differentiate between healthy and unhealthy foods and drinks.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Make still and moving body shapes to show lines (e.g., straight, bent, curved), change levels, and vary in size (large/small). Join with others to make a circle formation and work with others to change its dimensions.
(ii)    Demonstrate tempo contrasts with movements to match the tempo of music or rhythmic accompaniment.
(iii)    Move with contrasting efforts (e.g., light/strong, quick/sustained, direct/indirect).
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Dance for and with others in a designated space.
(ii)    Select a prop to use as part of a dance.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Respond in movement to a variety of stimuli (e.g., music/sound, text, objects, images, symbols, observed dance).
(ii)    Explore different ways to do several basic locomotor and non-locomotor movements.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Improvise dance with a beginning, middle, and end.
(ii)    Express an idea, feeling, or image, through improvised movement moving alone or with a partner.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Apply suggestions for changing movement through guided improvisational experiences.
(ii)    Depict a dance movement by drawing a picture or using a symbol.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Identify a learned movement repeated in a dance.
(ii)    Demonstrate or describe observed or performed dance movements.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Observe several shapes or movements and describe thoughts or feelings.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Select a movement observed in a dance. Demonstrate the movement and explain why it was selected.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Recognize and name an emotion experienced when watching, improvising, or performing dance.
(ii)    Observe illustrations from a story and discuss ideas for movement.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Describe or demonstrate the movements in a watched or performed dance.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Engage in planning a series of events for dramatic play or a guided drama experience (e.g., play plans, creative drama, story drama, process drama) based on existing stories or creating new stories.
(ii)    Imagine technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept by using non-representational materials to create props, puppets, masks, and/or costume pieces for dramatic play or guided drama experiences (e.g., creative drama, story drama, process drama).
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by demonstrating ideas concerning voice, gestures, and movements appropriate to the characters and story developed.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Create and communicate ideas to advance the beginning, middle, end (plot) and use words and actions to refine characters contributing to a completed story in a guided drama experience (e.g., process drama, story drama, creative drama).
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by engaging in unstructured free play and playing appropriately with others.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare a unified drama/theatre work for presentation by demonstrating imagination, focus, concentration.
(ii)    Use the body to create a vivid character with energy, movement, and gestures and use voice to create a vivid character by changing volume, pitch, tone, rate, and clarity.
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by choosing a single object for multiple, imaginative representations and creating puppets, masks, and costume pieces to support the story.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Understand and demonstrate multiple choices for an aspect of drama/ theatre work (e.g., movement, speaking voice) and select the most supportable choice for the moment through identification of essential events.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Assume roles in a variety of dramatic forms, modifying body (energy, body language, etc.) and voice (volume, pitch, etc.) to convey meaning and create an emotional impact.
(ii)    Explore and experiment with various technical elements for multiple aspects of drama/ theatre work.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Perform a non-exhibitional drama/theatre work (dramatic play and guided drama) with characters that are part of recognizable and shared human experiences (e.g., family, workers, community helpers, etc.).
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Understand personal reactions as a participant in a drama/theatre work by recalling an emotional response in dramatic play or guided drama experiences; and/or, in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances during which there was active and appropriate engagement as an audience member.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Ask questions, answer questions, and reflect upon dramatic play, guided drama, and/or developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Identify favorite or least favorite parts of a drama/theatre experience and explain why these parts elicited those responses.
(ii)    Describe and recognize technical elements (e.g., costumes, props, sets, sound effects, etc.) and discuss likes/dislikes.
(iii)    Practice audience etiquette and appropriate audience behavior for a variety of drama/theatre experiences.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Identify similarities between characters, oneself, and classmates in dramatic play, guided drama, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Identify connections between drama/ theatre and personal and societal contexts, such as family, workers, and community helpers.
(ii)    Explore the stories of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Identify and dramatize recognizable universal experiences from grade-appropriate stories and texts.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(i)    Explore the elements of music, including:
(I)    Beat/Meter (steady beat, strong/weak beats, long/short sounds)
(II)    Pitch (high/low)
(III)    Tempo (fast/slow)
(IV)    Dynamics (loud/quiet)
(V)    Melody (up/down)
(VI)    Harmony (sing in unison, accompanied using pitched and unpitched instruments)
(VII)    Form (same/different)
(VIII)    Tone Color (four voices: whisper, talk, shout/calling, sing, as well as the sounds around us: sounds from nature, machines, and environment)
(ii)    Explore melodic and rhythmic answers using voice and classroom instruments.
(iii)    Improvise movement (non-locomotor and locomotor) appropriate for the musical elements heard in various listening examples.
(iv)    Explore rhythmic and melodic notation through icons and pictures.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Present or demonstrate an existing musical work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(i)    Participate in music through singing (individually and in groups, as well as accompanied and unaccompanied) and playing instruments.
(ii)    Experience matching pitches, approach singing in tune, and use appropriate tone and expression.
(iii)    Experience steady beat using instruments or body percussion to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(iv)    Recognize simple patterns on pitched or unpitched traditional or non-traditional instruments.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Respond to music while demonstrating respect for others' music preferences and music performances.
(i)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by using non-locomotor or locomotor movement, body percussion, and playing classroom instruments.
(ii)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience and performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(iii)    Respond, using directional movements or manipulatives, to the melodic contour of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Recognize the development of music from a social, cultural, and historical context.
(i)    Sing and perform songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Talk about personal artwork using introductory art vocabulary (e.g., shape, color, draw, paint, collage, primary, secondary, texture, etc.), including describing creative choices (e.g., color or shape choices).
(ii)    Describe others' artwork using art vocabulary (e.g., shape, color, texture, etc.).
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Engage in directed exploration and imaginative play with art materials.
(ii)    Practice the use of common tools and materials in art making (e.g., cutting lines, curves, etc.).
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Describe steps involved in creating personal artwork.
(ii)    Explain emotions depicted in personal work.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Select specific ideas for creative exploration through original artworks.
(ii)    Create art that represents natural and constructed environments.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Begin to create original works of art using a variety of art materials, supplies, and tools.
(ii)    Use supplies and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create original art.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Engage in creative art-making using a variety of art materials.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Follow teacher established criteria to decide when a piece of original artwork is complete.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Recognize that people make art.
(ii)    Interpret art by identifying and describing subject matter (e.g., color, shape, size, etc.).
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Identify choices made in personal works of art.
(iii)    With guidance, explore potential art-related careers.
210:15-3-114.3.  Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for First Grade
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing .
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Imitate movements and spatial arrangements of body parts.
(ii)    Imitate a range of locomotor and non-locomotor movements, body patterning, body shapes, and body pathways.
(iii)    Move safely in general space through a range of activities and group formations while maintaining personal space.
(iv)    Discuss the importance of hydration and hydration choices relative to physical activities.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Present locomotor and non-locomotor movements to change body shapes, levels, and facings. Move in straight, curved, and zigzagged pathways. Find and return to place in space. Move with others to form straight lines and circles.
(ii)    Relate quick, moderate, and slow movements to duration in time. Recognize steady beat and move to varying tempi of steady beat.
(iii)    Identify and apply appropriate dynamics to demonstrate change in movement qualities (e.g., selecting specific adverbs and adjectives and applying them to movements).
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Dance for and with others in a space where the audience and performers occupy different areas.
(ii)    Explore the use of simple props or scenery to enhance performance.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Explore movement inspired by a variety of stimuli (e.g., music/sound, text, objects, images, symbols, observed dance, experiences) and identify the source.
(ii)    Explore a variety of locomotor and non-locomotor movements by experimenting with and manipulating the elements of dance (e.g., Body, Space, Time, and Energy).
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Improvise a series of movements with a beginning, middle, and end. Describe movement choices.
(ii)    Choose movements to express an idea or emotion or follow a musical phrase.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Explore suggestions to change movement within short remembered sequences.
(ii)    Depict several different types of movements of a dance by drawing a picture or using a symbol (e.g., jump, turn, slide, bend, reach).
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Identify a movement repeated in a dance to make a pattern.
(ii)    Demonstrate and describe observed or performed dance movements from a specific dance style or cultural movement practice.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Observe several shapes or movements and use fundamental terminology to describe it.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Identify and demonstrate one movement in a dance that attracts attention. Describe the characteristics that make the movements interesting.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Find an emotion expressed in a dance relating to a familiar experience. Identify the movements communicating this emotion.
(ii)    Observe a work of visual art. Describe and then express through movement something of interest about the artwork.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Watch and/or perform a dance from a different culture and discuss or demonstrate the types of movement danced.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize a unified piece of drama/theatre by imagining variations of classroom literature or creating new, independent stories.
(ii)    Imagine technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept by using non-representational materials to create props, puppets, etc., for dramatic play or guided drama experiences and describing, illustrating, and/or physically arranging playing spaces.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by expressing and demonstrating voice, body language, gestures, and movements and clear speaking rate and expression for the characters developed.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Create and communicate ideas, sequence events/plot, propose details, and use words and actions to refine characters contributing to a completed story in a guided drama experience.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by engaging in unstructured free play and plan setting and/or technical elements for dramatic play or a guided drama experience (e.g., process drama, story drama, creative drama).
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare a unified drama/ theatre work for presentation and convey meaning by using basic theatre vocabulary and demonstrating imagination, focus, and concentration.
(ii)    Use the body to create a vivid character using energy, gestures, shape, body language, and movement and use voice to create a vivid character by manipulating volume, pitch, tone, rate, and clarity.
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning in play plans, dramatic play, or guided drama by creating puppets, masks, costume pieces, and sound effects to support the story.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Understand and demonstrate multiple choices for an aspect of drama/ theatre work (e.g., movement, speaking voice, facial expressions) and select the most supportable choice for the moment through identification of essential events.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Assume roles in a variety of dramatic forms, modifying body (energy, body language, etc.) and voice (volume, pitch, etc.) to convey meaning and create an emotional impact.
(ii)    Identify technical elements that can be used in a guided drama experience to create the most effective emotional impact and to convey meaning.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Perform a non-exhibitional drama/theatre work (dramatic play and guided drama) with characters that are recognizable and part of shared human experiences; use personal and partner space to convey meaning about characters, relationships, and mood.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Demonstrate audience skills of observing attentively and responding appropriately while viewing the work of classmates in guided drama experiences (e.g., process drama, story drama, creative drama) and/ or developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Explore, express, and explain personal preferences about the content of dramatic play, guided drama, and/ or developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Develop and apply criteria to evaluate a drama/theatre work by describing and analyzing favorite or least favorite parts of a drama/theatre experience.
(ii)    Describe and recognize technical elements (e.g., costumes, props, sets, sound effects, etc.) and analyze how those elements helped define a character.
(iii)    Identify, discuss, and demonstrate appropriate audience or performer etiquette for a variety of drama/theatre experiences.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Identify similarities between stories, personal experiences and classmates' experiences through dramatic play or guided drama experiences, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Recognize the reciprocal influence that drama/theatre works have on personal, societal, cultural, and historical context.
(ii)    Explore the stories and storytelling abilities of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Identify similarities and differences in grade-appropriate stories and texts for guided drama, devised drama, and theatrical works.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(i)    Recognize the elements of music, including:
(I)    Beat/Meter (steady beat, strong/weak beats, long/short sounds, 2/4 and 4/4 meters)
(II)    Pitch (high/low)
(III)    Tempo (fast/slow, allegro/largo)
(IV)    Dynamics (forte/piano)
(V)    Melody (upward/downward, steps/skips, and repeats)
(VI)    Harmony (sing in unison, accompanied using pitched and unpitched instruments)
(VII)    Form (introduction, call/response, Question/Answer, verse/refrain, and AB)
(VIII)    Tone Color (classroom percussion and instrument families of the orchestra)
(ii)    Improvise melodic and rhythmic answers with or without a system of syllables, numbers or basic notation using voice, classroom instruments, or technology to demonstrate basic notation.
(iii)    Improvise movement (non-locomotor and locomotor) appropriate for the musical elements heard in various listening examples.
(iv)    Use an identified system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(I)    Rhythmic (quarter note, quarter rest, paired eighth notes)
(II)    Melodic (sol mi la)
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Present or demonstrate an existing musical work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(i)    Participate in music through singing (individually and in groups, as well as accompanied and unaccompanied) and playing traditional and/or non-traditional instruments (i.e., found sounds).
(ii)    Match pitches, sing in tune, and use appropriate tone and expression.
(iii)    Play steady beat and simple ostinati using instruments or body percussion to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(iv)    Perform simple patterns with voice or on pitched or unpitched traditional or non-traditional instruments.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Respond to music while demonstrating respect for others' music preferences and music performances.
(i)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by using non-locomotor or locomotor movement, body percussion, and playing classroom instruments.
(ii)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience and performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(iii)    Respond, using directional movements or manipulatives, to the melodic contour of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(iv)    Discuss likes and dislikes of music in different styles.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Recognize the development of music from a social, cultural, and historical context.
(i)    Sing and perform songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(ii)    Experience American music, including work songs, holiday songs, and patriotic music.
(iii)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Describe personal artwork while referencing introductory art vocabulary (e.g., various elements of art and principles of design).
(ii)    Describe the content of works of art while referencing various elements of art and principles of design.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Engage collaboratively in exploration and imaginative play with materials.
(ii)    Practice the use of common tools and materials in art making (e.g., cutting lines and curves, using a ruler to draw straight lines, using stencils, etc.).
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Describe steps involved in creating artwork using art vocabulary (the elements of art and principles of design).
(ii)    Use appropriate vocabulary to express how art can portray emotions.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Gather references from diverse sources and create works using various subject matter.
(ii)    Identify and classify uses of everyday objects through drawings, diagrams, sculptures, or other visual means.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Explore using a variety of art materials, supplies, and tools in various media (materials).
(ii)    Use supplies and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create original art.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Engage in art-making, exploring knowledge of art vocabulary, materials, techniques, and skills.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Use observation and teacher established criteria to refine a piece of original artwork until its completion.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Understand that people from different places and times have made art for a variety of reasons.
(ii)    Explore the variety of motivations and materials used to create art.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Describe choices made in personal works of art.
(iii)    Explore potential art-related careers.
(iv)    Select and collect personal works of art in a portfolio.
210:15-3-114.4.  Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Second Grade
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Repeat movements with an awareness of self and others in space. Self-adjust and modify movements or placement upon request.
(ii)    Demonstrate a range of locomotor and non-locomotor movements, body patterning, and dance sequences using a variety of levels and body pathways.
(iii)    Utilize spatial awareness to coordinate with a partner or other dancers to safely change levels, directions, and pathway designs.
(iv)    Recognize the good health balance of nutrition and physical activity.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Present clear directionality, focus, and intent when performing locomotor and non-locomotor movements to change body shapes, facings, and pathways in space. Recognize symmetrical and asymmetrical body shapes and examine relationships between body parts. Differentiate between circling and turning as two separate ways of continuous directional change.
(ii)    Identify the length of time a move or phrase takes (e.g., whether it is long or short). Identify and move on the downbeat and in varying meters. Match movement phrasing with musical phrasing.
(iii)    Demonstrate movement qualities along with movement vocabulary (e.g., use adverbs and adjectives applied to movement such as a bouncy leap, a floppy fall, a jolly jump, and joyful spin).
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Understand the role of an audience member in a performance.
(ii)    Use limited technical elements (e.g., props, simple scenery, or media projections) to enhance performance.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Explore movement inspired by a variety of stimuli (e.g., music/sound, text, objects, images, symbols, observed dance, experiences) and suggest additional sources for movement ideas.
(ii)    Combine a variety of movements to create a sequence while manipulating the elements of dance.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Organize a dance phrase with a beginning, a middle with a main idea, and a clear end.
(ii)    Choose movements to express a main idea or emotion or follow a musical phrase. Explain reasons for movement choices.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Explore suggestions and make choices to change movement from guided improvisation and/or short remembered sequences.
(ii)    Depict the levels in a variety of dance movements by drawing a picture or using symbols (e.g., high, middle, low).
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Identify a dance style within the pattern of a dance.
(ii)    Demonstrate and describe movements in dances from a specific dance style or cultural movement practice.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Select context cues from movement to identify meaning and intent in a dance, using fundamental terminology.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Observe or demonstrate dances from a specific style or cultural movement practice. Discuss characteristics of the style or cultural dance.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Describe, create, and/or perform a dance expressing personal meaning and explain how certain movements express this personal meaning.
(ii)    Respond to a dance work using an inquiry-based set of questions (e.g., see-think-wonder). Create movement using ideas from responses and explain how certain movements express a specific idea.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Observe a dance and relate the movement to the people or environment in which the dance was created and performed, including dances of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize and sequence a unified piece of drama/theatre by imagining variations of classroom literature or creating new, independent stories.
(ii)    Imagine and collaborate with peers to conceptualize technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept by using non-representational materials to create props, puppets, etc., and describing, illustrating, and/or physically arranging playing spaces.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by demonstrating voice, body language, gestures, movements, and using clear speaking, rate, expression, and appropriate vocabulary to impact the development of characters and story.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Create and communicate ideas, sequence events/plot, propose details, contribute dialogue, and use words and actions to refine characters contributing to a completed story in a guided drama experience.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by working with peers and accepting the ideas of others to plan setting and/or technical elements for dramatic play or a guided drama experience.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare a unified drama/ theatre work for presentation and convey meaning by using basic theatre vocabulary and demonstrating imagination, focus, and concentration.
(ii)    Use the body to create a vivid character using energy, gestures, shape, body language, and movement and use voice to create a vivid character by manipulating volume, pitch, tone, rate, and clarity, and justify character choices.
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by creating puppets, masks, props, scenery, and sound effects to support the story.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Demonstrate multiple choices for an aspect of drama/theatre work (e.g., character, character traits, locomotor/non-locomotor movement, speaking voice, facial expressions, set, props, costumes) and select the most supportable choice for the moment.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Assume roles in a variety of dramatic forms, modifying body (energy, body language, etc.) and voice (volume, pitch, etc.) to convey meaning and create an emotional impact.
(ii)    Explore the basic technical elements that can be used in a drama/ theatre work to create the most effective emotional impact and to convey meaning.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a non-exhibitional drama work with a defined purpose or intent with characters representing various people/cultures; use personal and partner space to convey meaning about characters, relationships, mood, and story.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Demonstrate audience skills of observing attentively, responding appropriately, and sharing personal responses about artistic choices made in classroom dramatizations and developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Interact with others to compare and contrast personal feelings about the content of dramatic play, guided drama, and/or developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Develop and implement a plan for making informed evaluations of a drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Analyze the appropriateness and effectiveness of the technical elements (e.g., costumes, props, sets, sound effects, etc.) in a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Identify, discuss, and demonstrate appropriate audience or performer etiquette and analyze problems and situations for a variety of drama/theatre experiences.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Relate character experiences and emotions to personal experiences and emotions through dramatic play or guided drama experiences, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Explore drama/theatre works, connecting artistic ideas to personal, societal, cultural, or historical context.
(ii)    Recognize that the stories and storytelling contributions of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes can influence the creation and understanding of drama/theatre works.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Research and identify grade- appropriate stories and texts as sources for guided drama, devised drama, and theatrical works.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(i)    Recognize the elements of music, including:
(I)    Beat/Meter (2/4 and 4/4 meter and rhythm patterns in songs and ostinati)
(II)    Pitch (high/middle/low)
(III)    Tempo (allegro, moderato, largo)
(IV)    Dynamics (fortissimo/pianissimo and crescendo/decrescendo)
(V)    Melody (steps/skips/leaps)
(V)    Harmony (sing accompanied, using ostinati, chordal accompaniment, and body percussion)
(VI)    Form (coda and ABA)
(VII)    Tone Color (classroom percussion instruments, identify instrument families of the orchestra, as well as some individual instruments, and the timbre of a solo verses an ensemble)
(ii)    Improvise melodic and rhythmic answers with or without a system of syllables, numbers or basic notation using voice, classroom instruments, or technology to demonstrate basic notation.
(iii)    Improvise movement (non-locomotor and locomotor) appropriate for the musical elements heard in various listening examples.
(iv)    Use an identified system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(I)    Rhythmic (half note, half rest, and beamed sixteenth)
(II)    Melodic (sol mi la do re)
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Present or demonstrate an existing musical work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(i)    Participate in music through singing (individually and in groups, as well as accompanied and unaccompanied) and playing traditional and/or non-traditional instruments (i.e., found sounds).
(ii)    Match pitches, sing in tune (C, D, F, or G-pentatone), and use appropriate tone and expression.
(iii)    Perform simple ostinati using instruments or body percussion to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(iv)    Perform simple patterns with voice or on pitched or unpitched traditional or non-traditional instruments.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Respond to music while demonstrating respect for others' music preferences and music performances.
(i)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by using non-locomotor or locomotor movement, body percussion, and playing classroom instruments.
(ii)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience and performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(iii)    Respond, using directional movements or manipulatives, to the melodic contour of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(iv)    Discuss likes and dislikes of music in different styles.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Recognize the development of music from a social, cultural, and historical context.
(i)    Sing and perform songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(ii)    Experience American music, including work songs, holiday songs, and patriotic music.
(iii)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    With support, discuss and explain multiple approaches to an imaginative idea referencing various elements of art and basic principles of design.
(ii)    Describe the visual qualities and content of works of art while referencing various elements of art and principles of design.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Experiment with various materials and tools to explore personal interests in a work of art or design.
(ii)    Practice the use of common tools and materials in art making (e.g., cutting lines and curves, measuring with a ruler, using stencils, etc.).
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Discuss and reflect with peers about choices made in creating artwork.
(ii)    Use appropriate vocabulary to express how art can portray emotions.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Gather references from diverse sources and create works using various subject matter utilizing a concept or theme.
(ii)    Repurpose objects to make something new.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Demonstrate using a variety of art materials, supplies, and tools in various media (materials).
(ii)    Use supplies and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create original art.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Engage in art-making, applying knowledge of art vocabulary, materials, techniques, and skills.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Use observation and teacher established criteria to refine a piece of original artwork until its completion.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Compare and contrast cultural uses of an artwork from different times and places.
(ii)    Explore the variety of motivations and materials used to create art.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Describe choices made in personal works of art.
(iii)    Explore potential art-related careers.
(iv)    Select and collect personal works of art in a portfolio.
210:15-3-114.5.  Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Third Grade
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Identify and demonstrate movements initiated by distal ends (fingers/toes). Apply constructive feedback from the teacher.
(ii)    Introduce an awareness of body alignment and core support while executing body shapes and movement characteristics in a dance sequence.
(iii)    Move safely in a variety of spatial relationships and formations with other dancers, sharing and maintaining personal space while exploring levels, directions, and pathway designs.
(iv)    Identify foods beneficial for before and after physical activity.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Present three-dimensional shapes with positive and negative space. Perform movement sequences in and through space with intentionality and focus.
(ii)    Fulfill specified duration of time with improvised locomotor and non-locomotor movements. Differentiate between "in time" and "out of time" to music. Perform movements that are the same or of a different tempo to accompaniment.
(iii)    Change use of energy and dynamics by modifying movements and applying specific characteristics to heighten the effect of their intent.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Identify the main areas of a performance space using stage directions.
(ii)    Explore simple technical elements (e.g., costumes, props, music, scenery, lighting, media) for a dance performed for an audience in a designated performance space.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Experiment with a variety of self-selected stimuli (e.g., music/sound, text, objects, images, notation, observed dance, experiences) for movement.
(ii)    Explore manipulations of the elements of dance as tools to find a solution to a movement problem.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Identify and experiment with choreographic devices to create simple movement patterns and dance structures (e.g., AB, ABA, theme and development).
(ii)    Develop a dance phrase expressing and communicating an idea or feeling. Discuss the effect of the movement choices.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Revise movement choices in response to feedback to improve a short dance study. Describe the differences the changes made in the movements.
(ii)    Depict directions or spatial pathways in a dance phrase by drawing a picture map or using a symbol.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Identify a movement pattern that creates a theme in a dance work.
(ii)    Demonstrate and explain how one dance form is different from another or how one cultural movement practice is different from another.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Select specific context cues from movement. Use appropriate terminology to explain how they relate to the main idea of the dance.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Identify dance movements from different styles or cultural movement practices. Using appropriate terminology, describe ways in which they are alike and different.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Compare the relationships expressed in a dance to relationships with others. Explain how they are the same or different.
(ii)    Observe a dance that communicates a perspective about a topic or event. Identify and explore key aspects through movement. Share findings through oral, written, or movement forms. Discuss how the findings deepen understanding of the topic/event.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Find a relationship between a dance movement and the culture, society, or community from which the dance is derived. Explain what the movements communicate about the key aspects of the culture, society, or community including those of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize and sequence a unified piece of drama/ theatre by engaging in guided drama experiences using developmentally appropriate literature and proposing choices to enrich and help unify dramatic play or a guided drama experience.
(ii)    Imagine and collaborate with peers to conceptualize technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept; use non-representational materials to create props, puppets, etc., and describe, illustrate, and/or physically arrange playing spaces.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by demonstrating voice, body language, gestures, movements and using clear speaking, rate, fluency, expression, and appropriate vocabulary to impact the development of characters and story.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Create and communicate ideas, sequence events/plot, propose details, contribute dialogue, and use words and actions to refine characters contributing to a completed story in a guided drama experience.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by working with peers and accepting the ideas of others to plan setting, technical elements, and other details for dramatic play or a guided drama experience.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare a unified drama/ theatre work for presentation and convey meaning by using basic theatre vocabulary and demonstrating imagination, focus, concentration.
(ii)    Use the body to create and refine a vivid character by manipulating energy, gestures, shape, body language, and movement; use voice to create and refine a vivid character by manipulating volume, pitch, tone, rate, and clarity; and justify character choices.
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by creating puppets, masks, and costume pieces to help define characters and selecting or creating materials to be used for scenery, props, costumes, and sound effects supporting the story.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Demonstrate that there are multiple choices for aspects of drama/theatre work (movement, voice, set, etc.) and select supportable choices for setting, character, and technical elements.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Develop expertise by assuming roles in a variety of dramatic forms (e.g., dramatic play, guided drama, pantomime, tableau, puppetry, story enactment, reader's theatre, musical theatre, developing and voicing characters using animation).
(ii)    Identify the basic technical elements used in a drama/theatre work to create the most effective emotional impact and to convey meaning.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a non-exhibitional drama/theatre work with a defined purpose or intent.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Demonstrate audience skills of observing attentively, responding appropriately, and sharing personal responses about artistic choices made in classroom dramatizations and developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Identify the similarities and differences shared about what was enacted, seen, heard, and felt in dramatic play, guided drama, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Decide as a classroom community what makes a successful performance by developing and applying criteria to evaluate a drama/ theatre work.
(ii)    Investigate how technical elements (e.g., costumes, props, sets, sound effects, etc.) may support a theme or idea in a drama/ theatre work.
(iii)    Identify, discuss, and demonstrate appropriate audience or performer etiquette and give/receive constructive feedback for a variety of drama/ theatre experiences.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Use personal experiences and knowledge to make connections to community by reading, listening to, and performing stories from a variety of cultures through dramatic play or guided drama experiences, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Identify and explain connections between drama/ theatre works and personal, societal, cultural, and historical context.
(ii)    Identify and explain connections between the history and culture of others to Oklahoma history and culture, including the stories and storytelling contributions of the Oklahoma American Indian Tribes.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Adapt grade-appropriate stories, texts, pictures, and real people or fictional characters as sources for guided drama, devised drama, and theatrical works.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(i)    Identify the elements of music, including:
(I)    Beat/Meter (meter in 2/4, 3/4, and 4/4)
(II)    Pitch (high/middle/low)
(III)    Tempo (andante, presto, accelerando, and ritardando)
(IV)    Dynamics (mezzo forte/mezzo piano)
(V)    Melody (steps/skips/leaps and melodic contour)
(VI)    Harmony (rhythmic and melodic ostinati, canons/rounds, major/minor, and partner songs)
(VII)    Form (rondo and D.C. al fine)
(VIII)    Tone Color (classroom percussion instruments, identify instrument families of the orchestra, as well as some individual instruments, and timbre of solo versus an ensemble)
(ii)    Improvise melodic and rhythmic answers with or without a system of syllables, numbers or basic notation using voice, classroom instruments, or technology to demonstrate basic notation.
(iii)    Improvise movement (non-locomotor and locomotor) appropriate for the musical elements heard in various listening examples.
(iv)    Use an identified system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(I)    Rhythmic (dotted half note, whole note, and whole rest)
(II)    Melodic (Pentatonic Scale)
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Present or demonstrate an existing musical work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(i)    Participate in music through singing (individually and in groups, as well as accompanied and unaccompanied) and playing traditional and/or non-traditional instruments (i.e., found sounds).
(ii)    Match pitches, sing in tune (C, D, F, or G-pentatone), and use appropriate tone and expression.
(iii)    Perform simple ostinati using instruments or body percussion to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(iv)    Perform simple patterns with voice or on pitched or unpitched traditional or non-traditional instruments.
(v)    Sing two-part rounds, partner songs, and ostinatos.
(vi)    Sing or play an instrument in an appropriate range with acceptable tone quality.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Respond to music while demonstrating respect for others' music preferences and music performances.
(i)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by using non-locomotor or locomotor movement, body percussion, and playing classroom instruments.
(ii)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience and performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(iii)    Respond with movement to basic features (dynamics, tempo, form, etc.) of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(iv)    Compare students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles while using appropriate terms to explain opinions.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Recognize the development of music from a social, cultural, and historical context.
(i)    Sing and perform songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(ii)    Experience American music, including work songs, holiday songs, and patriotic music.
(iii)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Discuss and explain an imaginative idea using elements of art and principles of design.
(ii)    Demonstrate understanding of the importance of the elements of art in the development of artwork.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Explore and invent a variety of art-making techniques and approaches.
(ii)    Demonstrate an understanding of the safe and proficient use of materials, tools, and equipment in a manner preventing danger to oneself and others.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Elaborate and revise artwork on the basis of insights gained through reflection and/or discussion.
(ii)    The student will identify creative thinking in artmaking. Identify techniques artists use to portray emotion.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Investigate and discuss diverse resources in creating works of art using a variety of subject matter utilizing a concept or theme.
(ii)    Individually or collaboratively create works that represent places or objects that are part of everyday life.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Gain knowledge of available resources, tools, and technologies to investigate personal ideas through the art-making process.
(ii)    Use supplies and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create original art.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Engage in art-making, applying knowledge of art-related vocabulary, materials, techniques, skills, and tools/technology.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in the process of refining original artwork, determining when the work is complete.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Compare and contrast works of art from various times, places, and cultures.
(ii)    Explore ways that people have created artwork using available resources.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Demonstrate care and respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Reflect on choices made in personal works of art and/or artworks from various periods and cultures.
(iii)    Explore potential art-related careers.
(iv)    Select and collect personal works of art in a portfolio.
210:15-3-114.6.  Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Fourth Grade
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Demonstrate movements by isolating distal and mid-limb initiations (elbows, knees). Learn the roles of initiations and body patterns.
(ii)    Integrate movement fundamentals (e.g., alignment, coordination, balance, core support, kinesthetic awareness) and effort qualities in a dance sequence.
(iii)    Coordinate phrases and timing with other dancers while changing levels, directions, and pathway designs. Reflect on feedback from others to inform personal dance performance goals.
(iv)    Explore the relationship between safe body movement, healthy nutrition, and execution of technique.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Make static and dynamic shapes with positive and negative space. Perform elevated shapes (jump shapes) with soft landings and movement sequences alone and with others, establishing relationships with other dancers through performance focus.
(ii)    Accompany other dancers using a variety of percussive instruments and sounds. Respond in movement to even and uneven rhythms. Recognize and respond to tempo changes as they occur in dance and music.
(iii)    Analyze movements and phrases for use of energy and dynamic changes. Refine the phrases by incorporating a range of contrasting movement characteristics.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Consider how to establish a formal performance space from an informal setting.
(ii)    Identify, explore, and experiment with a variety of technical elements to heighten the artistic intent and audience experience.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Generate ideas for choreography inspired by a variety of stimuli (e.g., music/sound, text, objects, images, notation, observed dance, experiences).
(ii)    Develop a solution to a movement problem using the elements of dance.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Manipulate or modify choreographic devices to expand movement possibilities and create a variety of movement patterns and structures. Discuss movement choices.
(ii)    Develop a dance study expressing and communicating a main idea. Discuss the reasons and effectiveness of the movement choices.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Revise movement based on peer feedback and self-reflection to improve communication of artistic intent in a short dance study. Explain choices made in the process.
(ii)    Depict the relationships between two or more dancers in a dance phrase by drawing a picture or using symbols (e.g., next to, above, below, behind, in front of).
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Identify patterns of movement in dance works creating a style or theme. (ii) Demonstrate and explain how dance forms differ within a genre or within a cultural movement practice.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Relate movements, ideas, and context to decipher meaning in a dance, using appropriate terminology.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Discuss the characteristics of a famous choreographic work. Using appropriate terminology, compare those characteristics to dances observed or performed in a specific dance style or cultural movement practice.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Relate the main idea or content in a dance to other experiences. Explain how the main idea of a dance is similar to or different from one's own experiences, relationships, ideas, or perspectives.
(ii)    Develop and research a question related to a topic of study in school by selecting main ideas and choreographing movements to communicate the information. Discuss what was learned from creating the dance and describe how the topic might be communicated using another form of expression.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Select and describe movements in a specific genre or style and explain how the movements relate to the culture, society, historical period, or community from which the dance originated, including those of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Use developmentally appropriate literature to conceptualize and sequence a unified piece of drama/theatre and demonstrate an understanding of plot, character, and main idea/theme.
(ii)    Imagine and collaborate with peers to conceptualize technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept; use non-representational materials to create props, puppets, masks, costume pieces, etc., and describe, illustrate, and/or physically arrange playing spaces for drama/ theatre experiences.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by demonstrating voice, body language, gestures, movements and using clear speaking, rate, fluency, expression, and appropriate vocabulary to impact the development of characters. Express ideas concerning character through a combination of drawing, writing, and/or discussion.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Create and communicate ideas, sequence events/plot, propose details and design elements, and develop words/dialogue and actions to gradually develop a completed story.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by cooperating with others to plan setting, technical elements, and other details for drama/theatre experience by engaging with peers, defining roles/responsibilities, and participating in group decision making.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare a unified drama/ theatre work for presentation and convey meaning by using basic theatre vocabulary and demonstrating imagination, focus, concentration.
(ii)    Use the body to create and refine a vivid character by manipulating energy, gestures, etc.; use voice to create and refine a vivid character by manipulating volume, pitch, etc.; justify character choices and identify similarities between characters and oneself in a drama/theatre experience.
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by creating puppets, masks, and costume pieces to help define characters, creating scenery, props, sound effects, and multimedia supporting the story.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Demonstrate that there are multiple choices for every drama/theatre work and select supportable choices for story/plot, character, setting, design and technical elements (e.g., playing space, audience space, props, sound).
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Assume roles in a variety of dramatic forms of drama/theatre work (e.g., dramatic play, guided drama, pantomime, tableau, puppetry) and manipulate the body and voice to create an emotional impact.
(ii)    Propose the use of technical elements in a drama/theatre work to create the most effective emotional impact and to convey meaning.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a non-exhibitional drama/theatre work with a defined purpose or intent.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Demonstrate audience skills of observing attentively, responding appropriately, identifying artistic choices made, and sharing personal responses in classroom dramatizations and developmentally appropriate theatrical performances.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Compare and contrast characters and events and describe the similarities and differences between them in dramatic play, guided drama, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Decide as a small group or as an individual what makes a successful performance by exploring the application of criteria for making informed evaluations and dramatic and theatrical choices in a drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Ask questions about what is seen and heard as a result of the design and execution of technical elements (e.g., costumes, props, sets, sound effects, etc.) in a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Observe and discuss how characters' circumstances and choices impact audience members' perspectives and reactions in a drama/ theatre work.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Identify similarities between story elements and personal experiences, peer experiences, and culture comparisons (e.g., Oklahoma culture compared with other cultures) in dramatic play or guided drama experiences, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Create drama/theatre works by connecting artistic ideas to personal, societal, cultural, or historical contexts.
(ii)    Analyze connections between the history and culture of others to Oklahoma history and culture, including the stories and storytelling contributions of the Oklahoma American Indian Tribes.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Adapt grade-appropriate stories, texts, pictures, real people, or fictional characters, and research Oklahoma history and culture as sources for guided drama, devised drama, and theatrical works.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(i)    Identify the elements of music, including:
(I)    Beat/Meter (meter in 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and syncopation)
(II)    Pitch (high/middle/low)
(III)    Tempo (vivace, adagio, grave)
(IV)    Dynamics (sforzando)
(V)    Melody (octave leap and melodic contour)
(VI)    Harmony (layered ostinati, both rhythmic and melodic, canons/rounds, and partner songs)
(VII)    Form (interlude and first/second ending)
(VIII)    Tone Color (classroom percussion instruments, identify instruments and instrument families of the orchestra, timbre of solo versus ensemble, as well as soprano, alto, tenor and bass)
(ii)    Improvise melodic and rhythmic answers with or without a system of syllables, numbers or basic notation using voice, classroom instruments, or technology to demonstrate basic notation.
(iii)    Improvise movement (non-locomotor and locomotor) appropriate for the musical elements heard in various listening examples with and without partners or groups.
(iv)    Use an identified system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(I)    Rhythmic (syncopation and single eighth note and rest)
(II)    Melodic (high do, low la, low sol, and treble clef)
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Present or demonstrate an existing musical work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(i)    Participate in music through singing (individually and in groups, as well as accompanied and unaccompanied) and playing traditional and/or non-traditional instruments (i.e., found sounds).
(ii)    Match pitches, sing in tune (C, D, F, or G-pentatone), and use appropriate tone and expression.
(iii)    Perform simple ostinati using instruments or body percussion to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(iv)    Perform simple patterns or melodies in group ensembles with voice or on pitched or unpitched traditional or non-traditional instruments.
(v)    Sing two-part rounds, partner songs, and ostinatos.
(vi)    Sing or play an instrument in an appropriate range with acceptable tone quality.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Respond to music while demonstrating respect for others' music preferences and music performances.
(i)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by using non-locomotor or locomotor movement, body percussion, and playing classroom instruments.
(ii)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience and performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed and demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(iii)    Respond with movement to basic features (dynamics, tempo, form, etc.) of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(iv)    Compare students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles while using appropriate terms to explain opinions.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Recognize the development of music from a social, cultural, and historical context.
(i)    Sing and perform songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(ii)    Experience American music, including work songs, holiday songs, and patriotic music.
(iii)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures.
(iv)    Introduce the various roles musicians have in various musical settings and cultures.
(v)    Explore uses of music in everyday life (e.g., film, television, background music, commercials, and video games).
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Discuss and compare imaginative ideas using elements of art and principles of design.
(ii)    Collaboratively discuss the elements of art and their relationship to the principles of design.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Explore and invent a variety of art-making techniques and approaches.
(ii)    Demonstrate an understanding of the safe and proficient use of materials, tools, and equipment in a manner preventing danger to oneself and others.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Elaborate and revise artwork on the basis of insights gained through reflection and/or discussion.
(ii)    The student will identify creative thinking in artmaking. Identify techniques artists use to portray emotion.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Investigate and apply diverse resources and media (materials) for creating themed works of art.
(ii)    Identify, describe, and visually document places and/or objects of personal significance.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Apply knowledge of available resources, tools, and technologies to investigate personal ideas through the art-making process.
(ii)    Use supplies and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create original art.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Explore and experiment with materials and techniques to expand personal interests and skills.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in the process of revising and refining original artwork, determining when the work is complete.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Through observation, infer information about time, place and culture in which a work of art was created.
(ii)    Explore ways that people have created artwork using available resources.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Demonstrate care and respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Critique personal art based on teacher-established criteria and/or artworks from various periods and cultures.
(iii)    Explore potential art-related careers.
(iv)    Select and collect personal works of art in a portfolio.
210:15-3-114.7.  Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Fifth Grade
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Demonstrate movement from central initiation (torso), mid-limb and distal initiation. Explore and analyze the role of initiations and body patterns and self-check to improve dance skills.
(ii)    Execute a series of dance phrases while integrating movement fundamentals (e.g., alignment, coordination, balance, core support, kinesthetic awareness, clarity of movement).
(iii)    Collaborate with peer ensemble members to repeat sequences, synchronize actions, and refine spatial relationships to improve performance quality. Apply feedback from others to establish personal performance goals.
(iv)    Examine how safe body movement and proper execution of technique, along with healthy eating habits, promote strength, flexibility, endurance, and injury prevention.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Integrate static and dynamic shapes and varied pathways into dance sequences. Use performance focus to maintain relationships with other dancers and understand the difference between internal and external focus.
(ii)    Dance to a variety of rhythms generated from internal and external sources. Perform movement phrases, showing the ability to respond to changes in time.
(iii)    Explore muscular tension and release as it relates to the body and space using effort qualities.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Demonstrate the ability to adapt dance to alternative performance venues by modifying spacing and movement to the performance space.
(ii)    Identify, explore, and select technical elements to heighten and intensify the artistic intent of a dance and are adaptable for various performance spaces.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Build content for choreography using several stimuli (e.g., music/sound, text, objects, images, notation, observed dance, experiences, literary forms, natural phenomena).
(ii)    Solve multiple movement problems to create choreographic content.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Manipulate or modify a variety of choreographic devices to expand choreographic possibilities and develop a main idea. Explain reasons for movement choices.
(ii)    Develop a dance study by selecting a specific movement theme to communicate a main idea. Discuss how the dance communicates nonverbally.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Utilizing feedback from others, explore and expand choreographic possibilities for a short dance study communicating artistic intent. Explain and defend the movement choices and refinements.
(ii)    Record changes in a dance sequence through writing, symbols, or a form of media technology.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Identify meaning or artistic intent conveyed through patterns of movement in a dance work.
(ii)    Demonstrate and explain the stylistic similarities and differences within a dance style or within a cultural movement practice, using basic dance terminology.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Interpret meaning or artistic intent from the patterns of movement in a dance work. Explain how the movements communicate the main idea of the dance using appropriate terminology.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Define the aspects of a choreographic work that make a dance meaningful. Use appropriate terminology to discuss the elements of dance, styles, or cultural movement practices used to illustrate the artist's intent.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Compare two dances with contrasting themes. Discuss feelings and ideas evoked by each. Describe how the themes and movements relate to points of view, relationships, and experiences.
(ii)    Select and research a choreographer and their work. Choreograph a dance to communicate the learned information and include the intention and clarity of the choreographer's style. Explain the style and meaning of the dance.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Describe how the movement characteristics and qualities of a dance in a specific genre or style communicate the ideas and perspectives of the culture, historical period, or community from which the genre or style originated, including those of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Use developmentally appropriate literature to conceptualize and sequence a unified piece of drama/theatre to demonstrate an understanding of plot, character, main idea/theme, action, and dialogue.
(ii)    Imagine and collaborate with peers to conceptualize detailed technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept; use non-representational materials to create props, puppets, masks, costume pieces, etc., and describe, illustrate, physically arrange or create playing spaces for drama/theatre experiences.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by demonstrating voice, body language, gestures, facial expressions, movements and using clear speaking, rate, fluency, expression, and appropriate vocabulary to impact the development of characters. Express ideas concerning character through a combination of drawing, writing, and/or discussion.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Create and communicate ideas, sequence events/plot and synthesize ideas to create plot points, propose details and design elements, and create words/ dialogue and actions to refine characters and develop a completed story.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by cooperating with others to plan setting, technical elements, and other details for drama/theatre experience by engaging with peers, defining roles/responsibilities, and participating in group decision making to develop and practice an original piece of drama/theatre.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare a unified drama/ theatre work for presentation and convey meaning by using theatre vocabulary, creating, revising, and appropriately adding to ideas, and demonstrating imagination, focus, concentration.
(ii)    Use the body to create and refine a vivid character by manipulating energy, gestures, etc.; use voice to create and refine a vivid character by manipulating volume, pitch, etc.; justify character choices and identify similarities between characters and oneself in a drama/theatre experience.
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by working creatively and collaborating with others to conceptualize and create drama/theatre experiences.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Select and demonstrate supportable choices for plot, character, setting, design and technical elements, and listen to, accept, and build on the ideas of others to incorporate the most supportable choices for each aspect of drama/theatre work.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Assume roles in a variety of dramatic forms and manipulate the body and voice while developing and defending choices for multiple aspects of drama/theatre work to convey meaning and create an emotional impact.
(ii)    Demonstrate the use of technical elements in a drama/theatre work to create the most effective emotional impact and to convey meaning.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a drama/theatre work informally to an audience with a defined purpose or intent.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Demonstrate audience skills of observing attentively, responding appropriately, and explaining personal reactions to artistic choices in classroom dramatizations and developmentally appropriate theatrical performances, clearly stating opinions supported with details.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Apply critical thinking and examine multiple perspectives to explain why different people enacted, saw, heard, and felt similar/different things in dramatic play, guided drama, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Make informed evaluations of and recommendations for drama/theatre work by applying criteria to evaluate dramatic and theatrical choices.
(ii)    Evaluate the contributions and effectiveness of the technical elements in supporting environment, mood, and meaning in a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Observe, discuss, and assess how characters' circumstances and choices impact audience members' perspectives and reactions in a drama/ theatre work.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Identify and explain similarities between story elements and personal experiences, peer experiences, and culture comparisons (e.g., Oklahoma culture compared with other cultures) in dramatic play or guided drama experiences, and/or in developmentally appropriate theatrical performances viewed.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Create drama/theatre works by connecting artistic ideas to personal, societal, cultural, or historical contexts and incorporating other content areas in drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Contribute to drama/theatre works to develop connections between the history and culture of others to Oklahoma history and culture, including the stories and storytelling contributions of the Oklahoma American Indian Tribes.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Research societal, historical, and cultural context for a performance by analyzing similarities and differences between stories/ plays set in different cultures in preparation for a drama/theatre work.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(i)    Define and use correct terminology to identify and discuss the elements of music, including:
(I)    Beat/Meter (meter in 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, 6/8, and syncopation)
(II)    Pitch (high/middle/low)
(III)    Tempo
(IV)    Dynamics
(V)    Melody (diatonic scale)
(VI)    Harmony - descant and chordal changes (e.g., tonic, dominant and subdominant)
(VII)    Form (D.S. al Coda)
(VIII)    Tone Color (duet, trio, quartet)
(ii)    Improvise melodic and rhythmic answers with or without a system of syllables, numbers or basic notation using voice, classroom instruments, or technology to demonstrate basic notation.
(iii)    Improvise movement (non-locomotor and locomotor) appropriate for the musical elements heard in various listening examples with and without partners or groups.
(iv)    Use an identified system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(I)    Rhythmic (combination of sixteenth and eighth notes and dotted rhythms)
(II)    Melodic (diatonic scale and treble clef)
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Present or demonstrate an existing musical work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(i)    Participate in music through singing (individually and in groups, as well as accompanied and unaccompanied) and playing traditional and/or non-traditional instruments (i.e., found sounds).
(ii)    Match pitches, sing in tune (C, D, F, or G-pentatone), and use appropriate tone and expression.
(iii)    Perform ostinati using instruments or body percussion to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(iv)    Perform simple patterns or melodies in group ensembles with voice or on pitched or unpitched traditional or non-traditional instruments.
(v)    Sing two-part rounds, partner songs, and ostinatos.
(vi)    Sing or play an instrument in an appropriate range with acceptable tone quality.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Respond to music while demonstrating respect for others' music preferences and music performances.
(i)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by using non-locomotor or locomotor movement, body percussion, and playing classroom instruments.
(ii)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience and performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed and demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(iii)    Respond with movement to basic features (dynamics, tempo, form, etc.) of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(iv)    Compare students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles and identify criteria for evaluating a musical composition or a music performance.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Recognize the development of music from a social, cultural, and historical context.
(i)    Sing and perform songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(ii)    Recognize, describe, and listen to music from a variety of styles, periods, and cultures.
(iii)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures.
(iv)    Identify and describe the various roles musicians have in various musical settings and cultures.
(v)    Explore uses of music in everyday life (e.g., film, television, background music, commercials, and video games).
(vi)    Identify ways in which music evokes sensory, emotional, personal, and intellectual responses, including ways in which music can be persuasive.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Discuss approaches and combine concepts to generate innovative ideas for creating art using elements of art and principles of design.
(ii)    Demonstrate understanding of the importance of the elements of art and their relationship to the principles of design in the creation of artwork.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Experiment and demonstrate developing skills in multiple art-making techniques, methods, and approaches through practice.
(ii)    Demonstrate proper and safe handling of materials, tools, and equipment through their care, storage, and use.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Elaborate and revise artwork on the basis of insights gained through reflection and/or discussion.
(ii)    The student will apply creative thinking to demonstrate artmaking techniques. Express emotions, personal ideas, images, and themes through artistic choices of media, techniques, and subject matter.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Apply diverse media (materials), including available technology, for creating themed works of art.
(ii)    Design, redesign, or visually document places or everyday objects.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Plan and demonstrate diverse methods of artistic investigation to choose an approach for beginning a work of art.
(ii)    Use supplies and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create original art.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Experiment and invent multiple art making techniques and approaches through practice.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Discuss processes of personal artistic choices during creating and revising original works of art, determining when the work is complete.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze how art reflects changing times, traditions, resources, and cultural uses.
(ii)    Explore how artists and cultures used media (materials) to express themselves.
(iii)    Introduce global works of art that represent various cultures, societies, and historical periods.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Demonstrate care and respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Critique personal art based on teacher-established criteria and/or artworks from various periods and cultures.
(iii)    Explore potential art-related careers.
(iv)    Select and collect personal works of art in a portfolio.
210:15-3-115.  The arts for grade 1Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for Sixth Grade
(a)     Visual art.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms.
(A)    Use appropriate art vocabulary to describe art.
(B)    Name elements of art, including: line, color, form, shape, texture, value and space.
(C)    Name the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance, contrast, movement, center of interest (emphasis) and repetition.
(D)    Use the elements of art and principles of design.
(2)     Standard 2 - Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Understand art reflects a culture.
(B)    Identify connections between visual arts and other arts disciplines.
(C)    Identify specific works of art produced by artists in different cultures.
(D)    Use appropriate art terminology to express personal opinions about art.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual art expression: "Creating". The students will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Experiment in color mixing with various media.
(B)    Use a variety of subjects, basic media and techniques in creating visual art, including drawing, painting, sculpture, collage, and mixed media.
(C)    Demonstrate beginning skills of composition using the elements of art and principles of design.
(D)    Use art media and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create visual art.
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual art appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed aesthetic decisions.
(A)    Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual art exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(C)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(D)    Identify learning connections between visual art and concepts from other disciplines such as mathematics, science, English language arts, social studies, and media arts.
(b)     General music.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of music: "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Explore the elements of music:
(i)    Melody (e.g., high and low, upward and downward, leaps and repeats)
(ii)    Rhythm (e.g., strong and weak beats, steady beat, meter in 2/4, and long and short sounds)
(iii)    Harmony (e.g., sing accompanied, sing unaccompanied, and perform ostinato pattern as accompaniment)
(iv)    Form (e.g., introduction, repetition/contrast, solo/chorus, and verse/refrain)
(v)    Tone color (e.g., classroom percussion instruments, sounds from nature, machines or the environment, and orchestra instruments from each family of instruments - trumpet, clarinet, violin, tympani)
(vi)    Pitch (high and low)
(vii)    Tempo (fast and slow, getting faster or slower); and
(viii)    Dynamics (loud and soft, getting louder or softer)
(B)    Identify a system of syllables, numbers or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(i)    Rhythmic (e.g., quarter note, quarter rest, paired eighth notes)
(ii)    Melodic (e.g., sol, mi, la or 5, 3, 6)
(C)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by clapping, walking, running, skipping, galloping, hopping, playing classroom instruments, or chanting.
(D)    While listening to a musical piece, use directional hand movements to follow the melodic contour (sound or progression of single tones).
(2)     Standard 2 - Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Sing and perform action songs, chants, rhymes, singing games and dances from a variety of cultures.
(B)    Recognize American music, including work songs, holiday songs, and music related to citizenship.
(C)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures.
(D)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience or performer behavior that is appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(E)    Demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(3)     Standard 3 - Music expression: "Performing". The student presents or demonstrates an existing work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Participate in music through singing and/or playing instruments.
(B)    Match pitches, sing in tune and use appropriate tone and expression.
(C)    Play simple rhythmic patterns using sounds and silences on classroom percussion instruments to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(D)    Play simple pitch patterns (tones) on instruments, such as bells or xylophones.
(4)     Standard 4 - Music appreciation: "Creating". The student understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Answer unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments (improvisation).
(B)    Improvise with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation.
(C)    Discuss likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(D)    Recognize basic features of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Identify body pathways (i.e., central, transverse, and peripheral) to clarify movement intention.
(ii)    Embody technical dance skills (e.g., alignment, coordination, balance, core support, kinesthetic awareness, clarity of movement) to execute changes of direction, levels, facings, pathways, elevations and landings, extensions of limbs, and movement transitions.
(iii)    Collaborate as an ensemble to refine dances by executing complex patterns, sequences, and formations, testing options, and finding good results. Document self-improvements over time.
(iv)    Apply basic anatomical knowledge, proprioceptive feedback, spatial awareness, and nutrition to promote safe and healthy strategies when warming up and dancing.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Refine partner and ensemble skills in the ability to judge distance and spatial design. Establish diverse pathways, levels, and patterns in space. Maintain focus with a partner or group in near and far space.
(ii)    Use combinations of sudden and sustained timing as it relates to both the metered time and the dynamics of a phrase or dance work. Use accented and unaccented beats.
(iii)    Explore dynamic expression as it relates to energy relationships in a variety of dance styles. Distinguish between bound and free-flowing movements and apply them to technique exercises and dance phrases.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Use performance etiquette and performance practices during class, rehearsal, and performance. Receive notes from the choreographer, make corrections as needed, and apply to future performances.
(ii)    Compare and contrast a variety of possible production elements to intensify the artistic intent of the work. Select choices and use production terminology to explain reasons for the decisions made.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Explore similar or contrasting ideas to develop choreography using a variety of stimuli (e.g., music, observed dance, literary forms, notation, natural phenomena, personal experience/ recall, current news, social events).
(ii)    Explore various movement vocabularies to transfer ideas into choreography.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Explore choreographic devices and dance structures to develop a dance study supporting an artistic intent. Explain the goal or purpose of the dance.
(ii)    Develop artistic intention to choreograph a dance study communicating personal or cultural meaning. Based on the intention, evaluate why some movements are more or less effective than others.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Revise dance compositions using collaboratively developed artistic criteria. Explain reasons for revisions and how choices made relate to artistic intent.
(ii)    Explore or invent a system to record a dance sequence through writing, symbols, or a form of media technology.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Describe recurring patterns of movement and their relationships in dance.
(ii)    Explain how the elements of dance are used in a variety of dance styles or cultural movement practices using appropriate terminology.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Explain how the artistic expression of a dance is achieved through the elements of dance, use of body, dance technique, dance structure, and context. Use appropriate terminology.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Discuss the characteristics and artistic intent of a dance from a genre, style, or cultural movement practice and develop artistic criteria to critique the dance, using appropriate terminology.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Observe the movement characteristics or qualities in a specific dance genre. Explain differences and similarities to one's attitudes and movement preferences.
(ii)    Choose a topic, concept, or content from another subject of interest and research how other art forms have expressed the topic. Create and explain a dance study expressing the idea.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Interpret and demonstrate how the movement and qualities of a dance communicate its cultural, historical, and/or community purpose or meaning, including those of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize a unified piece of drama/theatre by articulating creative ideas in playwriting, improvisation, and staging.
(ii)    Conceptualize and craft technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept and use theatre vocabulary to describe the most appropriate and meaningful choices.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by: developing physical and vocal character traits; exploring characters' inner thoughts and their impact on character traits, relationships, and story development; and formulating dialogue and actions.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Imagine and refine ideas and artistic choices through exploration and critical analysis in an original or scripted drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative skills by working effectively and respectfully with a diverse team to incorporate a variety of artistic ideas in an original or scripted drama/theatre work.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Examine choices (performance, design, tech) contributing to a unified drama/ theatre work.
(ii)    Develop characters through imagination, research, observation, physical movement, gesture, sound, word choice, dialogue, rate, pitch, volume, etc.
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to create emotional impact or convey meaning by working creatively and collaboratively to conceptualize and create settings, costumes, and props for drama/theatre experiences.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Demonstrate that there are multiple technical and performance choices for every drama/theatre work and select the most supportable choice for the moment.
(ii)    Experiment with meaningful, effective, and appropriate physical and vocal traits of characters in improvised, original, or scripted drama/theatre work and select the most supportable choices.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Develop expertise by participating in a variety of dramatic and theatre forms (e.g., pantomime, tableau, puppetry, story enactment, reader's theatre, musical theatre, documentary theatre, etc.).
(ii)    Through script analysis, determine the technical elements necessary for a drama/ theatre work.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a rehearsed original or scripted drama/theatre work for a classroom or community audience and engage in shared reflection.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Model audience skills of observing attentively; analyze reactions to a read, live, or recorded performance; and develop criteria necessary to analyze a drama/theatre work.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Discuss related personal experiences relevant to plot events in a performance.
(ii)    Discuss responses to character and technical elements based on cultural perspectives when participating in, contributing to, or observing drama/theatre.
(iii)    Recognize and share artistic and aesthetic preferences when contributing to or observing drama/theatre works.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Collaboratively develop criteria to evaluate a variety of aspects of drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Evaluate the contributions and effectiveness of the technical elements in supporting environment, mood, and meaning in a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Observe and analyze formal and informal audience response.
(iv)    Develop respect for theatre, its practitioners, and conventions such as copyright law.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Read plays/stories from a variety of cultures and historical periods and identify the characters, settings, plots, themes, and conflicts to understand how these connect to oneself, community, and world at large.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze how drama/theatre works, plays, and characters relate to real life.
(ii)    Create drama/theatre works to connect the history and culture of Oklahoma (including the stories and storytelling contributions of the Oklahoma American Indian Tribes) and other cultures.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze commonalities and uniqueness between stories/plays set in different cultures/historical contexts in preparation for drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Research visual elements from a societal, historical, and cultural context to create a unified drama/theatre design.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(i)    Define and use correct terminology to identify and discuss the elements of music, including:
(I)    Beat/Meter (mixed meter)
(II)    Pitch (high/middle/low)
(III)    Tempo
(IV)    Dynamics
(V)    Melody (diatonic scale)
(VI)    Harmony (major/minor chords)
(VII)    Form (theme and variations)
(VIII)    Tone Color (duet, trio, quartet)
(ii)    Improvise melodic and rhythmic answers with or without a system of syllables, numbers or basic notation using voice, classroom instruments, or technology to demonstrate basic notation.
(iii)    Improvise movement (non-locomotor and locomotor) appropriate for the musical elements heard in various listening examples with and without partners or groups.
(iv)    Use an identified system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(I)    Rhythmic (triplets)
(II)    Melodic (bass clef, grand staff, and minor scale)
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Present or demonstrate an existing musical work, formally or informally, with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(i)    Participate in music through singing (individually and in groups, as well as accompanied and unaccompanied) and playing traditional and/or non-traditional instruments (i.e., found sounds).
(ii)    Demonstrate the ability to match pitch and read music from basic notation in treble or bass clef (e.g., folk songs and patriotic songs).
(iii)    Perform created ostinati using instruments or body percussion to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(iv)    Perform and create simple melodies and accompaniments in solo or group ensembles through singing and playing traditional or non-traditional instruments, demonstrating knowledge of tonal and rhythmic elements.
(v)    Sing two- or three-part rounds, partner songs, and ostinatos.
(vi)    Sing or play an instrument in an appropriate range with acceptable tone quality.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Respond to music while demonstrating respect for others' music preferences and music performances.
(i)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by using non-locomotor or locomotor movement, body percussion, and playing classroom instruments.
(ii)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience and performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed and demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(iii)    Respond with movement to basic features (dynamics, tempo, form, etc.) of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(iv)    Compare and contrast different music styles and identify criteria for evaluating a musical composition or a music performance.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Recognize the development of music from a social, cultural, and historical context.
(i)    Sing and perform songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(ii)    Recognize, describe, and listen to music from a variety of styles, periods, and cultures.
(iii)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures.
(iv)    Explore and research the various roles and careers musicians have in various musical settings and cultures.
(v)    Explore and research uses of music in everyday life (e.g., film, television, background music, commercials, and video games).
(vi)    Identify ways in which music evokes sensory, emotional, personal, and intellectual responses, including ways in which music can be persuasive.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Brainstorm approaches and combine concepts to generate innovative ideas for creating art using elements of art and principles of design.
(ii)    Research and demonstrate diverse methods for approaching the beginning of an artwork.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Experiment and practice skills in multiple art-making techniques, methods, and approaches.
(ii)    Practice proper and safe handling of materials, tools, and equipment through their care, storage, and use.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Explore relevant criteria to examine, reflect, and plan revisions for a work of art or design in progress.
(ii)    The student will explore creative thinking in artmaking.
(I)    Communicate emotions, ideas, experiences, and narratives through the creation of original works of art, using self-selected media.
(II)    Synthesize prior knowledge and experience to develop a personal investigation by creating a series of works of art.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Explore and develop art making techniques and approaches.
(ii)    Design or redesign objects, places, or systems that meet the identified needs of diverse users.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Demonstrate care and safe handling through the storage and use of materials, tools, and equipment.
(ii)    Explore practices, issues, and ethics of appropriation, fair use, and copyright as they apply to using different media.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Understand risk-taking and demonstrate openness in trying new ideas, materials, and methods.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Reflect on whether one's artwork conveys the intended meaning and revise accordingly.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze how art reflects changing times, traditions, resources, and cultural uses.
(ii)    Explore how artists and cultures used media (materials) to express themselves.
(iii)    Understand artistic movements from a global perspective on a timeline to represent historical periods and cultures.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Identify concepts while maintaining respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Critique personal art based on teacher established criteria.
(iii)    Explore art skills that contribute to success in other areas of study.
(iv)    Preserve and collect personal works of art.
210:15-3-116.  The arts for grade 2Dance, Drama/Theatre, and Visual Art Standards for Seventh Grade
(a)     Visual art.
(1)     Standard 1 -Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms.
(A)    Use appropriate art vocabulary to describe art.
(B)    Name and describe elements of art, including: line, color, form, shape, texture, value and space.
(C)    Name and describe the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance, contrast, movement, center of interest (emphasis) and repetition.
(D)    Use the elements of art and principles of design to communicate ideas.
(2)     Standard 2 - Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Understand art reflects the culture of its origin.
(B)    Identify connections between characteristics of visual art and other art disciplines.
(C)    Identify specific works of art produced by artists in different cultures, times and places.
(D)    Use appropriate art terminology to express personal opinions about art.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual art expression: "Creating". The students will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Experiment in color mixing with various media.
(B)    Use a variety of subjects, basic media and techniques in making visual art, including drawing, painting, weaving, sculpture, ceramics, collage, and mixed media.
(C)    Demonstrate beginning skills of composition using the elements of art and principles of design.
(D)    Use art media and tools in a safe and responsible manner to make visual art.
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual art appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed aesthetic decisions.
(A)    Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual art exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(C)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(D)    Identify learning connections between visual art and concepts from other disciplines, such as mathematics, science, English language arts, social studies and media arts.
(b)     General music.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of music: "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Explore the elements of music, including:
(i)    Melody (e.g., steps, leaps, and repeated tones, melody patterns, high and low, upward and downward, motives, and repeated phrases)
(ii)    Rhythm (e.g., strong and weak beats, steady beat, meter in 2/4 and 3/4, long and short sounds, and rhythm patterns in songs and ostinatos)
(iii)    Harmony (e.g., sing accompanied, sing unaccompanied, perform ostinato patterns as accompaniment, sing to chordal accompaniment)
(iv)    Form (e.g., introduction, coda, repetition/contrast, solo/chorus, and AB)
(v)    Tone Color (classroom percussion instruments, identify trumpet, clarinet, violin, tympani, different tone quality of an individual or group)
(vi)    Pitch (e.g., high and low)
(vii)    Tempo (e.g., fast and slow, gradually faster and slower, and suddenly faster and slower)
(viii)    Dynamics (e.g., loud and soft, gradually louder and softer, suddenly louder and softer)
(B)    Identify a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(i)    Rhythmic (e.g., quarter note, quarter rest, paired eighth notes, half note, half rest, whole note, and whole rest)
(ii)    Melodic (e.g., sol, mi, la, do or 5, 3, 6, 1)
(C)    Respond to the beat or rhythm in music by clapping, walking, running, skilling, galloping, hopping, playing classroom instruments, or chanting.
(D)    While listening to a musical piece, use directional hand movements to follow the melodic contour (sound or progression of single tones).
(E)    Discuss likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(2)     Standard 2 - Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Sing and perform action songs, chants, rhymes, singing games and dances from a variety of cultures.
(B)    Recognize American music, including work songs, holiday songs and music related to citizenship.
(C)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures. (e.g., koto, maracas, Native American flute, African talking drum, etc.).
(D)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience or performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(E)    Demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(3)     Standard 3 - Music expression: "Performing". The student presents or demonstrates an existing work formally or informally with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(B)    Match pitches, sing in tune (C-scale range), and use appropriate tone and expression.
(C)    Play simple rhythmic patterns using sounds and silences on classroom percussion instruments to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(D)    Play simple pitch patterns (tones) on instruments, such as bells or xylophones.
(E)    Perform solos and in groups.
(4)     Standard 4 - Music appreciation: "Creating". The student understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Answer unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments (improvisation). appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(B)    Improvise with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation.
(C)    Discuss likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(D)    Recognize basic features of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(E)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds, and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Identify and explore the fundamental movement patterns of total body connectivity including body half, cross lateral, upper/lower, core/distal.
(ii)    Apply strategies to accommodate physical maturational development to technical dance skills (e.g., functional alignment, coordination, balance, core support, kinesthetic awareness, clarity of movement, weight shifts, flexibility/range of motion).
(iii)    Collaborate with peers to practice and refine dances. Develop group performance expectations through observation and analyses (e.g., view live or recorded professional dancers and collaboratively develop group performance expectations based on information gained from observations).
(iv)    Utilize healthy practices and sound nutrition in dance activities and everyday life. Describe benefits of practices and how choices enhance performance.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Expand awareness of floor and spatial pattern designs using locomotor and non-locomotor movements. Incorporate and modify differently designed shapes and movements for interest and contrast.
(ii)    Use timing accents and variations within a phrase to add interest kinesthetically, rhythmically, and visually. Use different tempi in different body parts at the same time.
(iii)    Compare and contrast dynamic qualities from a variety of dance styles. Describe specific qualities using adjectives and adverbs. Determine what dancers must do to perform them clearly.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Use performance etiquette and performance practices during class, rehearsal, and performance. Maintain a journal documenting these actions. Receive notes from the choreographer and apply corrections to future performances.
(ii)    Explore possibilities of producing dance in a variety of venues or for different audiences. Use production terminology to explain how the production elements would be handled in different situations to intensify artistic intent.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Compare a variety of stimuli (e.g., music, observed dance, literary forms, notation, natural phenomena, personal experience/ recall, current news, social events) and make selections to expand movement vocabulary and artistic expression.
(ii)    Explore various movement vocabularies to express an artistic intent in choreography. Explain and discuss the choices made using genre-specific dance terminology.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Use a variety of choreographic devices and dance structures to develop a dance study with a clear artistic intent. Articulate reasons for movement and structural choices.
(ii)    Develop artistic intention to choreograph a dance study communicating personal or cultural meaning. Articulate how the artistic intention serves to communicate the meaning of the dance.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Evaluate possible revisions of dance compositions and, if necessary, consider revisions of artistic criteria based on self-reflection and the feedback from others. Explain reasons for choices and how they clarify artistic intent.
(ii)    Investigate a recognized system to document a dance sequence by using words, symbols, or media technologies.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Compare, contrast, and discuss patterns of movement and their relationships in dance.
(ii)    Compare and contrast how the elements of dance are used in a variety of styles or cultural movement practices using appropriate terminology.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Compare the meaning of different dances. Explain how the artistic expression of each dance is achieved through the elements of dance, use of body, dance technique, and context, using appropriate terminology.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Compare artistic intent, content, and context from different dances to examine the qualities of genre, style, or cultural movement practice. Based on the comparison, develop artistic criteria, using appropriate terminology.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Compare and contrast the movement characteristics or qualities found in a variety of dance genres. Analyze how the movement characteristics or qualities differ from one's own movement preferences and perspectives.
(ii)    Conduct research using a variety of resources to find information about a social issue. Use the information to create a dance study expressing a specific point of view on the topic. Discuss whether the experience of creating and sharing the dance reinforces personal views or offers new knowledge and perspectives.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Compare, contrast, and discuss dances performed by people in various localities or communities, including the contributions of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities. Formulate possible reasons why similarities and differences developed in relation to the ideas and perspectives important to each community.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize a unified piece of drama/theatre by experimenting with possible solutions to playwriting, improvisation, and staging.
(ii)    Conceptualize and craft technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept and use theatre vocabulary to describe the most appropriate and meaningful choices.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by: demonstrating physical and vocal character traits; engaging in character analysis; and formulating or interpreting dialogue and actions.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Imagine, develop, and refine artistic choices through research and the application of Aristotle's six elements of drama during the dramatic writing process.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative skills by assuming roles, identifying responsibilities, and being receptive to a variety of artistic ideas in an original or scripted drama/theatre work.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare choices (performance, design, tech) contributing to a unified drama/ theatre work.
(ii)    Develop and identify effective physical and vocal traits of characters through the use of acting techniques (character analysis, character morgue, Stanislavski, Strasberg, Meisner, Hagen, etc.).
(iii)    Integrate technical elements to have emotional impact or convey meaning by considering multiple elements to communicate mood, period, culture, and locale.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Develop performance and technical choices (e.g., dramatic structure/plot, characters, setting, theme, design elements, props, sound, etc.) contributing to the most supportable and convincing drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Evaluate and apply meaningful, effective, and appropriate physical and vocal traits of characters in improvised, original, or scripted drama/theatre work and select the most supportable choices.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Assume roles (performance and technical) in a variety of dramatic and theatrical forms and develop expertise through a personalization of techniques.
(ii)    Incorporate available technology and technical elements (e.g., music, sound effects, images, text, etc.) to convey or enhance meaning in a drama/theatre work.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a rehearsed original or scripted drama/theatre work for a classroom or community audience and engage in shared reflection.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Employ a variety of self-evaluation processes (including journaling, rubrics, and aesthetic responses) to analyze choices made in live or recorded drama/theatre work.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Identify the artistic choices made based on personal experiences relevant to plot events in a performance.
(ii)    Identify and explain responses to character and technical elements based on cultural perspectives when participating in, contributing to, or observing drama/theatre.
(iii)    Research the concept of a personal aesthetic and recognize and share artistic preferences when contributing to or observing drama/theatre works.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Determine the similarities and differences between criteria necessary for the evaluation of various genres and styles of theatre produced in a variety of historical periods and cultures.
(ii)    Evaluate the contributions and effectiveness of the technical elements, while keeping in mind the limitations and/or possibilities inherent in the architecture, stage types, and staging, in a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Observe and analyze formal and informal audience response and identify the moments in drama/theatre work that elicited an audience reaction.
(iv)    Develop respect for theatre, its practitioners, and conventions such as copyright law.
(4)    Connecting
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Research and dramatize stories from Oklahoma culture or history and stories of other histories and cultures to discover similarities and differences.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Identify universal themes or common social issues and express them through a drama/ theatre work.
(ii)    Evaluate the overall impact on drama/theatre as influenced by the history and culture of Oklahoma (including the stories and storytelling contributions of the Oklahoma American Indian Tribes) and other cultures.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Research and discuss how the historical and cultural context influenced the perception of the work.
(ii)    Examine artifacts from a time period and geographic location to better understand performance and design choices in a drama/theatre work.
(c)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Apply knowledge of elements of art (e.g., line, color, form, shape, texture, value, and space) and principles of design (e.g., rhythm, balance, contrast, movement, center of interest, and repetition) to the early stages of the creative process.
(ii)    Develop criteria to guide making a work of art or design to communicate an identified goal.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Demonstrate willingness to experiment, innovate, and take risks to pursue ideas, forms, and meanings emerging in the art making process.
(ii)    Refine proper and safe handling of materials, tools, and equipment through their care, storage, and use.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Develop relevant criteria to examine, reflect, and plan revisions for a work of art or design in progress.
(ii)    The student will develop creative thinking to artmaking.
(I)    Communicate emotions, ideas, experiences, and narratives through the creation of original works of art, using self-selected media.
(II)    Synthesize prior knowledge and experience to develop a personal investigation by creating a series of works of art.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Experiment and develop skills in multiple art making techniques and approaches through practice.
(ii)    Apply visual organizational strategies to design and produce a work of art, design, or media that clearly communicates information or ideas.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Demonstrate care and safe handling through the storage and use of materials, tools, and equipment.
(ii)    Develop awareness of practices, issues, and ethics of appropriation, fair use, and copyright as they apply to using different media.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Demonstrate an openness to artistic challenges while developing skills with new ideas, materials, methods, and approaches.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Reflect on and explain important information about personal artwork in an artist statement or another format.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Explore different ways art is used to represent, establish, reinforce, and reflect cultural characteristics.
(ii)    Explore connections between art production and imagery relative to social and political climates.
(iii)    Place works of art from a global perspective on a timeline to represent specific movements, historical periods, and cultures.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Analyze and reflect upon personal artwork based on formative and summative evaluations.
(iii)    Identify skills developed through the arts that contribute to success in visual arts and non-arts careers.
(iv)    Preserve and collect personal works of art, organizing based on teacher-identified criteria.
210:15-3-117.  The arts for grade 3Dance, Drama/Theatre, and Visual Art Standards for Eighth Grade
(a)     Visual art.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms.
(A)    Use appropriate art vocabulary to describe art.
(B)    Name, describe, and understand the elements of art, including: line, color, form, shape, texture, value and space.
(C)    Name, describe, and understand the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance, contrast, movement, center of interest (emphasis) and repetition.
(D)    Understand the characteristics of art and use the elements of art and principles of design to creatively express original ideas.
(2)     Standard 2 - Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Understand that art reflects and describes the culture of its origin.
(B)    Identify connections between different styles of the visual arts and other art disciplines.
(C)    Identify specific works of art produced by artists at different times and places, including American, Native American, African American, Asian, European, and Hispanic art produced.
(D)    Use appropriate art terminology to express personal opinions about art.
(E)    Understand how the visual arts are reflected in the culture, traditions, and history of Oklahoma.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual art expression: "Creating". The student will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Experiment in color mixing with various media.
(B)    Use a variety of subjects, basic media and techniques in creating visual art including drawing, painting, weaving, sculpture, ceramics, collage, and mixed media.
(C)    Demonstrate understanding and knowledge of composition using the elements of art and principles of design.
(D)    Use art media and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create visual art.
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual art appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed aesthetic decisions.
(A)    Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual art exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the work of others.
(C)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(D)    Make learning connections between visual art and other disciplines, such as mathematics, science, English Language Arts, social studies, and media arts.
(b)     General music.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of music: "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Explore the elements of music, including:
(i)    Melody (e.g., steps, wide and narrow leaps, and repeated tones, melody patterns, high and low pitches, melodic contour, same, different and similar phrases);
(ii)    Rhythm (e.g., strong and weak beats, steady beat, meter in 2/4, 3/4 and 4/4, dotted rhythms);
(iii)    Harmony (chordal harmony, chord changes, ostinato patterns, countermelody, rounds);
(iv)    Form (e.g., introduction, coda, repetition/contrast, solo/chorus, AB, ABA, rondo, and D.C. al fine);
(v)    Tone Color (e.g., classroom percussion instruments,identify trumpet, clarinet, violin, tympani, and different tone quality of an individual or group);
(vi)    Pitch (e.g., higher and lower);
(vii)    Tempo (e.g., fast and slow, faster and slower, gradual and sudden changes in tempo); and
(viii)    Dynamics (e.g., loud and soft, gradually louder and softer, suddenly louder and softer).
(B)    Use a system of syllables, numbers or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(i)    Rhythmic (e.g., quarter note, quarter rest, paired eighth notes, half note, half rest, whole note, whole rest, and dotted half note); and
(ii)    Melodic (e.g., sol, mi, la, do, re or 5, 3, 6, 1, 2).
(C)    Recognize basic features of familiar and unfamiliar songs, including:
(i)    Dynamics (e.g., loud and soft, gradual change of louder and softer);
(ii)    Tempo (e.g., fast and slowand gradual change of faster and slower); and
(iii)    Form (e.g., same, different, and similar).
(D)    Identify instrument ensembles (brass, strings, woodwinds, percussion)
(2)     Standard 2 - Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Sing and perform action songs, chants, rhymes, singing games, and dances from a variety of cultures.
(B)    Recognize American music, including work songs, holiday songs and music related to citizenship.
(C)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures. (e.g., bagpipes,, wooden flute, koto, and panpipes).
(D)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience or performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(E)    Demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(3)     Standard 3 -Music expression: "Performing". The student presents or demonstrates an existing work formally or informally with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(B)    Match pitches, sing in tune (C- scale range) and use appropriate tone and expression.
(C)    Play simple rhythmic patterns using sounds and silences on classroom percussion instruments to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(D)    Play simple melodies by rote on instruments, such as bells or xylophones.
(E)    Perform solos and in groups.
(4)     Standard 4 -Music appreciation: "Creating". The student understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Answer unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments (improvisation).
(B)    Improvise with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation.
(C)    Compare students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(D)    Recognize basic features of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(E)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds, and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(F)    Use appropriate terms to explain preferences for musical works and styles.
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Identify and explore the progression of simultaneous, sequential, and successive movement.
(ii)    Embody technical dance skills (e.g., functional alignment, coordination, balance, core support, clarity of movement, weight shifts, flexibility/range of motion) to replicate, recall, and execute spatial designs and musical or rhythmical dance phrases.
(iii)    Collaborate with peers to discover strategies for achieving performance accuracy, clarity, and expressiveness. Articulate personal performance goals and practice to reach goals. Document personal improvement over time (e.g., journaling, portfolio, timeline).
(iv)    Evaluate personal healthy practices in dance activities and everyday life, including nutrition and injury prevention. Explain choices made, the effects experienced, and methods for improvement.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Design body shapes in relation to other dancers, objects, and/or environment. Use appropriate performance focus in direct and indirect pathways.
(ii)    Analyze and select metric, kinesthetic, and breath phrasing and apply them appropriately to dance phrases. Perform dance phrases of different lengths using various timings within the same section. Use different tempi in different body parts at the same time.
(iii)    Direct dynamic energy to layer movement with multiple components and incorporate it into technique exercises and dance performance.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Demonstrate character-based skills (e.g., commitment, dependability, responsibility, cooperation) when preparing for performances. Use performance etiquette and performance practices during class, rehearsal, and performance, document actions, and create a plan for ongoing improvements. Receive notes from the choreographer and apply corrections to future performances.
(ii)    Collaborate on design and execute production elements to intensify the artistic intent of a dance performed on a stage, in a different venue, or for different audiences. Use production terminology to explain reasons for choices.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Implement movement from a variety of stimuli (e.g., music, observed dance, literary forms, notation, natural phenomena, personal experience/recall, current news, social events) to develop dance content for an original dance study or dance.
(ii)    Identify and select personal preferences to create an original dance study or dance. Use genre-specific dance terminology to articulate and justify choices made in movement development to communicate intent.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Collaborate to select and apply a variety of choreographic devices and dance structures to choreograph an original dance study or dance with a clear artistic intent. Articulate the group process for making movement and structural choices.
(ii)    Define and apply artistic intention to choreograph a dance communicating personal or cultural meaning. Explain how the intention clarifies or intensifies the meaning of the dance.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Revise choreography collaboratively or independently based on artistic criteria, self-reflection, and the feedback from others. Articulate the reasons for choices and revisions and explain how they clarify and enhance the artistic intent.
(ii)    Experiment with aspects of a recognized system to document a section of a dance by using words, symbols, or media technologies.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Describe and discuss patterns of movement and their relationships in dance in context of artistic intent.
(ii)    Explain how the elements of dance are used in a variety of dance styles or cultural movement practices to communicate intent using appropriate terminology.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Select a dance and explain how artistic expression is achieved through relationships among the elements of dance, use of body, dance technique and context. Cite evidence in the dance to support your interpretation, using appropriate terminology.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Use artistic criteria to determine what makes an effective performance. Consider content, context, genre, style, or cultural movement practice to comprehend artistic expression. Use appropriate terminology.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Relate connections found between different dances and describe the relevance of the connections to the development of one's personal perspectives.
(ii)    Research the historical development of a dance form or style. Use knowledge gained from the research and create a dance study to evoke the essence of the style or genre. Share the dance study and research with peers.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze and discuss how dances from a variety of cultures, societies, historical periods, or communities reveal the ideas and perspectives of the people, including those of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize a unified piece of drama/theatre by elaborating upon creative ideas and devising possible solutions to playwriting, improvisation, and staging.
(ii)    Conceptualize and craft technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept by analyzing elements (e.g., set, lights, costumes, props, sound, make up, special effects, media, and marketing/publicity) for an improvised or scripted work.
(iii)    Develop characters authentic to the drama/theatre work by: demonstrating physical and vocal character traits; engaging in character analysis to determine how characters' inner thoughts impact character back-story, character traits, relationships, and story development; and formulating or interpreting dialogue and actions.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Through critical analysis, refine artistic choices through research and the application of Aristotle's six elements of drama during the dramatic writing process.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative skills by working effectively with a diverse team and modeling actor etiquette in an original or scripted drama/theatre work.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Prepare, refine, and justify choices (performance, design, tech) contributing to a unified drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Refine effective physical, vocal, and physiological traits of characters through the use of acting techniques (character analysis, character morgue, Stanislavski, Strasberg, Meisner, Hagen, etc.).
(iii)    Conceptualize, design, and implement solutions to technical challenges in a drama/theatre experience.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Develop and select performance and technical elements contributing to the most supportable and convincing drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Evaluate and apply meaningful, effective, and appropriate physical and vocal traits of characters and react and respond appropriately in character with awareness of verbal and non-verbal cues in improvised, original, or scripted drama/theatre work.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Assume roles (performance and technical) in a variety of dramatic and theatrical forms to refine the approaches and requirements demanded by each style and form and develop expertise through a personalization of techniques.
(ii)    Assess the effectiveness of technical elements at creating emotional impact and conveying meaning in a drama/theatre work.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a rehearsed original or scripted drama/theatre work for a classroom or community audience and engage in shared reflection.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Evaluate live or recorded drama/theatre presentations using a created rubric.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Identify the artistic choices made based on personal experiences relevant to plot events in a performance and identify how the intended purpose of a drama/theatre work appeals to specific audiences.
(ii)    Analyze how culture influences a performance by identifying, researching, and explaining responses to character and technical elements based on cultural perspectives when participating in, contributing to, or observing drama/theatre.
(iii)    Formulate a personal aesthetic and how to apply it to a drama/theatre work.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Respond to a drama/theatre work using supporting evidence, personal aesthetics, and artistic criteria.
(ii)    Observe and discuss how technical elements and choices impact audience members' perspectives and reactions in a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Define and discuss actor/audience relationship and synergy.
(iv)    Develop respect for theatre, its practitioners, and conventions such as copyright law.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Identify common or shared social concerns and issues and choose or create a drama/theatre work to explore those connections.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Identify common or shared social concerns and issues that appear throughout history, and choose or create a drama/theatre work to realistically or metaphorically explore those connections.
(ii)    Use different forms of drama/theatre to explore the history and culture of Oklahoma (including the stories and storytelling contributions of the Oklahoma American Indian Tribes) and other cultures.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Research the story elements of a drama/theatre work and compare them to another production of the same work.
(ii)    Analyze the visual similarities and differences between Oklahoma history and culture and other histories and cultures to inform design choices.
(c)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Apply knowledge of elements of art and principles of design throughout the creative process and completion of works of art.
(ii)    Develop criteria to guide making a work of art or design and evaluate progress to meet the identified criteria.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Experiment, innovate, and take risks using developed skills to pursue ideas, forms, and meanings emerging throughout the art making process.
(ii)    Show consistent use of proper and safe handling of materials, tools, and equipment through their care, storage, and use.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Apply personal criteria to examine, reflect, and plan revisions for a work of art or design in progress.
(ii)    The student will develop creative thinking to artmaking.
(I)    Communicate emotions, ideas, experiences, and narratives through the creation of original works of art, using self-selected media.
(II)    Synthesize prior knowledge and experience to develop a personal investigation by creating a series of works of art.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Demonstrate persistence in developing personal skills with various materials, methods, and available technology.
(ii)    Select, organize, and design images and words to make visually clear and compelling presentations.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Demonstrate care and safe handling through the storage and use of materials, tools, and equipment.
(ii)    Demonstrate awareness of practices, issues, and ethics of appropriation, fair use, and copyright as they apply to using different media.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Demonstrate willingness to experiment, innovate, and take risks to pursue ideas, forms, and meanings emerging in the process of art making or design.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Examine and reflect on relevant criteria to plan and implement revisions on a work of art or design in progress.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Distinguish different ways art is used to represent, establish, reinforce, and reflect cultural characteristics.
(ii)    Identify connections between art production and imagery relative to social and political climates.
(iii)    Identify works of art and artists in relation to specific movements, historical periods, and cultures.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Consistently apply respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(ii)    Develop statements to reflect upon personal artwork based on formative and summative evaluations.
(iii)    Analyze abilities developed in the arts needed to be successful in a variety of visual arts and non-arts careers.
(iv)    Preserve and collect personal works of art, organizing based on student-identified criteria to show concepts and student growth.
210:15-3-118.  The arts for grade 4Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for High School Proficient Level
(a)     Visual arts.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms.
(A)    Know how works of art are made with respect to the materials, media, techniques, and sources of ideas.
(B)    Describe and use the elements of art, including: line, color, form, shape, texture, value (light and dark), and space in works of art.
(C)    Describe and use the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance, contrast, movement, variety, center of interest (emphasis), and repetition in works of art.
(D)    Infer meaning from and discuss student observations of visual and expressive features seen in the environment (e.g., colors, textures, shape, form, etc.).
(2)     Standard 2- Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Describe and place a variety of specific significant art objects by artist, style and historical and cultural context.
(B)    Identify themes and purposes of works of art and artifacts in history and culture.
(C)    Demonstrate a basic knowledge of several fields of art such as painting, sculpture, drawing, computer graphics, printmaking, architecture, fiber arts and media arts.
(D)    Identify how visual art is used in today's world, including media arts and the popular media of advertising, television, and film.
(E)    Understand how the visual arts have affected and are reflected in, the culture, traditions, and history of the United States.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual art expression: "Creating". The student will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Create original visual artworks using a variety of materials (media), techniques (skills), and sources for ideas.
(B)    Use observation, memory and imagination in creating original works of art.
(C)    Apply knowledge of a basic art vocabulary through experiences in creating original works of art.
(D)    Use art media and tools in a safe and responsible manner to create original visual art.
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual arts appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed aesthetic decisions.
(A)    Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual art exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(C)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(D)    Make learning connections between visual art and other disciplines, such as mathematics, science, English Language Arts, social studies, and media arts.
(E)    Critique personal art based on teacher-established criteria.
(b)     General music.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of music: "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Use correct terminology to discuss the elements of music, including:
(i)    Melody (e.g., steps, wide and narrow leaps, octave leap, and repeated tones, melody patterns, melodic contour, same, different, similar phrases);
(ii)    Rhythm (e.g., strong and weak beats, steady beat, offbeat, silent beat, meter in 2/4, 3/4, 4/4 and 6/8);
(iii)    Harmony (e.g., chordal harmony, chord changes, ostinato patterns, countermelody, rounds, thick and thin texture);
(iv)    Form (e.g., introduction, coda, repetition/contrast, solo/chorus, AB, ABA, rondo, D.C. al fine);
(v)    Tone Color (e.g., sound quality of individual and group performances by voice or instrument to include duets, trios, quartets, chorus, and ranges of soprano, alto, tenor, and bass);
(vi)    Pitch (e.g., high and low);
(vii)    Tempo (e.g., allegro (fast), lento (slow), andante (walking), and moderato (moderate));and
(viii)    Dynamics (e.g., forte (loud), piano (soft), mezzo forte (medium loud), and mezzo piano (medium soft)).
(B)    Use a system of syllables, numbers or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(i)    Rhythmic (e.g., quarter note, quarter rest, paired eighth notes, half note, half rest, whole note, whole rest, dotted half note, sixteenth notes, single eighth note, single eighth rest, syncopation, 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and 6/8).
(ii)    Melodic (sol, mi, la, do, re, high do, low la, low sol or 5, 3, 6, 1, 2, 8, low 6, low 5, and treble clef).
(C)    Experiment with variations in and demonstrate understanding of tempo (speed), timbre or tone color (sound quality), dynamics (degree of loudness), and phrasing for expressive purposes.
(D)    Identify visually and aurally:
(i)    Instrumental ensembles (e.g., marching band, orchestra, and jazz band);
(ii)    Families of orchestral instruments (e.g., strings, woodwinds, brass and percussion); and
(iii)    Classification of voice ranges (e.g., soprano, alto, tenor, and bass).
(E)    Notate simple pitch and rhythm patterns presented aurally (listening).
(2)     Standard 2 -Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from an historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Sing or play a variety of folk, ethnic, classical, and contemporary musical pieces.
(B)    Listen and describe music from a variety of styles, periods and cultures including European, Native American, African American, Hispanic, and Asian.
(C)    Identify music and instruments from different cultures. (e.g., bagpipes, wooden flute, koto, panpipes).
(D)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience or performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(E)    Demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(F)    Identify and describe the various roles musicians have in various music settings and cultures.
(G)    Identify uses of music in everyday life (e.g., film, television, background music, and commercials).
(3)     Standard 3 -Music expression "Performing". The student presents or demonstrates an existing work formally or informally with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds, and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(B)    Match pitches, sing in tune (C-scale range) and use appropriate tone and expression.
(C)    Play simple rhythmic patterns using sounds and silences on classroom percussion instruments to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(D)    Play simple and syncopated rhythm patterns using sounds and silences on classroom percussion instruments to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(E)    Play simple melodies on instruments, such as bells or xylophones.
(F)    While listening to a musical piece, use directional hand movements to follow the melodic contour (e.g., sound or progression of single tones).
(G)    Perform solos and with groups.
(4)     Standard 4 -Music appreciation: "Creating". The student understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Answer unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments (improvisation).
(B)    Improvise with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation.
(C)    Compare students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(D)    Recognize basic features of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(E)    Participate in music through singing (echo singing, rounds, and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(F)    Use appropriate terms to explain preferences for musical works and styles.
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Embody technical dance skills (e.g., functional alignment, coordination, balance, core support, clarity of movement, weight shifts, flexibility/range of motion) to retain and execute dance choreography.
(ii)    Articulate performance goals and justify reasons for selecting particular practice strategies. Discuss implementation of the plan and how it supports personal performance goals.
(iii)    Develop a plan for healthy practices in dance activities and everyday life, including nutrition and injury prevention. Discuss implementation of the plan and how it supports personal health goals.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Develop partner and ensemble skills that enable contrasting level changes through lifts, balances, or other means while maintaining a sense of spatial design and relationship. Use space intentionally during phrases and through transitions between phrases.
(ii)    Use syncopation and accent movements related to different tempi. Take rhythmic cues from different aspects of accompaniment. Integrate breath phrasing with metric and kinesthetic phrasing.
(iii)    Connect energy and dynamics to movements by applying them in and through all parts of the body. Develop total body awareness and control so movement phrases demonstrate variances of energy and dynamics.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Demonstrate character-based skills (e.g., commitment, dependability, responsibility, cooperation) when preparing for performances. Demonstrate performance etiquette and performance practices during class, rehearsal, and performance.
(ii)    Accept notes from the choreographer post-performance and apply corrections to future performances.
(iii)    Document the rehearsal and performance process and evaluate methods and strategies, using dance and production terminology.
(iv)    Evaluate possible designs for the production elements of a performance and select and execute the ideas to intensify and heighten the artistic intent of the dances.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Explore a variety of stimuli for generating movement to develop an improvisational or choreographed dance study. Analyze the process and the relationship between the stimuli and the movement.
(ii)    Experiment with elements of dance to explore personal movement preferences and strengths. Select movements to challenge skills and build on strengths in an original dance composition.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Design a dance using choreographic devices and structures to support a clear artistic intent. Explain how the dance structures clarify the artistic intent.
(ii)    Develop an artistic statement for an original dance study. Discuss how the use of movement elements, choreographic devices, and structures serve to communicate the artistic intent.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Clarify the artistic intent of a dance by manipulating choreographic devices and dance structures based on established artistic criteria and feedback from others. Analyze and evaluate the impact of choices made in the revision process.
(ii)    Demonstrate knowledge of recognized systems used to document a section of a dance (e.g., writing, a form of notation symbols, using media technologies).
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Analyze dance works and recognize recurring patterns, themes, and qualities of movement to create structure and meaning in a dance.
(ii)    Analyze movement patterns and their relationships in a variety of dance styles or cultural movement practices and demonstrate how their differences impact the meaning of the dance. Use appropriate terminology.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Select and compare different dances and discuss their intent and artistic expression. Use appropriate terminology to explain how the relationships among the elements of dance, use of body, dance technique, and context enhance meaning and support artistic intent.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Discuss insights of artistic expression used in a dance. Utilizing evaluative criteria, consider societal values and a range of perspectives. Use appropriate terminology.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Analyze a dance to determine the ideas expressed by the choreographer. Explain how the perspectives expressed by the choreographer may impact interpretation. Provide evidence to support an analysis.
(ii)    Conduct research using a variety of resources about a social issue of great interest and use the information to create a dance study expressing a specific point of view on the topic. Summarize whether the experience of creating and sharing the dance reinforces personal views or offers new knowledge and perspectives.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze and discuss dances from selected genres, styles and historical periods, including those of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities. Formulate reasons for the similarities and differences between them in relation to the ideas from which the dances originate.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize a unified piece of drama/theatre by investigating the collaborative nature of the actor, director, playwright, and designers and explore their interdependent roles in a drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Imagine technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept by exploring the impact of technology on choices in a drama/ theatre work.
(iii)    Develop a character authentic to the work through application of vocal techniques, employing movement techniques, and engaging in character analysis.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Develop a unified drama/theatre work by refining a dramatic concept to demonstrate a critical understanding of historical and cultural influences of original ideas.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by investigating the collaborative nature of the actor, director, playwrights, and designers and exploring their interdependent roles in a drama/theatre work.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Practice and revise a unified devised or scripted drama/theatre work using varied theatrical styles (e.g., realism, mime, vaudeville, etc.).
(ii)    Explore the connection to a character through physical, vocal, and psychological choices to develop a performance that is believable, authentic, and relevant to a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Collaborate with peers to create a technical design using simple technology for devised or scripted drama/theatre work.
(iv)    Select a scene from literature, original, or scripted material, and contribute to the development of a scene as a member of an ensemble.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Explore various technical elements contributing to the most supportable and convincing drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Understand that there are multiple choices for each character and select the most supportable choices for the moment.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Develop experience through practice and a personalization of acting techniques to expand skills in a rehearsal or drama/theatre performance.
(ii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by researching elements to increase the impact of a design, introduce technical knowledge of safety procedures, and participating as a member of a technical crew and management team for a production.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a drama/theatre work with a defined purpose or intent through selection and use of performance spaces, drama and theatre conventions, and technical elements appropriate to an audience.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Analyze and evaluate theatrical works of extended length and complexity, demonstrating an understanding of the protocols of audience etiquette appropriate to the style of the performance.
(ii)    Identify choices in a drama/theatre work to understand and explain personal reactions as a participant in a drama/theatre event.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Use personal experience and background knowledge to create or interpret a drama/theatre work by identifying and comparing artistic choices developed from personal experiences, textual evidence, and appropriate criteria in a drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Interpret how culture influences a performance by identifying and comparing cultural perspectives and contexts influencing the interpretation of a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Identify personal aesthetics by researching the concept of a personal aesthetic, recognizing and sharing artistic/aesthetic preferences and choices, and forming a personal aesthetic when contributing to or observing drama/theatre works.
(iv)    Evaluate and critique elements of drama, dramatic techniques, and theatrical conventions using guidelines for evaluating a theatrical production.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Develop and apply group-generated criteria to evaluate and assess one's own work and the work of others.
(ii)    Evaluate the effectiveness of technical elements in conveying the theme of the drama/theatre work while respecting others' interpretations.
(iii)    Establish an active relationship between audience and performer by observing and discussing how characters' circumstances impact audience members' perspectives and reactions in a drama/theatre work.
(iv)    Develop respect for theatre, its practitioners, and conventions such as copyright law.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Choose and interpret a drama/theatre work and identify similarities and differences between the characters' experiences and student's personal experiences.
(ii)    Identify and analyze theatrical works from a variety of historical periods, cultures, and playwrights.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Explore how cultural, global, and historic belief systems (including Oklahoma culture/history and the stories and storytelling contributions of the Oklahoma American Indian Tribes) affect/have affected creative choices in drama/theatre work.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Use basic theatre research methods (dramaturgy) to better understand the social and cultural background of a drama/theatre work.
(D)    Examine how theatre connects to life experiences, careers, and other content.
(i)    Explore how theatre connects to life experiences, careers, and other content through exploration of various careers in the theatre arts (e.g., performance, tech, production, administrative, education, marketing, etc.).
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas for various purposes and contexts.
(i)    Compose and/or improvise ideas for melodies, rhythmic passages, and arrangements for specific purposes to reflect characteristics of music studied.
(B)    Select and develop musical ideas for defined purposes and contexts.
(i)    Select and develop melodic and rhythmic passages and arrangements incorporating the characteristics of music or texts studied while preserving them through notation and/or audio/video recording.
(C)    Evaluate and refine selected musical ideas to create musical work that meets appropriate criteria.
(i)    Evaluate and refine melodies, rhythmic passages, arrangements, and improvisations based on established criteria.
(D)    Share creative musical work to convey intent, demonstrate craftsmanship, and exhibit originality.
(i)    Share personally-developed melodies, rhythmic passages, and arrangements (individually or as an ensemble) addressing identified purposes.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select varied musical works to present based on interest, knowledge, technical skill, and context.
(i)    Explain the criteria used to select a varied repertoire based on an understanding of theoretical and structural characteristics of the music, the technical skill of the individual or ensemble, and the purpose or context of the performance.
(B)    Analyze varied musical works and their implications for performance.
(i)    Analyze how compositional devices of musical works inform prepared or improvised performances.
(C)    Develop and express personal interpretations that consider creators' intent.
(i)    Utilize context(s) to inform interpretation in a varied repertoire of music through prepared and improvised performances.
(D)    Use self-reflection and peer feedback to refine individual and ensemble performances of varied music repertoire.
(i)    Develop strategies and evaluate success using feedback from ensemble peers and other sources to address challenges in a varied repertoire of music.
(E)    Perform expressively with appropriate interpretation and technical accuracy.
(i)    Demonstrate attention to technical accuracy and expressive qualities in prepared and improvised performances of a varied repertoire of music representing diverse cultures, styles, and genres.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Choose music appropriate for a specific purpose or context.
(i)    Apply criteria to select music for specified purposes, supporting choices by citing characteristics found in the music and connections to personal interest, purpose, and context.
(B)    Analyze how the structure and context of varied musical works inform the response.
(i)    Explain how the analysis of passages and understanding the way the elements of music are manipulated affect musical response.
(C)    Support the reasons for an interpretation of musical works reflecting creators' or performers' expressive intent.
(i)    Explain and support the reasons for interpretations of expressive intent and meaning of musical works, citing as evidence the treatment of the elements of music, contexts, (when appropriate) the setting of the text.
(D)    Evaluate musical works and performances based on analysis, interpretation, and established criteria.
(i)    Evaluate works and performances based on personally- or collaboratively- developed criteria, including analysis of the structure and context.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences in making/understanding music.
(i)    Reflect upon and critique musical experiences and the effects personal interests and concerns have on the outcome for both performer(s) and the audience.
(B)    Relate music ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen personal understanding.
(i)    Describe how knowledge of culture, traditions, and history influences personal responses to music.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Use the elements of art and principles of design to develop multiple approaches to create art.
(ii)    Shape a personal artistic vision using a contemporary practice of art and design.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Experiment and practice skills and knowledge of various art forms.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Apply relevant criteria from cultural contexts to examine, reflect, and plan for works of art and design.
(ii)    The student will apply creative thinking to artmaking.
a. Communicate emotions, ideas, experiences, and narratives through the creation of original works of art, using self-selected media.
b. Synthesize prior knowledge and experience to develop a personal investigation by creating a series of works of art.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Document process of developing ideas from early stages to fully elaborated ideas and originality.
(ii)    Collaboratively develop a proposal for an installation, artwork, or space design that transforms the perception and experience of a particular place.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Explain how materials used in art making may impact human health and the environment, and demonstrate safe handling of materials, tools, and equipment.
(ii)    Understand the legal consequences of appropriation, fair use, copyright, open source, social media, and creative commons as they apply to works of art and design.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Use multiple approaches to begin creative endeavors.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Apply relevant criteria from traditional and contemporary contexts to examine, reflect on, and plan revisions for works of art and design in progress.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Describe how knowledge of cultures, traditions, and history may influence personal responses to art.
(ii)    Describe how an artist or culture uses media (materials) to identify social, cultural, or political beliefs and actions.
(iii)    Describe basic ideas underlying major art movements and their historical periods and attribute works of art to specific artists, cultures, and movements.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Develop a personal artistic style in a portfolio or body of personal artwork, including an artist statement.
(ii)    Critique personal artwork based on a thoughtful inquiry.
(iii)    Reflect on personal critiques to improve current or future work.
(iv)    Document and preserve personal works of art in a portfolio.
(v)    Discuss and explore necessary preparations for entering careers, college programs, exhibits, competitions, and pathways in the visual arts.
210:15-3-119.  The arts for grade 5Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for High School Advanced Level
(a)     Visual arts.
(1)     Standard 1 -Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms.
(A)    Know how works of art are made with respect to the materials, media, techniques, and sources of ideas.
(B)    Describe and apply knowledge of the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance (symmetrical, asymmetrical, radial) contrast, movement, variety, center of interest (emphasis), and repetition in personal artwork and the artworks of others.
(C)    Describe and use the elements of art, including: line, color, form, shape, texture, value (light and dark), and space in works of art.
(D)    Identify and discriminate between types of shape (geometric and organic), colors (primary, secondary, complementary, intermediates, neutrals, tints, tones, shades, and values), lines (characteristics, quality), textures (tactile and visual), and space (background, middleground, foreground, placement, perspective, overlapping, negative space, positive space, size, color) in his/her own artwork and the artworks of others.
(E)    Infer meaning from and discuss student observations of visual and expressive features seen in the environment (e.g., colors, textures, shape, form, etc.).
(2)     Standard 2 - Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Describe and place a variety of significant visual art objects by artist, style and historical and cultural context.
(B)    Identify themes and purposes of works of art and artifacts in history and culture.
(C)    Identify how the visual arts are used by artists and designers in today's world, including media arts, and the popular media of advertising, television, and film (e.g., illustrator, fashion designer, sculptor, display designer, painter, graphic designer, animator, photographer).
(D)    Communicate in-depth knowledge gained through integrated study of a visual art theme, historical period, or event.
(E)    Understand how the visual arts are reflected in, the culture, traditions, and history of the United States.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual art expression: "Creating". The student will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Create original visual artworks using a variety of materials (media), techniques (skills), and sources for ideas.
(B)    Use observation, memory and imagination in creating original works of art.
(C)    Apply knowledge of a basic art vocabulary through experiences in creating original works of art.
(D)    Demonstrate safe and proper use, care, and storage of media, materials, and equipment.
(E)    Demonstrate a basic knowledge of media, techniques and processes while creating in the following disciplines of visual art:
(i)    Painting
(I)    Media: tempera, watercolor, oil, and acrylic.
(II)    Processes: wet-on-wet, wet-on-dry, wash, resist, and sponge.
(ii)    Sculpture or Architecture
(I)    Media: paper, papier-mâchè, clay, plaster, cardboard, wood, found objects, beads, sand, and wire.
(II)    Processes: carving, constructing, and assembling
(iii)    Drawing
(I)    Media: pencils, colored pencils, markers, chalks, crayons, and oil-pastels.
(II)    Processes: sketching, contour line, hatching, crosshatching, and stippling.
(iv)    Printmaking
(I)    Media: printing ink, styrofoam, stencil, found object.
(II)    Processes: relief, silkscreen, and monoprint.
(v)    Fiber Arts
(I)    Media: cloth, yarn, ribbon, found objects, paper, and rope
(II)    Processes: weaving, stitchery, braiding, and basketry.
(vi)    Media Arts
(I)    Media: broadcasting, film, journalism, performing arts, and telecommunications
(II)    Processes: Audio-video communication technology, printing technology.
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual art appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed aesthetic decisions.
(A)    Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual arts exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(C)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(D)    Make learning connections between visual art and other disciplines, such as mathematics, science, English Language Arts, social studies, and media arts.
(E)    Critique personal art based on teacher-established criteria.
(b)     General music.
(1)     Standard 1 -Language of music: "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Define and use correct terminology to identify and discuss the elements of music, including:
(i)    Melody (e.g., steps, wide and narrow leaps, repeated tones, phrases, pentatonic scale (five-tone scale);
(ii)    Rhythm (e.g., even and uneven rhythm patterns, syncopation, triplets, and dotted rhythms);
(iii)    Harmony (e.g., partner songs, countermelody, descant, and major and minor chords);
(iv)    Form (e.g., AB, ABA, round, rondo, introduction, coda, interlude, verse and refrain, and prelude);
(v)    Tone color (e.g., sound quality of individual and group performances by voice or instrument to include duets, trios, quartets, chorus, and ranges of soprano, alto, tenor, bass);
(vi)    Pitch (e.g., high and low);
(vii)    Tempo (e.g., allegro (fast), lento (slow), andante (walking), and moderato (moderate)); and
(viii)    Dynamics (e.g., forte (loud), piano (soft), mezzo forte (medium loud), and mezzo piano (medium soft)).
(B)    Use a system of syllables, numbers or letters to demonstrate basic notation:
(i)    Rhythmic (e.g., quarter note, quarter rest, paired eighth notes, half note, half rest, whole note, whole rest, dotted half note, sixteenth notes, single eighth note, single eighth rest, dotted quarter note, syncopation, 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and 6/8).
(ii)    Melodic (e.g., diatonic scale, treble clef, and bass clef).
(C)    Identify visually and aurally:
(i)    Instrumental ensembles (e.g., marching band, orchestra, and jazz band);
(ii)    Families of orchestral instruments (e.g., strings, woodwinds, brass, and percussion); and
(iii)    Classification of voice ranges (e.g., soprano, alto, tenor, bass).
(D)    Notate simple pitch and rhythm patterns presented aurally (listening).
(2)     Standard 2- Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Sing or play a variety of folk, ethnic, classical, and contemporary musical compositions.
(B)    Recognize, describe and listen to music from a variety of:
(i)    Styles (e.g., jazz, mariachi band, opera, musicals, call and response, and country-western);
(ii)    Periods (e.g., Baroque, Classical, Romantic, Impressionism and Contemporary); and
(iii)    Cultures (e.g., European, Native American, African American, Hispanic, and Asian).
(C)    Identify and differentiate the use of musical elements and instruments from other parts of the world and compare them to the use of musical elements in American music (e.g., patriotic, orchestral, band, and folk).
(D)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience or performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(E)    Demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(F)    Identify and describe the various roles musicians have in various music settings and cultures.
(3)     Standard 3 -Music expression: "Performing". The student presents or demonstrates an existing work formally or informally with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(B)    Match pitches, sing in tune (C-scale range) and use appropriate tone and expression.
(C)    Play simple rhythmic patterns using sounds and silences on classroom percussion instruments to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(D)    Play simple and syncopated rhythm patterns using sounds and silences on classroom percussion instruments to accompany songs and rhythm activities.
(E)    Play simple melodies on instruments, such as bells or xylophones.
(F)    While listening to a musical piece, use directional hand movements to follow the melodic contour (e.g., sound or progression of single tones).
(G)    Respond to unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments.
(H)    Perform solos and with groups.
(I)    Sing two-part rounds, partner songs, and ostinatos.
(4)     Standard 4 -Music appreciation: "Creating". The student will understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Answer unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments (improvisation).
(B)    Improvise with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation.
(C)    Compare students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(D)    Recognize basic features of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(E)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds, and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(F)    Use appropriate terms to explain preferences for musical works and styles.
(G)    Identify criteria for evaluating a musical composition or a musical performance.
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Dance with sensibility toward other dancers while executing complex spatial, rhythmic, and dynamic sequences.
(ii)    Plan and execute collaborative and independent practice and rehearsal processes with attention to technique and artistry informed by personal performance goals. Reflect on personal achievements.
(iii)    Apply anatomical principles and healthy practices to a range of technical dance skills. Follow a personal nutrition plan supporting health for everyday life.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Expand solo, partner, and ensemble skills to greater ranges and skill levels. Execute complex movement sequences with others while maintaining relationships through focus and intention.
(ii)    Perform dance studies and compositions using time and tempo in unpredictable ways. Use internal rhythms and dynamics as phrasing tools.
(iii)    Initiate movement phrases by applying energy and dynamics. Vary energy and dynamics over the length of a phrase and transition smoothly out of the phrase and into the next phrase.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Demonstrate character-based skills when preparing for performances. Model performance etiquette and performance practices during class, rehearsal, and performance.
(ii)    Implement performance strategies to reach choreographic intent. Accept and apply feedback from the choreographer to future performances.
(iii)    Document the rehearsal and performance process by maintaining a record (e.g., journal, video, etc.) and evaluate methods and strategies, using dance and production terminology.
(iv)    Use dance performance production knowledge to work collaboratively and learn the elements necessary to fulfill the artistic intent of the dance works.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Synthesize content generated from a variety of stimuli to choreograph dance studies or dances using original or codified movement.
(ii)    Apply personal movement preferences and strengths with the movement vocabulary of several dance forms to choreograph an original dance study. Compare and contrast personal choices to those made by well-known choreographers.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Work individually and collaboratively to design and implement a variety of choreographic devices and dance structures.
(ii)    Develop an artistic statement to reflect a personal style for an original dance study. Select and demonstrate movements supporting the artistic intent.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Clarify the artistic intent of a dance by refining choreographic devices and dance structures. Work collaboratively or independently, using established artistic criteria, self-reflection, and feedback from others. Analyze and evaluate the impact of choices made in the revision process.
(ii)    Develop a strategy to record a dance using recognized systems of dance documentation.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Analyze dance works and provide examples of recurring patterns, themes, and qualities of movement and their relationships to create well-structured and meaningful choreography.
(ii)    Analyze and compare movement patterns and their relationships in a variety of dance styles or cultural movement practices and explain how their differences impact communication and intent within a cultural context. Use appropriate terminology.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Analyze and discuss how the elements of dance, execution of dance movement principles, and context contribute to artistic expression. Use appropriate terminology.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Compare and contrast two or more dances using evaluative criteria to critique artistic expression. Consider societal values and a range of perspectives. Use appropriate terminology.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Analyze a dance and research its context. Synthesize information learned and share new ideas about its impact on personal perspective.
(ii)    Use established research methods to investigate a topic and collaborate to create a piece of choreography based on the topic. Explain (orally or in writing) the insights relating to knowledge gained through the research process, the synergy of collaboration, and the transfer of learning from this project to other situations.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze and discuss dances from selected genres, styles, historical periods, and world dance forms, including those of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities. Explain how dance movement characteristics, techniques, and artistic criteria relate to the ideas and perspectives from which the dances originate.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize a unified piece of theatre by exploring performance and technical choices to develop a drama/theatre work that is believable, authentic, and relevant.
(ii)    Imagine technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept by exploring technology and conducting research to inform the design of sets, costumes, sound, etc., in a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Develop a character authentic to the work through application of vocal techniques, employing movement techniques, and demonstrating knowledge of motivation through the recall of emotional experience, blocking, and observations of the external world.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Develop a unified drama/theatre work by generating ideas from research (historical and cultural) and script analysis to devise a performance.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by cooperating as a creative team to make interpretive choices for a drama/ theatre work.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Use the rehearsal process to analyze the dramatic concept and technical design elements of devised or scripted drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Explore the connection to a character through mind/body/voice and use research and script analysis to revise dramatic choices and create a vivid character.
(iii)    Revise and improve technical design choices to create an emotional impact and support the story of a devised or scripted drama or theatre work.
(iv)    Interpret drama using scripted material, literature, original material, and use improvisation to create extended theatrical pieces as a solo actor or as a member of an ensemble.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Develop and select technical elements contributing to the most supportable and convincing drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Research and apply the development of acting skills for character creation and performance including historical movements, personal experience, and cultural influences utilizing various acting methods and techniques (e.g., Stanislavski, Uta Hagen, sense memory, emotional recall).
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Develop proficiency through practice and implement the voice, body, observation, and imagination to expand skills in a rehearsal or drama/theatre performance.
(ii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by researching elements to increase the impact of a design, applying technical knowledge of safety procedures, and participating as a member of a technical crew and management team for a production.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a drama/theatre work using creative processes to shape the technical elements for a specific audience.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Analyze and critique a performance work by connecting it to art forms, history, culture, and other disciplines using supporting evidence and criteria.
(ii)    Identify choices in a drama/theatre work and demonstrate the ability to receive and act upon coaching, feedback, and constructive criticism.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Use personal experience and background knowledge to create or interpret a drama/theatre work by analyzing artistic choices developed from personal experience, textual evidence, and appropriate criteria to reinforce artistic choices when participating in or observing a drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Interpret how culture influences a performance by applying cultural perspectives and contexts influencing the interpretation of a drama/ theatre work.
(iii)    Identify personal aesthetics by justifying a personal aesthetic when contributing to or observing drama/theatre works.
(iv)    Critique various aspects of theatre using appropriate supporting evidence, analyze why artistic choices are made in drama /theatre work, and develop and utilize meaningful, structured criteria for assessing the work of an actor.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Citing evidence, develop and apply group-generated criteria to evaluate and assess one's own work and the work of others and receive/act upon coaching feedback and constructive criticism.
(ii)    Citing evidence, evaluate the effectiveness of technical elements in conveying the theme of the drama/theatre work while respecting others' interpretations.
(iii)    Establish an active relationship between audience and performer and evaluate audience responses based on personal experiences to critique a drama/theatre work.
(iv)    Develop respect by creating a personal code of theatre etiquette and ethics and respecting theatre practitioners and conventions such as copyright law.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Develop a drama/theatre work identifying and investigating culture, global, and historic belief systems.
(ii)    Demonstrate a basic understanding of theatre history through the study of playwrights, theatrical styles, genres, and historical periods.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Examine contemporary social, cultural, or global issues through different forms of drama/theatre work.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Research societal, historical, and cultural context for a performance and present an opinion about the drama/theatre design based on those contexts.
(D)    Examine how theatre connects to life experiences, careers, and other content.
(i)    Explore how theatre connects to life experiences, careers, and other content, and examine methods of pursuing various careers (including demonstrating audition etiquette and techniques) and theatre/theatre-based careers.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas for various purposes and contexts.
(i)    Compose and improvise ideas for arrangements, sections, and short compositions for specific purposes to reflect characteristics of music from a variety of cultures or historical periods studied.
(B)    Select and develop musical ideas for defined purposes and contexts.
(i)    Select and develop extended melodic and rhythmic compositions, demonstrating the characteristics of music from a variety of cultures and genres while preserving them through notation and/or audio/video recording.
(C)    Evaluate and refine selected musical ideas to create musical work that meets appropriate criteria.
(i)    Evaluate and refine arrangements, sections, short compositions, and improvisations based on personally-developed criteria.
(D)    Share creative musical work to convey intent, demonstrate craftsmanship, and exhibit originality.
(i)    Share personally-developed arrangements, sections, and short compositions (individually or as an ensemble) addressing identified purposes.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select varied musical works to present based on interest, knowledge, technical skill, and context.
(i)    Develop and apply criteria to select a varied repertoire based on an understanding of theoretical and structural characteristics and expressive challenges in the music, the technical skill of the individual or ensemble, and the purpose and context of the performance.
(B)    Analyze varied musical works and their implications for performance.
(i)    Document and demonstrate how compositional devices impact and inform prepared and improvised performances using appropriate music literacy skills.
(C)    Develop and express personal interpretations that consider creators' intent.
(i)    Utilize style, genre, technical skill, and context(s) of a varied repertoire of music to influence prepared and improvised performances.
(D)    Use self-reflection and peer feedback to refine individual and ensemble performances of varied music repertoire.
(i)    Develop and apply appropriate rehearsal strategies to refine performance(s) while addressing individual and ensemble challenges in a varied repertoire of music.
(E)    Perform expressively with appropriate interpretation and technical accuracy.
(i)    Demonstrate developing fluency of the technical demands and expressive qualities of the music in prepared and improvised performances of a varied repertoire representing diverse cultures, styles, genres, and historical periods.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Choose music appropriate for a specific purpose or context.
(i)    Develop personal criteria to select music for a variety of purposes, justifying choices citing knowledge of the music and the specified purpose and context.
(B)    Analyze how the structure and context of varied musical works inform the response.
(i)    Explain how the analysis of musical structures and contexts affect musical response.
(C)    Support the reasons for an interpretation of musical works reflecting creators' or performers' expressive intent.
(i)    Explain and support, using research, the reasons for interpretations of the expressive intent and meaning of musical works citing as evidence the treatment of the elements of music, contexts, and (when appropriate) the setting of the text.
(D)    Evaluate musical works and performances based on analysis, interpretation, and established criteria.
(i)    Evaluate works and performances based on research as well as personally- and collaboratively-developed criteria, including analysis and interpretation of the structure and context.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences in making/understanding music.
(i)    Analyze the effect of personal interests and concerns on musical experiences and their impact and value on both the performers and the audience.
(B)    Relate music ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen personal understanding.
(i)    Compare and contrast uses of music in a variety of societal, cultural, and historical contexts while making connections to uses of music in contemporary and local contexts.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Use the elements of art and principles of design to create artwork for the development of a portfolio.
(ii)    Choose from a range of materials and methods of traditional and contemporary artistic practices to plan personal works of art and design.
(iii)    Reflect on artistic choices through written response.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Experiment to demonstrate acquisition of skills and knowledge in a chosen art form.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Reflect, revise, and refine works of art or design considering relevant traditional and contemporary criteria as well as personal artistic vision.
(ii)    The student will apply creative thinking to original artistic works.
(I)    Communicate personal emotions and ideas in works of art by selecting media and incorporating appropriate elements of art and principles of design.
(II)    Employ a variety of subject matter, including symbols and metaphors, to represent ideas about personal, cultural, or social concepts.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Utilize inquiry methods of observation, research, and experimentation to explore unfamiliar subjects through original art making.
(ii)    Redesign an object, system, place, or design in response to contemporary issues.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Demonstrate awareness of ethical implications and social responsibility in the making and distribution of creative work, while demonstrating safe handling of materials, tools, and equipment.
(ii)    Understand the legal consequences of appropriation, fair use, copyright, open source, social media, and creative commons as they apply to works of art and design.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Through experimentation, practice, and persistence, demonstrate acquisition of skills and knowledge in a chosen art form.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Engage in constructive critique with peers, then reflect on, revise, and refine works of art and design in response to personal artistic vision.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze works of art in a variety of societal, cultural, and historical contexts and make connections to uses of art in contemporary and local contexts.
(ii)    Analyze, explain, and justify why artists or cultures use specific media (materials) to record their social, cultural, and political history.
(iii)    Analyze issues related to chronological art history and the development of an art movement.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Develop a personal artistic style in a portfolio or body of personal artwork, including an artist statement.
(ii)    Discuss and critique personal and peer created artwork using correct terminology.
(iii)    Incorporate peer critique to improve current or future work.
(iv)    Select and prepare finished artwork for presentation.
(v)    Discuss and explore necessary preparations for entering careers, college programs, exhibits, competitions, and pathways in the visual arts.
210:15-3-120.  The arts for grade 6Dance, Drama/Theatre, Music, and Visual Art Standards for High School Accomplished Level
(a)     Visual arts.
(1)     Standard 1 -Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms.
(A)    Compare works of art which are similar or different in expressive quality, composition, and style.
(B)    Describe and apply knowledge of the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance (symmetrical, asymmetrical, radial) contrast, movement, variety, center of interest (emphasis), and repetition in his/her own artwork, and the artworks of others.
(C)    Describe and use the elements of art, including: line, color, form, shape, texture, value (light and dark), and space in works of art.
(D)    Identify and discriminate between types of shape (geometric and organic), colors (primary, secondary, complementary, intermediates, neutrals, tints, tones, shades, and values), lines (characteristics, quality), textures (tactile and visual), and space (background, middleground, foreground, placement, perspective, overlapping, negative space, positive space, size, color) in his/her own artwork, and the artwork of others.
(E)    Infer meaning from and discuss how artists use the elements of art and principles of design in creating art.
(2)     Standard 2 - Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Recognize and describe the cultural and ethnic traditions which have influenced the visual arts, including American, Native American, African American, Asian, Australian, European, and Hispanic traditions.
(B)    Analyze art from various historical periods in terms of artistic style and subject matter .
(C)    Identify how the visual arts are used in business and industry, including advertising, television, and film.
(D)    Discuss the relationship that exists between the visual arts and other art forms, such as music, dance, drama, and media arts.
(E)    Understand how the visual arts are reflected in different cultures throughout history.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual arts expression: "Creating". The students will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Create original works of art using a variety of materials (media), techniques (skills), and sources for ideas.
(B)    Use observation, memory and imagination in making original works of art.
(C)    Apply knowledge of a basic art vocabulary through experiences in making original works of art.
(D)    Demonstrate safe and proper use, care, and storage of media, materials, and equipment.
(E)    Demonstrate a basic knowledge of media and processes while creating in the following disciplines of visual art:
(i)    Painting
(I)    Media: tempera, watercolor, oil, and acrylic.
(II)    Processes: wet-on-wet, wet-on-dry, wash, resist, sponge.
(ii)    Sculpture or Architecture
(I)    Media: paper, papier-mâchè, clay, plaster, cardboard, wood, found objects, beads, sand, wire.
(II)    Processes: carving, constructing, and assembling.
(iii)    Drawing
(I)    Media: pencils, colored pencils, markers, chalks, crayons, and oil-pastels.
(II)    Processes: sketching, contour line, hatching, crosshatching, and stippling.
(iv)    Printmaking
(I)    Media: printing ink, styrofoam, stencil, found object.
(II)    Processes: relief, silkscreen, and monoprint.
(v)    Fiber Arts
(I)    Media: cloth, yarn, ribbon, found objects, paper, and rope.
(II)    Processes: weaving, stitchery, braiding, and basketry.
(vi)    Media Arts
(I)    Media: broadcasting, film, journalism, performing arts, and telecommunications.
(II)    Processes: Audio-video communication technology, printing technology.
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual art appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed aesthetic decisions.
(A)    Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual arts exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(C)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(D)    Make learning connections between visual art and other disciplines, such as mathematics, science, English Language Arts, social studies, and media arts.
(E)    Critique personal art based on teacher-established criteria.
(b)     General music.
(1)     Standard 1 -Language of music "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Define and use correct terminology to identify and discuss the elements of music, including:
(i)    Melody (e.g., steps, wide and narrow leaps, repeated tones, phrases, pentatonic scale [five-tone scale], intervals, and major and minor scales).
(ii)    Rhythm (e.g., steady beat, back beat, syncopation, triplets, dotted rhythms, and 2/2 meter).
(iii)    Harmony (e.g., partner songs, rounds, descants, countermelody, and major and minor chords).
(iv)    Form (e.g., unity and variety, AB, ABA, round, rondo, theme and variations, marching, introduction, coda, interlude, verse and refrain, and prelude).
(v)    Tone color (e.g., opera, musical theater, duet, trio, quartet, chorus, voice ranges and instrument ranges, and a capella).
(vi)    Pitch (e.g., range and register, change pitch with compositional devices, such as imitation, inversion, and transposition).
(vii)    Tempo (e.g., allegro (fast), lento (slow), andante (walking), and moderato (moderate)).
(viii)    Dynamics (e.g., forte (loud), piano (soft), mezzo forte (medium loud), mezzo piano (medium soft), crescendo, and decrescendo).
(B)    Identify basic notational symbols (e.g., written representation of music), including: treble and bass clef, time signatures (2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and 6/8); and note values (e.g.,whole note, half note, quarter note, eighth note, dotted half note, dotted quarter note, and the corresponding rests).
(C)    Experiment with variations in and demonstrate understanding of tempo (speed), tone quality (sound quality), dynamics (degree of loudness) and phrasing for expressive purpose in performing music.
(D)    Identify visually and aurally:
(i)    Instrumental ensembles (e.g., marching band, orchestra, and jazz band).
(ii)    Families of orchestral instruments (e.g., strings, woodwinds, brass, and percussion).
(iii)    Classification of voice ranges (e.g., soprano, alto, tenor, and bass).
(E)    Notate simple pitch and rhythm patterns presented aurally (listening).
(F)    Respond to basic rhythm patterns either physically or using classroom instruments.
(2)     Standard 2 -Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Sing or play a variety of folk, ethnic, classical, and contemporary musical compositions.
(B)    Recognize, describe and listen to music from a variety of:
(i)    Styles (e.g., jazz, mariachi band, opera, musical, call and response, and country-western).
(ii)    Periods (e.g., Baroque, Classical, Romantic, Impressionism and Contemporary).
(iii)    Cultures (e.g., European, Native American, African American, Hispanic, and Asian.)
(C)    Identify and differentiate the use of musical elements and instruments from other parts of the world and compare them to the use of musical elements in American music (e.g., patriotic, orchestral, band and folk).
(D)    Recognizeand practice appropriate audience or performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(E)    Demonstraterespect for music performed by others.
(F)    Identify and describe the roles of musicians in various music settings and cultures.
(3)     Standard 3 - expression: "Performing". The student presentsor demonstrates an existing work formally or informally with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Perform basic tonal patterns and rhythm patterns on classroom instruments (e.g., autoharp, recorder, percussion instruments, and guitar).
(B)    Demonstrate the ability to read music from basic notation in treble or bass clef (e.g. folk songs, patriotic songs, etc.).
(C)    Sing with an acceptable tone quality throughout his/her singing ranges or play an instrument with an acceptable tone quality throughout an appropriate range.
(D)    Compose music using a variety of sound sources, including electronic and computer.
(E)    Playsimple melodies on instruments, such as bells or xylophones.
(F)    Perform and create melodies and accompaniments in solo or group ensembles through singing and playing instruments (e.g. four-chord songs on autoharp).
(G)    Sing or play musical compositions demonstrating knowledge of tonal and rhythmic elements, (including syncopated patterns, beats and offbeats).
(H)    Use a system for counting beat and rhythm patterns (e.g., rhythm syllables and body movement) to demonstrate knowledge of rhythms found in musical compositions.
(I)    Identify uses of music in everyday life (e.g., film, television, background music, and commercials).
(J)    Recognize and identify the appropriate ways to use all of the following elements of musical style:
(i)    Dynamics (e.g., piano, forte);
(ii)    Tempo (e.g., allegro, lento, andante, moderato);
(iii)    Conducting patterns of simple meters (e.g., 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and 6/8); and
(iv)    Articulation (e.g., staccato, legato, accent).
(4)     Standard 4 - appreciation: "Creating". The student understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Answer unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments (improvisation).
(B)    Improvise with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation.
(C)    Compare and contrast students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(D)    Recognize basic features of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(E)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds, and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(F)    Use appropriate terms to explain preferences for musical works and styles.
(G)    Identify criteria for evaluating a musical composition or a musical performance.
(a)     Dance.
(1)     Performing.
(A)    Develop and refine dance techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Apply body-mind principles to technical dance skills in complex choreography when performing solo, partnering, or dancing in ensemble works in a variety of dance genres and styles. Self-evaluate performances and explain and analyze performance ability with others.
(ii)    Initiate, plan, and direct rehearsals with attention to technical details. Use a range of rehearsal strategies to achieve performance excellence.
(iii)    Research healthy and safe practices for dancers and modify personal practice based on findings. Discuss how the research informs personal practice.
(B)    Select, analyze, and interpret dance for presentation.
(i)    Modulate and use the broadest range of movement in space for artistic and expressive clarity. Use varied focus to clarify movement and intent. Perform in various relationships with other dancers and audience as appropriate to the dance.
(ii)    Demonstrate time complexity in phrasing with and without musical accompaniment. Work with and against rhythm of accompaniment or sound environments.
(iii)    Perform movement sequences expressively within the choreographic intent using a broad dynamic range and employ dynamic skills for establishing relationships with other dancers and projecting to the audience.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of dance.
(i)    Integrate character-based skills into daily practice and when preparing for performances. Model performance etiquette and performance practices during class, rehearsal, and performance.
(ii)    Enhance performance using performance practices during a broad repertoire of strategies to achieve choreographic intent.
(iii)    Develop a professional portfolio (e.g., resume, head shot) and exhibit fluency in professional dance and production terminology.
(iv)    Work collaboratively to produce dance performances in a variety of venues and design and organize the production elements necessary to fulfill the artistic intent of the dance works in each of the venues.
(2)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dance ideas and work.
(i)    Demonstrate content generated from a variety of stimuli to discover a personal voice with clear artistic intent.
(ii)    Expand personal movement preferences and strengths to discover unexpected solutions and communicate the artistic intent of an original dance. Analyze the unexpected solutions and explain why they were effective in expanding artistic intent.
(B)    Organize and develop dance work.
(i)    Demonstrate fluency and personal voice in designing and choreographing original dances. Justify choreographic choices and explain how they are used to intensify the artistic intent.
(ii)    Construct an artistic philosophy to communicate a personal and/or cultural artistic perspective.
(C)    Refine and complete dance work.
(i)    Clarify the artistic intent of a dance by manipulating and refining choreographic devices, dance structures, and artistic criteria using self-reflection and the feedback from others. Document choices made in the revision process and justify how the refinements support artistic intent.
(ii)    Document a dance using recognized systems of dance documentation.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dance.
(i)    Analyze dance works from a variety of dance styles and explain how recurring patterns, themes, and qualities of movement relate to the artistic intent.
(ii)    Analyze and explain how dance communicates aesthetic and cultural values in a variety of dance styles or cultural movement practices. Use appropriate terminology.
(B)    Construct meaningful interpretations of dance.
(i)    Analyze and interpret how the elements of dance, execution of dance movement principles, and context contribute to artistic expression across different dance styles, or cultural movement practices. Use appropriate terminology.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate dance.
(i)    Define personal artistic preferences to critique a dance. Consider societal and personal values and a range of artistic expression. Compare perspectives with peers and justify views. Use appropriate terminology.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make dance.
(i)    Review original choreography with respect to its content and context. Reflect and analyze its relationship to personal perspectives and growth.
(ii)    Investigate various dance-related careers and college readiness through a variety of research methods and techniques. Select options of most interest. Develop and implement a capstone project to reflect opportunities in dance.
(B)    Relate dance ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical contexts to deepen understanding.
(i)    Analyze and discuss dances from selected genres, styles, historical periods, and world dance forms, including those of Oklahoma American Indian Tribes and communities. Analyze how dance movement characteristics, techniques, and artistic criteria relate to the ideas and perspectives from which the dances originate. Analyze the impact on one's dance literacy.
(b)     Drama/Theatre.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Conceptualize a unified piece of theatre by synthesizing knowledge from a variety of dramatic forms, drama/theatre conventions, and technologies.
(ii)    Develop technical elements for a unified drama/theatre concept by creating and implementing a major technical element for a production.
(iii)    Develop a character authentic to the work by: applying fundamental vocal techniques such as knowledge of dialects and accents, the International Phonetic Alphabet, increased range and control, intonation, and connotation; applying fundamental movement techniques and show increased poise and flexibility; and connecting and defending internal and external work to fully realize the character.
(B)    Organize, develop, and rehearse dramatic ideas and work.
(i)    Develop a unified drama/theatre work by generating ideas from research and script analysis and applying meaningful cultural, literary, and historical influences to acting choices, technical choices, or directorial concepts.
(ii)    Demonstrate collaborative and interdisciplinary skills by working to develop theatrical production concepts, discover artistic solutions, and make interpretive choices in a drama/theatre work.
(C)    Revise, refine, and complete dramatic work.
(i)    Refine, transform, and demonstrate the unifying concept in a devised or scripted drama/theatre work using the rehearsal process.
(ii)    Explore the connection to a character through mind/body/voice to create a vivid character and apply appropriate acting techniques and styles in performances of characters from a variety of dramatic genres and historical periods.
(iii)    Integrate, refine, and apply technical design elements to enhance the unified concept and create an emotional impact or convey meaning in a devised or scripted drama/theatre work.
(iv)    Interpret drama using scripted material by independently writing a one-act play with correct form and structure including full character development, believable dialogue, and logical plot outcomes.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret dramatic work for presentation.
(i)    Demonstrate the ability to utilize the fundamental conventions and the following styles: non-realism, commedia dell'arte, Shakespeare, absurdism, mask work, improvisation, environmental drama, and other theatre arts styles.
(ii)    Apply a variety of researched acting techniques as an approach to character in a drama/theatre work.
(B)    Develop and refine dramatic techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Develop expertise through practice, use and justify a collection of acting exercises from reliable resources, and implement the voice, body, observation, and imagination to expand skills in a rehearsal or drama/theatre performance.
(ii)    Integrate technical elements to create an emotional impact or convey meaning by developing a plan for the coordination of all aspects of a theatrical production from a technical leadership perspective.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of a dramatic work.
(i)    Present a drama/theatre work for a specific audience, employing research and analysis grounded in the creative perspectives of the playwright, director, designer, and dramaturg.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze dramatic work.
(i)    Compare and debate the connection between a performance and contemporary issues that may affect audiences.
(ii)    Identify choices in a drama/theatre work to understand multiple interpretations of a drama/theatre event and demonstrate the ability to receive and act upon coaching and feedback.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in dramatic work.
(i)    Use personal experience and background knowledge to create or interpret a drama/theatre work by analyzing artistic choices developed from personal experience, textual evidence, and appropriate criteria to reinforce artistic choices when participating in or observing a drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Interpret how culture influences a performance by demonstrating and articulating understandings of culture contexts to interpret a drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Identify personal aesthetics by debating and distinguishing multiple aesthetics when contributing to or observing drama/theatre works.
(iv)    Use critical analysis to make an informed decision about the quality of a theatrical production.
(C)    Apply criteria to dramatic work.
(i)    Synthesize evidence and appropriate criteria to revise personal work and interpret the work of others when participating in or observing a drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Analyze and evaluate varied aesthetic interpretations of technical elements for drama/theatre work.
(iii)    Establish an active relationship between audience and performer by evaluating/synthesizing evidence from audience responses to revise personal work and interpret the work of others.
(iv)    Develop respect by creating a personal code of theatre etiquette and ethics, demonstrating awareness of professional ethics as a cast or crew member, and respecting theatre practitioners and conventions such as copyright law.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to drama/theatre.
(i)    Explore the relationship between theatre and other non-arts disciplines to synthesize concepts and skills and develop a drama/theatre work.
(ii)    Synthesize and apply critical research on a historical time period to develop a drama/theatre work.
(B)    Relate dramatic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Collaborate on a drama/theatre work examining an issue using multiple personal, community, and cultural perspectives.
(C)    Research and relate dramatic ideas/works and societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Synthesize and apply critical research on a historical time period to create a design for a modern drama/theatre space.
(D)    Examine how theatre connects to life experiences, careers, and other content.
(i)    Explore how theatre connects to life experiences and careers through participation in various production roles and activities found in commercial, professional, amateur, and/or educational theatre.
(c)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas for various purposes and contexts.
(i)    Compose and improvise musical ideas for a variety of purposes and contexts.
(B)    Select and develop musical ideas for defined purposes and contexts.
(i)    Select and develop composed and improvised ideas to construct musical works organized for a variety of purposes and contexts while preserving them through notation and/or audio/video recording.
(C)    Evaluate and refine selected musical ideas to create musical work that meets appropriate criteria.
(i)    Evaluate and refine varied musical works based on appropriate, context-specific criteria.
(D)    Share creative musical work to convey intent, demonstrate craftsmanship, and exhibit originality.
(i)    Share varied, personally-developed musical works (individually or as an ensemble) addressing identified purposes and contexts.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select varied musical works to present based on interest, knowledge, technical skill, and context.
(i)    Develop and apply criteria to select varied programs based on an understanding of theoretical and structural characteristics and expressive challenges in the music, the technical skill of the individual or ensemble, and the purpose and context of the performance.
(B)    Analyze varied musical works and their implications for performance.
(i)    Examine, evaluate, and critique how compositional devices impact and inform prepared and improvised performances using appropriate music literacy skills.
(C)    Develop and express personal interpretations that consider creators' intent.
(i)    Utilize style, genre, technical skill, and context(s) of a varied repertoire of music to Inform prepared and improvised performances to connect with the audience.
(D)    Use self-reflection and peer feedback to refine individual and ensemble performances of varied music repertoire.
(i)    Develop, apply, and refine appropriate rehearsal strategies to address individual and ensemble challenges in a varied repertoire of music.
(E)    Perform expressively with appropriate interpretation and technical accuracy.
(i)    Demonstrate fluency and command of the technical demands and expressive qualities of the music through prepared and improvised performances of a varied repertoire representing diverse cultures, styles, genres, and historical periods in multiple types of ensembles.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Choose music appropriate for a specific purpose or context.
(i)    Use research and personally-developed criteria to justify choices made when selecting music, citing knowledge of the music, and individual and ensemble purpose and context.
(B)    Analyze how the structure and context of varied musical works inform the response.
(i)    Analyze and evaluate the musical structures, contexts, and performance decisions of a musical work.
(C)    Support the reasons for an interpretation of musical works reflecting creators' or performers' expressive intent.
(i)    Justify interpretations of the expressive intent and meaning of musical works by comparing and synthesizing varied researched sources that can include reference to other art forms.
(D)    Evaluate musical works and performances based on analysis, interpretation, and established criteria.
(i)    Evaluate music, programs of music, and performances based on standardized criteria, personal decision-making, research, and understanding of contexts.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences in making/understanding music.
(i)    Synthesize knowledge related to the effects of personal interests and concerns with musical experiences to create meaningful works of art.
(B)    Relate music ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen personal understanding.
(i)    Analyze and evaluate the impact of a musician or a group of musicians on the beliefs, values, and behaviors of a society.
(d)     Visual Arts.
(1)     Creative Process.
(A)    Learn and use vocabulary and concepts related to visual arts.
(i)    Plan, theorize, experiment, and generate art using the elements of art and principles of design to complete a portfolio.
(ii)    Follow or break established conventions, to plan the making of multiple works of art and design based on a theme, idea, or concept.
(iii)    Reflect on artistic choices through written response.
(B)    Practice and refine techniques and skills related to visual arts.
(i)    Plan and make multiple works of art to explore a personally meaningful theme, idea, or concept.
(C)    Apply concepts, vocabulary, techniques, and skills to make creative choices and practice individual expression.
(i)    Engage in constructive critique with peers, then reflect, revise, and refine works of art and design consistent with personal artistic vision.
(ii)    The student will apply creative thinking to original artistic works.
(I)    Communicate a style and point of view in expressing personal emotions and ideas in artwork.
(II)    Select materials, media, and processes of personal interest to communicate ideas in artworks.
(2)     Production.
(A)    Utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creation of original works of visual art.
(i)    Synthesize knowledge of social, cultural, historical, and personal life with art-making approaches to create original, meaningful works of art or design.
(ii)    Demonstrate in works of art or design how visual and material culture defines, shapes, enhances, inhibits, and/or empowers people's lives.
(B)    Use different media, supplies, and tools in an appropriate and safe manner in the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Demonstrate understanding of balancing freedom and responsibility in the use of images, materials, tools, and equipment in the creation and circulation of creative work, while demonstrating safe handling of materials, tools, and equipment.
(ii)    Understand the legal consequence of using copyrighted materials in the creation and circulation of creative work.
(C)    Demonstrate appropriate skill level in the application of knowledge, techniques, skills, and concepts, through the creation of original visual artworks.
(i)    Experiment, plan, and make a series of works of art and design to explore a personally meaningful theme, idea, or concept.
(D)    Revise and refine artworks to create finished works of art.
(i)    Reflect on, revise, and refine works of art or design considering relevant traditional and contemporary criteria as well as personal artistic vision.
(3)     Cultural and Historical Perspectives.
(A)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Evaluate the impact of an artist or a group of artists on the beliefs, values, and behaviors of a society.
(ii)    Utilize contextual and visual knowledge of historical and contemporary art making to defend why media (materials) are used by an artist or culture.
(iii)    Research the context of and defend positions related to historical or contemporary movements in art and their social impact.
(4)     Aesthetic Response and Critique Methodologies.
(A)    Perceive, analyze, interpret, and evaluate artistic work.
(i)    Refine a personal artistic style in a portfolio or body of personal artwork, including an artist statement.
(ii)    Construct persuasive and reasonable arguments, individually, or collaboratively to defend or critique works of art.
(iii)    Demonstrate continual refinement of artwork based on formative critique.
(iv)    Curate and showcase work for a specific purpose.
(v)    Prepare and submit personal work for evaluation in competitions, exhibits, college evaluation, or advanced assessment credit.
210:15-3-121.  The arts for grade 7Music Standards for Novice Level
(a)     Visual art.
(1)     Standard 1 -Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms (i.e., architecture, collage, medium, perspective, symbol, etc.).
(A)    Compare and contrast works which are similar or different in expressive quality, composition, and style.
(B)    Describe and apply knowledge of the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance (symmetrical, asymmetrical, radial) contrast, movement, variety, center of interest (emphasis), and repetition in his/her own artwork, and the artworks of others.
(C)    Describe and use the elements of art, including: line, color, form, shape, texture, value (light and dark), and space in works of art.
(D)    Identify and discriminate between types of shape (geometric and organic), colors (primary, secondary, complementary, intermediates, neutrals, tints, tones, shades, and values), lines (characteristics, quality), textures (tactile and visual), and space (background, middleground, foreground, placement, perspective, overlapping, negative space, positive space, size, color) in his/her own art work, and the art works of others.
(E)    Infer meaning from and discuss how artists use the elements of art and principles of design in creating art.
(F)    Identify and evaluate solutions to visual design problems.
(2)     Standard 2 - Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Recognize and describe the cultural and ethnic traditions which have influenced the visual arts, including American, Native American, African American, Asian, Australian, European, and Hispanictraditions.
(B)    Identify and be familiar with a range of art works, identifying artist, culture and style from a historical context.
(C)    Identify the variety of art forms used in business and industry, (including advertising, television, and film) and understand the role of art in creating digital images and commercial designs.
(D)    Analyze careers in art and a variety of other careers in terms of the art skills needed to be successful.
(E)    Understand how the visual arts are reflected in different cultures throughout history.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual art expression: "Creating". The students will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Create original visual artworks using a variety materials (media), techniques (skills), and sources for ideas.
(B)    Use observation, memory and imagination in original works of art.
(C)    Demonstrate safe and proper use, care, and storage of media, materials, and equipment.
(D)    Apply knowledge of a basic art vocabulary through experiences in making original works of art.
(E)    Create original art using a variety of art tools, media, techniques and processes in the art disciplines of (e.g., ceramics, drawing, fiber arts, painting, printmaking, media arts, and sculpture).
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual art appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed decisions.
(A)    Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual arts exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(C)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(D)    Make learningconnections between visual art and other disciplines, such as mathematics, science, English Language Arts, social studies, and media arts.
(E)    Analyzeand reflect upon personal artwork based on formative evaluations of the work.
(b)     General music.
(1)     Standard 1- Language of music: "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Define and use correct terminology to identify and discuss the elements of music, including:
(i)    Melody (e.g., steps, wide and narrow leaps, repeated tones, phrases, pentatonic scale [five-tone scale], intervals, and major and minor scales);
(ii)    Rhythm (e.g., steady beat, back beat, syncopation, triplets, dotted rhythms, and 2/2 meter);
(iii)    Harmony (e.g., partner songs, rounds, descants, countermelody, and major and minor chords);
(iv)    Form (e.g, unity and variety, AB, ABA, round, rondo, theme and variations, marching, introduction, coda, interlude, verse and refrain, prelude).
(v)    Tone color (e.g., opera, musical theater, duet, trio, quartet, chorus, voice ranges and instrument ranges, and a capella);
(vi)    Pitch (e.g., range and register, change pitch with compositional devices, such as imitation, inversion and transposition);
(vii)    Tempo (e.g., allegro (fast), lento (slow), andante (walking), and moderato (moderate)); and
(viii)    Dynamics (e.g., forte (loud), piano (soft), mezzo forte (medium loud), mezzo piano (medium soft, crescendo and decrescendo)).
(B)    Identify basic notational symbols (e.g.,written representation of music), including: treble and bass clef, time signatures (e.g., 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and 6/8); and note values (e.g., whole note, half note, quarter note, eighth note, dotted half note, dotted quarter note, and the corresponding rests).
(C)    Experiment with variations in and demonstrate understanding of tempo (speed), tone quality (sound quality), dynamics (degree of loudness) and phrasing for expressive purpose in performing music.
(D)    Identify visually and aurally:
(i)    Instrumental ensembles (e.g., marching band, orchestra, and jazz band);
(ii)    Families of orchestral instruments (e.g, strings, woodwinds, brass, and percussion); and
(iii)    Classification of voice ranges (e.g., soprano, alto, tenor, and bass).
(E)    Notate simple pitch and rhythm patterns presented aurally (listening).
(F)    Respond to basic rhythm patterns either physically or using classroom instruments.
(2)     Standard 2 -Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Sing or play a variety of folk, ethnic, classical, and contemporary musical compositions.
(B)    Recognize, describe and listen to music from a variety of:
(i)    Styles (e.g., jazz, mariachi band, opera, musical, call and response, and country-western.)
(ii)    Periods (e.g., Baroque, Classical, Romantic, Impressionism and Contemporary); and
(iii)    Cultures (e.g., European, Native American, African American, Hispanic, and Asian).
(C)    Identify and differentiate the use of musical elements and instruments from other parts of the world and compare them to the use of musical elements in American music (e.g., patriotic, orchestral, band and folk).
(D)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience or performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(E)    Demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(F)    Identify and describe the various roles musicians have in various musical settings and cultures.
(3)     Standard 3 -Music expression: "Performing". The student presents or demonstrates an existing work formally or informally with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Perform basic tonal patterns and rhythm patterns on classroom instruments (e.g., autoharp, recorder, percussion instruments, and guitar).
(B)    Demonstrate the ability to read music from basic notation in treble or bass clef (e.g., folk songs, patriotic songs).
(C)    Sing with an acceptable tone quality throughout his/her singing ranges or play an instrument with an acceptable tone quality throughout an appropriate range.
(D)    Compose music using a variety of sound sources including electronic and computer.
(E)    Play simple melodies on instruments, such as bells or xylophones.
(F)    Perform and create melodies and accompaniments in solo or group ensembles through singing and playing instruments (e.g. four-chord songs on autoharp).
(G)    Sing or play musical compositions demonstrating knowledge of tonal and rhythmic elements,including syncopated patterns, beats and offbeats.
(H)    Use a system for counting beat and rhythm patterns (e.g., rhythm syllables and body movement) to demonstrate knowledge of rhythms found in musical compositions.
(I)    Identify uses of music in everyday life (e.g., film, television, background music, and commercials).
(J)    Recognize and identify the appropriate ways to use all of the following elements of musical style:
(i)    Dynamics (e.g., piano, forte);
(ii)    Tempo (e.g., allegro, lento, andante, and moderato);
(iii)    Conducting patterns of simple meters (e.g., 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and 6/8); and
(iv)    Articulation (e.g., staccato, legato, and accent).
(4)     Standard 4 - Music appreciation: "Creating". The student understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Answer unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments (improvisation).
(B)    Improvise with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation.
(C)    Compare and contrast students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(D)    Recognize basic features of familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(E)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds, and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(F)    Use appropriate terms to explain preferences for musical works and styles.
(G)    Identify criteria for evaluating a musical composition or a musical performance.
(a)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas for various purposes and contexts.
(i)    Discover and experiment with melodic and rhythmic ideas or motives that reflect characteristics of music or texts.
(B)    Select and develop musical ideas for defined purposes and contexts.
(i)    Develop melodic and rhythmic ideas or motives incorporating the characteristics of music or texts studied.
(C)    Evaluate and refine selected musical ideas to create musical work that meets appropriate criteria.
(i)    Evaluate and refine compositions and improvisations based on knowledge, skill, and teacher-provided criteria.
(D)    Share creative musical work to convey intent, demonstrate craftsmanship, and exhibit originality.
(i)    Share personally-developed melodic and rhythmic ideas or motives (individually or as an ensemble) demonstrating characteristics of music or texts studied.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select varied musical works to present based on interest, knowledge, technical skill, and context.
(i)    Select varied repertoire with guidance based on interest, music reading skills (where appropriate), the structure of the music, context, and the technical skill of the individual or ensemble.
(B)    Analyze varied musical works and their implications for performance.
(i)    Identify elements of musical works to inform prepared or improvised performances.
(C)    Develop and express personal interpretations that consider creators' intent.
(i)    Identify expressive qualities in a varied repertoire of music that can be demonstrated through prepared and improvised performances.
(D)    Use self-reflection and peer feedback to refine individual and ensemble performances of varied music repertoire.
(i)    Use self-reflection and peer feedback to refine individual and ensemble performances of a varied repertoire of music.
(E)    Perform expressively with appropriate interpretation and technical accuracy.
(i)    Demonstrate attention to technical accuracy and expressive qualities in prepared and improvised performances of a varied repertoire of music.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Choose music appropriate for a specific purpose or context.
(i)    Identify reasons for selecting music based on characteristics found in the music, connections to personal interest, and purpose or context.
(B)    Analyze how the structure and context of varied musical works inform the response.
(i)    Identify how knowledge of context and the use of repetition, similarities, and contrasts affect musical response.
(C)    Support the reasons for an interpretation of musical works reflecting creators' or performers' expressive intent.
(i)    Identify interpretations of the expressive intent and meaning of musical works, referring to the elements of music, contexts, and (when appropriate) the setting of the text.
(D)    Evaluate musical works and performances based on analysis, interpretation, and established criteria.
(i)    Identify and describe the effect of personal interest, experience, analysis, and context on the perceived value of a musical work or performance.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences in making/understanding music.
(i)    Describe how current personal interests or concerns impact music making/musical understanding.
(B)    Relate music ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen personal understanding.
(i)    Generate ideas about how music reflects changing times, traditions, resources, and cultural uses.
210:15-3-121.1.  Music Standards for Intermediate Level
(a)     Music.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate musical ideas for various purposes and contexts.
(i)    Discover and experiment with short melodic and rhythmic passages based on characteristics of music or texts studied.
(B)    Select and develop musical ideas for defined purposes and contexts.
(i)    With guidance, select and develop melodic and rhythmic passages incorporating the characteristics of music or texts studied while preserving them through notation and/or audio/video recording.
(C)    Evaluate and refine selected musical ideas to create musical work that meets appropriate criteria.
(i)    Evaluate and refine compositions and improvisations based on knowledge, skill, and teacher-student developed criteria.
(D)    Share creative musical work to convey intent, demonstrate craftsmanship, and exhibit originality.
(i)    Share personally-developed melodies and rhythmic passages (individually or as an ensemble) demonstrating characteristics of music or texts studied.
(2)     Performing.
(A)    Select varied musical works to present based on interest, knowledge, technical skill, and context.
(i)    Select varied repertoire with limited guidance based on interest, music reading skills (where appropriate), the structure of the music, context, and the technical skill of the individual or ensemble.
(B)    Analyze varied musical works and their implications for performance.
(i)    Describe how the setting and formal characteristics of musical works inform prepared or improvised performances.
(C)    Develop and express personal interpretations that consider creators' intent.
(i)    Apply expressive qualities in a varied repertoire of music through prepared and improvised performances.
(D)    Use self-reflection and peer feedback to refine individual and ensemble performances of varied music repertoire.
(i)    Develop strategies and evaluate success using feedback from ensemble peers and other sources to address technical challenges in a varied repertoire of music.
(E)    Perform expressively with appropriate interpretation and technical accuracy.
(i)    Demonstrate attention to technical accuracy and expressive qualities in prepared and improvised performances of a varied repertoire of music representing diverse cultures and styles.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Choose music appropriate for a specific purpose or context.
(i)    Discuss reasons for selecting music, citing characteristics found in the music and connections to personal interest, purpose, and context.
(B)    Analyze how the structure and context of varied musical works inform the response.
(i)    Describe how understanding context and the way the elements of music are manipulated affect musical response.
(C)    Support the reasons for an interpretation of musical works reflecting creators' or performers' expressive intent.
(i)    Identify and support the reasons for the interpretations of the expressive intent and meaning of musical works, citing as evidence the treatment of the elements of music, contexts, and (when appropriate) the setting of the text.
(D)    Evaluate musical works and performances based on analysis, interpretation, and established criteria.
(i)    Explain the influence of experiences, analysis, and context on the perceived value of a musical work or performance.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences in making/understanding music.
(i)    Generate a collection of personal ideas reflecting current interests and concerns that could be investigated in music making/musical understanding.
(B)    Relate music ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen personal understanding.
(i)    Identify different ways music is used to represent, establish, reinforce, and reflect group identity.
210:15-3-122.  The arts for grade 8Media Arts Standards for Elementary
(a)     Visual art.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms.
(A)    Compare and contrast works which are similar or different in expressive quality, composition, and style.
(B)    Identify and apply knowledge of the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance (symmetrical, asymmetrical, radial), contrast, movement, variety, center of interest (emphasis), and repetition in personal artwork, and the artwork of others.
(C)    Identify and apply the elements of art, including: line, color, form, shape, texture, value (light and dark), and space in works of art.
(D)    Discriminate between types of shape (geometric and organic), colors (primary, secondary, complementary, intermediates, neutrals, tints, tones, shades, and values), lines (characteristics, quality), textures (tactile and visual), and space (background, middleground, foreground, placement, one-, two-, and three-point perspective, overlapping, negative space, positive space, size, color) in personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(E)    Infer meaning from and discuss how artists use the elements of art and principles of design in creating art. Compare works which are similar or different in expressive quality, composition, and style.
(2)     Standard 2 - Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Recognize and describe the cultural and ethnic traditions which have influenced the visual arts, including American, Native American, African American, Asian, Australian, European, and Hispanictraditions.
(B)    Identify and be familiar with a range of art works, identifying artist, culture and style from an historical context.
(C)    Use visual images from a variety of media and technological sources to communicate creatively.
(D)    Analyze careers in art and a variety of other careers in terms of the art skills needed to be successful.
(E)    Research and explain how the visual arts are reflected in different cultures throughout history.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual art expression: "Creating". The student will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Create original visual artworks using a variety materials (media), techniques (skills), and sources for ideas.
(B)    Use observation, memory and imagination in creating original works of art.
(C)    Apply knowledge of a basic art vocabulary through experiences in making original works of visual art.
(D)    Demonstrate safe and proper use, care, and storage of media, materials, and equipment.
(E)    Create original visual art using a variety of art tools, media, techniques and processes in the art disciplines of (e.g., ceramics, drawing, fiber arts, painting, printmaking, media arts, and sculpture).
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual art appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed aesthetic decision.
(A)    Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual arts exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(C)    Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(D)    Make learning connections between visual art and other disciplines, such as mathematics, science, English Language Arts, social studies, and media arts.
(E)    Analyze and reflect upon personal art work based on formative and summative evaluations of the work.
(b)     General music.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of music: "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Define and use correct terminology to identify and discuss the elements of music, including:
(i)    Melody (e.g., steps, wide and narrow leaps, repeated tones, phrases, pentatonic scale [five-tone scale], intervals, and major and minor scale);
(ii)    Rhythm (e.g., steady beat, back beat, syncopation, triplets, dotted rhythms, and 2/2 meter);
(iii)    Harmony (e.g., partner songs, rounds, descants, countermelody, and major and minor chords);
(iv)    Form (e.g., unity and variety, AB, ABA, round, rondo, theme and variations, marching, introduction, coda, interlude, verse and refrain, and prelude);
(v)    Tone color (e.g., opera, musical theater, duet, trio, quartet, chorus, voice ranges and instrument ranges, and a capella);
(vi)    Pitch (e.g., range and register, change pitch with compositional devices, such as imitation, inversion and transposition);
(vii)    Tempo (e.g., allegro (fast), lento (slow), andante (walking), and moderato (moderate)); and
(viii)    Dynamics (e.g., forte (loud), piano (soft), mezzo forte (medium loud), mezzo piano (medium soft, crescendo and decrescendo)).
(B)    Identify basic notational symbols, including: treble and bass clef, time signatures (e.g., 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and 6/8); and note values (e.g., whole note, half note, quarter note, eighth note, dotted half note, dotted quarter note, and the corresponding rests);
(C)    Experiment with variations in and demonstrate understanding of tempo (speed), tone quality (sound quality), dynamics (degree of loudness) and phrasing for expressive purpose in performing music.
(D)    Identify visually and aurally:
(i)    Instrumental ensembles (e.g., marching band, orchestra, jazz band);
(ii)    Families of orchestral instruments (e.g., strings, woodwinds, brass, and percussion); and
(iii)    Classification of voice ranges (.e.g, soprano, alto, tenor, and bass).
(E)    Notate short melodies presented aurally (listening).
(F)    Respond to basic rhythm patterns either physically or using classroom instruments.
(2)     Standard 2 - Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Sing or play a variety of folk, ethnic, classical, and contemporary musical compositions.
(B)    Recognize, describe and listen to music from a variety of:
(i)    Styles (e.g., jazz, mariachi band, opera, musical, call and response, and country-western);
(ii)    Periods (e.g., Baroque, Classical, Romantic, Impressionism and Contemporary); and
(iii)    Cultures (e.g., European, Native American, African American, Hispanic, and Asian).
(C)    Identify and differentiate the use of musical elements and instruments from other parts of the world and compare them to the use of musical elements and instruments in American music (e.g., patriotic, orchestral, band and folk).
(D)    Demonstrate respect for music performed by others.
(E)    Identify and describe the various roles musicians have in various musical settings and cultures.
(3)     Standard 3 - Music expression: "Performing". The student presents or demonstrates an existing work formally or informally with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Perform basic tonal patterns and rhythm patterns on classroom instruments (e.g., autoharp, recorder, percussion instruments, and guitar).
(B)    Demonstrate the ability to read music from basic notation.
(C)    Use a variety of sound sources, including electronic and computer.
(D)    Respond to basic rhythm patterns either physically or using classroom instruments.
(E)    Perform in solo or group ensembles through singing and playing instruments.
(F)    Sing or play musical compositions demonstrating knowledge of tonal and rhythmic elements.
(G)    Use a system for counting beat and rhythm patterns (e.g., rhythm syllables and body movement) to demonstrate knowledge of rhythms found in musical compositions.
(H)    Identify uses of music in everyday life (e.g., film, television, background music, and commercials).
(I)    Recognize and identify the appropriate ways to use the following elements of musical style:
(i)    Dynamics (e.g., piano and forte);
(ii)    Tempo (e.g., allegro, lento, andante, and moderato);
(iii)    Conducting patterns of simple meters (e.g., 2/4, 3/4, 4/4, and 6/8); and
(iv)    Articulation (e.g., staccato, legato, and accent)
(4)     Standard 4 - Music appreciation: "Creating". The student understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Answer unfinished short melodic patterns using voice or classroom instruments (improvisation).
(B)    Improvise with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters to demonstrate basic notation.
(C)    Compare and contrast students' likes and dislikes of music of different styles.
(D)    Participate in music through singing (e.g., echo singing, rounds, and partner songs) and/or playing instruments (e.g., body percussion and melodic ostinatos).
(E)    Use appropriate terms to explain preferences for musical works and styles.
(F)    Identify criteria for evaluating a musical composition or a musical performance.
     Media Arts.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize media art ideas and work.
(i)    Use appropriate vocabulary, develop, and share multiple ideas for media art using a variety of tools, methods, and/or materials.
(B)    Organize and develop media art ideas and work.
(i)    Create, share, and test ideas, plans, and models to prepare for media arts productions.
(C)    Refine and complete media arts productions.
(i)    Create, organize, and edit content into unified, meaningful media art utilizing discipline-specific elements and principles (e.g., movement, force, time, space, etc.).
(2)     Producing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret media art for presentation.
(i)    Combine varied academic media content into unified media art.
(B)    Develop and refine media arts techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Exhibit developing ability in a variety of artistic roles, such as making compositional decisions, using competency tools and techniques, and collaborating with others to produce media art.
(ii)    Use creative and innovative strategies to develop media art.
(iii)    Use tools and techniques to communicate in the production of media art.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of media art.
(i)    Take on roles and processes in preparing, presenting, and distributing media art.
(ii)    Analyze the presentation experience and share improvements for presenting media art.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze media art.
(i)    Identify and describe how messages are created through the components of media art.
(ii)    Recognize and share how meaning and style in media art affect audience experience.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in media art.
(i)    Identify and discuss the purpose and meaning of various media art considering the context in which they were made.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate media art.
(i)    Identify basic criteria for evaluating media art, considering possible improvements and context.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make media art.
(i)    Use personal and external resources, such as interests, information, and models, to create media art.
(ii)    Identify and show how media art form meanings, impact and shape culture, and provide opportunities for self-expression.
(B)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Identify how media art and ideas relate to everyday life and can influence values and behavior.
(ii)    Examine and interact appropriately with media arts tools and environments, considering safety, rules (such as copyright), and fairness, including the personal and social responsibility of media creation and sharing.
210:15-3-123.  The arts for high schoolMedia Arts Standards for High School
(a)     Visual arts.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of visual art: "Presenting". The student will identify and communicate using a variety of visual art terms.
(A)    Compare and contrast works which are similar or different in expressive quality, composition, and style.
(B)    Identify and apply knowledge of the principles of design, including: rhythm, balance (symmetrical, asymmetrical, radial) contrast, movement, variety, center of interest (emphasis), and repetition in personal artwork, and the artwork of others.
(C)    Identify and apply the elements of art: line, color, form, shape, texture, value (light and dark), and space in works of art.
(D)    Differentiate between types of shape (geometric and organic), colors (primary, secondary, complementary, intermediates, neutrals, tints, tones, shades, and values), lines (characteristics, quality), textures (tactile and visual), and space (background, middleground, foreground, placement, one-, two-, and three-point perspective, overlapping, negative space, positive space, size, color) in personal artwork, and the artwork of others.
(E)    Analyze how the elements of art and principles of design are used in the presentation of visual arts.
(F)    Discuss visual arts skills and processes used to identify and solve design problems in visual art and other creative disciplines.
(2)     Standard 2 - Visual art history and culture: "Responding". The student will recognize the development of visual art from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Proficient: Research works of art within their cultural and historical context.
(B)    Advanced: Analyze common characteristics of works of art and artifacts across time and among different cultural groups.
(C)    Proficient: Describe the basic ideas underlying several major art movements or historical periods including: Ancient (Egyptian, Greek and Roman), Renaissance, Impressionism/Post-Impressionism and 20th Century.
(D)    Advanced: Analyze issues related to chronology and discuss or debate contemporary issues in relation to historical perspective.
(E)    Proficient: Compare cultural and ethnic art forms throughout the world that have influenced the visual arts.
(F)    Advanced: Classify works of art based on time-periods, movements or specified style, and understand the role of visual art in documenting history.
(G)    Proficient: Describe the relationship between visual art and other academic disciplines.
(H)    Advanced: Analyze the creative and analytical principles, themes, and techniques relating to visual art and contrast them with other academic disciplines.
(I)    Proficient: Identify major regional, national, and international collections of art.
(J)    Advanced: Research exemplary art exhibitions at local, regional, national, or international museums or art galleries.
(K)    Proficient: Identify the use of visual art in business and industry, advertising, television and film.
(L)    Advanced: Document and create a visual art career plan based on personal portfolio, and develop an in-depth investigation of future educational possibilities.
(M)    Proficient: Understandthe role of visual arts in United States history.
(N)    Advanced: Interpret the role of visual arts in United States history from a cultural, and/or historical perspective.
(3)     Standard 3 - Visual art expression: "Creating". The student will observe, select, and utilize a variety of ideas and subject matter in creating original works of art.
(A)    Create original two-and three-dimensional works of visual art from observation, memory and imagination using a variety of art media.
(B)    Prepare a portfolio (collection) of the learner's original artwork.
(C)    Demonstrate safe and proper use, care, and storage of media, materials, and equipment.
(D)    Apply knowledge of a basic art vocabulary through experiences in making original works of visual art.
(E)    Create original visual art using a variety of art tools, media, techniques and processes in the visual art disciplines of (e.g., ceramics, drawing, fiber arts, painting, printmaking, media arts, and sculpture).
(F)    Analyze anddiscuss the influences of digital media and technology on the visual arts.
(4)     Standard 4 - Visual art appreciation: "Connecting". The student will appreciate and utilize visual art to make interdisciplinary connections and informed aesthetic decisions.
(A)    Proficient: Demonstrate appropriate behavior while attending a visual arts exhibition in a museum or art gallery.
(B)    Advanced: Understand the collaborative relationships between cultural art organizations, and the citizens they serve.
(C)    Proficient: Demonstrate respect for personal artwork and the artwork of others.
(D)    Advanced: Create a personal artistic style in the development of a portfolio of personal artwork.
(E)    Proficient: Demonstrate thoughtfulness and care in completion of artworks.
(F)    Advanced: Develop an artist statement of personal artwork.
(G)    Proficient: Make learning connections between visual art and other disciplines, such as mathematics, science, English Language Arts, social studies and media arts.
(H)    Advanced: Understand how knowledge gained in other disciplines of learning can lead to the creative resolution of design challenges in the visual arts.
(I)    Proficient: Critique personal artwork based on thoughtful inquiry.
(J)    Advanced: Construct persuasive and reasonable arguments, individually and/or in collaboration with other students, to defend or critique works of art.
(b)     Music.
(1)     Standard 1 - Language of music: "Responding". The student meaningfully engages with the artform through reading, notating, and/or interpreting music.
(A)    Identify and define the meaning of symbols found in a musical score.
(B)    Identify musical elements and use appropriate vocabulary to discuss their use, including melody, rhythm, tonality, form, tone color, texture, pitch, tempo, dynamics, and phrasing.
(C)    Notate rhythms and melodies using appropriate notation.
(D)    Demonstrate a physical response to written or aural music through performance.
(E)    Recognize the use of musical elements in familiar and unfamiliar songs.
(F)    Use appropriate terms to explain preferences for musical works and styles.
(2)     Standard 2 - Music history and culture: "Connecting". The student recognizes the development of music from a historical and cultural perspective.
(A)    Compare and contrast music from a variety of genres, styles, periods, and cultures.
(B)    Discusshow musical experiences can contribute to personal enrichment.
(C)    Evaluate one's own and other musicians' music performances, comparing them to exemplary works.
(D)    Identify and make connections between music and concepts from other content areas.
(E)    Recognize and practice appropriate audience or performer behavior appropriate for the context and style of music performed.
(3)     Standard 3 -Music expression: "Performing". The student presents or demonstrates an existing work formally or informally with appropriate expressive and technical skills.
(A)    Perform music using a variety of sound sources, that may include electronic and computer sources.
(B)    Perform in solo or group ensembles through singing and playing instruments.
(C)    Critique a musical performance generating suggestions for improvement.
(D)    Research how advances in music technology influence traditional careers in music and produce new creative opportunities.
(4)     Standard 4 - Music appreciation:"Creating". The student understands and uses musical tools, including active listening to create and evaluate original works.
(A)    Produce short rhythmic and melodic improvisations.
(B)    Compose with or without a system of syllables, numbers, or letters.
(C)    Compare and contrast students' likes and dislikes of different kinds of music.
(D)    Create original music using imagination and technical skill in applying the elements of music.
(E)    Identify criteria for evaluating a musical composition, arrangement, improvisation, or performance by comparing it to an exemplary performance or musical work.
(5)     Choral ensembles. Students will gain musical knowledge and skills, develop their leadership, teamwork, problem solving and goal setting abilities by participating in choral/vocal ensembles.
(A)    Identify compositional devices used in choral or instrumental works.
(B)    Compare characteristics of two or more styles of music.
(C)    Identify and explain the stylistic features of a given American musical work that serve to define its aesthetic tradition and its historical or cultural context.
(D)    Evaluate a given musical work in terms of its aesthetic qualities and explain the musical means it uses to evoke feelings and emotions.
(E)    Sing with expression and accuracy, including proper technique, breath control, diction, and a variety of articulations appropriate for a varied repertoire of vocal literature.
(F)    Sing music written for a variety of voicings (e.g., first soprano, second soprano, alto, tenor, baritone, and bass) with and without accompaniment (a capella) at a moderate level to a professional level of difficulty.
(G)    Perform in chamber settings and respond appropriately to other ensemble members' musical cues.
(H)    Perform in large ensembles and respond appropriately to the conductor's patterns, gestures, and cues.
(I)    Discuss how the subject matter learned in other disciplines is interrelated with and/or connected to music.
(6)     Instrumental ensembles. Students will gain musical knowledge and skills, develop their leadership, teamwork, problem solving and goal setting abilities by participating in instrumental music ensembles.
(A)    Identify compositional devices used in choral or instrumental works.
(B)    Compare characteristics of two or more styles of music.
(C)    Identify and explain the stylistic features of a given American musical work that serve to define its aesthetic tradition and its historical or cultural context.
(D)    Evaluate a given musical work in terms of its aesthetic qualities and explain the musical means it uses to evoke feelings and emotions.
(E)    Perform with expression, technical accuracy, and stylistic integrity a varied repertoire of instrumental literature.
(F)    Perform on an instrument with expression and accuracy, including appropriate technique specific to the instrument.
(G)    Perform in chamber settings and respond appropriately to other ensemble members' musical cues.
(H)    Perform in large ensembles and respond appropriately to the conductor's patterns, gestures, and cues.
(I)    Discuss how the subject matter learned in other disciplines is interrelated with and/or connected to music.
(c)     Media Arts.
(1)     Standard 1 - General Skills. The Media Arts standards are embedded within the visual arts and general music content standards, and can be used to design curriculum in animation, film studies, graphic design, sound design and recording, digital photography, audio-video communication technology, broadcasting, journalism, performing arts, printing technology, telecommunications, and the visual arts.
(A)    Proficient: Use a variety of media arts technologies, techniques, and processes to communicate ideas
(B)    Advanced: Develop and expand using technologies, techniques, and processes related to media arts creatively.
(C)    Proficient: Make connections between media arts and other arts disciplines, of learning.
(D)    Advanced: Communicate and understand the interrelationship between media arts and other disciplines of learning.
(E)    Proficient: Demonstrate a working knowledge of digital citizenship.
(F)    Advanced: Demonstrate fluency of the responsible use of digital technology and digital citizenship.
(G)    Proficient: Explore language, tone and point of view in media arts texts.
(H)    Advanced: Analyze how language, tone, and point of view used in media arts texts influence variations in meaning and multiple interpretations of visual messages.
(I)    Proficient: Understand cultural and societal issues related to media arts.
(J)    Advanced: Debate the roll of media arts and use of digital technologies in today's world.
(K)    Proficient: Use a variety of media arts techniques and processes to develop original ideas.
(L)    Advanced: Creatively use media arts techniques and processes to develop original ideas.
(M)    Proficient: Design media arts artwork that indicates an understanding of the elements and principles of artistic design. Create a portfolio of media arts artwork that indicates deep knowledge of the elements and principles of artistic design.
     Media Arts.
(1)     Creating.
(A)    Generate and conceptualize media art ideas and work.
(i)    Use appropriate vocabulary when generating ideas, developing artistic goals, and problem solving in media arts creation processes.
(B)    Organize and develop media art ideas and work.
(i)    Apply aesthetic criteria in developing processes for media arts productions, considering original inspirations, goals, and presentation context.
(C)    Refine and complete media arts productions.
(i)    Organize and integrate content and stylistic conventions in media arts productions, demonstrating associated principles, such as emphasis and tone.
(ii)    Refine and modify media art productions, honing aesthetic quality and accentuating stylistic elements according to stated student goals and preferences.
(2)     Producing.
(A)    Select, analyze, and interpret media art for presentation.
(i)    Integrate various art forms into media art, considering the intended audience.
(B)    Develop and refine media arts techniques and work for presentation.
(i)    Demonstrate growth in artistic skills, technical skills, and soft skills by working in specified roles in the production of a variety of media art.
(ii)    Develop and refine various creative abilities when addressing challenges within media art.
(iii)    Demonstrate innovation, through the use of tools, techniques, and content, to communicate intent in the production of media art.
(C)    Convey meaning through the presentation of media art.
(i)    Design presentations for an audience.
(ii)    Evaluate and make improvements in media art while considering the intended audience.
(3)     Responding.
(A)    Perceive and analyze media art.
(i)    Analyze the qualities of, and relationships between, components, style, and preferences communicated by media art and artists.
(ii)    Analyze how a variety of media art manage audience experience and create intention through multimodal perception.
(B)    Interpret intent and meaning in media art.
(i)    Analyze the intent, meaning, and reception of a variety of media art focusing on personal and cultural contexts.
(C)    Apply criteria to evaluate media art.
(i)    Evaluate media art and production processes at decisive stages, using identified criteria and considering context and artistic goals.
(4)     Connecting.
(A)    Synthesize and relate knowledge and personal experiences to make media art.
(i)    Access, evaluate, and integrate personal and external resources, (e.g., experiences, interests, and cultural influences) to inform the creation of original media art.
(ii)    Expand connections and demonstrate the use of media art to derive new meaning, gain knowledge, and create cultural experiences.
(B)    Relate artistic ideas and works with societal, cultural, and historical context to deepen understanding.
(i)    Demonstrate and explain how media art and ideas relate to various contexts, purposes, and values (e.g., social trends, fads, cultural or national identity).
(ii)    Critically evaluate and effectively interact with legal, technological, systemic, and vocational contexts of media arts, considering ethics, copyright, fair use, media literacy, social media, virtual worlds, and digital identity.
[OAR Docket #23-715; filed 8-8-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 15.  Curriculum and Instruction
[OAR Docket #23-716]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption of subject matter standards pursuant to 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Oklahoma Academic Standards
Part 7. Health/Safety Education
210:15-3-143. Health and safety education [AMENDED]
210:15-3-143.1. Standard One: Comprehending Concepts in Health Promotion and Disease Prevention [AMENDED]
210:15-3-143.2. Standard Two: Analyzing Influences on Health Behaviors [AMENDED]
210:15-3-143.3. Standard Three: Accessing Valid Information to Enhance Health [AMENDED]
210:15-3-143.4. Standard Four: Using Communication Skills to Enhance Health and Reduce Risks [AMENDED]
210:15-3-143.5. Standard Five: Using Decision-Making Skills to Enhance Health [AMENDED]
210:15-3-143.6. Standard Six: Using Goal-Setting Skills to Enhance Health and Reduce Risks [AMENDED]
210:15-3-143.7. Standard Seven: Practicing Health-Enhancing Behaviors and Reducing Risks [AMENDED]
210:15-3-143.8. Standard Eight: Advocating for Personal, Family, and Community Health [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a; 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1
ADOPTION:
February 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 29, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Because the Legislature did not adopt a joint resolution approving or disapproving the standards within thirty (30) legislative days after submission for review, the standards were deemed approved pursuant to 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1(C) as of May 18, 2023.
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The new rules set forth the updated Oklahoma Academic Standards for Health and Safety Education, as approved by the State Board of Education and the Oklahoma Legislature.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 70 O.S., SECTIONS 11-103.6A AND 11-103.6A-1, WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Oklahoma Academic Standards
PART 17.  HEALTH/SAFETY EDUCATION
210:15-3-143.  Health and safety education
(a)     Goal of health and safety education. The overarching goal of school health education in Oklahoma is to ensure that school-aged youth become health-literate individuals who possess the skills, knowledge, and dispositions to lead healthy, active lives. The health education content standards and respective grade level-specific performance outcomes presented here provide the expectations that school programs and services will set for all Oklahoma students. An effective health education program offers all students the opportunity to gain the needed skillfulness, knowledge, and dispositions toward healthy lifestyles. It is the responsibility of schools to provide opportunities for all students to become competent, literate, and enthusiastic learners, in ways that make health class a highly desired, enjoyable, and worthwhile experience. Students who participate in effective health education programs gain thereceive a variety of benefits in the areas of decision making, goal setting, and knowledge so they can develop essential health skills necessary to adopt, practice, and maintain health-enhancing behaviors. the eight health education standards reflected in the Oklahoma Academic Standards for Health Education provide a framework for educators to ensure school-aged students become health literate individuals.
(b)     Format of the standards. The health education content standards and respective grade level-specific performance outcomes presented in the standards provide the expectations that school programs and services will set for all Oklahoma students. The eight health education standards provide a framework for physical educators across Oklahoma to ensure school aged students become physically literate. Each standard includes two (2) or more specific objectives for each of the following grade ranges: Grades PreK-2, Grades 3-5, Grades 6-8, and Grades 9-12. The standards are designed to articulate specifically what students should know or be able to do in support of each standard by the conclusion of each grade span.
210:15-3-143.1.  Standard One: Comprehending Concepts in Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will comprehend concepts related to health promotion and disease prevention to enhance health.
(b)     Standard One objectives for Grades PreK-2. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten through Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify that healthy behaviors affect personal health (e.g., healthy eating, adequate sleep, physical activity, positive peer interactions).Explain what foods are in a healthy breakfast.
(2)     Objective 2. Recognize that there are multiple dimensions of health (e.g., physical, emotional, social, environmental).Identify a variety of healthy foods and snacks.
(3)     Objective 3. Describe ways to prevent communicable diseases.Identify the benefits of drinking water and limiting sugary beverages.
(4)     Objective 4. List ways to prevent common childhood injuries.Identify the recommended amount of physical activity for children.
(5)     Objective 5. Describe why it is important to seek health care. Describe a variety of ways to be physically active.
(6)     Objective 6. Describe the benefits of being physically active.
(67)     Objective 67. Mental Health and Wellness. Identify healthy ways to express and cope with needs, wants, emotions, feelings, and/or trauma.
(78)     Objective 78. Mental Health and Wellness. Explain the relationship between feelings and behavior.
(89)     Objective 89. Mental Health and Wellness. Explain the importance of respecting the boundaries of others.
(10)     Objective 10. Identify safe and unsafe use of medicines.
(11)     Objective 11. Identify school rules about use of medicines.
(12)    Objective 12. Identify a variety of tobacco products [e.g., cigarettes, cigars, electronic cigarettes (e-cigarettes), vaping products, hookah, heated tobacco products, smokeless tobacco] that have health effects.
(13)     Objective 13. Define a trusted adult (e.g., parent, guardian, health professional) and identify characteristics of a trusted adult.
(14)     Objective 14. Identify the characteristics of healthy family and peer relationships.
(15)     Objective 15. Distinguish between wanted and unwanted touch (e.g., high-five, handshake, hug).
(16)     Objective 16. Identify the benefits of personal health care practices (e.g., protection from germs, healthy teeth).
(17)     Objective 17. Identify responsible decision making in situations with risk of injuries at home, school, and in the community (e.g., pedestrian, motor vehicle, playground, fire, firearms, bike, water).
(18)     Objective 18. Identify people who can help when someone is injured or suddenly ill.
(c)     Standard One objectives for Grades 3-5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3 through Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Describe the relationship between healthy behaviors and personal health. Describe the benefits of eating a healthy breakfast every day.
(2)     Objective 2. Identify examples of emotional, intellectual, physical, and social health (e.g., relationship between feelings and behaviors, appropriate ways to express and deal with emotions, identifying characteristics of healthy relationships and self-control, developing healthy study skills).Explain the importance of eating a variety of foods form multiple food groups (e.g., fruits, vegetables, dairy, protein, and whole grains).
(3)     Objective 3. Describe ways in which a safe and healthy school and community environment can promote personal health (e.g., safe playgrounds, tobacco free schools and communities, and bully free zones).Examine nutritious and non-nutritious beverages.
(4)     Objective 4. Describe when it is important to seek health care (e.g., for routine visits, when injured or sick, or for emotional health reasons).Identify ways to increase daily physical activity.
(5)     Objective 5. Describe the importance of choosing a variety of ways to be physically active.
(6)     Objective 6. Identify short- and long-term benefits of moderate and vigorous physical activity (e.g., improving mood, self-esteem, attention, cognitive performance, cardiovascular health, strength, endurance, flexibility, and reducing risks for chronic diseases).
(57)     Objective 57. Mental Health and Wellness. Describe healthy ways to express and cope with needs, wants, emotions, feelings, and/or trauma.
(68)     Objective 68. Mental Health and Wellness. Identify and explain characteristics of a mentally and emotionally healthy person.
(79)     Objective 79. Mental Health and Wellness. Identify feelings of worry, sadness, and hopelessness and determine when to seek help with coping skills.
(10)     Objective 10. Describe potential risks associated with inappropriate use of medicines.
(11)     Objective 11. Identify school rules about alcohol use.
(12)     Objective 12. Identify short- and long-term physical effects of using tobacco [e.g., cigarettes, cigars, electronic cigarettes (e-cigarettes), vaping products, hookah, heated tobacco products, smokeless tobacco].
(13)     Objective 13. Describe examples of what and when to report to a trusted adult (e.g., parent, guardian, health professional).
(14)     Objective 14. Describe the benefits of healthy family and peer relationships.
(15)     Objective 15. Explain why everyone has the right to consent to being touched (e.g., high-five, handshake, hug).
(16)     Objective 16. Describe the benefits of personal health care practices (e.g., brushing and flossing teeth, washing hair, regularly bathing, adequate sleep, wear sunscreen).
(17)     Objective 17. Explain responsible decision making in situations with risk of injuries at home, school, and in the community (e.g., pedestrian, motor vehicle, playground, fire, firearms, bike, water).
(18)     Objective 18. Explain what to do if someone is injured or suddenly ill and needs medical assistance in various situations (e.g., at home, school, or in the community).
(d)     Standard One objectives for Grades 6-8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6 through Grade 8:
(1)     Objective 1. Analyze the relationship between healthy behaviors and personal health.Analyze the importance of eating a healthy breakfast every day.
(2)     Objective 2. Describe the interrelationships of emotional, intellectual, physical, and social health in adolescence. Examine why the daily recommended amount of food differs for each food group.
(3)     Objective 3. Analyze how the environment affects personal health. Differentiate between nutritious and non-nutritious beverages.
(4)     Objective 4. Describe how family history can affect personal health (e.g., genetics and/or family behavior patterns). Explain how physical activity can be incorporated into daily life without special exercise equipment.
(5)     Objective 5. Describe ways to reduce or prevent injuries and other adolescent health problems. Describe ways to increase daily physical activity and decrease inactivity.
(6)     Objective 6. Explain how appropriate health care can promote personal health. Explain the short- and long-term benefits of moderate and vigorous physical activity including improving mood, self-esteem, attention, cognitive performance, cardiovascular health, strength, endurance, flexibility, and reducing risks for chronic diseases.
(7)     Objective 7. Describe the benefits of and barriers to practicing healthy behaviors.
(8)     Objective 8. Examine the likelihood of injury or illness if engaging in unhealthy behaviors.
(9)     Objective 9. Examine the potential seriousness of injury or illness if engaging in unhealthy behaviors.
(107)     Objective 7.10. Mental Health and Wellness. Analyze healthy ways to express and cope with needs, wants, emotions, feelings, and/or trauma.
(118)     Objective 8.11. Mental Health and Wellness. Explain the interrelationship of physical, mental, emotional, and social health and their relationship with social health in engaging with other individuals.
(129)     Objective 9.12. Mental Health and Wellness. Explain the causes, symptoms, and effects of stress, depression, and anxiety and examine coping skills.
(10)     Objective 10. Differentiate between proper use, misuse, and abuse of prescription medicines.
(11)     Objective 11. Explain school policies and community laws about alcohol- and other drug-use.
(12)    Objective 12. Summarize the dangers of experimenting with tobacco products (e.g., vapor products, e-cigarettes, nicotine only products, cigarettes, smokeless tobacco).
(13)     Objective 13. Summarize the benefits of talking with trusted adults (e.g., parent, guardian, health professional) about feelings.
(14)     Objective 14. Summarize how the characteristics of healthy relationships influence health behaviors.
(15)     Objective 15. Explain why individuals have the right to refuse uncomfortable situations and/or contact (e.g., physical, virtual).
(16)     Objective 16. Summarize the benefits of good hygiene practices for promoting health and maintaining positive social relationships.
(17)     Objective 17. Demonstrate responsible decision making in situations with risk of injuries at home, school and in the community (e.g., water, sport, weather, firearms, chemicals, medicines).
(18)     Objective 18. Describe first response procedures needed to treat injuries and other emergencies.
(e)     Standard One objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Objective 1. Predict how healthy behaviors can affect health status. Summarize the physical, mental, social, and cognitive benefits of eating a healthy breakfast every day.
(2)     Objective 2. Describe the interrelationships of emotional, intellectual, physical, and social health. Describe the importance of eating a variety of healthy foods to meet daily nutrient and caloric needs.
(3)     Objective 3. Analyze how environment and personal health are interrelated. Analyze the benefits of limiting the consumption of non-nutritious beverages.
(4)     Objective 4. Analyze how genetics and family history can impact personal health. Analyze how a person can incorporate physical activity into daily life (without relying on a structured exercise plan or special equipment).
(5)     Objective 5. Propose ways to reduce or prevent injuries and health problems. Analyze ways to increase physical activity and decrease inactivity.
(6)     Objective 6. Analyze the relationship between access to health care and health status Evaluate the short-and long-term benefits of physical activity (e.g., improving mood, self-esteem, attention, cognitive performance, cardiovascular health, strength, endurance, flexibility, and reducing risks for chronic diseases).
(7)     Objective 7. Compare and contrast the benefits of and barriers to practicing a variety of healthy behaviors.
(8)     Objective 8. Analyze personal susceptibility to injury, illness or death if engaging in unhealthy behaviors.
(9)     Objective 9. Analyze the potential severity of injury or illness if engaging in unhealthy behaviors.
(107)     Objective 7. 10. Mental Health and Wellness. Explain how feelings, emotions, and trauma can positively and negatively influence behavior.
(118)     Objective 8. 11. Mental Health and Wellness. Analyze the interrelationship of physical, mental, emotional, and social health and their relationship with social health in engaging with other individuals.
(129)     Objective 9. 12. Mental Health and Wellness. Analyze the causes, symptoms, and effects of stress, depression, and anxiety and practice coping skills.
(10)     Objective 10. Describe the effects of using alcohol and other drugs on school performance, job performance, job absenteeism, and job loss.
(11)     Objective 11. Compare and contrast family and school rules, and community laws about alcohol- and other drug-use.
(12)    Objective 12. Summarize long-term health benefits of abstaining from or discontinuing tobacco use [e.g., cigarettes, cigars, electronic cigarettes (e-cigarettes), vaping products, hookah, heated tobacco products, smokeless tobacco].
(13)     Objective 13. Summarize the importance of talking with trusted adults (e.g., parents, guardians, health professional) about issues related to growth and development, relationships, and related health services.
(14)     Objective 14. Analyze how the characteristics of healthy relationships influence health behaviors.
(15)     Objective 15. Summarize why individuals have the right to refuse uncomfortable situations and/or contact (e.g., physical, virtual)
(16)     Objective 16. Analyze the personal physical, emotional, mental, social, and cognitive health and vocational performance benefits of rest and sleep.
(17)     Objective 17. Practice responsible decision making in situations with risk of injuries at home, school, and in the community (e.g., water, sport, weather, firearms, chemicals, medicines).
(18)     Objective 18. Explain the accepted procedures for basic emergency care and lifesaving.
210:15-3-143.2.  Standard Two: Analyzing Influences on Health Behaviors
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will analyze the influence of family, peers, culture, media, technology, and other factors on health behaviors.
(b)     Standard Two objectives for Grades PreK-2. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten through Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify and describe how the family influences personal health practices and behaviors.
(2)     Objective 2. Identify how what the school can do to support personal health practices and behaviors.
(3)     Objective 3. DescribeIdentify how thepeers, media, and technology (e.g., television/film, video games, advertisements, social media, and other screen time)can influence health practices and behaviors.
(c)     Standard Two objectives for Grades 3-5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3 through Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Describe how the family influences personal health practices and behaviors.
(2)     Objective 2. Identify the influence of culture on health practices and behaviors. (e.g., culture may include geography, race, ethnicity, gender, age, society).
(3)     Objective 3. IdentifyExamine how peers can influence healthy and unhealthy behaviors.
(4)     Objective 4. Describe Determine how the school and community can support influence personal health practices and behaviors (e.g., tobacco free environment, healthy food access, safe bike routes, walking school buses, etc.).
(5)     Objective 5. ExplainDescribe how media and technology (e.g., television/film, video games, advertisements, social media, and other screen time) influences thoughts, feelings, and health practices and behaviors.
(6)     Objective 6. Describe ways that technology can influence personal health.
(d)     Standard Two objectives for Grades 6-8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6 through Grade 8:
(1)     Objective 1. Examine how the family influences the health of adolescents.
(2)     Objective 2. DescribeExplain the influence of culture on health beliefs, practices and behaviors.
(3)     Objective 3. DescribeEvaluate how peers influence healthy and unhealthy behaviors.
(4)     Objective 4. AnalyzeEvaluate how the school and community can affect personal health practices and behaviors (e.g., tobacco free, healthy food access, safe bike routes, walking, school buses, etc.).
(5)     Objective 5. Analyze how messages from media and technology (e.g., television/film, video games, advertisements, social media, and other screen time) influence health practices and behaviors.
(6)     Objective 6. Analyze Describe how some health risk behaviorsthe influence of technology on personal and family health. the likelihood of engaging in other unhealthy behaviors.
(7)     Objective 7. Explain how school rules,the perceptions ofcommunity norms, and public health policies or laws influence healthy and unhealthy practices and behaviors.
(8)     Objective 8. Explain the influence of personal values and beliefs on individual health practices and behaviors.
(9)     Objective 9. Describe how some health risk behaviors can influence the likelihood of engaging in unhealthy behaviors.
(10)     Objective 10. Explain how school and public health policies can influence health promotion and disease prevention.
(e)     Standard Two objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Objective 1. Analyze how family influences the health of individuals.
(2)     Objective 2. Analyze how culture supports and challenges health beliefs, practices, and behaviors.
(3)     Objective 3. Analyze how peers and norms influence healthy and unhealthy practices and behaviors.
(4)     Objective 4. EvaluateAnalyze how the school and community can impact personal health practice and behaviors (e.g., tobacco free, healthy food access, safe bike routes, walking, school buses, etc.).
(5)     Objective 5. EvaluateAnalyzethe effect of how media and technology (e.g., television/film, video games, advertisements, social media, and other screen time) influence on personal,and family, and community health.
(6)     Objective 6. Evaluate the impact of technology on personal, family, and community health.
(7)     Objective 7. Analyze how the perceptions of norms influence healthy and unhealthy behaviors.
(8)     Objective 8. Analyze the influence of personal values and beliefs on individual health practices and behaviors.
(96)     Objective 9 6. Analyze how some health risk behaviors can influence the likelihood of engaging in other unhealthy behaviors.
(107)     Objective 10 7. Analyze how laws, rules,public health policies and government regulations can influence health promotion and disease prevention.
210:15-3-143.3.  Standard Three: Accessing Valid Information to Enhance Health
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will demonstrate the ability to access valid information, products, and services to enhance health.
(b)     Standard Three objectives for Grades PreK-2. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten through Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify trusted adults and professionals who can help promote health.
(2)     Objective 2. Identify ways to lLocate school and community health helpers.
(c)     Standard Three objectives for Grades 3-5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3 through Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify characteristics of valid health information, products, and services based on self-identified need (e.g., reliable, dependable, appropriate, accurate, or trustworthy).
(2)     Objective 2. Locate resources from home, school, and the community that provide valid health information.
(d)     Standard Three objectives for Grades 6-8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6 through Grade 8:
(1)     Objective 1. AnalyzeExamine the validity of health information, products, and services.
(2)     Objective 2. Access valid health information from home, school, and community, and trustworthy online resources.
(3)     Objective 3. Determine Analyze the accessibility of products that enhance health.
(4)     Objective 4. Describe situations that may require professional health services.
(5)     Objective 5. Locate valid and reliable health products and services.
(e)     Standard Three objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Objective 1. Evaluate Examine the validity of health information, products, and services.
(2)     Objective 2. Use medically accurate resources from home, school, and community that provide valid health information.
(3)     Objective 3. DetermineAnalyze the accessibility of products and services that enhance health.
(4)     Objective 4. Determine when professional health services may be required.
(5)     Objective 5. Access valid and reliablemedically accurate health products and services.
210:15-3-143.4.  Standard Four: Using Communication Skills to Enhance Health and Reduce Risks
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will demonstrate the ability to use interpersonal communication skills enhance health and avoid or reduce health risks.
(b)     Standard Four objectives for Grades PreK-2. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten through Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. DemonstrateIdentify healthy ways to express needs, wants, and feelings.
(2)     Objective 2. Demonstrate effective listening and communication skills (e.g., paying attention, and verbal and nonverbal feedback) to enhance health.
(3)     Objective 3. DemonstrateIdentify safe and effective ways to respond when dealing with conflict (e.g., in an unwanted, threatening, or dangerous situation).
(4)     Objective 4. DemonstrateIdentify ways to tell a trusted adult when assistance is needed (e.g., enhance personal health, or are in an unwanted, threatening, or dangerous situation).
(c)     Standard Four objectives for Grades 3-5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3 through Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Demonstrate effective verbal and non-verbal communication skills to enhance health.
(2)     Objective 2. Demonstrate refusaleffective peer resistance skills to avoid or reduce health risks.
(3)     Objective 3. Demonstrate non-violent strategieshealthy ways to manage or resolve conflict.
(4)     Objective 4. Demonstrate how to effectively ask for help assistance to improve enhance personal health.
(5)     Objective 5. Identify how to effectively communicate support for others with compassion.
(d)     Standard Four objectives for Grades 6-8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6 through Grade 8:
(1)     Objective 1. ApplyDemonstrate the use of effective verbal and non-verbal communication skills to enhance health.
(2)     Objective 2. Demonstrate refusal and negotiation skills to avoid or reduce health risks.
(3)     Objective 3. Demonstrate effectiveExplain healthy ways to prevent, manage, and resolve conflictmanagement or resolution strategies.
(4)     Objective 4. Demonstrate how to effectively ask for assistance to enhancetheimprove personal healthof self and others.
(5)     Objective 5. Demonstrate how to effectively communicate support for others.
(e)     Standard Four objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Objective 1. UtilizePractice effective communication skills for communicating effectively with family, peers, and others to enhance health.
(2)     Objective 2. Demonstrate refusal Practice effective peer resistance, negotiation, and collaboration skills to enhance health and avoid engaging in unhealthy behaviors.or reduce health risks.
(3)     Objective 3. Demonstrate Analyze effective communication strategies to prevent, manage, or resolve interpersonal conflicts without harming self or others.
(4)     Objective 4. DemonstratePractice how to ask for and offer assistance to enhance the health of self and others.
(5)     Objective 5. Practice how to effectively offer assistance to improve the health of others.
210:15-3-143.5.  Standard Five: Using Decision-Making Skills to Enhance Health
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will demonstrate the ability to use decision-making skills to enhance health.
(b)     Standard Five objectives for Grades PreK-2. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten through Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify situations that needwhen a health-related decision is needed (e.g., dealing with interpersonal conflict, managing anger, nutrition, safety, hygiene).
(2)     Objective 2. Differentiate between situationsDescribe when help is needed and when it is not needed to make a healthhealthy-related decisioncan be made individually or when assistance is needed.
(3)    Objective 3. Identify how family, peers, culture, technology, or media influence a health-related decision.
(c)     Standard Five objectives for Grades 3-5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3 through Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify health-relatedExplain situations that might requireneed a health-related decision.
(2)     Objective 2. AnalyzeDecide when assistancehelp is needed and when it is not needed to make making a healthhealthy related decision.
(3)     Objective 3. Explain how family, culture, peers, technology, or media influence a health-related decision.
(34)     Objective 34. List Examine healthy options to a health-related decisionissues or problems.
(45)     Objective 45. PredictIdentify options and their the potential outcomes of each option when making a health-related decision.
(56)     Objective 56. Choose a healthy option when making a decision.
(67)     Objective 67. DescribeExplain the outcomes and benefits of making a health-related decision.
(d)     Standard Five objectives for Grades 6-8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6 through Grade 8:
(1)     Objective 1. IdentifyExamine circumstances that can help or hinder healthy decision-making.
(2)     Objective 2. Determine when health-related situations require a health-related decision which can be made individually or collaboratively. the application of decision-making skills.
(3)     Objective 3. Distinguish when individual or collaborative decision-making is appropriate. Evaluate how family, culture, technology, media, peers, and personal beliefs affect a health-related decision.
(4)     Objective 4. Distinguish Differentiate between healthy and unhealthy alternativesoutcomes of health-related decisions.
(5)     Objective 5. Predict Examine the potential short-term impact of healthy and unhealthy alternatives outcomes to a health-related decision.
(6)     Objective 6. ChooseSelect a healthy alternativesover unhealthy alternatives when making a health-related decision.
(7)     Objective 7. Analyze theExamine the effectiveness of a final outcomes of a health-related decisions.
(e)     Standard Five objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Objective 1. ExamineEvaluate barriers that can hinder to healthy decision-making and prepare steps to avoid obstacles.
(2)     Objective 2. Determine Analyze the value of applying thoughtful decision-making skills (made individually or collaboratively) in health-related situations.
(3)     Objective 3. Justify when individual or collaborative decision-making is appropriate. Analyze how family, culture, technology, media, peers, and personal beliefs affect a personal health and wellness-related decision.
(4)     Objective 4. Generate alternatives to health-related issues or problems.
(5)     Objective 5. Predict the potential short- and long-term consequences of health-related decisions. impact of healthy and unhealthy alternatives to self and others.
(6)     Objective 6. Use evidence to defendDefend the healthy choice when making a health-related decisions.
(7)     Objective 7. Evaluate Analyze the effectiveness of a final outcome of a health-related decisions.
210:15-3-143.6.  Standard Six: Using Goal-Setting Skills to Enhance Health and Reduce Risks
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will demonstrate the ability to use goal-setting skills to enhance health.
(b)     Standard Six objectives for Grades PreK-2. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten through Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify a short-term personal health goal.and take action toward achieving the goal.
(2)     Objective 2. Identify who can help when assistance is needed to achieve a personal health goal.
(3)     Objective 3. Describe what steps to take in order to achieve a personal health goal.
(c)     Standard Six objectives for Grades 3-5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3 through Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify Set a personal health goaland track progress toward its achievement.
(2)     Objective 2. Identify resources to assist in achieving a personal health goal.Track progress toward achieving a personal health goal.
(3)     Objective 3. Identify potential barriers and resources that can help achieve a personal health goal.
(d)     Standard Six objectives for Grades 6-8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6 through Grade 8:
(1)     Objective 1. Assess personal health practices.
(2)     Objective 2. Develop a goal to adopt, maintain, or improve a personal health practice. Set a realistic personal health goal.
(3)     Objective 3. Apply strategies to overcome barriers to achievingand skills needed to attain a personal health goal.
(4)     Objective 4. Describe how personal health goals can vary with changing abilities, priorities, and responsibilities. Use strategies and skills to achieve a personal health goal.
(e)     Standard Six objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Objective 1. Assess personal health practices and behaviors.overall health status.
(2)     Objective 2. Develop a plan to attain a personal health goal. that addresses strengths, needs, and risks.
(3)     Objective 3. Implement strategies, including self-monitoring and assessing barriers, to achieve and monitor progress in achieving a personal health goal.
(4)     Objective 4. Formulate an effective long-term personal health plan to achieve a health goal.
210:15-3-143.7.  Standard Seven: Practicing Health-Enhancing Behaviors and Reducing Risks
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will demonstrate the ability to practice health-enhancing behaviors and avoid or reduce health risks.
(b)     Standard Seven objectives for Grades PreK-2. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten through Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. Demonstrate healthyIdentify practices and behaviors to maintain or improve personal health that prevent or reduce health risks.
(2)     Objective 2. Demonstrate healthy practices and behaviors to maintain or improve personal health. that avoid or reduce health risks.
(c)     Standard Seven objectives for Grades 3-5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3 through Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Identify responsible personal healthDescribe practices and behaviors that reduce or prevent health risks.
(2)     Objective 2. Demonstrate Apply a variety of healthy practices and behaviors to maintain or improve personal health.
(3)     Objective 3. Demonstrate a variety ofCommit to practicing healthy behaviorsthat avoid or reduce health risks.
(d)     Standard Seven objectives for Grades 6-8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6 through Grade 8:
(1)     Objective 1. Explain the importance of assumingbeing responsibility for personal health behaviors.
(2)     Objective 2. DemonstrateApply healthy practices and behaviors tothat will maintain or improve the health of selfoneself and others.
(3)     Objective 3. Demonstrate behaviors that avoid or reduce health risks to self and others.
(e)     Standard Seven objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Objective 1. Analyze the role of individual responsibility in enhancing health.
(2)     Objective 2. DemonstrateAnalyzea variety of healthy practices and behaviors that will maintain or to improve the health of one self and others.
(3)     Objective 3. DemonstrateEvaluate a variety of behaviors that avoid or reduce health risks to self and others.
210:15-3-143.8.  Standard Eight: Advocating for Personal, Family, and Community Health
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will demonstrate the ability to advocate for personal, family, and community health.
(b)     Standard Eight objectives for Grades PreK-2. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten through Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. Make requests to promote personal health (e.g., requesting healthy foods and drinks, avoiding second-hand smoke, use of personal safety equipment,practicing proper hygiene).
(2)     Objective 2. Encourage peers to make positive health choices.
(c)     Standard Eight objectives for Grades 3-5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3 through Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Express opinions and give accurate information about health issues.
(2)     Objective 2. Encourage others to make positive health choices.
(d)     Standard Eight objectives for Grades 6-8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6 through Grade 8:
(1)     Objective 1. State a health enhancing position on a topic and support it with accurate information.
(2)     Objective 2. Demonstrate how to influence and support others to make positive health choices.
(3)     Objective 3. Work cooperatively to advocate for healthy individuals, families, and schools.
(4)     Objective 4. Identify ways that health messages and communication techniques can be altered for different audiences.
(e)     Standard Eight objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Objective 1. Utilize current peer and societal norms to formulate an accurate health-enhancing message.
(2)     Objective 2. Demonstrate how to influence and support others to make positive health choices.
(3)     Objective 3. Work cooperatively as an advocate for improving personal, family, and community health.
(4)     Objective 4. Adapt health messages and communication techniques to a specific target audience.
[OAR Docket #23-716; filed 8-8-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 15.  Curriculum and Instruction
[OAR Docket #23-717]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption of subject matter standards pursuant to 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Oklahoma Academic Standards
Part 19. Physical Education
210:15-3-163. Physical education [AMENDED]
210:15-3-164. Definitions [REVOKED]
210:15-3-165. Standard One: Competency in a Variety of Motor Skills and Movement Patterns [AMENDED]
210:15-3-166. Standard Two: Knowledge of Concepts, Strategies, and Tactics Related to Movement and Performance [AMENDED]
210:15-3-167. Standard Three: Knowledge and Skills to Achieve and Maintain a Health-Enhancing Level of Physical Activity and Fitness [AMENDED]
210:15-3-168. Standard Four: Responsible Personal and Social Behavior That Respects Self and Others [AMENDED]
210:15-3-169. Standard Five: Value of Physical Activity for Health, Enjoyment, Challenge, Self-Expression, and Social Interaction [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a; 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1
ADOPTION:
February 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 29, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Because the Legislature did not adopt a joint resolution approving or disapproving the standards within thirty (30) legislative days after submission for review, the standards were deemed approved pursuant to 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1(C) as of May 18, 2023.
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The new rules set forth the updated Oklahoma Academic Standards for Physical Education, as approved by the State Board of Education and the Oklahoma Legislature.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 70 O.S., SECTIONS 11-103.6A AND 11-103.6A-1, WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Oklahoma Academic Standards
PART 19.  PHYSICAL EDUCATION
210:15-3-163.  Physical education
     The goal of physical education is to develop physically literate individuals who have the knowledge, skills, and confidence to enjoy a lifetime of physical activity. The five physical education standards provide a framework for physical educators across Oklahoma to ensure school-aged students become physically literate. It is the responsibility of schools to provide opportunities for all students to become competent, literate, and enthusiastic movers in ways that make physical activity a highly desired, enjoyable, and worthwhile experience. Elementary students who participate in effective physical education programs receive foundational skills, knowledge, and values while middle school students' learning experiences should allow for application of those skills, knowledge, and values. In high school, students focus on lifetime-activities skills, knowledge, and values, which ensures college and career ready individuals are equipped to lead a physically active lifestyle.
(a)     Goal of physical education. The overarching goal of school physical education in Oklahoma is to ensure that school aged youth become physically literate individuals who possess the skills, knowledge, and dispositions to lead physically active lives. The physical education content standards and respective grade level-specific performance outcomes presented here provide the expectations that school programs and services will set for all Oklahoma students. An effective physical education program offers all students the opportunity to gain the needed skillfulness, knowledge, and dispositions toward physically active lifestyles. It is the responsibility of schools to provide opportunities for all students to become competent, literate, and enthusiastic movers, in ways that make physical activity a highly desired, enjoyable, and worthwhile experience. Students who participate in effective physical education programs receive a variety of benefits in the areas of movement skills, physical conditioning, and knowledge, so they can develop strategies and tactics to lead a physically active lifestyle.
(b)     Format of the standards. The five physical education standards provide a framework for schools and physical educators across Oklahoma to develop an aligned physical education curriculum to ensure school aged students become physically literate. Grade-level objectives are provided for each standard, organized under the major concepts associated with the standard. For grades nine (9) through twelve (12), the standards are organized under Level 1 and Level 2 objectives rather than by specific grade level.
210:15-3-164.  Definitions  [REVOKED]
     The following words and terms, when used in this Part, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Accuracy" means eighty percent (80%) successful performance or above; "reasonable accuracy" means sixty percent (60%) successful performance or above. Scores in the range of sixty percent (60%) to seventy-nine percent (79%) are considered reasonably accurate.
"Affective domain" means the domain in which the focus is on personal-social development, attitudes, values, feelings, motivations, and emotions. In the revised Bloom's taxonomy (Anderson et al., 2005), affective behaviors include receiving (willing to listen and hear), responding (willing to participate actively), valuing (willing to be involved, accept, and commit), organizing (willing to advocate and synthesize), and characterization (willing to change behavior, revise judgments, and cooperate).
"Analytic rubric" means an assessment and instructional tool that divides assignments or tasks into independent component parts with criterion behaviors defined for each part and across levels of the rubric. Each part is evaluated separately across levels, and learners receive feedback for each component part of the assignment or task. The assessment occurs on a continuum defined by criterion behaviors unique to each component.
"Applying" means learners can demonstrate the critical elements of the motor skills or knowledge components of the grade-level outcomes in a variety of physical activity environments.
"Aquatics" means water-based activities that might include, but not be limited to: swimming, diving, synchronized swimming, and water polo.
"Checklist" means an assessment and instructional tool that evaluates whether individual performance criteria are present or absent. It consists of a list of criterion behaviors, and evaluators simply determine yes, the criterion behavior is present, or no, the criterion behavior is not present. This type of assessment does not attempt to determine the quality of the response.
"Closed skills" means skills performed in a nondynamic environment that is constant, predictable, or stationery. The goal for performance is to produce movements or skills that are consistent and accurate because the environmental context is nondynamic, stable, and unchanging. Examples include performance sports such as gymnastics or diving, and target games such as darts and archery. See "Nondynamic environment".
"Cognitive domain" means the domain in which the focus is on knowledge and information (facts and concepts), with an emphasis on the understanding and application of knowledge and information through higher-order thinking skills. The revised Bloom's taxonomy (Anderson et. Al, 2005) identifies six levels of intellectual behaviors (remembering, understanding, applying, analyzing, evaluating, and creating), with increasing complexity at each level.
"Competency" means sufficient ability, skill, and knowledge to meet the demands of a specific task or activity. In this Part, competency is defined as the ability for individuals to participate at the recreational level with skill and ability in self-selected activities.
"Competitive advantage" means the advantage gained in a game situation when one team, either on offense or defense, has more players than the other team. For example, when two offensive players are against one defender, the team with two players has a competitive (offensive) advantage. If two offensive players face three defenders, the defensive has a competitive advantage.
"Content standard" means a statement that clearly describes the content that should be taught and learned during the PreK-Grade 12 years, grade by grade. Content standards articulate an essential core of knowledge and skills that students should master. Standards clarify what students are expected to know and be able to do at various points in their PreK-Grade 12 academic career.
"Contextual interference effect" means certain conditions (e.g., varying practice tasks) that depress performance during practice but actually produce higher levels of learning and retention.
"Criterion-referenced performance standards" means a type of assessment tool that compares learners' performance with a predetermined standard or set of criteria. Criteria are defined clearly, are delineated, and are task-specific.
"Critical elements" means the key components of a motor skill that can be observed, the sum of which result in movement efficiency.
"Dance and rhythmic activities" means activities that focus on dance or rhythms. Dance and rhythmic activities might include, but are not limited to, dance forms such as creative movement, ballet, modern, ethnic or folk, cultural, hip hop, Latin, line, ballroom, social, and square. Rhythmic activities for early elementary focus on recognizing and moving to rhythm. Rhythmic manipulative activities for elementary include, but are not limited to, lummi sticks, tinikling, Chinese ribbons, and ball gymnastics.
"Deliberate practice" means a highly structured activity, the explicit goal of which is to improve performance. Specific tasks are invented to overcome weaknesses, and performance is carefully monitored to provide cues for ways to improve further. Deliberate practice is purposeful and requires concentration on the part of the learner.
"Differentiated instruction" means that teachers vary instruction to address the needs of students and their various levels of skill or knowledge. Teachers differentiate instruction by modifying the learning environment (e.g., tiered learning activities), providing choices on equipment (e.g., increasing or decreasing the length of a racket), providing choices on the process (e.g., participate in modified game play or continue to practice), modifying practice (e.g., work alone or in a group), and facilitating self-directed activities (e.g., developing and implementing an individualized physical activity program).
"Dynamic environments" means skills are performed in an environment that is dynamic, unpredictable, and in motion ("open skills"). The goal for performers is to adapt movements in response to the dynamic and ever-changing environment. Examples include invasion games such as ultimate and soccer and net/wall games such as volleyball and tennis.
"Educational gymnastics" means gymnastics that focus on children challenging themselves to maneuver their bodies effectively against the force of gravity. The skills of balancing and transferring weight form the foundation of educational gymnastics. Educational gymnastics centers on challenges appropriate for each child at his or her skill level, as contrasted with Olympic gymnastics, which centers on defined stunts performed the same way by all students.
"Emerging" means learners participate in deliberate practice tasks that will lead to skill and knowledge acquisition. Learners are in the beginning stages of acquiring motor skills and knowledge. Mastery of the skills and knowledge is emerging through deliberate practice tasks and, at this stage, learners are developing competency.
"Etiquette" means expectations regarding behavior and social norms associated with specific games or activities; rules of behavior that define and provide parameters for appropriate participation in the activity or game.
"Fielding/striking games" means games in which teams occupy positions throughout the space (field) and the other team tries to score by batting or striking an object into open space in the field, providing enough time for the hitter to run between bases (or wickets). Examples include baseball, softball, and cricket. Strategies and tactics include effective placement of field players so that they can prevent scoring (defending team) and batting and striking the object with appropriate power to open spaces in the field (offensive team). Fielding decisions are based on the fielders' position and game situation, such as offensive runners' positions, outs, and score.
"Fitness activities" means activities with a focus on improving or maintaining fitness that might include yoga, Pilates, resistance training, spinning, running, fitness walking, fitness swimming, kickboxing, cardio-kick, Zumba, and exergaming.
"FITT" means frequency, intensity, time, and type, which are variables that are manipulated to create an overload.
"Fundamental motor skills" means the locomotor, nonlocomotor or stability, and manipulative skills that provide the foundation for the more complex and sport-specific movement patterns used in games and sports.
"Games and sports" means the following game categories: invasion, net/wall, target, and fielding/striking.
"Grid activities" means activities using grids, squares or rectangles in which learners participate in modified game play using predetermined tactics or skills. For example, learners could practice such skills as give and go with a partner within a grid. The passer passes (gives) to a receiver and moves to another portion of the grid (goes) to receive a return pass. The sequence of passing (give) and moving to a new space on the grid (go) would be repeated for a predetermined amount of time (e.g., 45 seconds) with partners tracking the number of completed passes. Grids can vary in many ways, including size and shape, number of players within the grid, and with or without defensive pressure.
"Holistic rubric" or "Holistic rating scale" means an assessment and instructional tool that assigns a level of performance based on multiple criteria and evaluates the performance based on multiple criteria, and evaluates the performance as a whole. Learners must demonstrate all the identified criterion behaviors at a particular level for evaluators to determine whether the level has been achieved. Like all rubrics, holistic rubrics must define at least two levels.
"Individual-performance activities" means activities involving individual rather than team performance, and might include: gymnastics, figure skating, track and field, multisport events, in-line skating, wrestling, self-defense, and skateboarding.
"Invasion games" means games in which teams score by moving a ball (or a projectile) into another team's territory and either shooting into a fixed target (a goal or a basket) or moving the projectile across an open-ended target (line). To prevent scoring, one team must stop the other from bringing the ball into its territory and attempting to score. Strategies and tactics include using teammates to open space on offense (with or without the ball) and reduce space on defense. Decision making for offense includes when to pass, carry the ball, shoot, and move to create open space. Defenders must decide which players to cover and when to move to reduce space. Examples are basketball, ultimate, and soccer.
"Inverted position" means balances and transfers of weight in educational gymnastics in which the head is lower than the hips.
"Jab step" means an offensive skill executed by stepping sharply with one foot toward an opponent to cause the opponent to hesitate or go backward, thereby creating space for the offensive player.
"Knowledge of performance" means feedback based on the process and quality of the movement. The feedback is based on movement efficiency, timing, and rhythm of the movement pattern. Feedback is provided on specific critical elements of the movement.
"Knowledge of results" means feedback based on the outcome (product) of the movement that occurs after the action is completed (e.g., basket made or missed). Results indicate the degree of the success of the movement based on the environmental goal of the movement.
"Level 1 outcomes" means high school level outcomes reflecting the minimum knowledge and skills that students must acquire and attain by graduation to be college- or career-ready.
"Level 2 outcomes" means high school level outcomes that build on Level 1 competencies by augmenting knowledge and skills considered desirable for college or career readiness.
"Lifetime activities" means activities that are suitable for participation across the life span and that one can undertake alone or with a partner as opposed to a team. For the purposes of this Part, lifetime activities include the categories of outdoor pursuits, selected individual-performance activities, aquatics, and net/wall and target games.
"Locomotor skills" means skills that consist of a group of fundamental motor skills that allow individuals to navigate through space or move their body from one point to another. These include running, galloping, hopping, skipping, jumping, leaping, and sliding.
"Manipulative skills" means skills that require controlling or manipulating objects, such as kicking, striking, throwing, catching, and dribbling.
"Mature pattern" means executing with efficiency the critical elements of the motor skills pattern in authentic environments.
"Maturing" means demonstrating the critical elements of the motor skills and knowledge components of the grade-level outcomes, which will continue to be refined with practice. As the environmental context varies, a maturing pattern might fluctuate, reflecting more maturity in familiar contexts and less maturity in unfamiliar (new) contexts.
"Modified games" means small-sided games in which the rules have been modified to emphasize the skills taught in class (e.g., creating a penalty for dribbling to emphasize teaching students to pass rather than dribble).
"Motor patterns" means the fundamental motor skills that provide the foundation for more complex and sport-specific movement patterns used in games and sports. The six fundamental motor skills are running, jumping and landing, kicking, throwing, catching, and striking.
"Movement concepts" means the application of knowledge and concepts related to skillful performance of movement and fitness activities, such as spatial awareness, effort, tactics, strategies, and principles related to movement efficiency and health-enhancing fitness.
"MVPA" means Moderate to Vigorous Physical Activity.
"Net/wall games" means games in which teams or individual players score by hitting a ball into a court space with sufficient accuracy and power so that opponents cannot hit it back before it bounces once (as in badminton or volleyball) or twice (as in tennis or racquetball). Opponents generally are separated by a net, but in some cases (squash, racquetball), they share a court and the walls are in play. Offensive strategies and tactics are based on hitting to an open space or pulling the opponent out of position. Defensive strategies are reducing open space by good court position and anticipating the opponent's shot.
"Nondynamic environment" means skills performed in a nondynamic environment that is constant, predictable, or stationery. The goal for performance is to produce movements or skills that are consistent and accurate because the environmental context is nondynamic, stable, and unchanging. Examples include performance sports such as gymnastics or diving and target games such as darts and archery. See "closed skills".
"Nonlocomotor skills" means any movement that places a premium on gaining and maintaining one's equilibrium in relation to the force of gravity. Examples include axial movements (another term sometimes used for nonlocomotor movements) as well as inverted and rolling body postures. Also known as "stability skills".
"Norm-referenced" means a type of assessment tool that compares learners' performance with other similar learners' performances. Learners' relative standing (rank) is based on their performance in comparison with other learners in the same age group.
"Outcomes" means statements that specify what learners will know or be able to do as a result of a learning activity.
"Overload principle" means progressively placing greater stress or demands on the body during exercise to cause the body to adapt (become more fit). This is accomplished by manipulating the frequency, intensity, time (duration), and type (FITT) of activity.
"Player up" or "Player down" means a game situation in which one team has one more (e.g., 2v1) or one fewer (e.g., 1v2) player than the other team.
"Psychomotor domain" means the domain in which the focus is on motor skills. It includes physical movement, coordination, and the use of the motor-skill areas. Development of the skills requires practice and is measured in terms of speed, precision, distance, procedures, or techniques in execution.
"Rating scale" means an assessment and instructional tool that is similar to a checklist but provides added information on the extent to which criterion behaviors are met. That is accomplished by a gradation of criteria across levels. Gradation of performance can be differentiated by the number of times the behavior occurs (frequency) or by descriptions of performance at each level (quality).
"Receiving" means the skill of collecting a pass from a teammate with the hands, feet, or body.
"Rubric" means an assessment and instructional tool that identifies criterion behaviors for at least two levels of performance. Each level of the rubric identifies and describes criterion behaviors that contain essential elements of the tasks along a range or continuum of performance expectations.
"Small-sided games" means organized games in which the number of players involved is reduced from the conventional competitive version of the sport (e.g., 2v2 basketball, 3v3 volleyball, 6v6 lacrosse).
"Small-sided practice tasks" means small-sided games or deliberate tasks designed to practice particular skills or tasks.
"Striking" means a ballistic, propulsion skill with several forms, such as sidearm, underarm or overarm, one-handed and two-handed. Common examples include batting, hitting with a racket, and serving a volleyball.
"Target games" means games in which players score by throwing or striking an object to a target. Accuracy is a primary focus of the activity, and competitors share no physical contact. Target games are considered opposed (e.g., croquet, shuffleboard, bocce) because opponents may block or hit another player's ball to a less-desirable position. Other target games are considered unopposed (e.g., golf, bowling) because opponents may not interfere with a shot. Strategies or tactics are based on movement accuracy and consistency.
"Technology" means software, websites, devices, and applications used in a physical education setting to enhance teaching and learning.
"Volley" means to strike or give impetus to an object (e.g., volley-birds, foot bags, bamboo balls, volleyballs) by using a variety of body parts (e.g., hands, arms, head, knees).
210:15-3-165.  Standard One: Competency in a Variety of Motor Skills and Movement Patterns
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will demonstrate competency in a variety of motor skills and movement patterns.
(b)     Standard One objectives for Grades PreK-K. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten and Kindergarten:
(1)     Locomotor.
(A)     Objective 1. Performs locomotor skills (e.g., hopping, galloping, running, sliding, skipping, leaping) while maintaining balance.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for jogging and runningfirst appearing in grade two.
(C)     Objective 3. Performs horizontal jumping and landing actions with balance.
(D)     Objective 4. Performs vertical jumping and landing actions with balance.
(E)     Objective 5. Performs locomotor skills in response to teacher-led creative dance.
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combinations of locomotor skills first appear in grade three.
(2)     Non-locomotor (Stability).
(A)     Objective 1. Maintains momentary stillness on different bases of support. Forms wide, narrow, curled, and twisted body shapes.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes first for weight transfer appear in grade one.
(C)     Objective 3. Rolls sideways in a narrow body shape.
(D)     Objective 4. ContrastsDifferentiates the actions of curling and stretching.
(E)     Objective 5. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combinations of stability skills first appear in grade two.
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for balance and weight transfers first appear in grade three.
(3)     Manipulatives.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws underhand and overhand with opposite foot forward (opposition).For Pre-K:, Throwsthrows underhand and overhand without opposition.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for passing with hands first appear in grade three.four.
(C)     Objective 3. Drops a ball or object and catches it before it bounces againtwice. Catches a large ball or object tossed by a skilled thrower.
(D)     Objective 4. Dribbles a ball with one hand attempting second contact.
(E)     Objective 5. Taps a ball using the inside of the foot, sending it forward.
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for passing and receiving with feet first appear in grade three.
(G)     Objective 7. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for dribbling in combinations first appear in grade four.
(H)     Objective 8. Kicks a stationary ball from a stationary position demonstrating two of the five critical elements of mature kicking.
(I)     Objective 9. Volleys a lightweight object (e.g., aballoon), sending it upward.
(J)     Objective 10. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for volleying overhead first appear in grade four.
(K)     Objective 11. Strikes a lightweight object with a paddle or short-handed racket.
(L)     Objective 12. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for long implement striking first appear in grade two.
(M)     Objective 13. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combining manipulative skills with locomotor skills first appear in grade threefour.
(N)     Objective 14. Executes a single jump with a self-turned rope. Jumps a long rope with teacher-assisted turning. Turns a long rope with a mature form.
(O)     Objective 15. Identifies outdoor activities (e.g., scavenger hunt, nature walk) for physical activity and enjoyment.
(c)     Standard One objectives for Grade 1. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 1:
(1)     Locomotor.
(A)     Objective 1. Hops, gallops, jogs, and slides using a mature pattern.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes firstfor jogging and running appearing in grade two.
(C)     Objective 3. Demonstrates two of the five critical elements for jumping and landing in a horizontal plane using two-foot take-offs and landings.
(D)     Objective 4. Demonstrates two of the five critical elements for jumping and landing in a vertical plane.
(E)     Objective 5. Combines locomotor and non-locomotor skills in a teacher-designed dance.
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combinations of locomotor skills first appear in grade three.
(2)     Non-locomotor (Stability).
(A)     Objective 1. Maintains stillness on different bases of support with different body shapes.
(B)     Objective 2. Transfers weight from one body part to another in self-space in dance and gymnastic environments.
(C)     Objective 3. Rolls with either a narrow or curled body shape.
(D)     Objective 4. Demonstrates twisting, curling, bending, and stretching actions.
(E)     Objective 5. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combinations of stability skills first appear in grade two.
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for balance and weight transfers first appear in grade three.
(3)     Manipulatives.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws underhand and overhand demonstrating two of the five critical elements of a mature pattern (face target, arm back, opposition, release, follow through).
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for passing with hands first appear in grade threefour.
(C)     Objective 3. Catches a soft ball or an object from a self-toss before it bounces. Catches various sizes of balls or objects self-tossed or tossed by a skilled thrower.
(D)     Objective 4. Dribbles continuously in self-space using the preferred hand.
(E)     Objective 5. Taps or dribbles a ball using the inside of the foot while walking in general space.
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for passing and receiving with feet first appear in grade three.
(G)     Objective 7. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for dribbling in combinations first appear in grade four.
(H)     Objective 8. Approaches a stationary ball and kicks it forward demonstrating two of the five critical elements of a mature pattern.
(I)     Objective 9. Volleys an object with an open palm, sending it upward.
(J)     Objective 10. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for volleying overhead first appear in grade four.
(K)     Objective 11. Strikes a ballan object with a short-handled implement, sending it upwards.
(L)     Objective 12. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for long implement striking first appear in grade two.
(M)     Objective 13. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combining manipulative skills with locomotor skills first appear in grade four three.
(N)     Objective 14. Jumps forward or backward consecutively using a self-turned rope. Jumps a long rope up to five times consecutively with teacher-assisted turning. Turns a long rope alone and with a partner in rhythm.
(O)     Objective 15. Discusses outdoor activities (e.g., scavenger hunt, nature walk) for physical activity and enjoyment.
(d)     Standard One objectives for Grade 2. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 2:
(1)     Locomotor.
(A)     Objective 1. Skips using a mature pattern.
(B)     Objective 2. Runs with a mature pattern. Travels showing differentiation (pacing) between jogging and sprinting.
(C)     Objective 3. Demonstrates four of the five critical elements for jumping and landing in a horizontal plane using a variety of one- and two-foot takeoffs and landings.
(D)     Objective 4. Demonstrates four of the five critical elements for jumping and landing in a vertical plane.
(E)     Objective 5. Performs a teacher and/or student-designed rhythmic activity with correct response to simple rhythms.
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combinations of locomotor skills first appear in grade three.
(2)     Non-locomotor (Stability).
(A)     Objective 1. Balances on different bases of support combining levels and shapes. Balances in an inverted position with stillness and supportive base.
(B)     Objective 2. Transfers weight from feet to different body parts/bases of support for balancebalance/travel.and/or or travel.
(C)     Objective 3. Rolls in different directions in either a narrow or curled body shape.
(D)     Objective 4. Differentiates among twisting, curling, bending, and stretching actions.
(E)     Objective 5. Combines balances and transfers into a three-part sequence (e.g., dance, gymnastics).
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for balance and weight transfers first appear in grade three.
(3)     Manipulatives.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws underhand and overhand using a mature pattern.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for passing with hands first appear in grade threefour.
(C)     Objective 3. Catches a self-tossed or well-thrown large ball/object with hands not trapping or cradling against the body.ball.
(D)     Objective 4. Dribbles using the preferred hand while walking in general space.
(E)     Objective 5. Dribbles with the feet in general space with control of ball and body.
(F)     Objective 6. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for passing and receiving with feet first appear in grade three.
(G)     Objective 7. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for dribbling in combinations first appear in grade four.
(H)     Objective 8. Uses a continuous running approach and kicks a moving ball demonstrating three of the five critical elements of a mature pattern.
(I)     Objective 9. Volleys an object upward with consecutive hits.
(J)     Objective 10. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for volleying overhead first appear in grade four.
(K)     Objective 11. Strikes an object upward with a short-handled implement using consecutive hits.
(L)     Objective 12. Strikes a ball off a tee or cone with a bat long-handled implement (e.g., bat, noodle) using correct grip and side orientation/proper body orientation.
(M)     Objective 13. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combining manipulative skills with locomotor skills first appear in grade three four.
(N)     Objective 14. Jumps a self-turned rope consecutively forward and backward with a mature pattern. Jumps a long rope five times consecutively with student turners.
(O)    Objective 15: Describes outdoor activities (e.g., scavenger hunt, nature walk) for physical activity and enjoyment.
(e)     Standard One objectives for Grade 3. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3:
(1)     Locomotor.
(A)     Objective 1. Leaps using a mature pattern.
(B)     Objective 2. Travels showing differentiation (pacing) between jogging and sprinting.
(C)     Objective 3. Jumps and lands in the horizontal plane using a mature pattern.
(D)     Objective 4. Jumps and lands in the vertical plane using a mature pattern.
(E)     Objective 5. Performs teacher-selected and developmentally appropriate dance steps in movement patterns.
(F)     Objective 6. Performs a sequence of locomotor skills transitioning from one skill to another smoothly and without hesitation (transitioning from one skill to another).
(2)     Non-locomotor (Stability).
(A)     Objective 1. Balances on different bases of support demonstrating muscular tension and extensions of free body parts.
(B)     Objective 2. Transfers weight from feet to hands for momentary weight support.
(C)     Objective 3. Applies skillsof weight transfer and rolling.
(D)     Objective 4. Moves into and out of gymnastic balances with twisting, curling, and stretching actions (e.g, plank to log roll).
(E)     Objective 5. Combines locomotor skills and movement concepts (e.g., levels, shapes, extensions, pathways, force, time, flow) to create and perform a dance.
(F)     Objective 6. Combines balance and weight transfers with movement concepts to create and perform a dance.
(3)     Manipulatives.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws underhand and overhand to a partner or target with reasonable accuracy. Demonstrates three of the five critical elements (face target, arm back, opposition, release, follow through) in non-dynamic environments for distance and force.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for passing with hands first appear in grade four.Throw to a stationary partner with reasonable accuracy in a non-dynamic environment (closed skills).
(C)     Objective 3. Catches a gently tossed hand-sized ball or object from a partner while demonstrating four of the five critical elements of a mature pattern.
(D)     Objective 4. Dribbles and travels in general space at a slow to moderate speed with control of ball and body.
(E)     Objective 5. Dribbles with the feet in general space at slow to moderate jogging speed with control of the ball and body.
(F)     Objective 6. Passes and receives the ball with the insides of the feet to a stationary partner, "giving"absorbing force on reception, before returning the pass.
(G)     Objective 7. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for dribbling in combinations first appear in grade four.
(H)     Objective 8. Uses a continuous running approach and intentionally performs a kick along the ground and a kick in the air demonstrating four of the five critical elements of a mature pattern for each skill. Uses a continuous running approach and kicks a stationary ball for accuracy.
(I)     Objective 9. Volleys an object with an underhand or sidearm striking pattern, sending it forward over a net, to the wall or over a line to a partner, while demonstrating four of the five critical elements of a mature pattern (face target, opposite foot forward, flat surface with hand for contact of the ball, contact with the ball, follow through).
(J)     Objective 10. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for volleying overhead first appear in grade four.
(K)     Objective 11. Strikes an object with a short-handled implement sending it forward over a low net or to a wall. Strikes an object with a short-handled implement while demonstrating three of the five critical elements of a mature pattern.
(L)     Objective 12. Strikes a ball with a long-handled implement (e.g., hockey stick, bat, golf club) by sending it forward while using proper grip.for the implement.
(M)     Objective 13. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for combining manipulative skills with locomotor skills first appear in grade four. Demonstrates emerging outcomes with a short- and/or long-handled implement for scooping, cradling, throwing, and catching.
(N)     Objective 14. Performs intermediate jump rope skills (e.g., a variety of tricks, running in and out of a long rope) for both long and short ropes.
(O)     Objective 15. Demonstrates emerging techniques for a variety of skills pertinent to locale and/or teacher selected outdoor pursuits (e.g., fishing, hiking, kayaking).
(f)     Standard One objectives for Grade 4. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 4:
(1)     Locomotor.
(A)     Objective 1. Uses various locomotor skills in a variety of small-sided practice tasks, dance, and educational gymnastics experiences.
(B)     Objective 2. Runs for distance using a mature pattern.
(C)     Objective 3. Uses spring-and-step take-offs and landings specific to gymnastics (e.g., cartwheel, round-off) in horizontal jumping.
(D)     Objective 4. Uses spring-and-step takeoffs and landings specific to gymnastics (e.g., tuck jump, star jump, toe touchescartwheel, round-off).in vertical jumping.
(E)     Objective 5. Combines locomotor movement patterns and dance steps to create and perform an original dance.
(F)     Objective 6. Combines traveling with manipulative skills of dribbling, throwing, catching, and striking in teacher- and/or student-designed small-sided practice tasks.
(2)     Non-locomotor (Stability).
(A)     Objective 1. Balances on different bases of support on apparatus demonstrating levels and shapes.
(B)     Objective 2. Transfers weight from feet to hands varying the speed and using large extensions (e.g., mule kick, handstand, cartwheel).
(C)     Objective 3. Applies skills. of weight transfer and rolling.
(D)     Objective 4. Moves into and out of balances on apparatus with curling, twisting, and stretching actions.
(E)     Objective 5. Combines locomotor skills and movement concepts (e.g., levels, shapes, extensions, pathways, force, time, flow) to create and perform a dance with a partner.
(F)     Objective 6. Combines traveling with balance and weight transfers to create a gymnastics sequence with and without equipment or apparatus.
(3)     Manipulatives.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws underhand and overhand in a mature pattern in a non-dynamic environment.
(B)     Objective 2. Throws to a moving partner with reasonable accuracy in a non-dynamic environment (closed skills).
(C)     Objective 3. Catches a thrown ball above the head, at the chest or waist level, and below the waist using a mature pattern in a non-dynamic environment (closed skills).
(D)     Objective 4. Dribbles in self-space with both the preferred and non-preferred hands using a mature pattern. Dribbles in general space with control of ball and body while increasing and decreasing speed.
(E)     Objective 5. Dribbles with the feet in general space with control of the ball and body while increasing and decreasing speed.
(F)     Objective 6. Passes and receives the ball using the insides of the feet to a moving partner in a non-dynamic environment (closed skills). Receives and passes a ball with the outsides and insides of the feet to a stationary partner, "giving"absorbing force on reception before returning the pass.
(G)     Objective 7. Dribbles with hands or feet in combination with other skills (e.g., passing, receiving, and shooting).
(H)     Objective 8. Kicks along the ground and in the air and punts using a mature pattern.
(I)     Objective 9. Volleys underhand using a mature pattern in a dynamic environment (e.g., two square, four square, handball).
(J)     Objective 10. Volleys the ball with a two-handed overhead pattern sending it upward demonstrating four of the five elements of a mature pattern.
(K)     Objective 11. Strikes an object with a short-handled implement while demonstrating a mature pattern. Strikes an object with a short-handled implement, alternating hits with a partner, over a low net or against a wall.
(L)     Objective 12. Strikes an object with a long-handled implement (e.g., hockey stick, golf club, bat, tennis or badminton racket) while demonstrating three of the five critical elements of a mature pattern for the implement (grip, stance, body orientation, swing plane, follow through).
(M)     Objective 13. Combines travelling with manipulative skills of dribbling, throwing, catching, and striking in teacher- and/or student-designed small-sided practice task environments. Demonstrates skills (cradle, scoop, throw, and catch) with a partner while stationary and moving.
(N)     Objective 14. Creates a jump rope routine with either a short or long jump rope.
(O)     Objective 15. Demonstrates emerging techniques for a variety of skills in one self-selected outdoor pursuit (e.g., fishing, hiking, kayaking).
(g)     Standard One objectives for Grade 5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 5:
(1)     Locomotor.
(A)     Objective 1. Demonstrates mature patterns of locomotor skills in dynamic and small-sided practice tasks, gymnastics, and dance. Combines locomotor and manipulative skills in a variety of small-sided practice tasks and game environments. Combines traveling with manipulative skills for execution to a target (e.g., scoring in soccer, hockeylacrosse, and basketball).
(B)     Objective 2. Uses appropriate pacing for a variety of running distances.
(C)     Objective 3. Combines horizontal jumping and landing patterns with locomotor and manipulative skills in dance, gymnastics, and small-sided practice tasks in game environments.
(D)     Objective 4. Combines vertical jumping and landing patterns with locomotor and manipulative skills in dance, gymnastics, and small-sided practice tasks in game environments.
(E)     Objective 5. Combines locomotor skills andwith cultural as well asand creative dances (self and group) with correct rhythm and pattern.
(F)     Objective 6. Applies skills in dynamic situations. Combines manipulative skills and traveling for execution to a target (e.g., scoring in soccer, hockey, and basketball).
(2)     Non-locomotor.
(A)     Objective 1. Combines balance and weight transfertransferring weight in a gymnastic sequence or dance with a partner.
(B)     Objective 2. Transfers weight in dance and gymnastics and dance environments.
(C)     Objective 3. Applies skillsof weight transfer and rolling.
(D)     Objective 4. Performs curling, twisting, and stretching actions with correct application in dance, gymnastics, and small-sided practice tasks in game environments.
(E)     Objective 5. Combines locomotor skills and movement concepts (e.g.,levels, shapes, extensions, pathways, force, time, flow) to create and perform a dance with a group.
(F)     Objective 6. Combines actions, balances, and weight transfers to create a gymnastics sequence with a partner on equipment or apparatus.
(3)     Manipulatives.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws underhand and overhand in a mature pattern in a non-dynamic environment with different sizes and types of objects. Throws underhand and overhand to a large target with accuracy.
(B)     Objective 2. Throws with accuracy while both partners are moving. Throws with reasonable accuracy in dynamic, small-sided practice tasks.
(C)     Objective 3. Catches a batted ball above the head, at the chest or waist level, and along the ground using a mature pattern in a non-dynamic environment (closed skills). Catches with accuracy with both partners moving. Catches with reasonable accuracy in dynamic, small-sided practice tasks.
(D)     Objective 4. Combines hand dribbling with other skills during one vs. one practice skills.
(E)     Objective 5. Combines foot dribbling with other skills in one vs. one practice tasks.
(F)     Objective 6. Passes and receives with the feet using a mature pattern as both partners travel.
(G)     Objective 7. Dribbles with the hands or feet with mature patterns in a variety of small-sided game forms.
(H)     Objective 8. Demonstrates mature patterns of kicking and punting in small-sided practice tasks environments.
(I)     Objective 9. Applies underhand skills in small-sided gamesvolleying skills.
(J)     Objective 10. Volleys the ball using a two-handed pattern sending it upward to a target.
(K)     Objective 11. Strikes an object consecutively with a partner using a short-handled implement, over a net or against a wall, in either a competitive or cooperative game environment.
(L)     Objective 12. Strikes a pitched ball with a bat using a mature pattern. Combines striking with a long implement (e.g., bat, hockey stick, golf club, bat, racket) with receiving and traveling skills in a small-sided game.
(M)     Objective 13. Combines manipulative skills and traveling for execution to a target (e.g., scoring in soccer, hockey, and basketball). Demonstrates and applies basic skills (cradle, scoop, throw, and catch) to play in small-sided games (e.g., lacrosse, Native American stickball, or using scoops).
(N)     Objective 14. Creates a jump rope routine with a partner using either a short or long jump rope.
(O)     Objective 15. Demonstrates emerging techniques for a variety of skills in more than one, self-selected outdoor pursuit (e.g., fishing, hiking, kayaking).
(h)     Standard One objectives for Grade 6. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6:
(1)     Dance and Rhythms. Demonstrates correct rhythm and pattern for one of the following dance forms: folk, social, creative, line, or world dance.
(2)     Games and Sports: Invasions and Field Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws with a mature pattern for distance (e.g., outfield to home plate) or powerforce (e.g., second base to first base) with accuracy appropriate to the practice task(e.g., distance = outfield to home plate;power = second base to first base).
(B)     Objective 2. Catches with a mature pattern from a variety of trajectories using different objects in varying practice tasks.
(C)     Objective 3. Passes and receives with hands in combination with various movements, agility, and speed locomotor patterns of running, change of direction and speed, with competency in modified invasion games (e.g., basketball, flag football).
(D)     Objective 4. Throws, while stationary, a leading pass to a moving receiverreceiver/target.
(E)     Objective 5. Performs pivots, fakes, and jab steps designed to create open space during practice tasks.
(F)     Objective 6. Performs the following offensive skills without defensive pressure: pivots, give &goesgo's, and fakes.
(F)     Objective 7. Dribbles with dominant hand using a change of speed and direction in a variety of practice tasks.
(G)     Objective 8. Foot-dribblesDribblesor dribbles with an implement with control using feet or implement, changingchange in speed and direction in a variety of practice tasks.
(H)     Objective 9. Shoots on goal with power in a dynamic environment as appropriate to the activity.
(I)     Objective 10. Maintains defensive ready position with weight on balls of feet, arms extended, and eyes on midsection of the offensive player.
(3)     Games and Sports: Net/Wall Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Performs a legal underhand serve with control for net/wall games (e.g., badminton, volleyball, or pickleball).
(B)     Objective 2. Strikes with a mature overhand pattern in a non-dynamic environment (closed skills) for net/wall games (e.g., volleyball, badminton, or and tennis).
(C)     Objective 3. Demonstrates the mature form of the forehand and backhand strokes with a short-handled implement in net games (e.g., paddleball, picklballpickleball, or tennis).
(D)     Objective 4. Transfers body weight (e.g., back leg to front leg) with the correct timing for the striking pattern.
(E)     Objective 5. Forehand volleys with a mature form and control using a short-handled implement.
(F)     Objective 6. Two-hand-volleys with control in a variety of practice tasks.
(G)     Objective 7. Demonstrates a mature underhand pattern for a modified target game (e.g., bowling, bocce, bean bags, or horseshoes).
(H)     Objective 8. Using an implement, accurately Strikesstrikes, with an implement, a stationary object for accuracy in activities (e.g., croquet, shuffleboard, or golf).
(4)     Games and Sports: Fielding/Striking Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Strikes a pitched ball, with an implement, in a variety of practice tasks.
(B)     Objective 2. Catches, with a mature pattern, from different trajectories using a variety of objects in varying practice tasks.
(5)     Outdoor Pursuits. Demonstrates correct technique for basic skills in one self-selected outdoor pursuit (e.g., fishing, hiking, kayaking).
(6)     Individual-Performance Activities. Demonstrates correct technique for basic skills in one self-selected individual-performance activity.
(i)     Standard One objectives for Grade 7. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 7:
(1)     Dance and Rhythms. Demonstrates correct rhythm and pattern for a different multiple dance forms from among folk, social, creative, line, and world dance.
(2)     Games and Sports: Invasions and Field Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws with a mature pattern for distance or powerforce and with accuracy appropriate to the activity during small-sided game play.in a dynamic environment.
(B)     Objective 2. Catches with a mature pattern from a variety of trajectories using different objects in small-sided game play.
(C)     Objective 3. Passes and receives with feet in combination with locomotor patterns of running, change of direction and speed, various movement, agility and speed with competency in modified invasion games (e.g., soccer or speedball).
(D)     Objective 4. Throws, while moving, a leading pass to a moving receiver/target.
(E)     Objective 5. Executes at least one of the following designed to create open space during small-sided game play: pivots, fakes, and jab steps.
(F)     Objective 6. Performs the following offensive skills with defensive pressure: pivots, give &goesgo's, and fakes.
(F)     Objective 7. Dribbles with dominant and non-dominant hands using a change of speed and direction in a variety of practice tasks.
(G)     Objective 8. Foot-dribbles or dribblesDribbles with control using feet or an implement combined with passing in a variety of practice tasks.
(H)     Objective 9. Shoots on goal with power and accuracy in small-sided game play.
(I)     Objective 10. Maintains defensive ready position while sliding moving in all directions without crossing feet.
(3)     Games and Sports: Net/Wall Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Executes consistently,Consistently executes a legal underhand serve to a predetermined target for net/wall games (e.g., badminton, volleyball, or picklballpickleball).
(B)     Objective 2. Strikes with a mature overhand pattern in small-sided game play a dynamic environment (closed skills) for net/wall games (e.g., volleyball, handball, badminton, and or tennis).
(C)     Objective 3. Demonstrates the mature form of the forehand and backhand strokes with a long-handled implement in net games (e.g., badminton or tennis).
(D)     Objective 4. Transfers weight with correct timing using low-to-high striking pattern with a short- or long-handled implement on the forehand side.
(E)     Objective 5. Forehand and backhand volleys with a mature form and control using a short-handled implement.
(F)     Objective 6. Two-hand volleys with control in a small-sided game.dynamic environment.
(G)     Objective 7. Executes consistentlyConsistently executes a mature underhand pattern for target games (e.g., bowling, bocce, bean bags, or horseshoes).
(H)     Objective 8. Strikes, with Using an implement, strikes a stationary object for accuracy and distance in activities (e.g., croquet, shuffleboard, or golf).
(4)     Games and Sports: Fielding/Striking Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Strikes a pitched ball, with an implement, with force in a variety of practice tasks.
(B)     Objective 2. Catches, with a mature pattern, from different trajectories using a variety of objects in small-sided game play.
(5)     Outdoor Pursuits. Demonstrates correct technique for a variety of skills in one self-selected outdoor pursuit (e.g., fishing, hiking, kayaking).
(6)     Individual-Performance Activities. Demonstrates correct technique for a variety of skills in one self-selected individual-performance activity.
(j)     Standard One objectives for Grade 8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 8:
(1)     Dance and Rhythms. Exhibits command of rhythm and timing by creating a movement sequence to music as an individual or in a group.
(2)     Games and Sports: Invasions and Field Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Throws with a mature pattern for distance or power force and accuracy appropriate to the activity during small-sided game play in a dynamic environment.
(B)     Objective 2. Catches using an implement in a dynamic environment or modified game play.
(C)     Objective 3. Passes and receives with an implement in combination with various movement, agility, and speedlocomotor patterns of running, change of direction, speed, and/or level with competency in modified invasion games (e.g., lacrosse,field or hockey - floor, field, ice)., ice hockey).
(D)     Objective 4. Throws a leading pass to a moving receiver/targetpartner off a dribble or pass.
(E)     Objective 5. Executes at least two of the following to create open space during modified game play: pivots, fakes, jab steps, and screens.
(F)     Objective 6. Executes the following offensive skills during small-sided game play: pivots, give &goesgo's, and fakes.
(F)     Objective 7. Dribbles with dominant and non-dominant hands using a change of speed, and direction in small-sided game play.
(G)     Objective 8. Foot-dribbles or dribblesDribbleswith an implement with control using feet or implement, changechangingin speed and direction during small-sided game play.
(H)     Objective 9. Shoots on goal with a long-handled implement for power and accuracy in modified invasion games (e.g., lacrosse, orfield hockey - floor, field, ice)., ice hockey, floor hockey).
(I)     Objective 10. Maintains defensive ready position while drop stepping (appropriate to the sport) in the direction of the pass during player-to-player.
(3)     Games and Sports: Net/Wall Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Executes consistentlyConsistently executes, a legal underhand serve for distance and accuracy for net/wall games (e.g., badminton, volleyball, or picklballpickleball).
(B)     Objective 2. Strikes with a mature overhand pattern in a modified game and/or in a dynamic environment for net/wall games (e.g., volleyball, handball, badminton, tennis, andpicklball pickleball).
(C)     Objective 3. Demonstrates the mature form of the forehand and backhand strokes with a short- or long-handled implement with power and accuracy in net games (e.g., paddleball, picklballpickleball, badminton, or tennis).
(D)     Objective 4. Transfers weight with correct timing using low-to-high striking pattern with a short- or long-handled implement on the forehand and backhand side.
(E)     Objective 5. Forehand and backhand volleys with a mature form and control using a short-handled implement during modified game play.
(F)     Objective 6. Two-hand volleys with control in a dynamic environment or modified game play. small-sided game.
(G)     Objective 7. Performs consistentlyConsistency performs a mature underhand pattern with accuracy and control for one target game (e.g., bowling, bean bags, or bocce, or horseshoes).
(H)     Objective 8. Strikes, with an implement,Using an implement, strikes a stationary object for accuracy, power, and distance in activities (e.g., croquet, shuffleboard, or golf).
(4)     Games and Sports: Fielding/Striking Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Strikes a pitched ball, with an implement, withusing appropriate power and force to open space in a variety of small-sided games.
(B)     Objective 2. Catches, with or without an implement, from different trajectories and speeds in a dynamic environment or modified game play.
(5)     Outdoor Pursuits. Demonstrates correct technique for basic skills in at least two self-selected outdoor pursuits (e.g., fishing, hiking, kayaking).
(6)     Individual-Performance Activities. Demonstrates correct technique for basic skills in at least two self-selected individual-performance activities.
(k)     Standard One objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Lifetime Activities.
(A)     Grades 9-12, Level One. Demonstrates competency and/or refines activity-specific movement skills in two or more lifetime activities (outdoor pursuits, individual-performance activities, aquatics, net/wall games, or target games).
(B)     Grades 9-12, Level Two. Refines activity-specific movement skills in one or more lifetime activities (outdoor pursuits, individual-performance activities, aquatics, net/wall games, or target games).
(2)     Dance and Rhythms.
(A)     Grades 9-12, Level One. Demonstrates competency in dance forms and rhythmic movement used in cultural and social occasions (e.g., weddings, parties) or demonstrates competency in one form of dance (e.g., ballroom, modern, hip hop, tap).
(B)     Grades 9-12, Level Two. Demonstrates competency in dance forms and/or rhythmic movements by choreographing a dance, designing a rhythmic workout routine, or giving a performance.
(3)     Fitness Activities.
(A)     Grades 9-12, Level One. Demonstrates application, evaluation, and competency in one or more specialized skills in health-related fitness activities.
(B)     Grades 9-12, Level Two. Demonstrates application, evaluation, and competency in two or more specialized skills in health-related fitness activities.
210:15-3-166.  Standard Two: Knowledge of Concepts, Strategies, and Tactics Related to Movement and Performance
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will apply knowledge of concepts, principles, strategies, and tactics related to movement and performance.
(b)     Standard Two objectives for Grades PreK-K. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten and Kindergarten:
(1)     Objective 1. Differentiates between movements in personal (self-space) and general space. Moves in personal space to a rhythm.
(2)     Objective 2. Travels in three different pathways (straight, zig-zag, and weaving).
(3)     Objective 3. Travels in general space with different speeds.
(4)     Objective 4. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for alignment and muscular tension first appear in grade three.
(5)     Objective 5. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for strategies and tactics first appear in grade onethree.
(c)     Standard Two objectives for Grade 1. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 1:
(1)     Objective 1. Moves in self-space and general space in response to designated beats/rhythms.
(2)     Objective 2. Travels demonstrating low, middle, and high levels. Travels demonstrating a variety of relationships with objects (e.g., over, under, around, through).
(3)     Objective 3. Differentiates between fast and slow speeds. Differentiates between strong and light force.
(4)     Objective 4. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for alignment and muscular tension first appear in grade three.
(5)     Objective 5. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for strategies and tactics first appear in grade three.Applies simple strategies in both chasing and fleeing activities.
(d)     Standard Two objectives for Grade 2. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 2:
(1)     Objective 1. Combines locomotor skills in general space to a rhythm.
(2)     Objective 2. Combines shapes, levels, and pathways into simple travel, dance, and gymnastics sequences.
(3)     Objective 3. Varies time and force with gradual increases and decreases.
(4)     Objective 4. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for alignment and muscular tension first appear in grade three.
(5)     Objective 5. Applies simple strategies in both chasing and fleeing activities.
(e)     Standard Two objectives for Grade 3. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3:
(1)     Objective 1. Recognizes the concept of open spaces andin a movement context.
(2)     Objective 2. Recognizes locomotor skills specific to a wide variety of physical activities.
(3)     Objective 3. Combines movement concepts (direction, levels, force, time) with skills directed by the teacher.
(4)     Objective 4. Employs the concept of alignment, and the concept of muscular tension with balance (e.g., gymnastics, dance, and yoga). Employs the concept of muscular tension with balance (e.g., gymnastics, dance, and yoga).
(5)     Objective 5. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for strategies and tactics first appear in grade three. Applies simple strategies in both chasing and fleeing activities.
(f)     Standard Two objectives for Grade 4. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 4:
(1)     Objective 1. Applies the concept of open spaces to combination skills involving traveling (e.g., dribbling and traveling with changes in direction and speed). Applies the concept of closing spaces in small-sided practice tasks. Dribbles in general spaces with changes in direction and speed.
(2)     Objective 2. Combines movement concepts with skills in small-sided practice tasks, gymnastics, and dance environments.
(3)     Objective 3. Applies the movement concepts of speed, endurance, and pacing for running. Applies the concepts of direction and force when striking an object with both a short- and long-handled implement, sending it toward a designated target.
(4)     Objective 4. Applies skillsof alignment and muscular tension.
(5)     Objective 5. Applies simple offensive and defensive strategies and tactics in both chasing and fleeing activities. Recognizes the types of kicks needed for different games and sports situations.
(g)     Standard Two objectives for Grade 5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 5:
(1)     Objective 1. Combines spatial concepts with locomotor and non-locomotor movements for small groups (e.g., gymnastics, dance, and games).
(2)     Objective 2. Combines movement concepts with skills in small-sided practice tasks in game environments, gymnastics, and dance with self-direction.
(3)     Objective 3. Applies movement concepts to strategy in game situations. Applies the concepts of direction and force to strike an object with a long-handled implement. Analyzes movement situations and applies movement concepts (e.g., force, direction, speed, pathways, extensions) in small-sided practice tasks in game environments, dance, and gymnastics.
(4)     Objective 4. Applies skillsof alignment and muscular tension.
(5)     Objective 5. Applies basic offensive and defensive strategies and tactics in invasion small-sided invasion practice tasks, and in small-sided net/wall small-sided practice tasks. Recognizes the type of throw, volley, or striking action needed for different games and sports situations.
(h)     Standard Two objectives for Grade 6. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6:
(1)     Games and Sports: Invasion Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Creates open space by using locomotor movements (e.g., walking, running, jumping and landing) in combination with movement (e.g., varying pathways; changingchange of speed, direction, or pace).
(B)     Objective 2. Executes at least one of the following offensive tactics to create open space: moves to open space without the ball; uses a variety of passes, pivots, and fakes; give and go.
(C)     Objective 3. Creates open space by using the width and length of the field/court on offense.
(D)     Objective 4. Reduces open space on defense by making the body larger and reducing passing angles.
(E)     Objective 5. Reduces open space by not allowing the catch (denial) or by allowing the catch but not the return pass.
(F)     Objective 6. Transitions from offense to defense or defense to offense by recovering quickly.
(2)     Games and Sports: Net/Wall Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Creates open space in net/wall games with a short-handled implement by varying force and direction.
(B)     Objective 2. Reduces offensive options for opponents by returning to midcourt position.
(3)     Games and Sports: Target Games. Selects appropriate shot and/or club based on location of the object in relation to the target.
(4)     Games and Sports: Fielding/Striking Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies open spaces and attempts to strike object into that space.
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies the correct defensive play based on the situation (e.g., number of outs).
(5)     Individual-Performance Activities, Dance, and Rhythms. Varies application of force during dance or gymnastic activities.
(6)     Outdoor Pursuits. Makes appropriate decisions based onIdentifies potential factors influencing appropriate decisions such as the weather (e.g., lightning), level of difficulty due to conditions, or ability to ensure safety of self and others.
(i)     Standard Two objectives for Grade 7. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 7:
(1)     Games and Sports: Invasion Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Reduces open space by using locomotor movements (e.g., walking, running, jumping, and landing), changing the size and shape of the body) in combination with body movement concepts to reduce the space between player and/or goal.(e.g., reducing the angle and the space, reducing distance between player and goal).
(B)     Objective 2. Executes at least two of the following offensive tactics to create open space: moves to create open space on and off the ball; uses a variety of passes, pivots, and fakes; give and go.
(C)     Objective 3. Creates and maintains open space by staying spread on offense, and by cutting and passing quickly.
(D)     Objective 4. Reduces open space on defense by staying close toas the opponent as she/he nears the goal.
(E)     Objective 5. Reduces open space by not allowing the catch (denial) or anticipating the speed of the object or person for the purpose of interception or deflection.
(F)     Objective 6. Transitions from offense to defense or defense to offense by recovering quickly and communicating with teammates.
(2)     Games and Sports: Net/Wall Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Creates open space in net/wall games with a long-handled implement by varying force and direction, and by moving opponent from side to side.
(B)     Objective 2. Selects offensive shot based on opponent's location (hit where opponent is not).
(3)     Games and Sports: Target Games. Varies the speed and/or trajectory of the shot based on location of the object in relation to the target.
(4)     Games and Sports: Fielding/Striking Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Uses Identifies when to use a variety of shots (e.g., slap and run, bunt, line drive, high arc) to hit to open up space.
(B)     Objective 2. Selects the correct defensive play based on the situation (e.g., number of outs).
(5)     Individual-Performance Activities, Dance, and Rhythms. Identifies and applies Newton's Laws of Motion to various dance or movementrhythmic activities (e.g., creative movement to music or multicultural dance).
(6)     Outdoor Pursuits. Analyzes the situation and makes adjustments to ensure the safety of self and others.
(j)     Standard Two objectives for Grade 8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 8:
(1)     Games and Sports: Invasion Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Opens and closes space during small-sided game play by combining locomotor movements (e.g., walking, running, jumping and landing) with movement concepts(e.g., varying pathways; changing speed, direction, or pace).
(B)     Objective 2. Executes at least three of the following offensive tactics to create open space: moves to create open space on and off the ball; uses a variety of passes, fakes, and pathways; give and go.
(C)     Objective 3. Creates and maintains open space by staying spread on offense, by cutting and passing quickly, and using fakes off the ball.
(D)     Objective 4. Reduces open space on defense by staying on the goal side of the offensive player and reducing the distance to the opponenther/him.
(E)     Objective 5. Reduces open space by not allowing the catch (denial) and anticipating the speed of the object or person for the purpose of interception or deflection in a dynamic environment or modified game play.
(F)     Objective 6. Transitions from offense to defense or defense to offense by recovering quickly, communicating with teammates, and capitalizing on an advantage in a dynamic environment or modified game play.
(2)     Games and Sports: Net/Wall Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Creates open space in net/wall games with either a long- or short-handled implement by varying force or direction, or by moving opponent from side to side and/or forward and back.
(B)     Objective 2. Varies placement, force, and timing of return to prevent anticipation by opponent.
(3)     Games and Sports: Target Games. Varies the speed, force, and trajectory of the shot based on location of the object in relation to the target in a dynamic environment or modified game play.
(4)     Games and Sports: Fielding/Striking Games.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies sacrifice situations and attempts to advance a teammate.
(B)     Objective 2. Reduces open spaces in the field by working with teammates to maximize coverage.
(5)     Individual-Performance Activities, Dance, and Rhythms. Describes and applies mechanical advantage for a variety of movement principles (e.g., tempo, levels, pathways, flow) to dance and rhythmic activitiespatterns.
(6)     Outdoor Pursuits. Implements safe protocols in self-selected outdoor pursuits.
(k)     Standard Two objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Level One.
(A)     Objective 1. Appropriately appliesApplies the terminology associated with exercise and participationparticipates in selected lifetime activities (individual-performance activities, dance, net/wall games, target games, aquatics, and/or outdoor pursuits).
(B)     Objective 2. Uses movement concepts and principles (e.g., force, motion, rotation) to analyze and improve performance of self and/or others in a selected skill.
(C)     Objective 3. Creates a practice plan to improve performance for a self-selected skill.
(D)     Objective 4. Identifies examples of social and technical dance forms.
(2)     Level Two.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies and discusses the historical and cultural roles of games, sports, and dance in society.
(B)     Objective 2. Describes the speed/accuracy trade-off in throwing and striking skills. Uses movement concepts and principles (e.g., force, motion, rotation) to implement strategies to improve performance for self and/or others in selected skills.
(C)     Objective 3. Identifies the stages of learning a motor skill. Tests, revises, and adapts a practice plan to improve performance for a self-selected skill.
(D)     Objective 4. Compares similarities and differences in various dance forms.
210:15-3-167.  Standard Three: Knowledge and Skills to Achieve and Maintain a Health-Enhancing Level of Physical Activity and Fitness
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will demonstrate the knowledge and skills to achieve and maintain a health-enhancing level of physical activity and fitness.
(b)     Standard Three objectives for Grades PreK-K. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten and Kindergarten:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Identifies active-play opportunities outside physical education class (e.g., before and after school, at home, at the park, with friends, with family).
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity. Actively participates in physical education class. Engaged in MVPA 50% of class time.
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. Recognizes that when you move fast, your heart beats faster and you breathe faster.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for warm-up and cool-down first appear in grade onethree.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for demonstrating fitness components first appear in grade three.
(B)     Objective 2. Recognizes that food provides energy for physical activity.
(c)     Standard Three objectives for Grade 1. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 1:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Discusses the benefits of being active and exercising and/or playing.
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity. Actively engages in physical education class. Engaged in MVPA 50% of class time.
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies the heart as a muscle that grows stronger with exercise, play, and physical activity.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for warm-up and cool-down first appear in grade three. Emerging understanding of warm up and cool down relative to physical activity.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for demonstrating fitness components first appear in grade three.
(B)     Objective 2. Differentiates between healthy and unhealthy foods and drinks.
(d)     Standard Three objectives for Grade 2. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 2:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Describes large motor and/or manipulative physical activities for participation outside physical education class.
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity. Actively engages in physical education class in response to instruction and practice. Engaged in MVPA 50% of class time.
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies physical activities that contribute to fitness.
(B)     Objective 2. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for warm-up and cool-down first appear in grade three. Differentiates between warm up and cool down.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Developmentally appropriate/emerging outcomes for demonstrating fitness components first appear in grade three.
(B)     Objective 2. Recognizes the importance of the balance betweengood health balance of nutrition and physical activity.
(e)     Standard Three objectives for Grade 3. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Student chartsTracks participation in physical activities outside physical education class. Identifies physical activity benefits as a way to become healthier.
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity. Actively engagesEngages in the activities of the physical education class without teacher prompting. Engaged in MVPA 50% of class time.
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. DescribesDiscusses the components of health-related fitness and skill-related fitness.the concept of fitness and provides Provides examples of physical activity to enhance fitness.
(B)     Objective 2. Recognizes the importance of warm-up and cool-down relative to vigorous physical activity.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Demonstrates, with teacher direction, the health-related fitness components (muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, cardiovascular endurance, body composition).
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies foods that are beneficial for before and afterpre and post physical activity.
(f)     Standard Three objectives for Grade 4. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 4:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Analyzes opportunities for participating in physical activity outside physical education class.
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity. Actively engages in the activities of physical education class, both teacher-directed and independent. Engaged in MVPA 50% of class time.
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies the components of health-related fitness (muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, cardiovascular endurance, body composition) and skill-related fitness.
(B)     Objective 2. Demonstrates warm-up and cool-down relative to the cardiorespiratory fitness assessment.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Completes fitness assessments (pre and post). Identifies areas of needed remediation from personal test and, with teacher assistance, identifies strategies for progress in those areas.
(B)     Objective 2. Discusses the importance of hydration and hydration choices relative to physical activities.
(g)     Standard Three objectives for Grade 5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 5:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Student chartsTracks and analyzes physical activity outside physical education class for fitness benefits of activities.
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity. Actively engages in all the activities of physical education. Engaged in MVPA 50% of class time.
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. Differentiates between skill related and health- related fitness and skill-related fitness.
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies the need for warm-up and cool-down relative to various physical activities. Identifies and appliesIdentify and apply the FITT principle to a fitness plan.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Analyzes results of fitness assessments (pre and post), comparing and compares results with fitness components for good health. Designs a fitness plan utilizing the FITT principle.
(B)     Objective 2. Analyzes the impact of food choices relative to physical activity, youth sports, and personal health.
(h)     Standard Three objectives for Grade 6. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Describes how being physically active leads to a healthy body.
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity.
(A)     Objective 1. Participates in self-selected physical activity once a week outside of physical education class.
(B)     Objective 2. Participates in a variety of moderate and vigorous aerobic fitness activities (e.g., Speed Walking, HITT, Drum Fit, Spinning/Cycling, and Kickboxing)cardio-kick, step aerobics, and aerobic dance).
(C)     Objective 3. Participates in a variety of aerobic fitness activities with or without technology (e.g., heart rate monitors, pedometers, fitness apps).Dance Dance Revolution or Wii Fit).
(D)     Objective 4. Participates in a variety of lifetime team sports, recreational team sports, outdoor pursuits, or dance activities.
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. Participates inDifferentiates between moderate to vigorous physical activity that includes intermittent or continuous aerobic physical activity of both moderate and vigorous intensity for at least 60 minutes per day.
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies the components of skill-related fitness.
(C)     Objective 3. Sets and monitors a self-selected physical activity goal for aerobic and/or muscle- and bone-strengthening activity based on current fitness level.
(D)     Objective 4. Employs Demonstrates correct techniques and methods of stretching.
(E)     Objective 5. Differentiates between each of the health-related fitness components. aerobic and anaerobic capacity and between muscular strength and endurance.
(F)     Objective 6. Identifies each of the components of the overload FITT principle (FITT formula:frequency, intensity, time, and type) for different types of physical activity (aerobic, muscular fitness, and flexibility).
(G)     Objective 7. Describes the role of warm-ups and cool-downs before and after physical activity.
(H)     Objective 8. Defines resting heart rate and describes its relationship to aerobic fitness and the Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) Scale.
(I)     Objective 9. Identifies major muscles used in selected physical activities.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Designs and implements a program of remediation for any areas of weakness based on the results of health-related fitness assessment.
(B)     Objective 2. Maintains a physical activity log for at least two weeks and reflects on activity levels as documented in the log.
(C)     Objective 3. Identifies foods within each of the basic food groups and selects appropriate servings and portions for student's ageDevelops a two-week meal plan using the basic food groups and details appropriate serving size and portions for students' own age and physical activity levels.
(5)     Stress Management. Identifies positive and negative results of stress and appropriate ways of dealing with each.
(i)     Standard Three objectives for Grade 7. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 7:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Identifies barriers related to maintaining a physically active lifestyle and seeks solutions for eliminating those barriers.
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity.
(A)     Objective 1. Participates in physical activity twice a week outside of physical education class.
(B)     Objective 2. Participates in a variety of strength and endurance fitness activities (e.g., Pilates, resistance training, body weight training, and light free-weight training).
(C)     Objective 3. Participates in a variety of strength- and endurance-fitness activities, with or without technology (e.g., weight or resistance training).
(D)     Objective 4. Participates in a variety of lifetime dual or individual or dual sports, (e.g., martial arts, or aquatic activities).
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. Participates in moderate to vigorous muscle- and bone-strengthening physical activity at least three times a week.
(B)     Objective 2. Distinguishes between health-related and skill-related fitness.
(C)     Objective 3. Adjusts physical activity based on quantity of exercise needed for a minimal health standard and/or optimal functioning based on current fitness level.
(D)     Objective 4. Describes and demonstrates the difference between dynamic and static stretches.
(E)     Objective 5. Describes the role of exercise and nutrition in weight management. Compares and contrasts health plans that utilize each of the health-related fitness components.
(F)     Objective 6. Describes the overloadFITT principle (FITT formula: frequency, intensity, time, and type) for different types of physical activity, the training principles on which the formula is based, and how it the formula and principles affects fitness.
(G)     Objective 7. Designs a warm-up/and cool-down regimen for a self-selected physical activity.
(H)     Objective 8. Describes Explains how the Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) RPE Scale can be used to determine the perception of the work effort or intensity of exercise.
(I)     Objective 9. Describes how muscles pull on bones to create movement in pairs by relaxing and contracting.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Designs and implements a program of remediation for two areas of weakness based on the results of health-related fitness assessment.
(B)     Objective 2. Maintains a physical activity and nutrition log for at least two weeks and reflects on activity levels and nutrition as documented in the log.
(C)     Objective 3. Develops strategies for balancing healthy food, snacks, and water intake along with daily physical activity.
(5)     Stress Management. Practices strategies for dealing with stress, such as deep breathing, guided visualization, and aerobic exercise.
(j)     Standard Three objectives for Grade 8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 8:
(1)     Physical Activity Knowledge. Identifies the five components of health-related fitness (muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, cardiovascular endurance, body composition) and explains the connections between fitness and overall physical and mental health.
(2)     Engages in Physical Activity.
(A)     Objective 1. Participates in physical activity three times a week outside of physical education class.
(B)     Objective 2. Participates in a variety ofphysical activity of self-selected aerobic,/strength and endurance fitness activities outside of school (e.g., body weight, resistance training, walking, jogging, biking, skating, dancedancing, and swimswimming).
(C)     Objective 3. Plans, implements, and participates in cross-training to include aerobic, strength, endurance, and flexibility training with or without technology.
(D)     Objective 4. Participates in a self-selected lifetime sport, dance, aquatic, or outdoor activity outside of the school day.
(3)     Fitness Knowledge.
(A)     Objective 1. Participates in moderate to vigorous aerobic and/or muscle- and bone-strengthening physical activity for at least 60 minutes per day at least five times a week.
(B)     Objective 2. Compares and contrasts health-related fitness and skill-related fitness. components.
(C)     Objective 3. Uses available technology to self-monitor quantity of exercise needed for a minimal health standard and/or optimal functioning based on current fitness level.
(D)     Objective 4. Describes, demonstrates, and appropriately employs a variety of appropriate static and dynamic stretching techniques for all major muscle groups.
(E)     Objective 5. Describes the role of flexibility in injury prevention. Critique and correct a health and fitness plan that utilizes each of the health-related fitness components of physical fitness.
(F)     Objective 6. Uses the overloadFITT principle (FITT formula: frequency, intensity, time, and type) in preparing a personal workout.
(G)     Objective 7. Designs and implements a warm-up/and cool-down regimen for a self-selected physical activity.
(H)     Objective 8. Describes how the Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) Scale can be used Applies the RPE Scale to adjust workout intensity during physical activity.
(I)     Objective 9. Explains how opposing muscles interact with one another (e.g., agonist and antagonist) body systems interact with one another (e.g., blood transports nutrients from the digestive system, oxygen from the respiratory system) during physical activity.
(4)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(A)     Objective 1. Designs and implements a program of remediation for three areas of weakness based on the results of health-related fitness assessment.
(B)     Objective 2. Designs and implements a program to improve levels of health-related fitness and nutrition.
(C)     Objective 3. DescribesAnalyzes the relationship between poor nutrition and health risk factors.
(5)     Stress Management. DemonstratesRecognizes and demonstrates basic movements used in other stress-reducing activities, such as mindfulness, yoga and tai chi.
(k)     Standard Three objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Level One.
(A)     Physical Activity Knowledge.
(i)     Objective 1. Discusses the benefits of a physically active lifestyle as it relates to college, career, and/or community productivity.
(ii)     Objective 2. Evaluates the validity of claims made by commercial products and programs pertaining to fitness and a healthy, active lifestyle.
(iii)     Objective 3. Identifies issues associated with exercising in heat, humidity, and cold.
(iv)     Objective 4. Evaluates -according to their benefits, social support network, and participation requirements - activities that can be pursued in the local environment. according to their benefits, social support network, and participation requirements.
(v)     Objective 5. Evaluates risks and safety factors that might affect physical activity preferences throughout the life cycle.
(B)     Engages in Physical Activity. Participates several times a week in a self-selected lifetime activity, dance, or fitness activity outside of the school day.
(C)     Fitness Knowledge.
(i)     Objective 1. Demonstrates appropriate technique in resistance-training machines and free weights.
(ii)     Objective 2. Relates physiological response tobetween individual levels of fitness and nutritional balance.
(iii)     Objective 3. Identifies the structure of skeletal muscle, fiber types as they relate to muscle development, and the difference between concentric and eccentric contractions. types of strength exercises (isometric, concentric, eccentric) and stretching exercises (static, dynamic, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)) for personal fitness development (e.g., strength, endurance, range of motion).
(iv)     Objective 4. Calculates target heart rate and applies that information to personal fitness plan.
(D)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(i)     Objective 1. Creates and implements a behavior-modification plan that enhances a healthy, active lifestyle in college or career settings.
(ii)     Objective 2. Designs a fitness program, including all components of health-related fitness, for a college student and an employee in the student'slearner's chosen field of work.
(E)     Nutrition. Designs and implements a nutrition plan to maintain an appropriate energy balance for a healthy, active lifestyle.
(F)     Stress Management. Identifies stress-management strategies (e.g., mental imagery, relaxation techniques, deep breathing, aerobic exercises, meditation) to reduce stress.
(2)     Level Two.
(A)     Physical Activity Knowledge.
(i)     Objective 1. Investigates the relationshipsamong of a physical physically active lifestyle with activity, nutrition, and body composition.
(ii)     Objective 2. Analyzes and applies technology and social media as tools for supporting a healthy, active lifestyle.
(iii)     Objective 3. Applies rates of perceived exertion and pacing associated with exercising in different conditions.
(iv)     Objective 4. Evaluates - according to their benefits, social support network, and participation requirements- activities that can be pursued in and outside the local environment. according to their benefits, social support network, and participation requirements.
(v)     Objective 5. Analyzes the impact of life choices, economics, motivation, and accessibility on exercise adherence and participation in physical activity in college or career settings.
(B)     Engages in Physical Activity. Creates a plan, trains for, and participates in a community event with a focus on physical activity (e.g., 5K, triathlon, tournament, dance performance, cycling event).
(C)     Fitness Knowledge.
(i)     Objective 1. Designs and implements a strength and conditioning program that develops balance in opposing muscle groups and supports a healthy, active lifestyle.
(ii)     Objective 2. Identifies the different energy systems used in a selected physical activity (e.g., adenosine triphosphate and phosphocreatine, anaerobic glycolysis, aerobic).
(iii)     Objective 3. Identifies types of strength exercises (isometric, isotonic, isokinetic) and stretching exercises (static, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation [PNF], dynamic) for personal fitness development (e.g., strength, endurance, range of motion).the structure of skeletal muscle and fiber types as they relate to muscle development.
(iv)     Objective 4. Adjusts pacing to keep heart rate in target zone, using available technology to self-monitor aerobic intensity.
(D)     Assessment and Program Planning.
(i)     Objective 1. Develops and maintains a fitness portfolio (e.g., assessment scores, goals for improvement, plan of activities for improvement, log of activities being done to reach goals, timeline for improvement).
(ii)     Objective 2. Analyzes the components of skill-related fitness in relation to life and career goals, and designs an appropriate fitness program for those goals.
(E)     Nutrition. Creates a snack plan for before, during, and after exercise that addresses nutritional needs for each phase.
(F)     Stress Management. Applies stress-management strategies (e.g., mental imagery, relaxation techniques, deep breathing, aerobic exercise, meditation) to reduce stress.
210:15-3-168.  Standard Four: Responsible Personal and Social Behavior That Respects Self and Others
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will exhibit responsible personal and social behavior that respects self and others.
(b)     Standard Four objectives for Grades PreK-K. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten and Kindergarten:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Follows directions in group settings (e.g., safe behaviors, following rulesexpectations).
(B)     Objective 2. Acknowledges responsibility for behavior when prompted.
(2)     Accepting Feedback. Follows instruction/directions when prompted.
(3)     Working with Others. Shares equipment and space with others.
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Recognizes the established protocols for class activities.
(5)     Safety. Follows teacher directions for safe participation and proper use of equipment with minimal reminders.
(c)     Standard Four objectives for Grade 1. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 1:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Accepts personal responsibility by using equipment and space appropriately.
(B)     Objective 2. Follows the rules and parametersAdheres to the norms and expectations of the learning environment.
(2)     Accepting Feedback. Responds appropriately to general feedback from the teacher.
(3)     Working with Others. Works independently with others in a variety of class environments (e.g., small and large groups).
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Exhibits the established protocols for class activities.
(5)     Safety. Follows teacher directions for safe participation and proper use of equipment without teacher reminders.
(d)     Standard Four objectives for Grade 2. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 2:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Practices skills with minimal teacher prompting.
(B)     Objective 2. Accepts responsibility for class protocols with behavior and performance actions.
(2)     Accepting Feedback. Accepts specific corrective feedback from the teacher.
(3)     Working with Others. Works independently with others in partner environments without regard to differences.
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Recognizes the role of rules and etiquette in teacher designed physical activities.
(5)     Safety. Works independently and safely in physical education and with equipment. Works safely with physical education equipment.
(e)     Standard Four objectives for Grade 3. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Exhibits personal responsibility in teacher directed activities.
(B)     Objective 2. Works independently for extended periods of time.
(2)     Accepting Feedback. Accepts and implements specific corrective feedback from the teacher.
(3)     Working with Others. Works cooperatively with others. Praises others for their success in movement performance.
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Recognizes the role of rules and etiquette in physical activity with peers.
(5)     Safety. Works independently and safely in physical activity settings with or without equipment.
(f)     Standard Four objectives for Grade 4. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 4:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Exhibits responsible behavior in independent group situations.
(B)     Objective 2. Reflects on personal social behavior in physical activity.
(2)     Accepting Feedback. Listens respectfully to corrective feedback from others (e.g., peers, adults).
(3)     Working with Others. Praises the movement performances of others both more and less skilled. Accepts players of all skill levels into the physical activity.
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Exhibits etiquette and adherence to rules in a variety of physical activities.
(5)     Safety. Works safely with peers and equipment in physical activity settings.
(g)     Standard Four objectives for Grade 5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 5:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Engages in physical activity with responsible interpersonal behavior (e.g., peer to peer, student to teacher, student to referee).
(B)     Objective 2. Participates with responsible personal behavior in a variety of physical activity contexts, environments, and facilities. Exhibits respect for self with appropriate behavior while engaging in physical activity.
(2)     Accepting Feedback. Gives and receives peer feedback.
(3)     Working with Others. Accepts, recognizes, and actively involves others with both higher and lower skill abilities into physical activities and group projects.
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Critiques the etiquette involved in rules of various game activities.
(5)     Safety. Applies safety principles with age-appropriate physical activities.
(h)     Standard Four objectives for Grade 6. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Exhibits personal responsibility by using appropriate etiquette, demonstrating respect for facilities, staff, peers, and equipment whileand exhibiting safe behaviors.
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies and uses appropriate strategies to self-reinforce positive fitness behaviors, such as positive self-talk.
(2)     Accepting/Providing Feedback. Demonstrates self-responsibility by implementing specific corrective feedback to improve performance.
(3)     Working with Others.
(A)     Objective 1. Accepts differences among classmates in physical development, maturation, and varying skill levels by providing encouragement and positive feedback.
(B)     Objective 2. Cooperates with a small group of classmates during adventure activities, game play, or team-building activities.
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Identifies the rules and etiquette for physical activities, games, and dance activities.
(5)     Safety. Uses physical activity and fitness equipment appropriately and safely, with the teacher's guidance.
(i)     Standard Four objectives for Grade 7. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 7:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Exhibits responsible social behaviors by cooperating with classmates, demonstrating inclusive behaviors, and supporting classmates.
(B)     Objective 2. Demonstrates both intrinsic and extrinsic motivation by selecting opportunities to participate in physical activity outside of class.
(2)     Accepting/Providing Feedback. Provides corrective feedback to a peer using teacher-generated guidelines and incorporating appropriate tone and other communication skills.
(3)     Working with Others.
(A)     Objective 1. Demonstrates cooperation skills by establishing rules and guidelines for resolving conflicts.
(B)     Objective 2. Problem solvesSolves problems with a small group of classmates during adventure activities, small-group initiatives, or game play.
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Demonstrates knowledge of rules and etiquette by self-officiating modified physical activities and games or following parameters to create or modify a dance.
(5)     Safety. Independently uses physical activity and exercise equipment appropriately and safely.
(j)     Standard Four objectives for Grade 8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 8:
(1)     Personal Responsibility.
(A)     Objective 1. Accepts responsibility for improving one's own levels of physical activity, fitness, and emotional, and social well-being.
(B)     Objective 2. Uses effective self-monitoring skills to incorporate opportunities for physical activity in and outside of school.
(2)     Accepting/Providing Feedback. Provides encouragement and feedback to peers without prompting from the teacher.
(3)     Working with Others.
(A)     Objective 1. Responds appropriately to participants' ethical and unethical behavior during physical activity by using rules and guidelines for resolving conflicts.
(B)     Objective 2. Cooperates with multiple classmates on problem-solving initiatives, including adventure activities, large-group initiatives, and game play.
(4)     Rules and Etiquette. Applies rules and etiquette by acting as an official for modified physical activities, or games, and/or by creating dance routines within a given set of parameters.
(5)     Safety. Independently uses physical activity and fitness equipment appropriately and identifies specific safety concerns associated with the activity.
(k)     Standard Four objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Level One.
(A)     Personal Responsibility. Employs effective self-management skills to analyze barriers and modify physical activity patterns appropriately as needed.
(B)     Rules and Etiquette. Exhibits proper etiquette, respect for others, and teamwork while engaging in physical activity and/or social dance.
(C)     Working with Others.
(i)     Objective 1. Uses communication skills and strategies that promote team or group dynamics.
(ii)     Objective 2. Solves problems and thinks critically in physical activity and/or dance settings, both as an individual and in groups.
(D)     Safety. Understands best practices for participating safely in physical activity, exercise, and dance (e.g., injury prevention, water safetyaquatics, proper alignment, hydration, use of equipment, implementation of rules, sun protection).
(2)     Level Two.
(A)     Personal Responsibility. AcceptsAcknowledges differences between personal characteristics, and the idealized body images, and elite performance levels portrayed in various media, and accepts the personal responsibility for appropriate health choices.
(B)     Rules and Etiquette. Examines moral and ethical conduct in specific competitive situations (e.g., intentional fouls, performance-enhancing substances, gambling, current events in sport).
(C)     Working with Others.
(i)     Objective 1. Assumes a leadership role (e.g., task or group leader, referee, coach) in a physical activity setting.
(ii)     Objective 2. Accepts others' ideas about cultural diversity and body types by engaging in cooperative and collaborative movement projects.
(D)     Safety. Applies best practices for participating safely in physical activity, exercise, and dance (e.g., injury prevention, aquaticswater safety, proper alignment, hydration, use of equipment, implementation of rules, and sun protection).
210:15-3-169.  Standard Five: Value of Physical Activity for Health, Enjoyment, Challenge, Self-Expression, and Social Interaction
(a)     Statement of the standard. Students will recognize the value of physical activity for health, mental health, enjoyment, challenge, self-expression, and social interaction.
(b)     Standard Five objectives for Grades PreK-K. The following objectives apply for students in Pre-Kindergarten and Kindergarten:
(1)     Health. Recognizes that physical activity is important for good physical and mental health.
(2)     Challenge. Acknowledges that some physical activities are challenging/difficult.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies physical activities that are enjoyable. Discusses the enjoyment of playing with friends.
(B)     Objective 2. Demonstrates socially acceptable conflict resolution skills.
(c)     Standard Five objectives for Grade 1. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 1:
(1)     Health. Identifies physical activity as a component of good physical and mental health.
(2)     Challenge. Recognizes that challenge in physical activities can lead to success.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Describes positive feelings that result from participating in physical activities. Discusses personal reasons for enjoying physical activities.
(B)     Objective 2. Demonstrates socially acceptable conflict resolution skills.
(d)     Standard Five objectives for Grade 2. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 2:
(1)     Health. Recognizes the impact of balanced nutrition and physical activity to good mental and physical health.value of "good health balance".
(2)     Challenge. Compares physical activities that bring confidence and challenge.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies and discusses physical activities that provide enjoyment and self-expression (e.g., dance, gymnastics routines, practice tasks in game environments).
(B)     Objective 2. Demonstrates socially acceptable conflict resolution skills.
(e)     Standard Five objectives for Grade 3. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 3:
(1)     Health. Discusses the relationship between physical activity and good mental and physical health.
(2)     Challenge. Discusses the challenge that comes from learning a new physical activity.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Reflects on the reasons for enjoying selected physical activities.
(B)     Objective 2. Describes the positive social interactions that come when engaging with others in physical activity.
(f)     Standard Five objectives for Grade 4. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 4:
(1)     Health. Examines the mental and physical health benefits of participating in physical activity.
(2)     Challenge. Rates the enjoyment of participating in challenging and mastered physical activities.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Ranks the enjoyment of participating in different physical activities.
(B)     Objective 2. Describes and compares the positive social interactions that come when engaged in partner, small group, and large group physical activities.
(g)     Standard Five objectives for Grade 5. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 5:
(1)     Health. Compares the mental and physical health benefits of participating in selected physical activities.
(2)     Challenge. Expresses (e.g., written essay, visual art, creative dance) the enjoyment and/or challenge of participating in a favorite physical activity.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Analyzes different physical activities for enjoyment and challenge, identifying reasons for a positive or negative response.
(B)     Objective 2. Analyzes the positive impact of verbal and non-verbal encouragement in physical activity.
(h)     Standard Five objectives for Grade 6. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 6:
(1)     Health.
(A)     Objective 1. Describes how being physically active leads to a healthy mind and body.
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies components of physical activity that provide opportunities for reducing stress and for encouraging social interaction.
(2)     Challenge. Recognizes individual challenges and copes in a positive way, such as: extending effort, asking for help, and/or feedback, or modifying the tasks.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Describes how moving competently in a physical activity setting creates enjoyment.
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies how self-expression and physical activity are related.
(4)     Social Interaction. Demonstrates respect for self and others in activities and games by following the rules, encouraging others, and playing in the spirit of the game or activity.
(i)     Standard Five objectives for Grade 7. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 7:
(1)     Health.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies different types of physical activities and describes how each exerts a positive impact on physical and mental health.
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies Describes positive mental and emotional aspects of participating in a variety of physical activities.
(2)     Challenge. Generates positive strategies when faced with a group challenge, such as: offering suggestions or assistance, leading or following others, and providing solutions when faced with a group challenge.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies why self-selected physical activities create enjoyment.
(B)     Objective 2. Explains the relationship between self-expression and lifelong enjoyment through physical activity.
(4)     Social Interaction. Demonstrates the importance of social interaction by helping and encouraging others, avoiding trashnegative talk, and providing support to classmates.
(j)     Standard Five objectives for Grade 8. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 8:
(1)     Health.
(A)     Objective 1. Identifies the five components of health-related fitness (muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, cardiovascular endurance, and body composition) and explains the connections between fitness and overall physical and mental health.
(B)     Objective 2. Analyzes the empowering consequencesphysical, mental, emotional, and social effects of being physically active.
(2)     Challenge. Develops a plan of action and makes appropriate decisions based on that plan when faced with an individual challenge.
(3)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment.
(A)     Objective 1. Discusses how enjoyment could be increased in self-selected physical activities.
(B)     Objective 2. Identifies and participates in an enjoyable activity that prompts individual self-expression.
(4)     Social Interaction. Demonstrates respect for self by asking for help and helping others in various physical activities.
(k)     Standard Five objectives for Grades 9-12. The following objectives apply for students in Grade 9 through Grade 12:
(1)     Level One.
(A)     Health. Analyzes the health benefits of a self-selected physical activity.
(B)     Challenge. Chooses an appropriate level of challenge to experience success and desire to participate in a self-selected physical activity.
(C)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment. Selects and participates in physical activities or dance that meets the need for self-expression and enjoyment.
(D)     Social Interaction. Identifies the opportunity for social support in a self-selected physical activity or dance.
(2)     Level Two.
(A)     Health. Analyzes the health benefits of more than one self-selected physical activity.
(B)     Challenge. Chooses an appropriate level of challenge to experience success and desire to participate in a self-selected physical activity.
(C)     Self-Expression and Enjoyment. Identifies the uniqueness of creative dance as a means of self-expression.
(D)     Social Interaction. Evaluates the opportunity for social interaction and social support in a self-selected physical activity or dance.
[OAR Docket #23-717; filed 8-8-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 15.  Curriculum and Instruction
[OAR Docket #23-718]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption of subject matter standards pursuant to 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Oklahoma Academic Standards
Part 27. Computer Science
210:15-3-200. Computer Science standards: overview [AMENDED]
210:15-3-200.5. Computer Science standards for kindergarten [AMENDED]
210:15-3-201. Computer Science standards for first grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-202. Computer Science standard for second grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-203. Computer Science standards for third grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-204. Computer Science standards for fourth grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-205. Computer Science standards for fifth grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-206. Computer Science standards for sixth grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-207. Computer Science standards for seventh grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-208. Computer Science standards for eighth grade [AMENDED]
210:15-3-209. Computer Science standards for high school [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a; 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1
ADOPTION:
February 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 29, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Because the Legislature did not adopt a joint resolution approving or disapproving the standards within thirty (30) legislative days after submission for review, the standards were deemed approved pursuant to 70 O.S. § 11-103.6a-1(C) as of May 18, 2023.
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The new rules set forth the updated Oklahoma Academic Standards for Computer Science, as approved by the State Board of Education and the Oklahoma Legislature.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 70 O.S., SECTIONS 11-103.6A AND 11-103.6A-1, WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Oklahoma Academic Standards
PART 27.  COMPUTER SCIENCE
210:15-3-200.  Computer Science standards: overview
(a)    The Oklahoma Academic Standards for Computer Science are organized around five main concepts, each broken down into two or more sub-concepts. For each grade level, the standards for Computer Science are arranged under the following main concepts:
(1)    Computing Systems.
(2)    Networks and the Internet.
(3)    Data Analysis.
(4)    Algorithms and Programming.
(5)    Impacts of Computing.
(b)    The Computer Science Practices are connected to the Oklahoma Academic Standards for Computer Science to support students in developing a deep understanding of the standards. The Practices are denoted in parentheses following each standard to indicate association. The Practices include:
(1)    Collaborating Around Computing.
(2)    Communicating About Computing.
(3)    Creating Computational Artifacts.
(4)    Developing and Using Abstractions.
(5)    Developing a Productive Computing Environment.
(6)    Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems.
(7)    Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts.
210:15-3-200.5.  Computer Science standards for kindergarten
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. With guidance, follow directions and start to make appropriate choices to use computing devices to perform a variety of tasks. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Hardware and Software. Use appropriate terminology to locate and identify common computing devices and components, in a variety of environments (e.g., desktop computer, laptop computer, tablet device, monitor, keyboard, mouse, printer). (Communicating About Computing)
(3)     Troubleshooting. Recognize that computing systems might not work as expected, and, with guidance, use accurate terminology to identify simple hardware or software problems (e.g., volume turned down on headphones, monitor turned off). (Communicating about Computing, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Recognize that computing devices can be connected together. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity. Discuss what passwords are and why we do not share them with others. With guidance, use passwords to access technological devices, apps, etc.computing devices. (Communicating about Computing)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. With guidance, locate, open, modify, and save an existing file with a computing device. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. With guidance, collect data and present it visually. (Communicating about Computing, Developing and Using Abstractions)
(3)     Inference and Models. With guidance, draw conclusions and make predictions based on picture graphs pictographs, real object graphs, or patterns(e.g., make predictions based on weather data presented in a picture graph or complete a pattern). (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. With guidance, model daily processes and follow algorithms (sets of step-by-step instructions) to complete tasks verbally, kinesthetically, with robot devices, or a programming language. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Variables. With guidance, recognize that computers represent different types of data using numbers or other symbols. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(3)     Control. With guidance, independently or collaboratively create programs to accomplish tasks using a programming language, robot device, or unplugged activity that includes sequencing (i.e., emphasizing the beginning, middle, and end). (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Modularity. With guidance, decompose (break down) the steps needed to solve a simple problem. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(45)     Program Development.
(A)    With guidance, create a grade-level appropriate artifact to illustrate thoughts, ideas, or stories in a sequential (step-by-step) manner (e.g., story map, storyboard, and sequential graphic organizer). (Communicating About Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(B)    Independently or with guidance, give credit to ideas, creations, and solutions of others while developing algorithms. (Communicating About Computing)
(C)    With guidance, independently or collaboratively debug algorithms using a programming language and/or unplugged activity that includes sequencing. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Use correct terminology (beginning, middle, end) in the development of an algorithm to solve a simple problem. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture. ListIdentify different ways in which types of technologies are used in your daily life. (Communicating About Computing)
(2)     Social Interactions. With guidance, identify appropriate mannersbehavior while participating in an online environment. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(3)     Internet Safety, Law, and Ethics. With guidance, identify ways to stay safe online.(Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-201.  Computer Science standards for first grade
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. With guidance, select and use a computing device to perform a variety of tasks for an intended outcome. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Hardware and Software. Use appropriate terminology in naming and describing the function of common computing devices and components (e.g., mouse is used to control the cursor). (Communicating about Computing)
(3)     Troubleshooting. Identify, using accurate terminology, simple hardware and software problems that may occur during use (e.g., app or program is not working as expected, no sound is coming from the device, caps lock turned on). (Communicating about Computing, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Recognize that by connecting computing devices together they can share information (e.g., remote storage, printing, the internetInternet). (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity. Identify what passwords are,; explain why they are not shared, and discuss what makes a password strong. Independently, use passwords to access technologicalcomputing devices, apps, etc. (Communicating about Computing)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. With guidance, locate, open, modify, and save an existing file, use appropriate file-naming conventions, and recognize that the file exists within an organizational structure (e.g. drive, folder, file). (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. With guidance, collect data and present it in two different ways. (Communicating about Computing, Developing and Using Abstractions)
(3)     Inference and Models. With guidance, identify and interpret data from a chart, bar graph, or pictograph or graph (visualization) in order to make a prediction,draw conclusions, with or without a computing device. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. With guidance, model daily processes and follow algorithms (sets of step-by-step instructions) to complete tasks verbally, kinesthetically, with robot devices, or a programming language. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Variables. With guidance, model the way that a program accesses stored data using a variable name. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(3)     Control. With guidance, independently or collaboratively create programs to accomplish tasks using a programming language, robot device, or unplugged activity that includes sequencing and repetition. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Modularity. Decompose (break down) the steps needed to solve a simple problem. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(45)     Program Development.
(A)    Independently or with guidance, create a grade-level appropriate artifact to illustrate thoughts, ideas, or stories in a sequential (step-by-step) manner (e.g., story map, storyboard, and sequential graphic organizer). (Communicating About Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(B)    Independently or with guidance, give credit to ideas, creations, and solutions of others while writing and/or developing programs. (Communicating about Computing)
(C)    With guidance, independently or collaboratively debug programs using a programming language and/or unplugged activity that includes sequencing and repetition. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Use correct terminology (first, second, third) and explain the choices made in the development of an algorithm to solve a simple problem. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture. Identify how people use different types of technologies in their daily work and personal lives. (Communicating About Computing)
(2)     Social Interactions. With guidance, identify appropriate and inappropriate behavior. Act act responsibly,while participating in an online community and know how to report concerns while participating in an online community. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(3)     Internet Safety, Law, & Ethics. Identify ways to stay safe online. (Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-202.  Computer Science standard for second grade
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. Select and use aappropriate computing devicedevices or software to perform a variety of tasks for an intended outcome. Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Hardware and Software. Identify the components of a computercomputing system and what the basic functions are (e.g., hard drive and memory) as well as peripherals (e.g., printers, scanners, external hard drives) and external storage features and their uses (e.g., cloud storage). (Communicating about Computing)
(3)     Troubleshooting. Identify, using accurate terminology, simple hardware and software problems that may occur during use (e.g., app or program is not working as expected, no sound is coming from the device, caps lock turned on) and discuss problems with peers and adults. (Communicating about Computing, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Recognize that computing devices can be connected at various scales (e.g., Bluetooth, WiFi, www, LAN, WAN, peer-to-peer).in a variety of ways. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity. Explain what passwords are,and why we use them;, and use strong passwords to protect computing devices and information from unauthorized access. (Communicating About Computing)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. With guidance, develop and modify an organizational structure by creating, copying, moving, and deleting files and folders. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. With guidance, collect and present the same data in various visual formats. (Communicating About Computing, Developing and Using Abstractions)
(3)     Inference and Models. With guidance, construct and interpret data with up to four categories and present it in a chart or graphbar graph, or pictograph (visualization) in order to make a prediction, draw conclusions with or without a computing device. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. With guidance, model daily processes by creating and following algorithms (sets of step-by-step instructions) to complete tasks verbally, kinesthetically, with robot devices, or a programming language. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Variables. Model the way a computer program stores, accesses, and manipulates data that is represented as a variable. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(3)     Control. With guidance, independently and collaboratively create programs to accomplish tasks using a programming language, robot device, or unplugged activity that includes sequencing and repetition. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Modularity. With guidance, decompose (break down) the steps needed to solve a problem into a precise sequence of instructions. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(45)     Program Development.
(A)    Independently or with guidance, create a grade-level appropriate artifact to illustrate thoughts, ideas, or stories in a sequential (step-by-step) manner (e.g., story map, storyboard, and sequential graphic organizer). (Communicating About Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(B)    Give credit to ideas, creations, and solutions of others while writing and developing programs. (Communicating About Computing)
(C)    With guidance, independently and collaboratively debug programs using a programming language and/or unplugged activity that includes sequencing and repetition. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Use correct terminology (debut, program input/output, code) to explain the development of an algorithm to solve a problem in an unplugged activity, hands on manipulatives, or a programming language. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture. Identify and describeCompare how people use different types of technologies in their daily work and personal lives.live and work before and after the implementation or adoption of new technology. (Communicating About Computing)
(2)     Social Interactions. DevelopWith guidance, develop a code of conduct, explain, and practice grade-level appropriate behavior and responsibilities while participating in an online community. Identify and report inappropriate behavior. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(3)     Internet Safety, Law, & Ethics. Individually and collaboratively identify ways to stay safe online. (Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-203.  Computer Science standards for third grade
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. Select and use computing systems to perform a variety of tasks for an intended outcome. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(12)     Hardware and Software. Model how information flows through hardware and software to accomplish tasks. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(23)     Troubleshooting. Identify, using accurate terminology, simple hardware and software problems that may occur during everyday use; discuss problems with peers and adults; and apply strategies for solving these problems (e.g., refreshing the screen, closing and reopening an application or file, unmuting or adjusting the volume on headphones). (Communicating about Computing, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Recognize that information is sent and received over physical or wireless paths. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity. Identify problems that relate to inappropriate use of computing devices and networks. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. Recognize that different types of information are stored in different formats that have associated programs (e.g., documents open in a word processor) and varied storage requirements. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. Collect and organize data in various visual formats. (Communicating About Computing)
(3)     Inference and Models. With guidance, utilizeUtilize data to make predictions and discuss whether there is adequate data to make reliable predictions. (Communicating About Computing)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. CompareModel and compare multiple algorithms for the same task. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(2)     Variables. Create programs that use variables to store and modify grade-level appropriate data. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Control. Create programs using a programming language that utilize sequencing, repetition, conditionals, and variables to solve a problem or express ideas, both independently and collaboratively. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Modularity.
(A)    Decompose (break down) the steps needed to solve a problem into a precise sequence of instructions. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(B)    With grade appropriate complexity, modify, remix, or incorporate portions of an existing program into one's own work, to develop something new or add more advanced features. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(5)     Program Development.
(A)    Use an iterative process to plan the development of a program while solving simple problems. (Communicating About Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(B)    Observe intellectual property rights and give appropriate credit when creating programs using original code or remixing programs.code reuse. (Communicating About Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(C)    Analyze and debug a program that includes sequencing, repetition, and variables in a programming language. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Communicate and explain your program development choices using comments, presentations, and demonstrations. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture.
(A)    Identify computing technologies that have changed the world, and express how those technologies influence, and are influenced by, cultural practices. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(B)    Identify possible problems andConsider users' backgrounds and ability levels and identify how computing devices have built inbuilt-in features for increasing accessibility to allthese users. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Social Interactions.
(A)    Develop a code of conduct, explain, and practice grade-level appropriate behavior and responsibilities while participating in an online community. Identify and report inappropriate behavior. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(B)    Identify how computational products artifacts may be, or have been, improved to incorporate diverse different perspectives. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(3)     Internet Safety, Law, and Ethics. Identify types of digital data that may have intellectual property rights that prevent copying or require attribution. (Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-204.  Computer Science standards for fourth grade
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. Select and use appropriate computing systems to perform a variety of tasks for an intended outcome while recognizing that users have different needs for the technology they use. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(12)     Hardware and Software. Model that information is translated, transmitted, and processed in order to flow through hardware and software. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(23)     Troubleshooting. Identify, using accurate terminology, simple hardware and software problems that may occur during everyday use; discuss problems with peers and adults; and apply strategies for solving these problems (e.g., rebooting the device, checking the power, force shut down of an application). (Communicating about Computing, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Explain how information is sent and received across physical or wireless paths. (e.g., itIt is broken down into smaller pieces called packets and transmitted from one location to another.) (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity. Identify and explain issues related to responsible use of technology and information, and describe personal consequences of inappropriate use. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. Choose different storage locations (physical, shared, or cloud) based on the type of file, storage requirements (file size, availability, available memory), and sharing requirements. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. Organize and present collected data visually to highlight comparisons. (Communicating About Computing)
(3)     Inference and Models. Determine how the accuracy of conclusions are influenced by the amount of data collected.Utilize data to create models, answer investigative questions, and make predictions. (Communicating About Computing)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. Model, Comparecompare, and refine multiple algorithms for the same task. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(2)     Variables. Create programs that use variables to store and modify grade level appropriate data. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Control. Create programs using a programming language that utilize sequencing, repetition, conditionals, and variables; using math operations manipulate variables to solve a problem or express ideas, both independently and collaboratively. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Modularity.
(A)    Decompose (break down) large problems into smaller, manageable subproblems to facilitate the program development process. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(B)    With grade appropriate complexity, modify, remix, or incorporate portions of an existing program into one's own work, to develop something new or add more advanced features. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(5)     Program Development.
(A)    Use an iterative process to plan the development of a program that includes user preferences while solving simple problems. (Creating Computational Artifacts, Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(B)    Observe intellectual property rights and give appropriate credit when creating or remixing programs. Creating programs using original code or code reuse. (Communicating About Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(C)    Analyze, create, and debug a program that includes sequencing, repetition, conditionals, and variables in a programming language. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Communicate and explain your program development choices using comments, presentations, and demonstrations. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture.
(A)    Give examples of computing technologies that have changed the world, and express how those technologies influence, and are influenced by, cultural practices. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(B)    Consider a variety of users' backgrounds and needs to Brainstormbrainstorm problems and ways to improve computing devices to increase accessibility. to all users. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Social Interactions.
(A)    Develop a code of conduct, explain, and practice grade-level appropriate behavior and responsibilities while participating in an online community. Identify and report inappropriate behavior. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(B)    As a team, consider each other's' perspectives on improving a computational productartifact. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(3)     Safety, Law, and Ethics. Discuss the social impact of violating intellectual property rights. (Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-205.  Computer Science standards for fifth grade
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. Select and use the most efficient computing systems to perform a variety of tasks for an intended outcome while recognizing that users have different needs for the technology they use. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(21)     Hardware and Software. Model that information is translated into bits in order to transmit and process between hardware and software to accomplish tasks. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(32)     Troubleshooting. Identify, using accurate terminology, simple hardware and software problems that may occur during everyday use. Discuss problems with peers and adults, apply strategies for solving these problems, and explain why the strategystrategies should work. (Communicating about Computing, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Model how information is broken down into packets (i.e., smaller pieces) and transmitted through multiple devices over networks and the Internet, and reassembled at the destination. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity. Discuss real-world cybersecurity problems and identify strategies for how personal information can be protected. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. Evaluate trade-offs, including availability and quality, based on the type of file, storage requirements (e.g., file size, availability, available memory), and sharing requirements. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. Organize and present collected data to highlight comparisons and support a claim. (Communicating About Computing)
(3)     Inference and Models. Use data to highlight or propose cause and effect relationships, predict outcomes, or communicate an idea.Determine how the accuracy of conclusions is influenced by the amount of data collected. (Communicating About Computing)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. Model, compareCompare, and refine multiple algorithms for the same task and determine which is most efficient. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems, Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(2)     Variables. Create programs that use variables to store and modify grade level appropriate data. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Control. Create programs using a programming language that utilize sequencing, repetition, conditionals, event handlers, and variables using math operations to manipulate values to solve a problem or express ideas, both independently and collaboratively. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Modularity.
(A)    Decompose (break down) large problems into smaller, manageable subproblems and then into a precise sequence of instructions. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(B)    With grade appropriate complexity, modify, remix, or incorporate portions of an existing program into one's own work, to develop something new or add more advanced features. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(5)     Program Development.
(A)    Use an iterative process to plan the development of a program that includes others' perspectives and user preferences while solving simple problems. (Creating Computational Artifacts, Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(B)    Observe intellectual property rights and give appropriate credit when creating or remixing programs.programs using original code or code reuse. (Communicating About Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(C)    Analyze, create, and debug a program that includes sequencing, repetition, conditionals, and variables in a programming language. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Communicate and explain your program development choices using comments, presentations, and demonstrations. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture.
(A)    Give examples and explain how computing technologies have changed the world, and express how computing technologies influence, and are influenced by, cultural practices. within your community. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(B)    Develop, test, and refine digital artifacts to improve accessibility and usability. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Social Interactions.
(A)    Develop a code of conduct, explain, and practice grade-level appropriate behavior and responsibilities while participating in an online community. Identify and report inappropriate behavior. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(B)    As a team, collaborate with outside resources (other grade levels, online collaborative spaces) to include diverse perspectives to improve computational products.
(3)     Internet Safety, Law, and Ethics. Observe intellectual property rights and give appropriate credit when using resources. (Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-206.  Computer Science standards for sixth grade
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. Evaluate existing computing devices and recommend improvements to the design based on analysis of personal interaction with the device. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(2)     Hardware and Software. Identify ways that Model multiple methods of combining hardware and software are combined to collect and exchange data. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Troubleshooting. Identify and resolve increasingly complex software and hardware problems with computing devices and their components involving settings and connections. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Model a simple protocol for transferring information using packets. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity.
(A)    Identify existing cybersecurity concerns with the Internet and systems it uses. (Communicating about Computing)
(B)    Explain the importance of secured websites and describe how one method of encryption works. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. Identify how the same data can be represented in multiple ways. Create multiple representations of the same data. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. Collect data using computational tools and transform the data to make it more useful. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Inference and Models. Use models and simulations to formulate, refine, and test hypotheses. Use data to highlight or propose cause-and-effect relationships, predict outcomes, and communicate ideas. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. Use an existing algorithm in natural language or pseudocode to solve complex problems. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Control. Develop programs that utilize combinations of repetition, conditionals, and the manipulation of variables representing different data types. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Modularity. Decompose problems into parts to facilitate the design, implementation, and review of programs. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Program Development.
(A)    Seek and incorporate feedback from team members to refine a solution to a problem. (Collaborating around Computing, Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(B)    Incorporate existing code, media, and libraries into original programs and give attribution. (Creating Computational Artifacts, Communicating About Computing, Developing and Using Abstractions)
(C)    Test and refine programs using teacher provided inputs. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Break down tasks and follow an individual timeline when developing a computational artifact. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(E)    Document text-based programs in order to make them easier to follow, test, and debug. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture.
(A)    Explain how computing impacts peoples' everyday activities and careers. (Communicating About Computing)
(B)    Identify and discuss the technology proficiencies needed in the classroom and the workplace, and how to meet the needs of diverse different users. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Social Interactions.
(A)    Describe and use safe, appropriate, and responsible practices (i.e., netiquette) when participating in online communities. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(B)    Individually and collaboratively develop and conduct an online survey that seeks input from a broad audience. Use the survey to evaluate whether it is feasible to solve a problem computationally. Describe and use safe, appropriate, and responsible practices (netiquette) when participating in online communities (e.g., discussion groups, blogs, social networking sites).
(3)     Internet Safety, Law, and Ethics. Differentiate between appropriate and inappropriate content on the Internet, and identify the characteristics of unethical and illegal online behavior online. (Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-207.  Computer Science standards for seventh grade
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. Evaluate existing computing devices and recommend improvements to the design based on analysis of how other users interact with the device. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(2)     Hardware and Software. Evaluate and recommend improvements to software and hardware combinations used to collect and exchange data. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Troubleshooting. Identify and fixresolve increasingly complex software and hardware problems with computing devices and their components utilizing strategies such as developing and analyzing flow diagrams. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Explain protocols and their importance to data transmission; model how a system responds when a packet is lost and the effect it has on the transferred information. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity.
(A)    Explain how to protect electronic information, both physical (e.g., hard drive) and digital; identify cybersecurity concerns and options to address issues with the Internet and the systems it uses. (Communicating About Computing)
(B)    Identify and explain two or more methods of encryption used to ensure and secure the transmission of information. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. Create and compare multiple representations of the same data. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. Collect data using computational tools and transform the data to make it more useful and reliable. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Inference and Models. Discuss the correctness accuracy of a model representing a system by comparing the model's generated results with observed data from the modeled system. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. Select and modify an existing algorithm in natural language or pseudocode to solve complex problems. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Control. Develop programs that utilize combinations of repetition, compound conditionals, and the manipulation of variables representing different data types. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Modularity. Decompose problems into parts to facilitate the design, implementation, and review of increasingly complex programs. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Program Development.
(A)    Seek and incorporate feedback from team members and users to refine a solution to a problem. (Collaborating Around Computing, Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(B)    Incorporate existing code, media, and libraries into original programs of increasing complexity and give attribution. (Creating Computational Artifacts, Communicating About Computing, Developing and Using Abstractions)
(C)    Test and refine programs using a variety of student created inputs. (Testing and refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Distribute tasks and maintain a project timeline when collaboratively developing computational artifacts. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(E)    Document text-based programs of increasing complexity in order to make them easier to follow, test, and debug. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture.
(A)    Explain how computing impacts innovation in other fields.Describe the trade-offs associated with computing technologies (e.g., automation), explaining their effects on economies and society. (Communicating About Computing)
(B)    Relate the distribution of computing resources in a global society to issues of equity, access, and power.Identify real-world problems in relation to the distribution of computing resources in society. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Social Interactions.
(A)    Describe and use safe, appropriate, and responsible practices (i.e., netiquette) when participating in online communities and evaluate how technology can be used to distort, exaggerate, and misrepresent information. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(B)    Individually and collaboratively use advanced tools to design and create online content (e.g., digital portfolio, multimedia, blog, web page). Describe and use safe, appropriate, and responsible practices (netiquette) when participating in online communities (e.g., discussion groups, blogs, social networking sites). (Collaborating Around Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Internet Safety, Law, and Ethics. ExplainModel the connection between the longevity of data on the internet, personal online identity, and personal privacy. (Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-208.  Computer Science standards for eighth grade
(a)     Computing Systems.
(1)     Devices. Develop and implement a process to evaluate existing computing devices and recommend improvements to the design based on analysis of how other users interact with the device. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(2)     Hardware and Software. Design and refine projects that combine hardware and software components to collect and exchange data. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Troubleshooting. Systematically identify, fix, resolve, and document increasingly complex software and hardware problems with computing devices and their components. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(b)     Networks and the Internet.
(1)     Network Communication and Organization. Explain protocols and their importance to data transmission; model how packets are broken down into smaller pieces and how they are delivered. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Cybersecurity.
(A)    Evaluate physical and digital procedures that could be implemented to protect electronic data/information; explain the impacts of hacking, ransomware, scams, fake scans, and ethical/legal concerns. cybersecurity threats and attacks. (Communicating About Computing)
(B)    Compare the advantages and disadvantages of multiple methods of encryption to model the secure transmission of information. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(c)     Data Analysis.
(1)     Storage. Analyze multiple methods of representing the same data and choose justify the most appropriate method for representing data. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. Develop, implement, and refine a process that utilizes computational tools to collect and transform data to make it more useful and reliable. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Inference and Models. Refine computational methods based on the data generated by the models. (Creating Computational Artifacts, Developing and Using Abstractions)
(d)     Algorithms and Programming.
(1)     Algorithms. Design algorithms in natural language, flow and control diagrams, comments within code, and/or pseudocode to solve complex problems. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(2)     Control. Develop programs that utilize combinations of nested repetitionloops, compound conditionals, procedures without parameters, and the manipulation of variables representing different data types. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Modularity. Decompose problems and subproblems into parts to facilitate the design, implementation, and review of complex programs. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(4)     Program Development.
(A)    Seek and incorporate feedback from team members and users to refine a solution to a problem that meets the needs of diversedifferent users. (Collaborating Around Computing, Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(B)    Incorporate existing code, media, and libraries into original programs of increasing complexity and give attribution. (Creating Computational Artifacts, Communicating About Computing, Developing and Using Abstractions)
(C)    Systematically test and refine programs using a range of student created inputs. (Testing and refining Computational Artifacts)
(D)    Explain how Model effective communication between participants is required for and demonstrate successful collaboration when developing computational artifacts. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(E)    Document text-based programs of increasing complexity in order to make them easier to follow, test, and debug. (Communicating About Computing)
(e)     Impacts of Computing.
(1)     Culture.
(A)    Describe the trade-offs associated with computing technologies (e.g., automation), explaining their effects on economies and global societies, and explore careers related to the field of computer science.Explore careers related to the field of computer science, and explain how computing impacts innovation in various career fields. (Communicating About Computing)
(B)    Evaluate and improve the design of existing technologies to meet the needs of diversedifferent users and increase accessibility and usability. Evaluate how technology can be used to distort, exaggerate, and misrepresent information. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(2)     Social Interactions.
(A)    Describe and use safe, appropriate, and responsible practices (i.e., netiquette) when participating in online communities and understand the impact of not using safe, appropriate, and responsible practices. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(B)    Communicate and publish key ideas and details individually or collaboratively in a way that informs, persuades, and/or entertains using a variety of digital tools and media-rich resources. Describe and use safe, appropriate, and responsible practices (netiquette) when participating in online communities (e.g., discussion groups, blogs, social networking sites). (Collaborating Around Computing, Creating Computational Artifacts)
(3)     Internet Safety, Law, and Ethics. Discuss the social impacts and ethical considerations associated with cybersecurity, including the positive and malicious purposes of hacking. (Communicating About Computing)
210:15-3-209.  Computer Science standards for high school
(a)     Standards for Level 1 (to be completed by the end of 10th grade).
(1)     Computing Systems.
(A)     Devices. Explain Model how abstractions hide the underlying implementation details of computing systems embedded in everyday objects. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(B)     Hardware and Software. Explain Analyze the interactions between application software, system software, and hardware. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(C)     Troubleshooting. Develop and apply criteria for systematic discovery of errors and systematic strategies for correction of errors in computing systems. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(2)     Networks and the Internet.
(A)     Network Communication and Organization. Evaluate the scalability and reliability of networks by identifying and illustrating the basic components of computer networks (e.g., routers, switches, servers, etc.) and network protocols (e.g., IP, DNS, etc.). (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(B)     Cybersecurity.
(i)    Compare physical and cybersecurity measures by evaluating trade-offs between the usability and security of a computing system. and the risks of an attack. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(ii)    Illustrate how sensitive data can be affected by attacks.
(iiiii)    Recommend security measures to address various scenarios based on information security principles. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(iviii)    Explain trade-offs when selecting and implementing cybersecurity recommendations from multiple perspectives such as the user, enterprise, and government. (Communicating About Computing)
(3)     Data Analysis.
(A)     Storage.
(i)    Translate Convert and compare different bit representations of data types, such as characters, numbers, and images. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(ii)    Evaluate the trade-offs in how data is organized and stored digitally. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(B)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation. Use tools and techniques to locate, collect, and create visualizations of small- and large-scale data sets (e.g., paper surveys and online data sets). (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(C)     Inference and Models. Show Illustrate and explain the relationships between collected data elements using computational models. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(4)     Algorithms and Programming.
(A)     Algorithms. Create a prototype that uses algorithms (e.g., searching, sorting, finding shortest distance) to provide a possible solution for a real-world problem. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(B)     Variables. Demonstrate the use of lists (e.g., arrays) to simplify solutions, generalizing computational problems instead of repeatedly using primitivesimple variables. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(C)     Control. Justify the selection of specific control structures (e.g., sequence, conditionals, repetition, procedures) considering program efficiencies such as readability, performance, and memory usage. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(D)     Modularity.
(i)    Break down a solutionDecompose problems into procedures using systematic analysis and design. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(ii)    Create computational artifacts by systematically organizing, manipulating, and/or processing data. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(E)     Program Development.
(i)    Create software by analyzing a problem and/or process, developing and documenting a solution, testing outcomes, and adapting the program for a variety of users. Create software that will provide solutions to a variety of users using a software development process. (Communicating About Computing)
(ii)    Define and classify Evaluate a variety of software licensing schemes (e.g., open source, freeware, commercial) and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each scheme in software development. (Communicating About and Collaborating Around Computing)
(iii)    While working in a team, develop, test, and refine event-based programs that solve practical problems or allow self-expression. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(iv)    Using visual aids and documentation, illustrate the design elements and data flow (e.g., flowcharts, pseudocode) of the development of a complex program. (Communicating About Computing)
(v)    Evaluate and refine computational artifacts to make them more user-friendly, efficient, and/or accessible. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(5)     Impacts of Computing.
(A)     Culture.
(i)    Evaluate the ways computing impacts personal, ethical, social, economic, and cultural practices. (Communicating About Computing)
(ii)    Test and refine computational artifacts to reduce bias and equity deficits.ensure access to a variety of user audiences. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(iii)    Demonstrate howways a given algorithm applies tocan help solve computational problems across disciplines. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(B)     Social Interactions. Demonstrate and debate how computing increases and decreases connectivity and communication among people of various cultures. (Collaborating Around Computing)
(C)     Internet Safety, Law, and Ethics.
(i)    ExplainDescribe the beneficial and harmful effects that intellectual property laws can have on innovation. (Communicating About Computing)
(ii)    ExplainDescribe and discuss the privacy concerns related to the large-scale collection and analysis of information about individuals (e.g., how businesses, social media, and the governmentwebsites collect and use data) that may not be evident to users. (Communicating About Computing)
(iii)    Evaluate the social and economic consequences of how law and ethics interact with digital aspects of privacy, data, property, information, and identity. (Communicating About Computing)
(b)     Standards for Level 2 (to be completed by the end of 12th grade).
(1)     Computing Systems.
(A)     Hardware and Software. Identify and categorize the roles of ana variety of operating system software. (Communicating About Computing)
(B)     Troubleshooting. IdentifyIllustrate how understanding the ways hardware components facilitate logic, input, output, and storage in computing systems will support troubleshooting. (Communicating About Computing)
(2)     Networks and the Internet.
(A)     Network Communication and Organization. Describe the issues that impact network functionality (e.g., bandwidth, load, latency, topology). (Communicating About Computing)
(B)     Cybersecurity. Compare and refine ways in which software developers protect devices and information from unauthorized access. (Communicating About Computing)
(3)     Data Analysis.
(A)     Collection, Visualization, and Transformation.
(i)    Use data analysis tools and techniques to identify patterns from complex real-world data. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(ii)    Generate data sets that use a variety of data collection tools and analysis techniques to support a claim and/or communicate information. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(B)     Inference and Models. Use models and simulations to help formulate,plan, conduct, and refine, and test scientific hypotheses. investigations. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(4)     Algorithms and Programming.
(A)     Algorithms.
(i)    DescribeModel and use appropriate terminology to describe how artificial intelligence algorithms drive many software and physical systems (e.g., autonomous robots, computer vision, pattern recognition, text analysis). (Communicating About Computing)
(ii)    Develop an artificial intelligence algorithm to play a game against a human opponent or solve a real-world problem. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(iii)    Critically examine and trace classic algorithms (e.g., selection sort, insertion sort, binary search, linear search). (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(iv)    Evaluate algorithms (e.g., sorting, searching) in terms of their efficiency and clarify. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(B)     Variables. Compare and contrast simple data structures and their uses (e.g., lists, stacks, queues).
(C)     Control. TraceModel the execution of repetition (e.g., loops, recursion) of an algorithm illustrating output and changes in values of named variables. (Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
(D)     Modularity.
(i)    Construct solutions to problems using student-created components (e.g., procedures, modules, objects). (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(ii)    Design or redesign a solution to a large-scale computational problem by identifying generalizable patterns. (Developing and Using Abstractions)
(iii)    Create programming solutions by reusing existing code (e.g., libraries, Application Programming Interface [APIs], code repositories). (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(E)     Program Development.
(i)    Create software that will provide solutions to a variety of users, using the software life cycle process. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(ii)    Design software in a project team environment using integrated development environments (IDEs), versioning systems, and collaboration systems. (Communicating About and Collaborating Around Computing)
(iii)    Develop programs for multiple computing platforms. (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(iv)    Systematically check examine code for correctness, usability, readability, efficiency, portability, and scalability through peer review.
(Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(v)    Develop and use a series of test cases to verify that a program performs according to its design specifications. (Testing and Refining Computational Artifacts)
(vi)    Explain security issues that might lead to compromised computer programs. (Communicating About Computing)
(vii)    Modify an existing program to add additional functionality and discuss intended and unintended implications (e.g., breaking other functionality). (Creating Computational Artifacts)
(5)     Impacts of Computing.
(A)     Culture.
(i)    Evaluate the beneficial and harmful effects that computational artifacts and innovations have on society. (Communicating About Computing)
(ii)    Evaluate the impact of equity, access, and influence location and user audience on the distribution of computing resources in a global society. (Developing a Productive Computing Environment)
(iii)    Design and implement a study that evaluates or predicts how computationcreating, testing, and refining computational artifacts has revolutionized an aspect of our culture and how it might evolve (e.g., education, healthcare, art/entertainment, energy). (Communicating About Computing)
(B)     Internet Safety, Law, and Ethics. Debate laws and regulations that impact the development and use of software. (Communicating About Computing, Recognizing and Defining Computational Problems)
[OAR Docket #23-718; filed 8-8-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 15.  Curriculum and Instruction
[OAR Docket #23-608]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 19. Driver Education
210:15-19-4. Teacher qualifications [AMENDED]
210:15-19-5. Reporting [AMENDED]
210:15-19-8. Summer programs [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 47 O.S. § 3-101
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule is part of a comprehensive update to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) Title 210 (State Department of Education) ensuring dated references to the Department of Public Safety's (DPS) Driver License Services Division be transferred to the Service Oklahoma division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services (OMES).
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 19.  Driver Education
210:15-19-4.  Teacher qualifications
     Each teacher assigned to teach Driver and Traffic Safety Education in an accredited high school must have:
(1)    A valid Oklahoma Secondary, Elementary-Secondary, Library Media Specialist, Speech-Language Pathology or Vocational Technical License/Certificate;
(2)    A credential in Driver and Traffic Safety Education;
(3)    A valid Oklahoma Driver's License as verified by the Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma;
(4)    The teacher shall meet the requirements in (1) and (2) of this subsection before the State Department of Education recommends to the State Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma that an instructor's permit be issued. The Instructor Certification, Assurances and Permit (ICAP) application shall be submitted to the State Aid Section. Provided the program meets all requirements and the teacher is properly qualified, the (ICAP) application will be forwarded to the Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma to consider the instructor's driving record and to issue or renew a current driver education instructor's permit.
210:15-19-5.  Reporting
     The State Aid Section of the State Department of Education will furnish all forms of the required reports. There must be on file with the State Aid Section at the State Department of Education:
(1)    A copy of the current Instructor Certification, Assurances and Permit (ICAP) application approved by both the State Department of Education and Department of Public Safety Service Oklahoma. Such approved application shall be prerequisite to any behind-the-wheel instruction. An approved application must be filed for the appropriate session(s) of the school year;
(2)    A copy of the Driver Education Application for Prior Year Reimbursement form shall be submitted to the State Department of Education to claim reimbursement. For reimbursement purposes, each student must receive 30 hours of classroom instruction and 6 hours of behind-the-wheel instruction.
(3)    Any other reports requested by the State Aid Section of the State Department of Education.
210:15-19-8.  Summer programs
(a)    Summer School Driver Education shall comply with rules and regulations for summer high school. Schools desiring Summer School Driver Education shall make application on forms furnished for this purpose. The application shall be properly completed and filed with the State Aid Section, State Department of Education.
(b)    The summer session must be in compliance with 210:15-19-7, Instructional Time Requirements, and rules and regulations for summer high school.
(c)    Application for Instructor Certification, Assurances and Permit (ICAP) must be filed on forms furnished for this purpose and approved by the State Aid Section of the State Department of Education and the State Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma before behind-the-wheel instruction begins.
[OAR Docket #23-608; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 15.  Curriculum and Instruction
[OAR Docket #23-609]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 35. English Language Learner Programs
210:15-35-1. Definitions [AMENDED]
210:15-35-2. Responsibilities of school districts [AMENDED]
210:15-35-3. Assessments [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule revises definitions and procedures of the Oklahoma English Learner Program (OELP) in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) Title 210 (State Department of Education) to reflect current standards in terminology and methodology reference impacted student groups such as English Language Learner (ELL) students.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 35.  English Language Learner Programs
210:15-35-1.  Definitions
     The following terms, when used in this subchapter and related State Department of Education materials, shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Bilingual" means a student whose Home Language Survey (HLS) indicates that a language other than English is spoken in the student's home, and:
(A)    The HLS indicates that a language other than English is spoken in the home "more often" than English; or
(B)    The HLS indicates that a language other than English is spoken in the home "less often" than English, and one of the following three factors applies:
(i)    The student scores 35% or below on the composite reading score on a norm-referenced test (NRT);
(ii)    The student scores "limited knowledge" or "unsatisfactory" on an Oklahoma Core Curriculum Test (OCCT) in reading; or
(iii)    The student is designated English Language Learner/Limited English Proficient on an Oklahoma English language proficiency test, including the WIDA ACCESS for English Language Learners Test, a WIDA Placement Test (K W-APT, W-APT, or Kindergarten MODEL), or the Oklahoma Pre-K Language Screening Tool.
(i)    The student's previous year Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) English Language Arts (ELA) test score was Basic or Below Basic or their College and Career Readiness Assessment (CCRA) (ACT or SAT) Reading subtest score was at or below the 35th percentile;
(ii)    The student has a recent, qualifying ELA/Reading score as measured by a state-approved, locally administered norm-referenced test (NRT). Note that qualifying NRT scores must be the most recently available and may not be used if obtained from an assessment administered prior to spring of the previous school year; or
(iii)    The student is designated English Language Learner/Limited English Proficient on an Oklahoma English language proficiency test, including the WIDA ACCESS for ELLs or Alternate ACCESS for ELLs assessment, the WIDA Screener for Kindergarten, the WIDA Screener, or WIDA MODEL assessment.
"Language Instruction Educational Plan" or "LIEP""English Language Academic Plan" or "ELAP" means an individualized education plan designed to address the specific needs of an ELL student.
"English Language Learner" means an individual:
(A)    Who is aged three (3) through twenty-one (21);
(B)    Who is enrolled or preparing to enroll in an elementary school or secondary school;
(C)    Who:
(i)    was not born in the United States or whose native language is a language other than English; or
(ii)    is a Native American or Alaska Native, and who comes from an environment where a language other than English has had a significant impact on the individual's level of English language proficiency; or
(iii)    is migratory, whose native language is a language other than English, and who comes from an environment where a language other than English is dominant; and
(D)    Whose difficulties in speaking, reading, writing, or understanding the English language may be sufficient to deny the individual
(i)    The ability to meet the state's proficient level of achievement on state assessments; or
(ii)    The ability to successfully achieve in classrooms where the language of instruction is English; or
(iii)    The opportunity to participate fully in society.
"Home Language Survey" (HLS) means a survey that must be conducted in regard to every student, which asks the following:
(A)    Is a language other than English used in the student's home?
(B)    If a language other than English is used in the student's home, is it spoken more often or less often than English?
(A)    What is the dominant language most often spoken by the student?
(B)    What is the language routinely spoken in the home, regardless of the language spoken by the student?
(C)    What language was first learned by the student?
"Immigrant children and youth" means individuals who:
(A)    Are aged three (3) through twenty-one (21);
(B)    Were not born in any U.S. state, the District of Columbia, or Puerto Rico; and
(C)    Have not been attending one or more schools in any U.S. state(s), the District of Columbia, or Puerto Rico for more than three (3) full academic years.
"Limited English proficient" means "English Language Learner", as defined in this section.
210:15-35-2.  Responsibilities of school districts
(a)     Identification of ELL students. Pursuant to federal law, school districts are required to implement procedures for identifying English Language Learner (ELL) students.
(1)     Timeframe. Identification, screening, and parental notification of ELL students eligible for language assistance services shall occur within thirty (30) days of the beginning of the school year. For students who transfer to a district during the school year, identification as an ELL student eligible for language assistance services and parental notification shall occur within two weeks of enrollment.
(2)     Home Language Survey. Each school is required to conduct a home language survey in regard to every student, which requests from the student's parent or guardian only the following information:
(A)    What the native language of the student is;
(B)    What language is spoken most often by the student; and
(C)    What language is spoken by the student in the home.
(A)    What is the dominant language most often spoken by the student?
(B)    What is the language routinely spoken in the home, regardless of the language spoken by the student?
(C)    What language was first learned by the student?
(3)     Screening tools.
(A)    A student in an early childhood education program whose Home Language Survey indicates that another language is spoken in the home, either "more often" or "less often" than English, shall be assessed using the ELL Pre-K Screening Tool. A student who scores 7/10 or higher on the Pre-K Screening Tool is deemed ineligible for language assistance services. A student who scores 6/10 or lower on the Pre-K Screening Tool is deemed eligible for language assistance services.
(B)    A kindergarten student or a student in the first semester of first grade whose Home Language Survey indicates that another language is spoken in the home, either "more often" or "less often" than English, shall be screened with the Kindergarten WIDA ACCESS Placement Test (W-APT). All Kindergarten students assessed with the W-APT qualify for language assistance services and should be given the ACCESS for ELLs annual assessment. A student in the first semester of first grade will qualify for services if they score a 28 or below on Listening/Speaking, a 12 or below on Reading, or a 14 or below on Writing.
(C)    A student in the second semester of first grade whose Home Language Survey indicates that another language is spoken in the home, either "more often" or "less often" than English, shall be screened with the W-APT (Cluster 1-2). A student in the second semester of first grade will qualify for services if they score a Grade Adjusted Composite Proficiency Level of 4.9 or below, or a Grade Adjusted Literacy Composite Proficiency Level of 4.4 or below.
(D)    A student in grades two (2) through twelve (12) whose Home Language Survey indicates that another language is spoken in the home, either "more often" or "less often" than English, shall be screened with the W-APT. A student in second through twelfth grade will qualify for services if they score a Grade Adjusted Composite Proficiency Level of 4.9 or below, or a Grade Adjusted Literacy Composite Proficiency Level of 4.4 or below.
(B)    Kindergarten 1st semester: Potential EL students are administered only the oral language domain (Speaking and Listening) section of the WIDA Screener for Kindergarten* or Kindergarten MODEL. A Composite/Overall score of 5.0 for WIDA Screener for Kindergarten* or 4.8 for Kindergarten MODEL or better is considered English Language Proficient/Not EL. A Composite/Overall score of 4.5 or below is considered Not English Language Proficient/EL.
(C)    Kindergarten 2nd semester through 1st semester 1st grade: Potential EL students are administered all four domains (Listening, Speaking, Reading, and Writing) of the WIDA Screener for Kindergarten* or Kindergarten MODEL. A Composite/Overall score of 5.0 for WIDA Screener for Kindergarten* or 4.8 for Kindergarten MODEL or better is considered English Language Proficient/Not EL. A Composite/Overall score of 4.5 or below is considered Not English Language Proficient/EL.
(D)    A student in the 2nd semester of 1st grade-12th grade whose Home Language Survey indicates that another language is spoken in the home, either "more often" or "less often" than English, shall be administered all four domains of the grade-appropriate WIDA Screener. A Composite/Overall score of 5.0 or better is considered English Language Proficient/Non-EL. A Composite/Overall score of 4.5 or below is considered Not English Proficient/EL.
(b)     English language acquisition programLanguage Instruction Education Program (LIEP). Every school district must provide an evidence-based English language acquisition program for students identified as ELLs. A school district may participate in a Title III consortium to provide an appropriate English language acquisition program Language Instruction Education Program (LIEP) to ELL students of member districts.
210:15-35-3.  Assessments
(a)     Inclusion of ELL students in state academic content assessments. An ELL student must be included in the state academic assessment system immediately upon enrollment, and shall participate in assessments administered under the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP). A student may not be excluded from participation in OSTP assessments based on English proficiency status, with the exception that an ELL student who has attended school in the United States for less than twelve (12) months may receive a one-time exemption for the OSTP Reading test in grades three (3) through eight (8), or the English EOI II/III. This one-time exception does not waive ACE graduation requirements.
(b)     Accommodations for ELL students taking state academic content assessments. While ELL students must participate in content assessments required under the OSTP, an ELL student may qualify for a test accommodation based on limited English proficiency. Test accommodations for ELL students may be either linguistic (direct) or nonlinguistic (indirect), and are intended to increase the likelihood that English Language Learners are tested on their knowledge of the subject content rather than their proficiency in English. Decisions concerning OSTP accommodations for an ELL student shall be made by the Language Instruction Educational Plan (LIEP)English Language Academic Plan (ELAP) committee, or the district or consortium equivalent.
(1)     Eligibility. An individual ELL student is eligible for testing accommodations only when all of the following factors apply:
(A)    The student has a primary language other than English and is not proficient in listening, speaking, reading, writing, or comprehension in an English-speaking classroom;
(B)    The student routinely uses the accommodation during classroom instruction and assessment in the subject, both before and after the OSTP test is administered;
(C)    The accommodation must be documented on the student's current LIEPELAP or locally designed equivalent plan;
(D)    The accommodation must be among those approved by the State Department of Education; and
(E)    The student requires the accommodation in order to participate in OSTP testing.
(2)     Impermissible accommodations. An ELL test accommodation may not:
(A)    Alter, explain, simplify, paraphrase, or eliminate any test question, reading passage, writing prompt, or multiple-choice answer option;
(B)    Provide verbal clues or other suggestions that hint at or give away the correct response to the student; or
(C)    Contradict test administration requirements or result in the violation of test security, including but not limited to modifying, reordering, or reformatting test questions or altering, enlarging, or duplicating tests.
(c)     Accommodations for ELL students with disabilities. For an ELL student who is also identified as a student with disabilities, any testing accommodations other than the ELL supports addressed in subsection (b) must be based on the student's disability and documented in the student's IEP or Section 504 Plan.
(d)     English language proficiency assessments. The English language proficiency of every ELL student shall be assessed annually using the ACCESS for ELLs test, which shall measure ELL students' oral language, reading, and writing skills in English. Any testing accommodations provided to an ELL student with a disability must be based on the student's disability and documented in the student's IEP or Section 504 Plan.
[OAR Docket #23-609; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 20.  Staff
[OAR Docket #23-610]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 18. Advanced, Lead, and Master Teachers
210:20-18-1. LeadAdvanced, lead, and master teaching certificates [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 6-190
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule implements a renewal schedule and associated fees for each of the three district-designated teaching certificates authorized by 70 O.S. § 6-190. Additionally, the rule allows a teacher no longer meeting requirements for a designated certificate to apply for a standard certificate. The rule also incorporates the salary and one-time payment requirements into contract requirements.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 18.  Advanced, lead, and Master Teachers
210:20-18-1.  Advanced, lead, and master teaching certificates
(a)     Purpose. Pursuant to Senate Bill 980 (2018)House Bill 4388 (2022), twothree advanced classes of teacher certification, an advanced teaching certificate, a lead teaching certificate, and a master teaching certificate, are available to applicants who meet the statutory criteria and make application to the State Board of Education.
(b)     Effect of advanced, lead, or master certification status on school districts. Because a teacher certified as eitheran advanced teacher, a lead teacher, or a master teacher is subject to contract requirements under 70 O.S. § 6-190 in addition to those that apply to a teacher with standard certification, a school district shall consider the school district obligations to teachers who hold aan advanced, lead, or master teaching certificate when recommending a teacher for advanced certification, and when entering an employment contract with such a teacher. If a person who holds aan advanced, lead, or master teaching certificate changes school districts during the validity period of the certificate, the terms of the contracts required under 70 O.S. § 6-190 shall be subject to approval by the new employing school district.
(1)     School board recommendation for advanced, lead, or master teaching certificate. In order for a teacher to be eligible for aan advanced, lead, or master teacher certificate, the board of education of the teacher's employing school district must submit a recommendation to the State Board of Education indicating that the local board has determined the applying teacher's eligibility under the statutory criteria and is in favor of the teacher's advanced certification. The school district that recommends a teacher for an advanced, lead, or master teacher certification will be responsible for meeting the contract requirements associated with the advanced certification beginning with the school yearsemester following submission of the application.
(2)     Contract requirements for advanced, lead, and master teachers. In addition to the contract requirements applicable to all certified teachers employed by Oklahoma public school districts, the following additional terms apply to the advanced certification classes:
(A)     Advanced teachers. The contract of an advanced teacher shall provide for an additional five (5) days to be used to strengthen instructional leadership, as well as a salary supplement of at least three thousand dollars ($3,000) or the district's daily rate of pay, whichever is higher, in addition to the salary the teacher is entitled to under 70 O.S. § 18-114.14. If the relevant school or school district satisfies the criteria of 70 O.S. § 6-190(I)(2), the contract of an advanced teacher shall also provide for a one-time award of $1,500.
(AB)     Lead teachers. An individual who holds a lead teaching certificate may have a teaching load of not more than seventy-five percent (75%) student instruction to allow the teacher to mentor other teachers. The contract of a lead teacher shall provide for an additional ten (10) days to be used to strengthen instructional leadership, as well as a salary supplement of at least threefive thousand dollars ($3,000)($5,000) or the district's daily rate of pay, whichever is higher, in addition to the salary the teacher is entitled to under 70 O.S. § 18-114.14. If the relevant school or school district satisfies the criteria of 70 O.S. § 6-190(I)(2), the contract of a lead teacher shall also provide for a one-time award of $2,500.
(BC)     Master teachers. An individual who holds a master teaching certificate may have a teaching load of not more than fifty percent (50%) student instruction to allow the master teacher to spend time on co-teaching, co-planning, peer reviews, and other duties mutually agreed on by the district superintendent and the master teacher. The contract of a master teacher shall provide for an additional fifteen (15) days to be used to strengthen leadership, as well as a salary supplement of at least five ten thousand dollars ($5,000)($10,000) or the district's daily rate of pay, whichever is higher, in addition to the salary the teacher is entitled to under 70 O.S. § 18-114.14. If the relevant school or school district satisfies the criteria of 70 O.S. § 6-190(I)(2), the contract of an advanced teacher shall also provide for a one-time award of $5,000.
(c)     Criteria for advanced, lead, or master teaching certificatecertificates. The State Board of Education shall issue aan advanced, lead, or master teaching certificate to any person who upon application:
(1)    Has a minimum of five (5) years of experience as a teacher, as reflected in the official record of teacher experience maintained by the State Department of Education Office of School Personnel Records;
(2)    Participates in a meaningful individualized program of professional development as provided for in 70 O.S. § 6-101.10;
(3)    Has earned a "highly effective" or "superior" rating on their most recent district evaluation conducted pursuant to 70 O.S. § 6-101.16; and
(41)    Has been recommended by their employing school district for leadan advanced, lead, or master teacher certification.certificate;
(2)    Meets the eligibility criteria for the certificate provided for in 70 O.S. § 6-190.
(d)     Criteria for master teaching certificate. The State Board of Education shall issue a master teaching certificate to any person who upon application:
(1)    Has a minimum of seven (7) years of experience as a teacher;
(2)    Has either:
(A)    Earned a "superior" rating on their most recent district evaluation conducted pursuant to 70 O.S. § 6-101.16; or
(B)    Earned a "highly effective" rating on their most recent district evaluation conducted pursuant to 70 O.S. § 6-101.16 and holds or has held National Board certification; and
(3)    Has been recommended by their employing school district for master teacher certification.
(ed)     Fees and renewal schedule for lead and master teaching certificates. The application fee for aan advanced teaching certificate, a lead teaching certificate, or a master teaching certificate shall be the same as the fee for a standard teaching certificate as established in Oklahoma Administrative Code 210:20-9-9. The validity period of aan advanced teaching certificate,a lead teaching certificate, or a master teaching certificate shall be the same as the validity period of a standard teaching certificate as established in Oklahoma Administrative Code 210:9-9-94. Renewal procedures and timelines for aan advanced teaching certificate, a lead teaching certificate, or a master teaching certificate shall be the same as those established for a standard teaching certificate in Oklahoma Administrative Code 210:20-9-96,.with the additional requirement that a lead teaching certificate may only be renewed if the teacher received a "superior" or "highly effective" rating on their most recent district evaluation, and a master teaching certificate may only be renewed if the teacher received either a "superior" rating on their most recent district evaluation, or received a "highly effective" rating and holds or has held a National Board certification.
(fe)     Standard certification available to advanced, lead, or master teacherteachers who no longer meetsmeet requirements. An individual who holds aan advanced teaching certificate, lead teaching certificate, or a master teaching certificate may obtain a standard teaching certificate if they no longer meet the requirements for the advanced certification, or no longer wish to hold the advanced certification. Upon receipt of a written request for standard certification from an individual who holds aan advanced, lead or master teaching certificate, the State Department of Education shall issue a standard teaching certificate with a validity period that ends on the same date as the advanced, lead, or master teaching certificate currently held by the individual. Upon issuance of the standard teaching certificate, the advanced teaching certificate, lead teaching certificate, or master teaching certificate previously held by the individual shall be deemed void. AAn advanced teacher, lead teacher, or master teacher who returns to standard teaching certification is responsible for notifying the school district(s) where they are currently employed, as well as any district with which a contract has been entered for the following school year, of their change in certification class.
[OAR Docket #23-610; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 20.  Staff
[OAR Docket #23-611]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 19. Local Professional Development Programs
210:20-19-6. Professional Development programs for early childhood educators and administrators [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 11-103.2a
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule outlines recommended guidelines for the content and focus areas of Professional Development (PD) programs for early childhood educators and administrators, to include an emphasis on play-based learning.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 19.  Local Professional Development Programs
210:20-19-6.  Professional Development programs for early childhood educators and administrators
(a)    Professional Development programs for early childhood educators and administrators should focus on the importance of child-centered, play-based learning as the most rigorous and most developmentally appropriate way for children in the early childhood grade levels to learn literacy, science, technology, engineering, art and math academic concepts. Such programs can include, but should not be limited to, asynchronous or synchronous virtual learning, in-person training, or on-going mentoring and support.
(b)    The Professional Development should:
(1)    Highlight the importance of play in the early grades.
(2)    Provide research to support the use of play-based learning as a way to develop student's academic and personal skills.
(3)    Include research on the impact of play on the developing brain.
(4)    Include pedagogical concepts, such as:
(A)    Types of play and the continuum of play-based learning.
(B)    Defining the teacher role before, during, and after play.
(C)    Intentional planning for playful learning experiences.
(D)    Connecting academic standards to play.
(E)    Creating an environment conducive for playful learning.
[OAR Docket #23-611; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 20.  Staff
[OAR Docket #23-612]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 37. Adjunct Teachers
210:20-37-2. Adjunct teachers [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 6-122.3; 70 O.S. § 17-101
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This repeals the 270 clock hours per semester cap on classroom teaching for adjunct teachers and clarifies that adjunct teachers are authorized to have work hours count towards retirement benefits, as is allowable for all other "Nonclassified optional personnel" employed by a school district.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 37.  Adjunct Teachers
210:20-37-2.  Adjunct teachers
     Rules which pertain to adjunct teachers are:
(1)    The local school district shall determine the specific qualifications, duties, and responsibilities of adjunct teachers.
(2)    The employment of persons to serve as adjunct teachers shall be approved by the local board of education.
(3)    The local district shall request a felony record search of any person approved for adjunct employment.
(4)    Formal notification of the employment of adjunct teachers shall be provided to the State Department of Education within thirty (30) days of the date of employment.
(5)    Adjunct teachers shall be limited to two hundred seventy (270) clock hours of classroom teaching per semester.
(65)    For individuals who do not hold a valid Oklahoma teaching certificate, hours taught while serving as an adjunct teacher shall not count towards teaching experience or recency for purposes of meeting certification or recertification requirements, tenure, or retirement benefits, or for placement on the state minimum salary schedule. For individuals who hold a valid Oklahoma teaching certificate, hours taught while serving as an adjunct teacher may apply toward teaching experience and recency under the experience accrual guidelines of 210:25-3-4(b).
(76)    Salary for an uncertified individual employed as an adjunct teacher shall be established by the school district. Salary for a certified individual who serves as an adjunct teacher shall be the amount the individual would be entitled to on the state minimum salary schedule if they were serving as a full-time teacher, pro-rated to the number of hours taught.
(87)    Adjunct teachers employed to coach school athletic teams shall have successfully completed a course in the care and prevention of athletic injuries.
[OAR Docket #23-612; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 30.  School Facilities and Transportation
[OAR Docket #23-613]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Transportation
210:30-5-8. School bus driver certification [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 47 O.S. § 3-101
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule is part of a comprehensive update to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) Title 210 (State Department of Education) ensuring dated references to the Department of Public Safety's (DPS) Driver License Services Division be transferred to the Service Oklahoma division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services (OMES).
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Transportation
210:30-5-8.  School bus driver certification
(a)     General criteria.
(1)    Pursuant to the authority granted to the State Board of Education in 70 O.S. § 3-104(6) to regulate school bus drivers and 47 O.S. § 15-109, no board of education shall have authority to enter into any written contract with a school bus driver who does not hold a valid Oklahoma School Bus Driver's Certificate issued by the State Board of Education authorizing said bus driver to operate a school bus within the State of Oklahoma.
(2)    In order to obtain and maintain a standard Oklahoma School Bus Driver's Certificate, the State Board of Education requires all public school bus drivers to:
(A)    Successfully complete a school bus driver training course approved by the State Department of Education;
(B)    Possess and maintain a valid Commercial Driver's License (CDL), which includes the following endorsements required by 47 O.S. § 6-110.1 in accordance with the qualifications determined by the Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma:
(i)    A school bus "S" endorsement; and
(ii)    For drivers of vehicles designed to transport sixteen (16) or more passengers (including the driver), a passenger "P" endorsement; and
(C)    Comply with all other health and safety qualifications set forth in this Section.
(3)    No school district board of education shall assign or allow to be assigned any school bus driving duty involving the transportation of students to any employee or volunteer, regardless of contract status (e.g. coach, teacher, mechanic), unless that person has all required supporting documentation required for school bus drivers on file with the school district and a valid Oklahoma State Department of Education School Bus Driving Certificate as provided for in this section.
(4)    The State Board of Education recognizes the substantial public interest in safe school bus transportation of children. Therefore, in addition to meeting the vision standards required to obtain a CDL from the Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma, in order to obtain a standard or emergency Oklahoma School Bus Driver's Certificate, all school bus drivers must have:
(A)    A visual acuity of not less than twenty-forty (20/40) (Snellen) in each eye with or without corrective lenses; and
(B)    Not less than twenty-forty (20/40) (Snellen) with both eyes with or without corrective lenses; and
(C)    A minimum field of vision of 70 degrees horizontal median vision in each eye.
(5)    The use of tobacco by a school bus driver is not permitted during the operation of the bus while hauling pupils. The use of any intoxicating or non-intoxicating alcoholic beverage by the driver eight (8) hours prior to or during the operation of a school bus is strictly prohibited. The use of any controlled dangerous substance seventy-two (72) hours prior to or during the operation of a school bus is strictly prohibited. The possession of any controlled dangerous substance on a school bus is strictly prohibited.
(6)    All school bus drivers shall have an annual health certificate signed by a physician licensed by any state within the United States of America (U.S.), or a nurse or physician assistant who is licensed to practice in any state within the U.S. and who is working under the supervision of a medical doctor (MD) or doctor of osteopathy (DO) licensed by any state within the U.S. A school bus driver who is a veteran of the United States Armed Forces may submit a health certificate signed by a licensed physician of the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Veterans Health Administration. The certificate shall be filed in the office of the chief administrative officer of the local school district or designee of the chief administrative officer attesting that such physician, or other authorized health care professional working under the supervision of a physician, has examined the applicant and that the applicant has no sign or symptoms of ill health, and is otherwise, from the observation of such physician or other authorized health care professional, physically and mentally capable of safely operating a school bus. As an alternative to the annual physical examination requirements for school bus drivers, school districts may adopt a policy that utilizes a biannual physical examination, provided the examination is in compliance with the physical qualifications and examination requirements at Subpart E of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations, 49 CFR §§ 391.41 to 391.50.
(7)    Substitute and activity school bus drivers shall meet all the requirements prescribed for regular bus drivers.
(8)    At a minimum, the chief administrative officer of the local school district or designee of the chief administrative officer shall conduct an annual driving record check of all school bus drivers, including substitute and activity drivers. The Oklahoma State Department of Education shall be immediately notified of any violation(s) that make a school bus driver ineligible to hold an Oklahoma School Bus Driver's Certificate.
(9)    The State Board of Education shall revoke the bus driver's certificate of any holder who fails to comply with the provisions of this Section.
(10)    School districts who fail to comply with the provisions of this section shall be subject to penalty pursuant to 210:30-5-2.
(b)     School bus driver certificate requirements.
(1)    The chief administrative officer of the local school district or designee of the chief administrative officer shall certify to the State Department of Education that each applicant submitted for Standard Five-Year Certification:
(A)    Is at least 18 years of age;
(B)    Has successfully completed a special school bus drivers' course approved by the State Department of Education;
(C)    Holds a valid Commercial Drivers license (CDL) appropriate for the type of vehicle driven with the proper endorsements required by the Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma;
(D)    Has not been convicted of a felony, or pled guilty or nolo contendere to a felony during the last ten years; and
(E)    Has passed a driving record check, and no certificate shall be issued to any person who, within the preceding three (3) years:
(i)    Has had a license suspended or revoked, canceled or withdrawn pursuant to the Implied Consent Laws at 47 O.S. § 751 et seq.;
(ii)    Has a conviction for a violation of 47 O.S. § 11-902 which includes driving, operating or being in actual physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or any intoxicating drug;
(iii)    Has been convicted or plead guilty to a violation of 47 O.S. § 761, operating a motor vehicle while impaired by consumption of alcohol;
(iv)    Has been convicted of any municipal violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs or operating a motor vehicle while impaired or being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle while impaired; or
(v)    Has had four (4) or more traffic violations (excluding parking violations).
(2)    The chief administrative officer of the local school district or designee of the chief administrative officer shall certify to the State Department of Education that the applicant for an Emergency One-Year School Bus Driver Certificate (Not Renewable):
(A)    Is at least 18 years of age;
(B)    Holds a valid Commercial Driver's License with the proper endorsements required by the Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma; and
(C)    Has passed a driving record check and meets the requirements set forth in (1)(D)-(E) of this subsection.
(3)    Requirements for Renewal of the Standard Five-Year Certificate include:
(A)    Every five (5) years, each driver shall have successfully completed four (4) hours per year of inservice training approved by the State Department of Education;
(B)    The chief administrative officer of the local school district or designee of the chief administrative officer shall certify to the State Department of Education that the applicant meets all requirements for standard certification; [47 O.S. § 15-109]
(C)    Each applicant has a health certificate on file signed by a licensed physician, or a nurse or physician assistant who is licensed to practice in any state within the U.S. and who is working under the supervision of a medical doctor (MD) or doctor of osteopathy (DO), and meets all vision requirements;
(D)    Each applicant has not been convicted or pled guilty to a felony in the last ten (10) years;
(E)    The applicant's driving record has been checked and meets all other State Board of Education requirements for certification; and
(F)    Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph, in order to renew any school bus driver certificate which has been expired for more than one year, a driver must successfully complete a renewal course approved by the State Department of Education. Such a course must, at a minimum, include topics on:
(i)    Railroad crossings;
(ii)    Emergency evacuation procedures;
(iii)    Mirror placement;
(iv)    Pick-up and drop-off procedures;
(v)    Sound driving practices; and
(vi)    Accident procedures.
(4)    During the period that the application for issuance of a new or renewed school bus driver certificate is pending, applicants must immediately notify the State Department of Education Transportation Section of any arrest, citation, or conviction of any disqualifying offense set forth in (1)(E) of this subsection; any moving violation; or any involvement in a traffic accident.
(c)     Certification of drivers with a monocular vision condition.
(1)    Individuals who wish to obtain an Oklahoma School Bus Driver's Certificate and meet all other requirements of this Section, but cannot meet the vision requirements in (a)(3) of this Section in both eyes due to the presence of a monocular vision condition, may obtain an exemption from the vision requirements of (a)(3) of this Section by providing evidence showing that Applicant is exempt from the requirements of 49 C.F.R. § 391.41, has fully adapted to the monocular vision condition, and is capable of safely operating a school bus for the purpose of transporting school children. Such evidence must consist of documentation for each one of the following:
(A)    Documentation establishing that Applicant's vision condition has been present and unchanged for three years or more prior to the application for an exemption from the vision requirements of (a)(3) of this Section;
(B)    Documentation establishing that Applicant has experience in safely operating a Commercial Motor Vehicle with the monocular vision condition within the three (3) year period immediately preceding the date of the application for an exemption from the vision requirements of (a)(3) of this Section; and
(C)    One of the following:
(i)    An authority letter issued by the Applicant's CDL licensing jurisdiction qualifying the individual as exempt from the vision requirements of 49 C.F.R. § 391.41; or
(ii)    A letter or waiver issued by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) documenting that the applicant has received a waiver from the vision requirements of 49 C.F.R. § 391.41.
(2)    Documentation of the evidence required by (1)(A) of this subsection shall consist of documentation for each one of the following:
(A)    Applicant must have been examined by a licensed ophthalmologist or optometrist within sixty (60) days prior to obtaining the Commercial Driver License and within one year of applying for the State Department of Education monocular vision exemption. Applicant must provide the State Department of Education a copy of official documentation of the vision examination from the Applicant's CDL licensing jurisdiction.
(B)    In addition, if not included on the official documentation of the vision exam, Applicant must submit additional documentation, in which a licensed ophthalmologist or optometrist identifies and describes:
(i)    The nature of the vision deficiency, including how long the individual has had the deficiency;
(ii)    The date of the examination;
(iii)    Whether the applicant's vision is stable;
(iv)    The visual acuity of each eye, corrected and uncorrected;
(v)    The field of vision of each eye, including central and peripheral fields, testing to at least 120 in the horizontal. (Formal perimetry is required. The doctor must submit the formal perimetry test for each eye and interpret the results in degrees of field of vision.);
(vi)    Whether the applicant has the ability to recognize the colors of traffic control signals and devices showing red, green, and amber; and
(vii)    The ophthalmologist/optometrist's medical opinion as to whether the individual has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a school bus.
(3)    Documentation of the evidence required by (1)(B) of this subsection shall consist of each of the following:
(A)    Applicant must provide documentation of experience in operating a commercial motor vehicle (as defined by 47 O.S. §§ 1-107.1, 1-107.2, or 1-107.3) while the Applicant has a monocular vision condition for the three (3) year period immediately preceding the date of this application which includes the following information:
(i)    For any applicant employed as a driver of a commercial motor vehicle, the DOT # or ICC# of Applicant's employer(s); for any applicant with driving experience as an independent motor carrier, a list of names, addresses, and phone numbers of customers for whom Applicant performed transportation services through the operation of a commercial motor vehicle on public highways;
(ii)    A list of all dates (month/date/year) during the three (3) year period for which Applicant performed services driving and/or operating a commercial motor vehicle, and the number of hours driven per week; and
(iii)    A list of all types of commercial motor vehicles operated by Applicant and gross vehicle weight rating ("GVWR") of each vehicle operated by Applicant;
(B)    Acceptable forms of required documentation of the Applicant's driving experience described in (3) of this paragraph may include either:
(i)    A signed, notarized statement from the individual's present or past employer(s) on company letterhead; or
(ii)    An affidavit by the Applicant.
(C)    Applicant shall provide the State Department of Education with a Motor Vehicle Report demonstrating that applicant's driving record during the three (3) year period prior to the date the application is filed:
(i)    Contains no suspensions or revocations of Applicant's driver's license for the operation of any motor vehicle (including Applicant's personal vehicle);
(ii)    Contains no record of involvement in an accident involving negligence attributable to the monocular vision condition;
(iii)    Contains no record of a serious traffic offense attributable to the monocular vision condition (e.g., erratic unsafe lane changes, following too closely, etc.)
(4)    Individuals who receive the vision exemption to drive a bus for an accredited school in Oklahoma must submit to their employer a copy of the documentation required by (1)(C) of this subsection.
(d)     Certification of drivers with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.
(1)    Any person with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin by injection shall not be eligible for a school bus certificate unless the individual meets all other requirements of (a) and (b) of this Section, and the individual possesses and maintains either:
(A)    An authority letter issued by Applicant's CDL licensing jurisdiction qualifying the individual as exempt from the physical requirements of 49 C.F.R. § 391.41; or
(B)    A letter or waiver issued by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) documenting that the applicant has received a waiver from the physical requirements of 49 C.F.R. § 391.41.
(2)    Upon hire, exempted individuals will be required to agree to and comply with the following conditions:
(A)    Blood glucose levels shall be self-monitored one (1) hour prior to driving and at least once every four (4) hours while driving a school bus or on duty by using a portable glucose monitoring device with a computerized memory, and take corrective action if necessary;
(B)    The individual shall maintain blood glucose logs, three months from the current date (or the date that insulin use began, whichever is shorter).
(i)    If the employing district has cause to require a medical evaluation as authorized by (5) of this subsection, logs maintained pursuant to this subsection must be provided to the board certified medical doctor (MD) or doctor of osteopathy (DO) treating the individual.
(ii)    Blood glucose logs must be created by an electronic blood glucose meter that stores every reading, records date and time of reading, and from which data can be downloaded and printed.
(C)    The individual shall carry a source of rapidly absorbable glucose at all times while operating a school bus; and
(D)    The individual shall meet the annual physical examination requirements for drivers with metabolic diseases set forth by the Department of Public SafetyService Oklahoma in OAC 595:10-5OAC 260:135-5-50.
(E)    The individual shall notify the Department of Public Safety and the State Department of Education of any changes in physical or mental ailments or conditions which may cause loss of control or partial control or may otherwise render the individual incapable of properly controlling a school bus.
(3)    Superintendents or their designees who hire individuals who hold a diabetes exemption certification must keep on file in a separate medical record:
(A)    A current copy of the diabetes exemption certificate of the individual;
(B)    The contact information of the board certified medical doctor (MD) or doctor of osteopathy (DO) who is treating the individual;
(C)    Record of the annual medical certification issued by the board certified medical doctor (MD) or doctor of osteopathy (DO) pursuant to (1)(B) of this subsection; and
(D)    Copies of any medical certifications obtained pursuant to (5) of this subsection.
(4)    An individual holding a diabetes exemption certificate shall immediately notify the superintendent (or the superintendent's designee) of the school district in which the individual is employed if the individual's blood glucose level is outside of a range of 100 mg/dl to 400 mg/dl one (1) hour prior to driving. Upon receipt of such notice, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall not allow the individual holding the diabetes exemption certificate to drive. If the individual's blood glucose level is below 100 mg/dl or above 400 mg/dl, then the driver cannot operate a school bus or transport school children as an employee of any school district until the blood glucose measure is within the target range.
(5)    In the event an individual holding a diabetes exemption is involved in an incident directly caused by the individual's diabetic condition, the individual cannot operate a school bus or transport school children as an employee of any school district until the individual has been certified in writing as medically able to safely resume work related duties by the certified medical doctor (MD) or doctor of osteopathy (DO) by whom they are being treated.
[OAR Docket #23-613; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 35.  Standards for Accreditation of Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
[OAR Docket #23-614]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Standards for Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
Part 11. Standard VI: Student Services
210:35-3-106. Guidance and counseling services [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 11-105.1; 25 O.S. §§ 2001-2005
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule authorizes a student's parent/guardian to voluntarily disclose if a student has recently received inpatient or emergency outpatient mental health services upon enrollment in an Oklahoma school district. Designated school personnel are required to meet with the parent or guardian to develop a plan to best meet the student's mental health needs while remaining compliant with both the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 (FERPA) and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA).
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Standards for Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
PART 11.  STANDARD VI: STUDENT SERVICES
210:35-3-106.  Guidance and counseling services
(a)    The counseling staff, parents, administrators, and others shall provide guidance and counseling program direction through involvement in assessment and identification of student needs.
(b)    The school shall develop a written description of an outcomes-based (competency) guidance and counseling program with special provisions for at-risk students. The program shall address assessed needs of all students, including those who are identified as at-risk, and shall establish program goals, objectives, and an evaluation.
(c)    Each school shall provide an organized program of guidance and counseling services.
(1)    Counseling services shall be provided to students, in group or individual settings, that facilitate understanding of self and environment.
(2)    The counseling services shall provide a planned sequential program of group guidance activities that enhance student self-esteem and promote the development of student competence in the academic, personal/social, and career/vocational areas.
(3)    The provider of counseling services shall consult with staff members, parents, and community resources and make appropriate referrals to other specialized persons, clinics, or agencies in the community.
(4)    Counseling and guidance services shall be coordinated and shall work cooperatively with other school staff, parents, community resources, and other educational entities.
(d)    Each counselor shall follow a planned calendar of activities based on established program goals and provide direct and indirect services to students, teachers, and/or parents.
(e)    Beginning with the 2023-2024 school year, prior to annual enrollment of a new or returning student, the parent or legal guardian of a student may disclose to the student's resident district, as determined by Section 1-113 of Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes, if the student has received inpatient or emergency outpatient mental health services from a mental health facility in the previous twenty-four (24) months. For the purposes of this section, "mental health facility" shall have the same meaning as Section 5-502 of Title 43A of the Oklahoma Statutes.
(1)    If a disclosure provided occurs, designated school personnel, which may include members of the individualized education program (IEP) team, shall meet with the parent or legal guardian of the student and representatives of the mental health facility prior to enrollment to determine whether the student is in need of any accommodations including but not limited to an IEP in accordance with the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) or a Section 504 Plan as defined by the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. The meeting required by this section may take place in person, via teleconference, or via videoconference.
(2)    The disclosure and subsequent handling of personal health information and related student education records pursuant to this section shall comply with the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 (FERPA) and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA).
[OAR Docket #23-614; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 35.  Standards for Accreditation of Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
[OAR Docket #23-615]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Standards for Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
Part 13. Standard VII: The Media Program
210:35-3-121. Statement of the standard [AMENDED]
210:35-3-121.1. Definitions. [NEW]
210:35-3-126. Collection requirements and penalty for noncompliance [AMENDED]
210:35-3-128. Evaluation [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 17, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
APPROVED BY GOVERNOR’S DECLARATION:
Approved by Governor's declaration on June 23, 2023
FINAL ADOPTION:
June 23, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule prohibits school libraries from making pornographic materials or sexualized content available to minors. To facilitate the prohibition, this rule requires school districts to annually report a list of books and other materials available in their school libraries, either through a public online catalog or through a list reported to the Department. This rule also mandates that school districts have a written policy for reviewing library materials and for responding to complaints. The rule requires the State Board of Education to lower the accreditation status of any school district found in willful noncompliance. Lastly, the rule specifically outlines the procedures for reporting, investigating, and determining noncompliance in a manner that empowers parents while ensuring due process for school districts.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Standards for Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
PART 13.  STANDARD VII: THE MEDIA PROGRAM
210:35-3-121.  Statement of the standard
(a)     Mission of school library media program. The mission of the media program is to assist students and teachers in becoming effective users of ideas and information. Emphasis is placed on the development of skills necessary for independent lifelong learning. To that end, schools shall provide an effective library media program through the employment of qualified staff and the acquisition of library media materials sufficient to meet the instructional needs of the staff and students. One centralized library media center can serve two or more organizational units if the units are housed at one site. The library media program is to be based on the combined enrollment and standards for the highest grade unit served.
(b)     Prohibition on Pornographic material and Sexualized content in library media program. The State Board of Education recognizes its duty and responsibility to protect minor students from accessing Pornographic materials and Sexualized content and will implement this duty by exercising the State Board of Education's authority to adopt policies and make rules for public schools. Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104(A)(1).
210:35-3-121.1.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Part (13), shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Library" means a school library, media program, a classroom library, or any other collection of books or other materials, print or digital, that are maintained by a School district or its employees for use by students and that do not qualify as textbooks within the jurisdiction of the State Textbook Committee under 70 O.S. §§ 16-101-16-124.
"Parent" means the natural or adoptive parent of legal guardian of a minor child.
"Pornographic" means:
(A)    depictions or descriptions of sexual conduct which are patently offensive as found by the average person applying contemporary community standards, considering the youngest age of students with access to the material,
(B)    materials that, taken as a whole, have as the dominant theme an appeal to prurient interest in sex as found by the average person applying contemporary community standards, and
(C)    a reasonable person would find the material or performance taken as a whole, lacks serious literary, artistic, educational, political, or scientific purposes or value, considering the youngest age of students with access to the material.
"School district" or "School" means any public school district and public charter school district that serves students in prekindergarten through twelfth grades in this state.
"School library" means the official library maintained by a school for use by students.
"Sexualized content" means material that is not strictly Pornographic but otherwise contains excessive sexual material in light of the educational value of the material and in light of the youngest age of students with access to said material.
210:35-3-126.  Collection requirements and penalty for noncompliance
(a)     Requirements.
(1)    There shall be a written policy, approved by the local board, concerning the criteria to be used in the evaluation and selection of materials for the media program. The written policies should contain criteria for selection, responsibility for selection, and guidelines for reconsideration.
(b2)    The media program shall consist of a balanced collection of print materials, nonprint materials, multimedia resources, and equipment and supplies adequate in quality and quantity to meet the needs of students and staff in all areas of the school's program.
(c3)    A library of professional materials containing print and multimedia resources shall be available to the staff. The professional library is an organized collection to support the instructional process and continued professional growth.
(d4)    All media materials and equipment shall be maintained adequately with provisions made for regular replacement of outdated materials and equipment.
(e5)    The school shall provide a variety and diversity of instructional/learning materials sufficient to accommodate the scope of the program and the individual differences among students.
(f6)    Instructional/learning materials and equipment shall be available in a sufficient quantity to provide for the number of students involved in learning activities and for the number of teachers in the school.
(g7)    Records of acquisition, classification, cataloging, circulation, and financing shall be accurate and current. A computerized library catalog or an alphabetically arranged card catalog, using a recognized system, and a shelf list of holdings shall be maintained.
(h8)    All instructional/learning materials in the school related to the media program shall be listed in a central catalog.
(i9)    The school shall provide equipment, materials, space, and professional guidance for the staff and students in designing and producing instructional/learning materials.
(10)    Within 60 days of the effective date of this rule, and annually every October 1, each School district shall transmit to the State Department of Education a complete listing of all books and other materials available in any School library in that district. An attestation from the Superintendent that a public online School library catalog or catalogs contain a complete and accurate list, along with the website for accessing the relevant School library catalog or catalogs, shall fulfill this requirement.
(11)    No Library shall have available to minor students any Pornographic materials or Sexualized content.
(12)    Every School district shall have a written policy for reviewing the educational suitability and age-appropriate nature of any material in a Library in the district and for receiving and responding to complaints regarding materials in Libraries in the district.
(13)    Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit students from reading, owning, possessing, or discussing any book they obtained without the assistance or encouragement of a School district, its employees, or its Libraries; provided, nothing in this Part shall be construed to authorize bringing Pornographic material or Sexualized content on the grounds of any public School district.
(b)     Noncompliance.
(1)     Procedure.
(A)    If a Parent or guardian alleges a violation of OAC 210:35-3-126(a), the Parent or guardian shall provide a written complaint to the State Department of Education that summarizes the alleged violation, including the time, date, and location of the violation and the identity of any person involved. The complaint must also include a copy of any complaint to the School district and any response.
(B)    Within fourteen days of receiving a complaint, the Department shall notify the School district of the allegation and provide an opportunity for response.
(C)    The Department shall then conduct an investigation to determine whether a violation has occurred. The Department's Legal Services staff shall notify the Parent or guardian and the School district of the results of the investigation.
(D)    If the Department concludes that a violation has occurred or may have occurred, the School district shall have fourteen days to request a hearing before the Board. The Board shall review the Complaint and the record using a preponderance of the evidence standard, may take additional evidence at its discretion, and shall publish an order with its findings of fact and conclusions of law.
(2)     Penalties.
(A)    If the State Board of Education makes a finding of willful noncompliance with any requirement of this section, the State Board of Education shall alter the accreditation status of the School district at issue to either Accredited With Warning or Accredited With Probation as classified in OAC 210:35-3-201. The Board shall adjust the status to Accredited With Probation if the School district is already Accredited With Warning.
(B)    If the State Board of Education makes a finding of negligent or reckless noncompliance with this rule, the State Board of Education shall require the School district at issue to comply with this rule within a reasonable timeframe ordered by the State Board of Education.
(C)    Failure to comply with an order of the State Board of Education pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(B) of this section shall constitute willful noncompliance within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2)(A) of this section.
210:35-3-128.  Evaluation
     Subject to the requirements and prohibitions of this Part (13), Thethe media program shall reflect the philosophy of the school. The effectiveness of the program shall be judged on the basis of how it facilitates the instructional program, while ensuring minor students are not exposed to Pornographic material or Sexualized content. There shall be an ongoing evaluation of the effectiveness of the organization, services, and resources of the media program.
[OAR Docket #23-615; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 35.  Standards for Accreditation of Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
[OAR Docket #23-616]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Standards for Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
Part 19. Standard X: School Facilities
210:35-3-186. Site and buildings: size and space; accessibility; maintenance; health and safety [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 1-125
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 3. Standards For Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
Part 19. Standard X: school facilities
210:35-3-186. Site and buildings: size and space; accessibility; maintenance; health and safety [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
September 14, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 141
Docket number:
22-738
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule implements the policies and prohibitions identified in 70 O.S. § 1-125 (SB615) regarding access to school restrooms and locker rooms.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Standards for Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
PART 19.  STANDARD X: SCHOOL FACILITIES
210:35-3-186.  Site and buildings: size and space; accessibility; maintenance; health and safety
(a)     General requirements for school facilities. All school facilities shall meet the following requirements:
(1)    The site and building(s) shall be properly sized and equipped for the number of occupants and grades served in accordance with the requirements of 70 O.S. § 5-131.
(2)    Adequate space shall be provided for classrooms, specialized instructional areas, support facilities and other areas as needed, these areas being grouped and arranged in such manner to provide optimum instructional function and class control.
(b)     Accessibility requirements for school facilities. The site and building(s) shall be readily accessible, and shall meet all requirements of state and federal law, including those relating to in providing access for students with disabilities.
(c)     Capital improvement plans. Each school district shall develop and adopt a four-year capital improvement plan for all public schools in the district that meets the requirements of 70 O.S. 18-153 and 210:30-1. School facilities shall be able to accommodate changes in curriculum and/or equipment within a program.
(d)     Maintenance of school facilities and equipment. Programs for preventive and corrective maintenance shall be developed and implemented to ensure that the site and building(s) will be clean, in good repair, and maintained with consideration for function and aesthetic values. Equipment, furnishings, and supplies in proper quantity and quality shall be maintained; and a system shall be developed and implemented for inventory, issue, usage, storage, repair, and replacement.
(e)     Health and safety. The site and building(s) shall ensure that the health and safety of all school students, school personnel, and school visitors are properly safeguarded.
(1)     Building code compliance. Where required, the facility shall have utility systems, plumbing systems, electrical systems, mechanical systems, emergency systems, building interiors and building envelope designed, built, and maintained to all federal, state, and local standards, codes and/or other legal requirements.
(2)     Loading and unloading zones. The site shall be as free as possible from hazards, provide a safe area for (un)loading of vehicles, with adequate lighting, signage and drainage.
(3)     Hazardous materials. Appropriate programs pertaining to hazardous materials, hazardous waste, asbestos, underground storage tanks, lead contamination, and other applicable life, health, and/or safety matters shall be developed and implemented in accordance with federal, state, and local statutes, regulations, and codes.
(4)     Emergency warning and prevention systems. Proper precautions shall be taken to prevent injuries. All equipment and facility safety features shall be in place and properly maintained, including, but not limited to safety goggles in accordance with the requirements of 70 O.S. §24-117 and respirators in accordance with the requirements of 70 O.S. §24-118.
(f)     School safety inspections. The school's administration shall ensure that qualified personnel conduct a safety/emergency/disaster procedure review at least annually and safety inspections of site, building(s), and equipment regularly.
(g)     School safety drills. Each public school district shall adopt policies and procedures for each type of safety drill required by this subsection. All safety drills shall conform to the written plans and procedures adopted by the district for protecting against natural and man-made disasters and emergencies as required by Title 63 O.S. § 681 and 70 O.S. §§ 5-148 and 5-149.
(1)     Compliance documentation. Each public school district shall document compliance with the requirements of this subsection by each school site in writing as follows:
(A)    The records for each fire drill shall be preserved for at least three (3) years and shall be made available to the State Fire Marshal or the designated agent of the State Fire Marshal upon request. In addition, one copy of the fire drill compliance report shall remain at each school site and one copy shall be filed with the school district's administrative office;
(B)    In addition to the fire drill documentation required by (1)(A) of this subsection, each public school district shall document all other required safety drills in writing by school site. One copy of the safety drill compliance report shall remain at each school site and one copy shall be filed with the school district's administrative office. Each school district shall also submit documentation in writing for each school site to the Oklahoma Office of Homeland Security Oklahoma School Security Institute in accordance with the Institute's established forms, policies and/or procedures; and
(C)    Each school district shall make all of its safety compliance reports required by this subsection available to the Regional Accreditation Officer during the accreditation process.
(2)     Safety drill types and requirements. Each school district shall ensure that every public school within the district shall conduct no fewer than ten (10) safety drills per school year at each school site. All students and teachers at the public schools shall participate. Safety drills conducted in accordance with this subsection shall meet all of the following requirements:
(A)     Fire drills. Each public school shall conduct a minimum of two (2) fire drills per school year. Each fire drill shall be conducted within the first fifteen (15) days of the beginning of each semester. The fire drills shall include the sounding of a distinctive audible signal designated as the fire alarm signal.
(B)     Tornado drills. Each public school shall conduct a minimum of two (2) tornado drills per school year, in which all students and school employees participate. At least one (1) tornado drill shall be conducted in the month of September and at least one (1) tornado drill shall be conducted during the month of March.
(C)     Security drills. Each public school shall conduct a minimum of four (4) security drills per school year, with two (2) security drills conducted per semester. One security drill shall be conducted within the first fifteen (15) days of each semester. No security drill shall be conducted at the same time of day as a previous security drill conducted in the same school year. Security drills shall be conducted for the purpose of securing school buildings to prevent or mitigate injuries or deaths that may result from a threat around or in the school.
(D)     Additional safety drills. The principal of each public school shall, at the direction of the district superintendent, utilize the remaining two (2) required safety drills for one or more of the following purposes:
(i)    To conduct additional drills of any of the types provided in this subsection;
(ii)    To conduct one or more drill(s) developed by the district that is consistent with the risks assessed for the school facility; or
(iii)    To conduct one or more drills in accordance with recommendations submitted by the Safe School Committee as authorized by the provisions of 70 O.S. § 24-100.5 or any assisting fire or law enforcement department.
(h)     Restrooms and Changing Areas.
(1)     Definitions. For purposes of this subsection (h):
(A)    "Individual" means any student, teacher, staff member, or other person on the premises of a School.
(B)    "Multiple occupancy restroom" or "changing area" means an area in a public school or public charter school building designed or designated to be used by more than one individual at a time, where individuals may be in various stages of undress in the presence of other individuals. The term may include but is not limited to a school restroom, locker room, changing room, or shower room.
(C)    "School" means any public school and public charter school that serves students in prekindergarten through twelfth grades in this state.
(D)    "Sex" means the physical condition of being male or female based on genetics and physiology, as identified on the individual's original birth certificate;
(2)     Designation of Multiple Occupancy Restroom or Changing Areas. Each School shall require every multiple occupancy restroom or changing area to be designated as follows:
(A)    For the exclusive use of the male Sex; or
(B)    For the exclusive use of the female Sex.
(3)     Reasonable Accommodation. Each School shall provide access to a single-occupancy restroom or changing room to an Individual who does not wish to utilize the multiple occupancy restroom or changing area designated for their Sex.
(4)     District Policies. Each school district board of education and public charter school governing board shall adopt a policy to provide disciplinary action for Individuals who refuse to:
(A)    Use the multiple occupancy restroom or changing area designated for their Sex;
(B)    Designate multiple occupancy restrooms or changing areas for the exclusive use of one Sex; or
(C)    Provide access to a single-occupancy restroom or changing room to an Individual who does not wish to utilize the multiple occupancy restroom or changing area designated for their Sex, provided that such Individual is authorized to be on the School premises.
(5)     Monitoring and Complaints.
(A)    Schools will be evaluated by the Regional Accreditation Officer during the accreditation process to ensure compliance with the provisions of 70 O.S. § 1-125 and this Rule. Failure to comply with 70 O.S. § 1-125 and this Rule may result in adverse accreditation action.
(B)    Students, parents, teachers, school staff, and members of the public may file a complaint with the State Board of Education alleging a violation of 70 O.S. § 1-125 and/or this Rule. A copy of such complaint shall be submitted to the general counsel for the State Department of Education.
(6)     Response by School.
(A)    Within fifteen (15) days of observing or obtaining information suggesting that a School may be in violation of 70 O.S. § 1-125 and/or this Rule or receiving a complaint pursuant to subsection (h)(4)(C), the State Department of Education shall notify, in writing, the board of education or governing board of the School involved. Simultaneously, the State Department of Education shall provide a copy of the written notification to the State Board of Education.
(B)    Upon receipt of the notification, the board of education or governing board of the School shall have fifteen (15) days to request an opportunity to appear before the State Board of Education and/or submit a written response. Any such request will be granted if timely submitted. If the board of education or governing board of the School fails to request an opportunity to appear, the State Board of Education shall proceed without further notice or delay, to conclude the matter.
(7)     Noncompliance.
(A)    Upon a finding of noncompliance with the provisions of subsections B and C of 70 O.S. § 1-125 by the State Board of Education, the noncompliant school district or public charter school shall receive a five percent (5%) decrease in state funding for the school district or public charter school for the fiscal year following the year of noncompliance. State funding shall mean State Aid funding as contemplated in 70 O.S. § 18-101 et seq.
(B)    If the State Board of Education makes a finding of non-compliance, the five percent reduction shall be withheld from the school district or public charter school's periodic distributions over the course of the fiscal year following the year of noncompliance.
(C)    Prior to making a finding of noncompliance, the State Board of Education may, if mitigating factors are present, provide a probationary period for a school district or public charter school to come into compliance with subsections B and C of 70 O.S. § 1-125.
[OAR Docket #23-616; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 210.  State Department of Education
CHAPTER 35.  Standards for Accreditation of Elementary, Middle Level, Secondary, and Career and Technology Schools
[OAR Docket #23-617]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 19. Concurrent Enrollment
210:35-19-3. General procedures [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
State Board of Education; Okla. Const. art. XIII, § 5; 70 O.S. § 3-104; 70 O.S. § 628.13
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 25, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This rule provides robust and clear guidelines regarding concurrent enrolment courses offered by school districts as authorized under 70 O.S. § 628.13.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bryan Cleveland, General Counsel, Office of Legal Services, State Department of Education, Hodge Education Building, 2500 North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105-4599. Telephone number: (405) 522-2424.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 19.  Concurrent Enrollment
210:35-19-3.  General procedures
(a)    Concurrent enrollment provides eligible high school students with an opportunity to earn college credit. Overall, concurrent enrollment is recognized as a valuable opportunity to advance the State System's commitment to expand access to higher education opportunities, produce favorable student achievement outcomes, and enhance educational efficiency. With these purposes in mind, and consistent with the requirements in 70 O.S. § 628.13, the State Board of Education establishes requirements and procedures for concurrent enrollment as set forth below.
(b)    Prior to enrolling in a concurrent enrollment course, a student must have a signed form from the high school principal or counselor stating that he/she is eligible to satisfy, no later than the spring of the student's senior year, requirements for graduation from high school. For purposes of this subsection, graduation requirements include curricular requirements for college admission. In addition, a minor student must also have written permission from a parent or legal guardian prior to enrollment in a concurrent enrollment course.
(c)    No school district may prohibit any student who meets the requirements of concurrent enrollment from participating in concurrent enrollment, provided the student also meets any requirement of the State Regents for Higher Education and/or as set forth in Oklahoma law.
(d)    General procedures applicable to K-12 students enrolling at a college or university in the state system are: A school district may receive full average daily attendance on a high school student who is participating in concurrent enrollment. In determining a legal school day for a student who is concurrently enrolled the district can use a combination of local school enrollment, college enrollment, and travel time.
[OAR Docket #23-617; filed 6-27-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 100.  Air Pollution Control
[OAR Docket #23-619]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 2. Incorporation by Reference
252:100-2-3 [AMENDED]
Appendix Q. Incorporation by Reference [REVOKED]
Appendix Q. Incorporation by Reference [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. Sections 2-2-101, 2-2-201, and 2-5-106.
Air Quality Advisory Council; 27A O.S. Sections 2-2-201 and 2-5-107.
Oklahoma Clean Air Act; 27A O.S. Sections 2-5-101 through -117.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
August 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
September 1, 2022 through October 5, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
October 5, 2022, Air Quality Advisory Council
November 8, 2022, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
November 8, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
November 14, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Date of 40 C.F.R. provisions incorporated by reference in OAC 252:100-2-3 and in Appendix Q is changed to "as they existed on June 30, 2022."
Incorporating rules.
252:100-2-3
Appendix Q. Incorporation By Reference
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays.
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Department is proposing to update OAC 252:100, Appendix Q, Incorporation by Reference, to incorporate the latest changes to U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulations. In addition, the Department is proposing to update language in Subchapter 2, Incorporation by Reference, to reflect the latest date of incorporation of EPA regulations in Appendix Q. The gist of these rules and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is to incorporate the latest changes to EPA regulations, primarily those relating to the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) and New Source Performance Standards (NSPS).
CONTACT PERSON:
Melanie Foster, Department of Environmental Quality, Air Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-4100
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 2.  Incorporation by Reference
252:100-2-3.  Incorporation by reference
     Except as provided under this section, the provisions of 40 CFR listed in Appendix Q are hereby incorporated by reference as they existed on June 30, 2021June 30, 2022.
(1)     Inclusion of 40 CFR citations and definitions. When a provision of 40 CFR is incorporated by reference, all citations contained therein are also incorporated by reference.
(2)     Inconsistencies or duplications of requirements or incorporation dates.
(A)    In the event that there are inconsistencies or duplications between the requirements of this Chapter and the requirements of those provisions incorporated by reference in Appendix Q or elsewhere in this Chapter, the more stringent requirements shall apply.
(B)    In the event that a specific date of incorporation is indicated in Appendix Q or a subchapter of this Chapter, the specified date of incorporation shall apply.
(3)     Terminology related to 40 CFR. For purposes of interfacing with 40 CFR and unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following terms apply.
(A)    "Administrator" is synonymous with "Executive Director."
(B)    "U. S. Environmental Protection Agency" or "EPA" is synonymous with "Department of Environmental Quality" or "DEQ."

APPENDIX Q.  Incorporation by Reference  [REVOKED]
APPENDIX Q.  Incorporation by Reference  [NEW]
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[OAR Docket #23-619; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 100.  Air Pollution Control
[OAR Docket #23-620]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Registration, Emission Inventory and Annual Operating Fees
252:100-5-2.2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. Sections 2-2-101, 2-2-201, and 2-5-106.
Air Quality Advisory Council; 27A O.S. Sections 2-2-201 and 2-5-107.
Oklahoma Clean Air Act; 27A O.S. Sections 2-5-101 through -117.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
October 7, 2022
November 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 1, 2022, through December 6, 2023
December 1, 2022, through January 11, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 6, 2022, Air Quality Advisory Council
January 11, 2023, Air Quality Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 20, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Department of Environmental Quality (Department or DEQ) is proposing to amend OAC 252:100, Subchapter 5, Registration, Emission Inventory and Annual Operating Fees, to update the annual operating fee schedule language relating to minor facilities. Part 70 (major) sources are subject to adjusted annual operating fees based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI). The gist of this rule proposal and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is to include the use of the CPI in the adjustment of annual operating fees for minor facilities.
CONTACT PERSON:
Melanie Foster, Department of Environmental Quality, Air Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-4100
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTION 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Registration, Emission Inventory and Annual Operating Fees
252:100-5-2.2.  Annual operating fees
(a)     Applicability.
(1)    OAC 252:100-5-2.2 applies to all facilities that are sources of air pollution, including government facilities, regardless of whether the source is currently permitted or whether an emission inventory has or has not at any time been submitted for the facility. The owners or operators of Part 70 sources shall pay annual fees that are sufficient to cover the Part 70 program costs. The permitting authority shall ensure that the fees required by OAC 252:100-5-2.2(b)(2) will be used solely for Part 70 program costs.
(2)    OAC 252:100-5-2.2 does not apply to de minimis facilities or to permit exempt facilities.
(b)     Fee schedule.
(1)     Minor facilities. Beginning July 1, 2008Until June 30, 2024, annual operating fees invoiced for minor facilities shall be $25.12 per ton of regulated air pollutant (for fee calculation). Starting July 1, 2024, the annual operating fees invoiced for minor facilities shall be $36.50 per ton of regulated air pollutant (for fee calculation) and shall be adjusted each year thereafter based on the CPI pursuant to (b)(3)(A) of this section. The invoiced, CPI-adjusted annual operating fees shall be discounted appropriately in any given year if the Department determines that other revenues, including appropriated state general revenue funds, have increased sufficiently to adequately fund the air program. Any discount would not affect CPI adjustments.
(2)     Part 70 Sources. Beginning July 1, 2008, annual operating fees invoiced for Part 70 sources shall be $32.30 per ton of regulated air pollutant (for fee calculation) and shall be adjusted each year pursuant to (b)(3)(B) of this section. The invoiced, CPI-adjusted annual operating fees shall be discounted appropriately in any given year if the Department determines that other revenues, including appropriated state general revenue funds, have increased sufficiently to adequately fund the air program. Any discount would not affect CPI adjustments.
(3)     Use of Consumer Price Index (CPI) to adjust annual operating fees.
(A)     Minor facilities. Annual operating fees for minor facilities shall be adjusted automatically each year by the percentage, if any, by which the CPI for the most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of such a year differs from the CPI for the calendar year 2024.
(B)     Part 70 Sources. Annual operating fees for Part 70 sources shall be adjusted automatically each year by the percentage, if any, by which the CPI for the most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of such year differs from the CPI for the calendar year 2007.
(C)     Consumer Price Index. The CPI for any calendar year is the average of the CPI for all-urban consumers published by the Department of Labor, as of the close of the twelve-month period ending on August 31 of each calendar year.
(c)     Payment.
(1)    Fees are due and payable on the invoice due date(s). Fees shall be considered delinquent 30 days after the invoice due date(s). Within five (5) years but not before a grace period of 120 days from the invoice due date, the DEQ may issue an administrative order to recover such fees and may assess a reasonable administrative fine in accordance with the provisions of the Oklahoma Clean Air Act, 27A O.S. §§ 2-5-101 et seq., to an owner or operator of a facility who has failed to pay or has underpaid such fees.
(2)    If an owner or operator has failed to submit the required annual emission inventory, the DEQ may issue an administrative order to recover fees that would have been invoiced had the emission inventory been submitted when due. The DEQ may issue such order within five (5) years from the date of billing and may assess a reasonable administrative fine in accordance with the provisions of the Oklahoma Clean Air Act, 27A O.S. §§ 2-5-101 et seq.
(3)    When a fee overpayment has been made as a result of an error, an owner or operator may seek a credit for such fee overpayment within five years from the date on which payment of the fee was received by the DEQ.
(d)     Basis for annual operating fees.
(1)    Operating fees shall be calculated on a source-specific basis and based on actual emissions of regulated pollutants (for fee calculation) as set forth in the facility emission inventory unless the owner or operator elects to pay fees on allowable emissions.
(2)    Regulated pollutants (for fee calculation) in excess of 4,000 tons per year per pollutant for a Part 70 source shall not be considered in the calculation of the annual fee.
[OAR Docket #23-620; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 100.  Air Pollution Control
[OAR Docket #23-621]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 49. Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Rebate Program [NEW]
252:100-49-1. Purpose and Applicability [NEW]
252:100-49-3. Definitions [NEW]
252:100-49-5. Program criteria and qualification determination [NEW]
252:100-49-7. Sunset provision [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. Sections 2-2-101, 2-2-201, 2-3-402, and 2-5-106.
Air Quality Advisory Council; 27A O.S. Sections 2-2-201 and 2-5-107.
Oklahoma Clean Air Act; 27A O.S. Sections 2-5-101 through 2-5-117.
Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Incentive Act; 68 O.S. § 55011.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
October 7, 2022
November 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 1, 2022, through December 6, 2022
December 1, 2022, through January 11, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 6, 2022, Air Quality Advisory Council
January 11, 2023, Air Quality Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Department of Environmental Quality (Department or DEQ) is proposing to add Subchapter 49, Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Rebate Program to OAC 252:100, to implement applicable provisions of the Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Incentive Act, 68 O.S. § 55006, et seq. The act created the "Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Rebate Program," administered by the DEQ and the Oklahoma Tax Commission, to provide an incentive for "Emission Reduction Projects" - implementation of new and innovative technologies to reduce air pollutant emissions from oil and gas facilities. The gist of this rule proposal and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is to implement the Department's responsibilities under the Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Incentive Act.
CONTACT PERSON:
Melanie Foster, Department of Environmental Quality, Air Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-4100
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTION 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 49.  Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Rebate Program
252:100-49-1.  Purpose and applicability
(a)    The purpose of this Subchapter is to implement applicable provisions of the Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Incentive Act, 68 O.S. § 55006, et seq. The act created the "Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Rebate Program," administered by the Department of Environmental Quality and the Oklahoma Tax Commission, to provide a rebate of up to 25% of expenditures for implementation of a qualified "Emission Reduction Project." The program is intended to encourage implementation of new and innovative technologies for reduction of emissions from oil and gas activities, specifically those listed in subsection (b).
(b)    This program applies only to emissions from upstream and midstream oil and gas production, exploration, completions, gatherings, storage, processing, and transmission activities. Activities in the following SIC codes are generally considered to qualify within the scope of eligibility for this program: 1311, 1321, 1381, 4612, 4613, 4922, 4923, 4924, and 4925. DEQ may determine whether an activity identified by a particular NAICS code would qualify under an equivalent SIC code.
252:100-49-3.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Act" means the Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Incentive Act, 68 O.S. § 55006, et seq
"Commission" or "OTC" means the Oklahoma Tax Commission or its successor entity.
"Department" or "DEQ" means the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Emission Reduction Project" means an "Emission Reduction Project" as defined in 68 O.S. § 55008, but does not include projects that are required to address an enforcement action or undertaken as a supplemental environmental project to offset an enforcement penalty.
"Rebate claim" means the package submitted to DEQ documenting all criteria for a rebate has been met. Upon approval by DEQ, the package is forwarded to OTC as the formal request for OTC to issue a rebate under the Rebate Program.
"Rebate Program" or "OERTRP" means the Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Rebate Program, 68 O.S. § 55009, et seq
252:100-49-5.  Program criteria and qualification determination
(a)     Applying for rebate eligibility. An applicant responsible for the implementation of a qualified Emission Reduction Project may submit a rebate claim to DEQ for review and determination whether the project qualifies under the program.
(1)    The rebate claim shall be submitted on forms provided for this purpose, or as otherwise specified by DEQ.
(2)    The rebate claim shall be submitted to DEQ no later than six (6) months after the end of the fiscal year in which the expenditures were made. The fiscal year ends on June 30 each year.
(3)    Project documentation shall include:
(A)    a project description that provides information in sufficient detail to determine that it qualifies as an Emission Reduction Project as defined in 68 O.S. § 55008;
(B)    an estimation of actual resulting emission reductions;
(C)    a statement that the project has been designed, installed, and operated as described in the claim and in accordance with good engineering practices and the requirements of this Chapter, and that implementation of the project is complete; and
(D)    an itemization of expenses, with invoices, for all equipment installed to implement the project.
(4)    Project documentation shall state the amount of expenditures made in this state directly related to the implementation of the qualified Emission Reduction Project.
(5)    The applicant shall certify that the project is not required to address an enforcement actionor undertaken as a supplemental environmental project to offset an enforcement penalty.
(6)    The applicant shall provide a certification from OTC that it has filed all Oklahoma tax returns and tax documents which are required by the laws of this state.
(7)    The applicant shall provide evidence of a certificate of general liability insurance with a minimum coverage of One Million Dollars ($1,000,000.00) and a workers' compensation policy pursuant to the laws of this state which shall include coverage of employer's liability.
(8)    The rebate claim shall include certification, signed by a responsible official, attesting to the truth, accuracy, and completeness of the claim. This certification shall contain the following language: "I certify that, based on information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the statements and information in the document are true, accurate, and complete."(9) The applicant will be assessed a one-time fee of $1,000 that must accompany the rebate claim. A rebate claim without the appropriate fee is incomplete.
(b)     DEQ review of rebate claim. DEQ will review the rebate claim information to determine if the described project is a qualified Emission Reduction Project, and will the notify the applicant and OTC of its approval or disapproval of the claim for a rebate payment.
(c)     Effect on OTC authority. Nothing in this section shall limit or otherwise affect OTC's authority or responsibilities under the Act, including the authority to request submittal of additional information by the claimant.
252:100-49-7.  Sunset provision
     This Subchapter shall cease to be in effect if and when the Oklahoma Emission Reduction Technology Rebate Program ceases on July 1, 2027, or as otherwise stipulated in 68 O.S. § 55012 or its successor.
[OAR Docket #23-621; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 205.  Hazardous Waste Management
[OAR Docket #23-622]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Incorporation by Reference
252:205-3-1 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Hazardous Waste Management Advisory Council, 27A O.S., §§2-2-101, 2-2-104, 2-2-201, 2 7-105, and 2-7-106.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
August 25, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
September 15, 2022, to October 27, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
October 27, 2022, Hazardous Waste Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATION BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Date of 40 CFR provisions incorporated by reference in these rules is changed to "as amended through July 1, 2022".
Incorporating rules:
252:205-3-1
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTM0Mjk=
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rulemaking is to make DEQ's hazardous waste rules consistent with the federal regulations by incorporating by reference (IBR) the regulations found in 40 CFR Parts 124 and 260-279, revised as of July 1, 2022. The significant rule change for this IBR makes conforming changes to regulations related to twelve hazardous waste import-export recovery and disposal operations used in hazardous waste export and import notices submitted to EPA by U.S. exporters and importers. Movement documents that accompany export and import shipments are also affected. The changes to regulations related to these twelve recovery and disposal operations are needed to reflect changes to regulations related to Canadian import-export recovery and disposal operations that became effective in Canada on October 31, 2021. DEQ does not anticipate that this rule change will have a major impact on Oklahoma facilities.
CONTACT PERSON:
Mike Edwards, Hazardous Waste Compliance and Inspection Section, Department of Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, OK 73101 - 1677, e-mail at mike.edwards@deq.ok.gov, phone 405-702-5226, or fax 405-702-5101.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E) WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Incorporation by Reference
252:205-3-1.  Reference to 40 CFR
     When reference is made to Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (40 CFR), it shall mean (unless otherwise specified): the Hazardous Waste Regulations, Monday, May 19, 1980, as amended through July 1, 20212022.
[OAR Docket #23-622; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 515.  Management of Solid Waste
[OAR Docket #23-623]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 23. Regulated Medical Waste Management
Part 1. General Provisions
252:515-23-1 [AMENDED]
252:515-23-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board, 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-101 and 2-10-201;
Solid Waste Management Advisory Council, 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201 and 2-10-201.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 11, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 12, 2023, Solid Waste Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 17, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) is proposing to amend OAC 252:515. The gist of this rulemaking is to make minor changes to clarify existing language related to the generation of Regulated Medical Waste and acknowledge generators may be subject to rules of other agencies.
CONTACT PERSON:
Anne Marie Smith, Land Protection Division, Solid Waste Permitting Section, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, OK 73101-1677, e-mail at public.comments@deq.ok.gov, phone 405-702-5100, or fax 405-702-5101.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 23.  Regulated Medical Waste Management
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS
252:515-23-1.  Applicability and exclusions
(a)     Federal requirements. Persons or facilities involved in the handling, storage, packaging, labeling, and/or transportation of regulated medical waste may be subject to requirements of the federal Department of Transportation (49CFRPart173), the federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (29 CFR 1910.1030), or other federal or state agencies.
(b)     Oklahoma State Department of Health requirements. Generators of regulated medical waste may be subject to additional provisions required by the Oklahoma State Department of Health.
(bc)     Commercial processing facilities. Commercial regulated medical waste processing facilities are subject to the requirements of Parts 1 and 3 of this Subchapter as well as Part 3 of OAC252:515-19.
(cd)     Commercial incinerators. Commercial regulated medical waste incinerators are subject to the requirements of (b)(c) of this Section and Part 5 of this Subchapter.
(de)     Shared services facilities. Shared services facilities shall meet the standards of OAC252:515-23-32(b), 33, 34, and 35, but are not required to obtain DEQ approval.
(ef)     Exclusions.
(1)     General. The following are not subject to the requirements of this Subchapter if they do not contain any regulated medical waste:
(A)    wastes generated by the processing or caring for animals, except for untreated sharps and those wastes identified in subparagraph (F) of the definition of "regulated medical waste";
(B)    regulated medical wastes treated in accordance with OAC 252:515-23-4;
(C)    biological products distributed for any purpose other than treatment and disposal;
(D)    diagnostic specimens shipped to a qualified diagnostic laboratory;
(E)    laundry or medical equipment conforming to 29 CFR 1910.1030;
(F)    corpses, remains, and/or anatomical parts intended for ceremonial interment or cremation.
(2)     Hazardous waste. Hazardous waste is not subject to the requirements of this Subchapter, but shall be subject to the requirements of OAC 252:205.
(3)     Household waste. Household wastes are not subject to the requirements of this Subchapter even if they contain regulated medical wastes generated in the household from treatment of a resident of the household.
252:515-23-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Commercial regulated medical waste incinerator" means a waste processing facility operated as a business for profit for incineration of regulated medical wastes generated by others.
"Commercial regulated medical waste processing facility" means a facility operated as a business for profit that is designed and operated principally for the purpose of processing, including transfer of, regulated medical wastes generated by others. Such facilities shall include those engaged in the processing of regulated medical waste on mobile vehicles at a generator location.
"Commercial transporter" means an owner/operator of any vehicle transporting regulated medical waste generated by others as a business for profit.
"Etiologic agent" means a viable microorganism, or toxin, that causes or may cause disease in humans or animals, and includes those agents listed in 42 CFR 72.3, and any other agent that causes or may cause severe, disabling or fatal disease. The term "etiologic agent" is synonymous with the term "infectious substance" as defined in 49 CFR 173.134.
"Generator" means the owner/operator of any facility, institution, or business that produces regulated medical waste in any quantity.
"Microbial inactivation" means a 4Log10 (99.99%) or greater reduction of:
(A)    B.stearothermophilus(ATCC7953) when utilizing steam sterilization for treatment of regulated medical waste;
(B)    B.subtilis (ATCC 19659) when using dry heat or microwave methods for treatment of regulated medical waste; or
(C)    other appropriate indicator organisms and kill efficacy for the treatment method chosen and as approved by the DEQ.
"Shared services facility" means a hospital or clinic that provides treatment of regulated medical waste generated by another institution (including doctor's offices, medical laboratories and nursing homes) for the purpose of providing a service rather than generating revenue.
"Sharps" mean hypodermic needles, Pasteur pipettes, scalpel blades, blood vials, needles with attached tubing, culture dishes, and glassware such as used slides and cover slips.
"Small quantity regulated medical waste generator" means a generator that can document it generates less than sixty (60) pounds of regulated medical waste per month from one physical location. and makes records of generation available to DEQ upon request.
"Untreated sharps" means sharps that are to be disposed for any reason, but have not been treated in accordance with OAC 252:515-23-4(b).
[OAR Docket #23-623; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 606.  Oklahoma Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (OPDES) Standards
[OAR Docket #23-624]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Introduction
252:606-1-1 [AMENDED]
252:606-1-2 [AMENDED]
252:606-1-4 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Discharge Permitting Process for Individual and General Discharge Permits
252:606-3-6 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Discharge Permit Requirements
252:606-5-1 [AMENDED]
252:606-5-4 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 8. Biosolids Requirements
252:606-8-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATION BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Date of 40 CFR provisions incorporated by reference in these rules is changed to "as published on July 1, 2022."
Incorporating rules:
OAC 252:606-1-4
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is due to the Legislature passing and the Governor signing Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating references to OAC 785:45, OAC 785:46 and OWRB, and replacing these references with OAC 252:730, OAC 252:740, and Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ), respectively, and where applicable. OAC 252:730 and OAC 252:740 are new rules being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above. The Department also proposes to update its rules concerning the date of incorporation by reference for the Code of Federal Regulations from July 19, 2021, to July 1, 2022. The final regulatory change consisted of a technical amendment to modify the submission location for Continuous Release Reports (CRRs) subject to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA). These reports were submitted to respective EPA regional offices but with the technical amendment, EPA now requires reports be submitted to the appropriate EPA Headquarters office. The amendment also corrected a typographical error, corrected citations within the section, and amended the listed authority.
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Introduction
252:606-1-1.  Purpose
(a)     Intent. This Chapter sets the point source, biosolids (sewage sludge), and stormwater permitting standards for discharges to the waters of the State of Oklahoma from those facilities within the jurisdiction of the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality as specified in Title 27A O.S. § 1-3-101. This Chapter implements the Oklahoma Pollutant Discharge Elimination System Act, which begins at Title 27A O.S. § 2-6-201 of the Oklahoma Statutes. This Chapter applies to any person or entity that land applies biosolids or prepares it for firing in a biosolids (sewage sludge) incinerator, in addition to those facilities that discharge wastewater to waters of the state.
(b)     Other rules apply. This Chapter applies in addition to other rules. This Chapter governs the effluent discharged from municipal wastewater treatment systems (constructed under OAC 252:656) and industrial wastewater treatment systems (constructed under OAC 252:616), and current DEQ Laboratory Accreditation rules. The discharges regulated by this Chapter must not cause a violation of the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OAC 785:45252:730).
(c)     Exclusion. This Chapter does not apply to:
(1)    discharges from marine toilets, as prohibited by Title 63 O.S. § 4213;
(2)    discharges of dredge and fill material under the jurisdiction of the United States Corps. of Engineers under Section 404 of the Federal Clean Water Act. Water in a treatment system is OPDES Permit Schedule Violation not waters of the State of Oklahoma;
(3)    Septage. See OAC 252:645;
(4)    Biosolids pilot studies that are conducted by a qualified research institute familiar with the crops and soils of this state for the beneficial use of biosolids through land application. Such studies are subject to conditions imposed by the DEQ, including:
(A)    the limitation of the total amount of biosolids used must be no more than 25 dry tons for any one project or 50 dry tons for all pilot studies approved by the DEQ for the same institute in the same year;
(B)    compliance with:
(i)    The metal ceilings established in Table 1 of 40 CFR § 503.13(b);
(ii)    One of the vector attraction reduction alternatives; and
(iii)    The pathogen reduction requirements of 40 CFR § 503.32(a);
(C)    written approval from the DEQ Executive Director or his designee prior to the commencement of operations;
(D)    the period during which biosolids may be applied to the land is eighteen 18 months or less, unless extended by the DEQ;
(E)    notification to the DEQ of the cessation of land application at the site; and
(F)    periodic reporting.
(5)    Biosolids co-fired in an incinerator with other wastes or for the incinerator in which biosolids and other wastes are co-fired are regulated under the appropriate Air Quality Rules. Other wastes do not include auxiliary fuel, as defined in 40 CFR § 503.41(b), fired in a sewage sludge incinerator.
(6)    Sludge generated at an industrial facility during the treatment of industrial wastewater, including sludge generated during the treatment of industrial wastewater combined with domestic sewage.
(7)    Use of biosolids determined to be hazardous in accordance with 40 CFR Part 261 which must be disposed of in a manner in accordance with the Oklahoma Hazardous Waste Management Act and rules promulgated thereunder;
(8)    Ash generated during the firing of biosolids in a sewage sludge incinerator;
(9)    Grit (e.g., sand, gravel, cinders, or other materials with a high specific gravity) or screenings (e.g., relatively large materials such as rags) generated during preliminary treatment of domestic sewage in a treatment works.
(10)    Biosolids with a concentration of Polychlorinated Biphenyl (PCB) equal to or greater than 10 milligrams per kilogram (10.0 mg\kg) of total solids (dry weight basis) may not be land applied under this Chapter. Disposal must be in accordance with OAC 252:515 ("Management of Solid Waste" rules) and applicable federal requirements under the Toxic Substances Control Act, 15 U.S.C. § 2601 et seq.
252:606-1-2.  Definitions
     In addition to terms defined in Title 27A of the Oklahoma Statutes, the following words or terms, when used in this Chapter, have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Accredited laboratory" means a laboratory accredited through the DEQ laboratory accreditation program.
"Beneficial use" means the use of biosolids or wastewater through land application for the purpose of soil conditioning, or crop or vegetative fertilization, or erosion control, or the use of wastewater for dust suppression where fugitive dust control would otherwise be an air quality problem, in a manner which does not pollute or tend to pollute the waters of the State of Oklahoma, the environment or pose a risk to human health.
"Best professional judgment" or "BPJ" means the technical opinion developed by a permit drafter after consideration of all reasonably available and pertinent data or information which forms the basis for the terms and conditions of a discharge permit, and the use of sound engineering analysis of the industry, the nature and quantity of potential pollutants which may be produced and of the proposed treatment plant.
"Biosolids" means primarily organically treated wastewater materials from municipal wastewater treatment plants that are suitable for recycling as amendments. This term is within the meaning of "sludge" referenced in 27A O.S. § 2-6-101(11). Biosolids are divided into the following classes:
(A)    Class A Biosolid meets the pathogen reduction requirements of 40 CFR § 503.32 (a);
(B)    Class B Biosolid meets the pathogen reduction requirements of 40 CFR § 503.32 (b).
"Bypass" means the intentional or unintentional diversion of waste streams from any portion of a treatment, disposal or collection facility.
"Compliance Testing" means any chemical, physical or bacteriological tests conducted in accordance with permit requirements.
"Control tests" means any chemical, physical or bacteriological tests, including visual observations, performed to aid in operational decisions and to control wastewater treatment system performance.
"CFR" means the Code of Federal Regulations.
"CROMERR" means the Cross-Media Electronic Reporting Rule.
"DEQ" means the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Discharge point" means the point at which pollutants, wastewater or stormwater enters waters of the state or become waters of the state.
"DMR" means "Discharge Monitoring Report".
"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
"Generator" or "operator" means authorized person under whose ownership or management authority, biosolids are used or disposed.
"Impoundment" or "Surface impoundment" have the same meaning used in OAC 252:616-1-2.
"Industrial user" means "industrial users subject to categorical pretreatment standards" and "significant industrial users" as those terms are used in 40 CFR, Part 403.
"Land application" means the application of biosolids onto a land surface; injection below land surface; or spreading biosolids onto land surface followed by incorporation into the soil. Land application does not include the disposal of biosolids in a municipal solid waste landfill permitted by the DEQ, or the use of Class A biosolids whose production is permitted by the DEQ.
"Listed metal" means those metals listed in Tables I, II, and III of 40 CFR, Part 503.13.
"Loading rate" means the amount (concentration or mass) of constituents or parameters applied to a unit area per application.
"NRCS" means Natural Resources Conservation Service.
"OAC" means Oklahoma Administrative Code.
"OS" means Oklahoma Statutes.
"Oklahoma Water Quality Standards" means the Oklahoma Water Resources BoardDEQ rules (OAC 785:45252:730) which classify waters of the state, designate beneficial uses for which the various waters of the state must be maintained and protected, and prescribe the water quality required to sustain designated uses.
"Operating records and reports" means the daily record of data connected with the operation of the system compiled in a monthly report on forms approved by the DEQ.
"Prior converted cropland" means those croplands as defined or used in the Federal Swampbuster Provisions located at Title 16, USC, §§ 3821 through 3823.
"USC" means United States Code.
"USGS" means United States Geological Survey.
252:606-1-4.  Date of federal regulations incorporated
     When reference is made to 40 CFR it means, unless otherwise specified, the volume of 40 CFR as published on July 19, 2021July 1, 2022.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Discharge Permitting Process for Individual and General Discharge Permits
252:606-3-6.  Compliance required
     Applicants must comply with the terms of the permits that are issued. Permits may contain provisions more stringent than these rules in order to meet Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OAC 785:45252:730), the Implementation of Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards (OAC 785:46252:740), the DEQ Water Quality Standards Implementation Plan (OAC 252:690), and the Water Quality Management Plan.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Discharge Permit Requirements
252:606-5-1.  Terms and conditions of permits
(a)    Terms and conditions of permits issued under this Chapter will include requirements necessary to assure compliance with the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OAC 785:45 252:730), the Implementation of Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards (OAC 785:46252:740), the DEQ Water Quality Standards Implementation Plan (OAC 252:690), and the Water Quality Management Plan.
(b)    Where applicable, the DEQ may require municipalities to adopt and enforce appropriate requirements for dischargers to storm sewers to cause compliance with municipally-held stormwater discharge permits.
(c)    Where practicable and as deemed appropriate by the Executive Director and as applicable in the circumstances, any discharge permit, or authorization to discharge issued by the Executive Director under a General Permit, may contain appropriate terms, conditions, limitations and requirements related to protection of groundwater, for remediation of pollution, or for implementation of other programs under the jurisdiction of the DEQ.
252:606-5-4.  Water quality standards variance
     Approval for any variance allowed pursuant to the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards must be obtained directly from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board and the permittee or applicant must submit written evidence of the same to the DEQ in a timely mannerDEQ.
SUBCHAPTER 8.  Biosolids Requirements
252:606-8-2.  Permit applications
     A permit application to produce Class A or Class B biosolids must be typed or computer printed and include:
(1)    the name, address, and telephone number of the applicant or the applicant's authorized representative;
(2)    the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the generator or operator and the land applier, if different, and contact person from each source;
(3)    a brief description of the biosolids including a list of the major commercial or industrial facilities that discharge to the municipal treatment system;
(4)    a description of the use or disposal practices and locations of any sites for transfer of the biosolids for treatment, use, land application, and/or disposal;
(5)    laboratory test results of a representative soil sample from each proposed site in the permit application. The composite soil samples must be tested, and background levels set, for the metals listed in Tables 1 and 3 of 40 CFR § 503.13(b), pH, and the nutrients - nitrogen (N), ammonia (NH4), nitrates (NO3), potassium (K) and phosphorus (P);
(6)    a list of environmental state or federal permits held by the applicant; and
(7)    if a facility, generator, and/or land application site is located in the watershed of an Outstanding Resource Water as defined in OAC 785:45252:730, the Outstanding Resource Water shall be identified.
[OAR Docket #23-624; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 611.  General Water Quality
[OAR Docket #23-625]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
252:611-1-1 [AMENDED]
252:611-1-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is due to the Legislature passing and the Governor signing Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating a reference from OAC 785:45 to OAC 252:730 and changing a reference denoting that the Department, not the OWRB, has authority for administering OWQS's. OAC 252:730 is a new rule being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above. The Department also proposes to update definitions referenced in the rule.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
252:611-1-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of this Chapter is to protect, maintain and improve the quality of waters of the state, as set forth in Title 27A O.S. § 2-6-102 and to enforce and protect Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards (OAC 785:45252:730). This Chapter implements the broad authority of the DEQ over surface, ground and other waters of the state.
252:611-1-2.  Definitions
     In addition to definitions adopted by reference, the following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Board" means the Environmental Quality Board.
"Clean Water Act" or "CWA" means the federal Water Pollution Control Act, 33 U.S.C. § 251 et seq., as amended.
"Code" means the Environmental Quality Code, 27A O.S. § 2-1-101 et seq., as amended.
"CPP" means the continuing planning process documents required pursuant to this chapter and 40 CFR Part 130.
"DEQ" and "Department" mean the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Discharge point" means the point at which wastes enter waters of the state or become waters of the state.
"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
"Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards" or "OWQS" or "Standards" means the rules promulgated by the DEQ at OAC 252:730, which classify waters of the state, designate the uses for which the various waters of the State shall be maintained and protected and prescribe the water quality standards required to sustain designated uses.
"Underground storage systems" means storage tanks, containers and other storage reservoirs, transfer lines, pumps, fittings, overfill prevention devices, and any associated anticorrosion measures and/or leak prevention/detection systems, the volume of which is 10% ormore beneath the surface of the ground.
[OAR Docket #23-625; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 616.  Industrial Wastewater Systems
[OAR Docket #23-626]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Introduction
252:616-1-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Tank System Standards
252:616-9-1 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 11. Land Application Standards
252:616-11-1 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is due to the Legislature passing and the Governor signing Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating a reference from OAC 785:45 to OAC 252:730 and changing a reference denoting that the Department, not the OWRB, has authority for administering OWQS's. OAC 252:730 is a new rule being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Introduction
252:616-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Beneficial use" means in the context of land application the use of sludge or wastewater through land application for the purpose of soil conditioning, crop vegetative fertilization, or erosion control, or the use of wastewater for dust suppression where fugitive dust control would otherwise be an air quality problem, in a manner which does not pollute or tend to pollute waters of the state of Oklahoma, the environment or pose a risk to human health.
"Berm" means a man-made barrier designed to control waste and/or stormwater within a surface impoundment or to retard or contain runoff in a given area.
"Bypass" means the intentional or unintentional diversion of waste streams from any portion of a facility.
"Cathodic protection" means protecting a metal from electrochemical corrosion or rusting by using it as the cathode of a cell with a sacrificial anode.
"Cell" means a part of a surface impoundment system that shares a vertical concrete wall with another part of the surface impoundment area.
"DEQ" means the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Engineer" means a professional engineer registered in the state of Oklahoma.
"Flow-through surface impoundment" means a surface impoundment designed and constructed with an outfall structure which allows the controlled discharge of wastewater out of the impoundment.
"Freeboard" means the vertical distance from the surface water or sludge/solids level to the overflow elevation (outfall structure or the lowest part of the surrounding berm) in a surface impoundment.
"Hydraulic conductivity" means the coefficient of proportionality that describes the rate at which a fluid can move through a permeable medium. It is a function of both the medium and of the fluid flowing through it; also defined as the quantity of water that will flow through a unit cross-sectional area of porous material per unit of time under a hydraulic gradient of 1.00 (measured at right angles to the direction of flow) at a specified temperature.
"Industrial wastewater treatment permit" shall include any permit for construction, operation, treatment, storage or disposal required under this Chapter.
"Land application" means the controlled application of treated industrial wastewater or sludge onto the land surface for beneficial use.
"Liner" means a barrier which is designed, constructed and installed in a surface impoundment and which has appropriate chemical and physical properties to ensure that such structures control the seepage or release of waste and wastewater from the impoundment.
"Monitoring well" means all borings, wells, piezometers, or other means of retrieving a soil, waste, wastewater or vapor sample from the subsurface.
"Oklahoma Water Quality Standards" means the rules promulgated by the Oklahoma Water Resources BoardDEQ and contained in OAC 785:45252:730 which classify waters of the state, designate beneficial uses for which the various waters of the State shall be maintained and protected, and prescribe the water quality standards required to sustain designated uses.
"OPDES" means the Oklahoma Pollution Discharge Elimination System Act at 27A O.S. § 2-6-201 et seq.
"Operator" means the person responsible for the maintenance and operation of a surface impoundment, or disposal or wastewater treatment system and responsible for keeping records and providing reports to the DEQ.
"Outfall" means the point where monitoring shall occur for the purpose of evaluating compliance with rules, permits or orders of the DEQ.
"Person" means any individual, company, corporation, government agency, municipality, or any other entity.
"Permeability" means the rate at which liquids pass through soil or other materials in a specified direction.
"Receiving water" means that portion of any waters of the State into which wastewater is or may be released, leached, or discharged.
"Sanitary wastewater" means and includes but is not limited to wastewater from drinking fountains, showers, toilets, lavatories, and kitchens.
"Surface impoundment" means a native soil or lined basin either below or above ground level which is designed, maintained and/or operated to store, recycle, treat and/or dispose of industrial wastewater or stormwater, and shall include but is not limited to lagoons, excavations, basins, diked areas, and pits.
"Synthetic liner" means a manufactured liner material composed of plastics, resins or other flexible materials, which is designed and manufactured to be used to control the seepage or release of waste through the liner material.
"Tank system" means any subsurface disposal system which involves the storage and treatment of wastewater.
"Total retention surface impoundment" means a surface impoundment designed and constructed without an outfall structure.
"U.S.C." means United States Code.
"Waste class" means the following classification of wastewater, including stormwater:
(A)    Class I: containing or suspected to contain pollutants for which the toxicity, concentration and volume pose a significant risk of harm to humans, aquatic life, wildlife or the environment, either through high potential to migrate in groundwater or the likelihood, if discharged, to significantly degrade the beneficial uses of the receiving water as designated in the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards. These wastewaters require the most restrictive environmental protection measures.
(B)    Class II: containing or suspected to contain pollutants for which the toxicity, concentration and volume pose a moderate risk of harm to humans, aquatic life, wildlife, or the environment, either through the potential to migrate in groundwater or a reasonable possibility, if discharged, to degrade the beneficial uses of the receiving water as designated in the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards.
(C)    Class III: containing or suspected to contain pollutants which do not pose a substantial risk of harm to humans, aquatic life, wildlife, or the environment because of a relative immobility in groundwater or a general lack of direct toxicity, and which are not likely, if discharged, to degrade the beneficial uses of the receiving water as designated in the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards.
(D)    Class IV: containing only sanitary wastewater from industrial facilities. Class IV wastewaters are not subject to this Chapter, but are governed by OAC 252:641 (under 5,000 gpd) or by OAC 252:656 (5,000 gpd or more).
(E)    Class V: industrial wastewater not otherwise classified.
"Waste containment system" means storage tanks, containers and other storage reservoirs, transfer lines, pumps, fittings, overfill prevention devices, and any associated anticorrosion measures and leak prevention or detection systems.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Tank System Standards
252:616-9-1.  Authorized use of tank systems
     The use of tank systems for all wastewater classifications is authorized as follows:
(1)    Existing tank systems without subsurface absorption trenches or lateral lines can be used for the treatment of Class I, II, III, and V wastewater.
(2)    Existing tank systems with subsurface absorption trenches or lateral lines are subject to the Underground Injection Control permitting process.
(3)    To ensure the protection of groundwater in accordance with OAC 785:45-7252:730, new tank systems shall not utilize subsurface absorption trenches or lateral lines for disposal or dispersal of industrial wastewater.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Land Application Standards
252:616-11-1.  Restrictions
(a)     Beneficial use. No person may land apply sludge or wastewater except for the purpose of beneficial use.
(b)     Manner. Land apply sludge and wastewater in a manner to prevent surface runoff and to control objectionable odors. Incorporate sludge into the soil before the end of each working day (material from impoundments that is recovered as product is exempt). Do not store or land apply, or allow to runoff, sludge or wastewater to wetlands or waters of the State. Discharges to waters of the State are prohibited without a discharge permit under OAC 252:606.
(c)     Storage. Store industrial sludge as specified in the MOP. Industrial sludge shall not be stored for greater than six (6) months without prior written approval from the DEQ and in no case for longer than one (1) year.
(d)     Endangered or threatened species. Do not land apply if it is likely to adversely affect a threatened or endangered species listed under section 4 of the federal Endangered Species Act, 16 U.S.C. 1533(c), or the critical habitat of such species.
(e)     Topography. A land application site shall have minimal slope or be contoured to prevent ponding and soil erosion. No application shall occur on land having a slope exceeding five percent (5%) unless erosion and runoff control provisions are implemented, except that land having a slope of ten percent (10%) or less. Land having a slope greater than ten percent (10%) may be utilized for land application only with Department approval. For land application for dust suppression on roadways, clean wastewater hauling vehicles prior to leaving the site with provisions for disposition of rinse water.
(f)     Waste classification. Do not land apply Class I or II wastewaters.
(g)     Scenic river basin prohibition. Do not land apply industrial sludge in a scenic river basin as defined by OAC 785:45252:730 Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards.
[OAR Docket #23-626; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 621.  Non-Industrial Discharging and Public Water Supply Lagoons
[OAR Docket #23-627]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
252:621-1-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is due to the Legislature passing and the Governor signing Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating a reference from OAC 785:45 to OAC 252:730 and changing a reference from OWRB to Department of Environmental Quality in the definition of "Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards". OAC 252:730 is a new rule being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
252:621-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Artificial membrane liner" means a manufactured liner material composed of plastics, resins or other flexible materials, which is designed and manufactured to be used to control the seepage or release of waste or wastewater through the liner material.
"Berm" means a man-made barrier designed to control wastewater and/or stormwater.
"Biosolids" means primarily organically treated wastewater materials from municipal wastewater treatment plants that are suitable for recycling as amendments. This term is within the meaning of "sludge" referenced in 27A O.S. § 2-6-101(11). Biosolids are divided into the following classes:
(A)    Class A Biosolids meets the pathogen reduction requirements of 40 CFR § 503.32(a);
(B)    Class B Biosolids meets the pathogen reduction requirements of 40 CFR § 503.32(b).
"Board" means the Environmental Quality Board.
"Bypass" means the intentional diversion of waste streams from any portion of a treatment facility.
"Cell" means a single wastewater lagoon or a part of a multiple wastewater lagoon system that shares a dike with another lagoon area.
"DEQ" means the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Detention time" means the theoretical time required to displace the contents of a tank or treatment unit at a given rate of flow (volume divided by rate of flow). Also called "retention time".
"Dike" or "Embankment" means a bank, usually composed of earth, which is constructed to control or confine wastewater within a lagoon.
"Discharge" means any release by leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, dumping, escaping, seeping, leaching or other means of release of wastes or wastewater into any waters of the state or into or on any location where they may enter waters of the state.
"Discharge point" or "outfall"means the point at which wastes or wastewater enters waters of the state or become waters of the state.
"Discharging lagoon" means any lagoon which has a permitted point source discharge to "waters of the state".
"Engineer" means a person who designed the sewage or wastewater treatment works and who conceived, developed, executed or supervised the preparation of the plan documents. Said person shall be licensed in the State of Oklahoma to practice engineering and shall be a registered professional engineer or a firm holding a valid certificate of authorization from the Oklahoma Board of Registration for Professional Engineers and Land Surveyors.
"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
"Executive Director" or "Director" means the Executive Director of the Department of Environmental Quality.
"Freeboard" means the vertical distance from the surface water level in the lagoon to a point which is even with the top of the dike.
"Holding capacity" means the volume of space in a lagoon which is calculated assuming a minimum freeboard of three (3) feet, or calculated by the freeboard specified in a permit issued or specific directive given by the Department.
"Lagoon" means a lined basin, whether with soil or with other DEQ approved material, either below or above ground level which is designed, maintained and/or operated to store, recycle, treat and/or dispose of municipal/domestic wastewater or stormwater, and shall include but is not limited to man-made topographic depressions, excavations, basins, diked areas, impoundments, pits and ponds.
"Land application" means the application of treated wastewater to a vegetated land surface with the applied wastewater being further treated as it flows through the plant-soil matrix.
"Liner" means a barrier which is designed, constructed and installed in a lagoon and which has appropriate chemical and physical properties to ensure that such structures do not fail to control the seepage or release of waste and wastewater from the lagoon.
"Mean" means the calculated arithmetic average of a set of numerical data.
"NRCS" means the Natural Resource Conservation Service.
" OAC" means Oklahoma Administrative Code.
"Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards" means the rules promulgated by the Oklahoma Water Resources BoardDEQ and contained in OAC 785:45252:730 which classify waters of the state, designate beneficial uses for which the various waters of the State shall be maintained and protected, and prescribe the water quality standards required to sustain designated uses.
"Operator" means the person responsible for the maintenance and operation of a wastewater treatment system or wastewater treatment works and responsible for keeping any required records and providing reports to the Department.
"Person" means any individual, company, corporation, government agency, municipality, or any other entity whatsoever.
"Point source" shall have the meaning assigned to that term in OAC 252:606690.
"Receiving water" means that portion of any waters of the state into which wastes are or may be released, leached, or discharged. See also definition of "waters of the state".
"Sanitary wastewater" means and includes but is not limited to wastewater from drinking fountains, showers, toilets, lavatories, and kitchens.
"Septic" means bacterial activity in the absence of oxygen. This condition may cause enhancement of the growth of anaerobic bacteria and production of unpleasant odors.
"Total retention lagoon" means a lagoon designed and constructed to contain all wastewater without a discharge structure, in any and all types of weather conditions.
"Toxic substances" means substances regulated by the Department to protect beneficial uses of waters of the state, human health, or the environment.
[OAR Docket #23-627; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 626.  Public Water Supply Construction Standards
[OAR Docket #23-628]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Introduction
252:626-1-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Permit Procedures
252:626-3-2 [AMENDED]
252:626-3-6 [AMENDED]
252:626-3-7 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is that on July 1, 2021, House Bill 2402 was enacted authorizing conservancy districts, municipalities, counties, public trusts, and other political subdivisions operating a public water supply system or wastewater treatment system to utilize design-build as a project delivery method for those systems. Design-build is defined as a project delivery method in which one entity works under a single contract to provide design and construction services. The bill requires that the Department incorporate a flexible permitting process to allow this design-build authorization into its rules and authorizes up to 5 pilot projects in the interim before the rules are adopted. This bill was codified in Oklahoma Statutes, Title 61, Section 220.1. The Department proposes to update this rule to include definitions for "Design-build", "Design package", and "Flexible permitting process", and to update language regarding Construction Permit Applications, Engineering Reports, and Plans and Specifications.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Introduction
252:626-1-2.  Definitions
     Terms have the meaning assigned in the Environmental Quality Code. The following words or terms, when used in this Chapter, have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"25-year flood" means a flood event that has a 4 percent chance of being equaled or exceeded in magnitude in any given year.
"100-year flood" means a flood event that has a 1 percent chance of being equaled or exceeded in magnitude in any given year.
"ANSI" means the American National Standards institute.
"APHA" means the American Public Health Association.
"API" means the American Petroleum Institute.
"Approvable", "Approve", "Approved" mean a submission to the DEQ that shall be considered a final submission, all preliminary discussions between the DEQ and the permittee regarding the requirements of a submission shall be concluded prior to the submission, so that the submission shall be deemed complete as submitted.
"ASTM" means the American Society for Testing Materials.
"AWWA" means the American Water Works Association.
"Board" means the Environmental Quality Board.
"Calculated dose" means the RED calculated using the dose-monitoring equation that was developed through validation testing.
"Cartridge filter" means a filter that is manufactured by placing a flat sheet membrane media between a feed and filtrate support layer and plating the assembly to increase the membrane surface area within the cartridge. The pleat pack assembly is then placed around a center core with a corresponding outer case and subsequently sealed, via adhesive or thermal means, into its cartridge configuration.
"Certified waterworks operator" means an operator licensed by the State of Oklahoma pursuant to OAC 252:710.
"CFR" means Code of Federal Regulation.
"Challenge test" means a study conducted to determine the removal efficiency (i.e. log removal value [LRV]) of a membrane material for a particular organism, particulate or surrogate.
"Clean-in place (CIP)" means the periodic application of a chemical solution or series of solutions to a membrane unit for the intended purpose of removing accumulated foulants and restoring permeability and resistance to baseline levels, commonly used for in-situ chemical cleaning.
"Combined distribution system" means the interconnected distribution system consisting of the distribution systems of wholesale systems and of the consecutive systems that receive finished water.
"Consecutive system" means a public water supply system that receives some or all of its finished water from one or more wholesale systems. Delivery may be through a direct connection or through the distribution system of one or more consecutive systems.
"Council" means the Water Quality Management Advisory Council.
"CT" means the product of "residual disinfectant concentration" (C) in mg/l, and the corresponding "disinfectant contact time" (T) in minutes, i.e., "C" x "T". CT requirements for a variety of disinfectants and conditions appear in the EPA Guidance Manual to the Surface Water Treatment Rule.
"CT Value" means the product of disinfectant residual and disinfectant CT. The required amount of CT needed is contained in the EPA Guidance Manual to the Surface Water Treatment Rule.
"DEQ" means the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Design-build" means a project delivery method in which one entity works under a single contract with the project owner to provide design and construction services.
"Design package" means a submittal to DEQ for an approvable design-build flexible construction permitting process. The number and scope of design packages is defined and set in the approved engineering report with the last design package encompassing the final and completed 100% project design.
"Differential pressure" means a pressure drop across a membrane module or unit from the feed inlet to concentrate outlet, as distinguished from transmembrane pressure (TMP), which represents the pressure from across the membrane barrier.
"Direct integrity testing" means a physical test applied to a membrane unit in order to identify and/or isolate an integrity breach.
"Director" or "Executive Director" means the Executive Director of the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Effective size" means from a particle-size distribution curve, it is the diameter where 10% of the material is finer.
"Element" means a term used to describe an encased spiral-wound membrane module and is synonymous with the terms module and cartridge.
"Engineer" means a professional engineer licensed to practice engineering in Oklahoma.
"ETV" means the EPA's Environmental Technical Verification Program.
"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
"FDA" means the United States Food and Drug Administration.
"Flexible permitting process" means construction permitting for a design-build project that is approved to start construction with multiple design packages, noting that an approved DEQ construction permit is required before construction or modification of a public water supply system begins. Construction is limited to the scope of the approved design package(s).
"Flood Plain" means the flood way and a zone of floodwater storage where water moves slowly or is ponded, thus attenuating the flood peak as the flood waters move downstream.
"Flood way" means the part of the flood plain considered to be the zone of highest hazard and the zone to be reserved for the passage of larger floods.
"Flux" means the throughput of a pressure-driven membrane filtration system expressed in terms of flow per unit of membrane area.
"GWUDI" means groundwater under the direct influence of surface water.
"Hydraulic analysis" means the study of the water system network, evaluating water flows within the distribution system under prescribed conditions, such as peak hourly flow plus fire flow when required. Hydraulic analysis includes consideration of all factors affecting system energy losses.
"Indirect integrity monitoring" means the monitoring of an aspect of filtered water quality, such as turbidity, that is indicative of the removal of particulate matter at a frequency of no less than once every fifteen (15) minutes.
"Individual water system" means a water system serving only one single-family residence.
"Iron and manganese control" means the treatment process designed specifically for the treatment or removal of iron and manganese.
"Membrane unit" means a group of membrane modules that share common valving which allows the unit to be isolated from the rest of the system for the purpose of integrity testing or other maintenance, synonymous with the terms rack, skid and train.
"Minor public water supply system" means a water system not included in the public water supply system definition. Minor public water supply systems are regulated by OAC 252:624.
"Multi-family dwelling" means a single structure designed and suitable for use of several or many families.
"Municipal system" means public water supply distribution systems constructed, operated, and maintained by a municipality or trust for the benefit of such municipality.
"mm" means millimeter
"nm" means nanometer.
"NSF" means the National Sanitation Foundation.
"OAC" means the Oklahoma Administrative Code.
"O.S." means the Oklahoma Statutes.
"OWRB" means the Oklahoma Water Resources Board.
"Package treatment plant" means plants that are pre-manufactured used to treat water that do not meet conventional standards for flocculation and sedimentation.
"Plan documents" means reports, proposals, preliminary plans, survey and basis of design data, general and detail construction plans, profiles, specifications, and all other information pertaining to water supply planning.
"Pitless unit" means an assembly which extends the upper end of the well casing to above grade to prevent the entrance of contaminants into the well or potable water supply, to conduct water from the well, to protect the water from freezing or extremes of temperature and to provide fill access to the well and to parts within the well.
"psi" means pounds per square inch.
"Public Water Supply (PWS) system" means any system providing water for human consumption through pipes or other constructed conveyances, if such system has at least fifteen (15) service connections or regularly serves an average of at least twenty-five (25) individuals daily at least sixty (60) days per year, whether receiving payment for same or not. Multi-family dwellings, mobile home parks, recreational vehicle (RV) parks, and correctional facilities, which are constructed, inspected and maintained under a State or locally approved plumbing code, purchase water from a permitted water system, do not provide treatment, and do not resell water, are not classified as a Public Water Supply system. The following are the categories of Public Water Supply systems:
(A)    "Community water system" means any PWS system that serves at least fifteen (15) service connections used by year-round residents or regularly serves at least twenty-five (25) year-round residents.
(B)    "Non-community water system" means any PWS system that serves an average of at least twenty-five (25) individuals at least sixty (60) days per year but is neither a community water system nor a non-transient non-community water system.
(C)    "Non-transient non-community (NTNC) water system" means any PWS system that is not a community water system and that regularly serves at least twenty-five (25) of the same persons over six (6) months per year.
"Purchase water system" means any system, which purchases all of its water through a master meter and provides that water to the public.
"Reduced pressure zone, backflow preventer" means a device designed to prevent backflow consisting of two spring loaded check valves with an intermediate reduced pressure zone that drains to the atmosphere by a relief valve, with a reduced pressure maintained in the intermediate zone by means of a pressure differential valve.
"Reduction Equivalent Dose (RED)" means the UV dose derived by entering the log inactivation measured during full-scale reactor testing into the UV dose-response curve that was derived through collimated beam testing. RED values are always specific to the challenge microorganism used during experimental testing and the validation test conditions for full-scale reactor testing.
"Required Dose" means the UV dose in units of mJ/cm2 needed to achieve the target log inactivation for the target pathogen.
"Residuals" means the sludge generated by a drinking water treatment facility.
"Rip rap" means a permanent, erosion resistant ground cover that consists of hard, sound durable stones, which average in weight between thirty pounds (30 lbs.) to fifty pounds (50 lbs.), with no more than twenty percent (20%) weighing less than twenty pounds (20 lbs).
"Rural water system" means a water system designed to provide domestic water service to an area having its major part outside of an incorporated community. This system may be organized as a trust authority, a rural water district, or non-profit water corporation.
"Silt density index (SDI)" means the ASTM, standard D 4189-95, Standard Test Method for Silt Density Index of Water. Measurements are taken by filtering a water sample through a 0.45mm flat sheet filter with a 47mm diameter at a pressure of 30 psi. The time required to collect two samples at 500 ml each is measured and the resulting data is imputed into a formula.
"Solids contact unit" means a combination rapid mix, floc-aggregation, and upflow sedimentation basin constructed in either a round or square configuration.
"Standard methods for the examination of water and wastewater" means the approval methods developed by the APHA, the AWWA and the Water Environmental Federation. The current standard methods are contained in the 20th Edition, published by the AWWA.
"Sufficiency certification" means to provide assurance that the integrity and capacity of an existing system will not or have not been compromised.
"Transmembrane pressure (TMP)" means the pressure drop across the membrane barrier.
"UL" means the Underwriters Laboratory.
"Uniformity coefficient" means from a particle-size distribution curve it is, the ratio of the 60 percent grain size to the 10 percent grain size.
"U.S.C." means United States Code.
"UV" means ultra violet.
"UV absorbance" means a measure of the amount of UV light that is absorbed by a substance at a specific wavelength, across a specified pathlength of substance. This measurement accounts for absorption and scattering in the medium. Standard Method 5910B details this measurement method, however, for drinking water applications, samples need not be filtered or adjusted for pH or longer pathlength cuvettes, 4 cm to 5 cm should be used instead of 1 cm cuvette.
"UV dose" means the UV energy per unit area incident on a surface, typically reported in units of mJ/cm2 or J/m2. The UV dose received by a waterborne microorganism in a reactor vessel accounts for the effects on UV intensity of the absorbance of the water, absorbance of the quartz sleeves, reflection and refraction of light from the water surface and reactor walls, and the germicidal effectiveness of the UV wavelengths transmitted.
"UV dose distribution" means the probability distribution of UV doses that microorganisms receive in a flow-through UV reactor, typically shown in a histogram.
"UV inactivation" means a process by which a microorganism is rendered unable to reproduce, thereby unable to infect a host.
"UV intensity" means the power passing through a unit area perpendicular to the direction of propagation. UV intensity is used in the UV Disinfection Guidance Manual (UVDGM) to describe the magnitude of UV light measured by UV sensors in a reactor and with a radiometer in bench-scale UV experiments.
"UV lamp sleeve" means the quartz tube that houses the UV lamp. The exterior of the lamp sleeve is in direct contact with the water being treated. There is typically an air gap (approx. 1 cm) between the lamp envelope and quartz sleeve.
"UV low-pressure lamp" means a mercury-vapor lamp that operated at an internal pressure of 0.13 to 1.3 Pa (2X10 to 2X10-4 psi) and electrical input 0.5 watts per centimeter (W/cm). This results in essentially monochromatic light output at 254 nm.
"UV low-pressure high-output lamp" means a low-pressure mercury-vapor lamp that operates under increased electrical input (1.5 to 10 W/cm), resulting in a higher UV intensity than low-pressure lamps. This results in essentially monochromatic light output at 254 nm.
"UV medium-pressure lamp" means a mercury-vapor lamp that operates at an internal pressure of 1.3 to 13,000 Pa (2 to 200 psi) and electrical input of 50 to 150 W/cm. This results in a polychromatic (or broad spectrum) output of UV and visible light at multiple wavelengths, including wavelengths in the germicidal range.
"UV off-line chemical clean" means a process to clean lamp sleeves where the UV reactor is taken off-line and a cleaning solution (typically weak acid) is sprayed into the reactor through a service port.
"UV off specification" means a UV facility that is operating outside of the validated operating conditions (e.g. at a flow rate higher than the validated range or UVT below the validated range).
"UV on-line mechanical clean" means a process to clean lamp sleeves where an automatic mechanical wiper (e.g. o-ring) wipes the surface of the lamp sleeve at a prescribed frequency.
"UV on-line mechanical-chemical clean" means a process to clean lamp sleeves where an automatic mechanical wiper (e.g. o-ring) with a chemical solution located within the cleaning mechanism wipes the surface of the lamp sleeve at a prescribed frequency.
"UV sensor" means a photosensitive detector used to measure the UV intensity at a point within the UV reactor that converts the signal to units of milliamps (mA).
"UV transmittance (UVT)" means a measure of the fraction of incident light transmitted through a material. The UV transmittance is usually reported for a wavelength of 254 nm and a pathlength of 1 cm. If an alternate pathlength is used, it shall be specified or converted to units of cm-1. UV transmittance is often represented as a percentage and is related to the UV absorbance(A254) by the following equation (for a 1 cm path length): % UV transmittance=100X10-A where A is UV absorbance.
"Validated dose" means means the UV dose in units of mJ/cm2 delivered by the UV reactor is determined through validation testing. The validated dose is compared to the required dose to determine log inactivation credit.
"Water line extension" means an extension of an existing permitted water distribution line.
"WEF" means the Water Environmental Federation, formerly known as the WPCF.
"Wholesale system" means a public water supply system that treats source water as necessary to produce finished water and then delivers finished water to another public water supply system. Delivery may be through a direct connection or through the distribution system of one or more consecutive systems.
"WQA" means the Water Quality Association.
"WTP" means Water Treatment Plant.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Permit Procedures
252:626-3-2.  Applications
(a)    Submit legible applications on forms provided by the DEQ and include:
(1)    the type of entity that is applying
(2)    the legal description,
(3)    a minimum of 2 sets of plans and specifications, with at least one set of construction plans printed on 11" x 17" paper and one set of specifications loosely bound that is suitable for scanning,
(4)    a final design analysis. Provided, an authorized design-build project may use the flexible permitting process upon approval by DEQ as provided in these rules. If design-build is used, the final design package must encompass the entire completed project,
(5)    all appropriate fees, and
(6)    engineering report approved by the DEQ for major waterworks projects, or smaller projects utilizing non-conventional processes.
(b)    Public entities other than municipalities must provide certified copies of the results of the last election or appointment of the members of the governing body. Public entities must provide a citation of legal authority to own and operate the proposed facility.
(c)    Applicants other than public entities must provide copies of documents that created them and provide a citation to their statutory authority.
252:626-3-6.  Engineering report
(a)     Copies and timing. Submit 3 copies of an approvable engineering report as required in OAC 252:626-3-2 for proposed new construction or modifications to PWS systems, at least 30 days prior to the submission of the application for a permit to construct.
(b)     Purpose. The purpose of the report is to present the Engineer's findings with enough attention given to detail(s) to allow adequate review of the project by the owner and applicable regulatory agencies.
(c)     Requirements. The report must include all information necessary for a comprehensive evaluation of the proposed construction. The report must present, at a minimum, the following:
(1)     General information. Include the following:
(A)    a description of existing water works and wastewater facilities,
(B)    identification of the municipality or area served,
(C)    name and mailing addresses of the owner and official custodian,
(D)    a statement as to whether the project will be constructed in phases. If the project is to be constructed in phases, the statement will include the number of phases necessary to complete the project and which portions of the project will be completed in each phase,
(E)    a demonstration that adequate capacity, treatment and compliance with the primary drinking water standards are maintained during construction,
(F)    a letter from the permittee approving the contents contained in the engineering report as submitted,
(G)    a map showing legal and natural boundaries of entire service area, and
(H)    a map showing new service areas or annexed areas.
(2)     Extent of water works system. Include the following:
(A)    a description of the area to be served,
(B)    provisions for extending the waterworks system,
(C)    establish the anticipated design average and peak flows for existing and potential industrial, commercial, institutional and other water supply needs for both the current service area and potential future service areas,
(D)    a hydraulic analysis that demonstrates that a minimum of 25 psi shall be met at all times throughout the distribution system, and
(E)    a site plan and schematic layout of treatment facilities.
(3)     Alternate plan. Where feasible and practical, provide a minimum of 3 alternative solutions and discuss the alternatives, including cost estimates and reasons for selecting the one recommended.
(4)     Soil, ground water conditions, and foundation problems. The report must include a description of the following:
(A)    the character of the soil where water mains are to be laid,
(B)    soil conditions, which might affect foundations of proposed structures, and
(C)    the approximate elevation of ground water in relation to subsurface structures.
(5)     Water use data. Provide the following water use data:
(A)    a description of the population trends as indicated by available records, and the estimated population which will be served by the proposed water supply system or expanded system,
(B)    present water consumption of existing systems and the projected average and maximum daily demands that were used as the basis of the design, and
(C)    present or estimated yield of supply source(s) along with a copy of the water rights verification form and/or the purchase water contract.
(6)     Fire flow requirements. Demonstrate that the plans meet the requirements regarding fire flows pursuant to the International Fire Code, published by the International Code Council, Inc., 2003 Edition, Distribution System Requirements for Fire Protection, M 31, published by the AWWA, 3rd Edition or other recommendations of similar organizations for the fire service area.
(7)     Sewer system available. Describe the methods of disposal for sanitary and all other wastewater from the treatment plant.
(8)     Sources of water supply. For the alternative chosen, the report must describe the proposed source or sources of water supply to be developed, the reasons for their selection, and provide information required by OAC 252:626-7 and the following:
(A)    surface water sources, including:
(i)    hydrological data, stream flow and weather records,
(ii)    safe yield, including all factors that may affect it,
(iii)    maximum flood or pool elevation,
(iv)    description of watershed, noting any existing or potential sources of contamination which may affect water quality, and
(v)    quality of the raw water with special reference to fluctuations.
(B)    ground water sources, including:
(i)    sites considered,
(ii)    advantages of the site selected,
(iii)    elevations with respect to surroundings,
(iv)    character of formations through which the source is to be developed,
(v)    geologic conditions affecting the site,
(vi)    summary of exploration; test well depth and method of construction; placement of liners or screen; test pumping rates and duration; water levels and specific capacity; chemical and radiological quality of the water,
(vii)    sources of possible contamination including but not limited to wastewater collection and treatment facilities, landfills, outcroppings of consolidated water-bearing formations, waste disposal wells, slush pits, irrigation wells and abandoned wells, and
(viii)    industrial and other private water supply. Where pertinent, use significant ground water developments within a 1 mile radius of the proposed ground water source, giving depths, size, protective casing depth, capacity, location, type and any available information pertaining thereto.
(9)     Proposed treatment processes. Summarize and determine the adequacy of proposed processes and unit parameters for the treatment of the water under consideration. Pilot studies may be required for innovative design. Post treatment for membrane systems shall be in accordance with OAC 252:626-9-9 (f)(6).
(10)     Residuals management. Submit a Residuals Management Plan that discusses the wastes and volume generated by existing and proposed water treatment processes, their volume, proposed treatment of waste products, points of discharge or method of disposal or land application.
(11)     Project sites. Address the following in the report:
(A)    discussion of various sites considered and advantages of those recommended,
(B)    the proximity of residences, industries, and other establishments, and
(C)    any potential sources of pollution that may influence the quality of the supply or interfere with effective operation of the water works system, including but not limited to, absorption systems, septic tanks, privies, sink holes, sanitary landfills, refuse and garbage dumps.
(12)     Cost estimates. Address the following in the report:
(A)    estimated cost of integral parts of the system,
(B)    detailed estimated annual cost of operation, and
(C)    proposed methods to finance both capital charges and operating expenses.
(13)     Future extensions. Summarize future needs and services.
(14)     Design-build. Authorized design-build projects may use the flexible construction permitting process as approved in the engineering report, including:
(A)    Label cover documents prominently as "Design-build"
(B)    Completed attestation form from applicant certifying that project is design-build;
(C)    Description of design packages, including the number (maximum of six), scope of each package, expected schedule of each package, and expected schedule of completion for major construction items;
(D)    The engineering report will address the entire scope of the project at 100% completion.
252:626-3-7.  Plans and specifications
(a)    Plans and specifications must address the entire project pursuant to the approved engineering report as required in OAC 252:626-3-2. If the applicant plans to phase construction, the approved engineering report shall contain a description of each phase of the project and the sequence of construction to ensure continuity of the system and that adequate capacity will be available for each phase.
(b)    All detailed plans must be legible and drawn to a suitable scale. Plans for modifications or extensions to existing systems or plants must indicate clearly the connections or relation. Include the following:
(1)    A general layout sheet that includes:
(A)    title and date,
(B)    name of municipality, rural water district, or other entity or person who owns the system,
(C)    area or institution to be served,
(D)    scale, in feet,
(E)    north point,
(F)    data used,
(G)    boundaries of the municipality, rural water district, or area to be served,
(H)    name, telephone number, and address of the designing engineer,
(I)    the Engineer's seal and signature,
(J)    location and size of existing water mains, and
(K)    location and nature of existing water works structures and appurtenances affecting the proposed improvements.
(L)    authorized design-build projects must label cover documents prominently as "Design-build" specify the design package number, and reference the approved engineering report number.
(2)    Detailed sheets that include:
(A)    stream crossings with profiles of the stream bed showing the normal, high and low water levels,
(B)    profile sheets with a horizontal scale of not more than 100 feet to the inch and a vertical scale of not more than 10 feet to the inch. Both scales must be clearly indicated. A smaller horizontal scale may be used for rural water distribution systems, but in no case smaller than 500 feet to the inch. Plans with contour intervals of 10 feet or less may be provided in lieu of profiles,
(C)    dimensional boundaries of property intended for ground water development. Show location with respect to known references such as street intersections or section lines,
(D)    topography and arrangement of existing and proposed wells or structures, with contour intervals not greater than 2 feet. Contour intervals of greater than 2 feet can be used for water line plans. Contour intervals cannot be greater than 10 feet,
(E)    elevations of the highest known flood level, floor of the structure, upper terminal of protective casings and outside surrounding grade, using Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) or equivalent elevations as reference,
(F)    drawings of well construction, showing diameter and depth of drill holes, casing and liner diameters and depths, grouting depths, elevations and designation of geological formations, water levels and other details to describe the proposed well completely,
(G)    location of all existing and potential sources of pollution within 300 feet of the raw water source and within 100 feet of underground treated water storage facilities,
(H)    size, length, and identity of sewers, drains, and water mains near the proposed water works,
(I)    schematic flow diagrams and hydraulic profiles showing the flow through plant units,
(J)    piping in sufficient detail to show flow through the plant, including waste lines, and locations of all sampling taps,
(K)    locations of all chemical feeding equipment and points of chemical application, sanitary and other facilities, including but not limited to lavatories, showers, toilets, and lockers,
(L)    all appurtenances, specific structures, equipment, water treatment plant waste disposal units and points of discharge,
(M)    locations, dimensions and elevations of all proposed and existing plant units,
(N)    adequate description of any features not otherwise covered by the specifications,
(O)    location of all valves, and
(P)    location of all storage tanks, including the capacity of the tanks and top and bottom elevations.
(c)    Specifications must:
(1)    supply complete, detailed, technical specifications for all parts of the proposed project, including a program for keeping existing water works facilities in operation during construction of additional facilities,
(2)    cover in detail materials to be used, methods of making or drilling well(s), dimensions, depth, straightness of the hole, required logs, tests, records, locations of water formations, grouting or cementing, shooting and final testing of the well(s), for ground water systems,
(3)    provide supporting data regarding reliability of operation, maintenance and operator training, if automatic equipment is proposed. Provide manual override for any automatic controls;
(4)    be written so that a representative of the manufacturer will check the installation and supervise initial operation of the major items of mechanical equipment and pumps,
(5)    provide complete sets of all special tools and accessories required for operation and maintenance, together with parts lists, and operation and maintenance manuals for each piece of mechanical equipment, and
(6)    provide for an Operation and Maintenance (O & M) Manual for the operation and maintenance of the public water supply system. The O & M Manual shall include at a minimum:
(A)    System Treatment Requirements;
(B)    Description, Operation and Control of the Water Treatment Plant;
(C)    Control of Unit Processes;
(D)    Laboratory Testing;
(E)    Common Operating Problems;
(F)    Start-Up Testing and Procedures;
(G)    Standard Operating Procedures;
(H)    Alternative and Emergency Operations;
(I)    Emergency Shutdown Operations and Emergency Response;
(J)    Records Control and Retention;
(K)    Safety;
(L)    Public Water Supply System Maintenance Records;
(M)    Stormroom and Inventory System; and
(N)    Utilities.
(d)    File as-built plans (plans of record) which identify any changes to the DEQ approved plans and specifications and an Engineer's certification that the construction was completed according to the requirements of this Chapter within 6 months after the project is completed.
[OAR Docket #23-628; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 628.  Indirect Potable Reuse for Surface Water Augmentation
[OAR Docket #23-629]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
252:628-1-2 [AMENDED]
252:628-1-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Benchmarks and Implementation for IPR Source Water Discharges
252:628-3-2 [AMENDED]
252:628-3-6 [AMENDED]
252:628-3-7 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Permitting Requirements for IPR Source Water
252:628-9-4 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 11. IPR Receiving Waterbody Monitoring
252:628-11-1 [AMENDED]
252:628-11-2 [AMENDED]
252:628-11-3 [AMENDED]
252:628-11-4 [AMENDED]
252:628-11-5 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is due to the Legislature passing and the Governor signing Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating references to OAC 785:45, OAC 785:46 and OWRB, and replacing these references with OAC 252:730, OAC 252:740, and Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ), respectively, and where applicable. OAC 252:730 and OAC 252:740 are new rules being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
252:628-1-2.  Definitions
     In addition to the definitions contained in the Environmental Quality Code (27A O.S. Section 2-1-101 et seq.), the following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"BOD5" means 5-day biochemical oxygen demand.
"CBOD5" means 5-day carbonaceous biochemical oxygen demand.
"Conservative parameter" means a parameter which persists in the environment, having characteristics which are resistant to ordinary biological or biochemical degradation.
"Constituents of Emerging Concern (CECs)" means a group of synthetic or naturally occurring chemicals that are not currently regulated under the Clean Water Act (CWA) or Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) and are not commonly monitored in the environment. These constituents are to be evaluated in IPR Source Water treatment. Examples of CECs are chemicals in the following categories: prescription and nonprescription drugs, home care products, veterinary and human antibiotics, industrial and household products, sex and steroidal hormones, other endocrine disrupters, and engineered nanomaterials. Selected constituents may be surrogates for a broader list of constituents for use in evaluating overall levels in treated IPR Source Water or for reservoir evaluation.
"CPI" means Consumer Price Index. See Section 628-1-4(e) for additional information.
"DEQ" means the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"DMR" means discharge monitoring report.
"Disinfection" means the selective destruction of pathogens in water.
"Drought of Record" means, for reservoirs, the month with the highest concentration of a given conservative parameter as predicted by hydrologic and mass balance considerations. For stream IPR projects, the drought of record means the lowest monthly average streamflow over a minimum 40 year period of record or other period of record as approved by DEQ.
"HAB" means harmful algal bloom.
"Hydrologic Mass Balance (HMB) Model" means a minimum monthly time-step model which uses hydrologic data over a period of record from 1950 to the present, or other period of record as required or approved by DEQ, and may be used to estimate the concentration of a conservative parameter in a reservoir or stream over time. Other models, with DEQ approval, may be substituted for an HMB Model.
"Industrial facilities" means those facilities that produce, treat or dispose of wastewater not otherwise defined as domestic wastewater, including the runoff and leachate from areas that receive pollutants associated with industrial or commercial storage, handling or processing.
"IPR" means Indirect Potable Reuse.
"IPR Source Water" means water originating from a municipal wastewater treatment facility that meets the benchmarks, treatment, and operational standards of this Chapter and has been permitted under an OPDES wastewater permit for release to a surface water source for a PWS system for the purpose of augmenting the flow to an existing PWS system intake.
"IPR Source Water Treatment" means any method, technique, or process which changes the physical, chemical, biological character, or composition of municipal secondary treated wastewater for the purpose of meeting the benchmarks, treatment, and operational standards contained herein for IPR Source Water.
"IPR Source Water Treatment Plant (IPR SWTP)" means any plant or other works used for the purpose of treating, stabilizing, or holding IPR Source Water.
"LMR" means lake and stream monitoring report.
"MOR" means monthly operating report.
"MQL" means minimum quantifiable level.
"Non-conservative parameter" means a parameter which undergoes significant short-term degradation or change in the environment other than by dilution.
"NTU" means Nephelometric Turbidity Unit.
"O&M" means Operation and Maintenance.
"Operator" means the individual who is properly certified by DEQ and who is responsible for the maintenance and operation of an IPR Source Water Treatment Plant.
"OWQS" means the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards, contained at OAC 785:45252:730.
"pH" means the negative common logarithm of the hydrogen-ion activity in moles per liter, as determined using approved methods.
"Secondary treatment" means wastewater treatment to a level that will achieve the effluent limitations specified in OAC 252:606-5-2.
"Surface water" means waters of the state located upon the surface of the earth.
"Surrogate" means an individual chemical or measurement that provides an indication of treatment process performance and/or represents the presence of a broader range of similar chemicals.
"SWS-R" means waterbodies classified as sensitive public and private water supplies that may be augmented with reclaimed water for the purpose of indirect potable reuse.
"TDS" means total dissolved solids.
"TOC" means total organic carbon.
"TRC" means total residual chlorine.
"TRO" means total residual oxidant.
"TSS" means total suspended solids.
252:628-1-3.  Applicability and general requirements
(a)     Applicability. The requirements of this Chapter apply to an applicant proposing the use of IPR Source Water to augment an existing source for a Public Water Supply (PWS) system. Permitted wastewater discharges existing as of the date of the initial promulgation of this rule are not considered IPR discharges subject to the rules in this Chapter.
(b)     Indirect Potable Reuse (IPR) for surface water (lake) augmentation. This type of planned water reuse involves the discharge of treated wastewater to a surface waterbody by an entity for the purpose of augmenting a lake serving as a source for a PWS system. These rules apply to discharges to both SWS-R waterbodies and other reservoirs designated with the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use in the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS), or upstream of such reservoirs. Discharges to reservoirs designated as SWS-R by the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB)DEQ shall be regulated in accordance with OWRBDEQ anti-degradation policy.
(c)     Indirect Potable Reuse (IPR) for surface water (streams and rivers) augmentation. Based on DEQ's evaluation of flow rates, travel times, distance to water intakes, and other factors, certain discharges of treated municipal wastewater to streams and rivers that serve as a source for a PWS system may also be determined to be IPR and subject to these rules.
(d)     Requirements. In general, municipal wastewater effluent that has been treated to secondary standards will need advanced treatment in order to meet, at a minimum, the IPR effluent benchmarks in Subchapter 3 of this Chapter as well as the technology and operational standards described in Subchapters 5 and 7 of this Chapter. In addition, the applicant and their design engineer shall meet the certification and contingency planning requirements of this Subchapter.
(e)     Human Health Protection. The goal of these rules is to manage the risk to public health, safety, and welfare from the discharge of IPR Source Water for surface water augmentation.
(f)     Potential Impacts. The decision by an applicant to augment an existing source for a PWS system with IPR Source Water is a voluntary activity by the applicant. The applicant should undertake all measures, whether required in this rule or not, to ensure the protection of human health and the environment.
(g)     Certification. Engineering reports and plans and specifications shall be signed and sealed by a professional engineer registered in the State of Oklahoma certifying that the submittal was prepared in accordance with good engineering practice. In addition to this certification, the responsible official for the applicant shall submit a cover letter stating that the project will meet the applicable requirements of this Chapter.
(h)     Contingency Plan. The applicant shall submit to DEQ for approval a contingency plan describing the steps the applicant will take in the event of an adverse public health situation developing in the receiving waterbody as a result of the applicant's discharge, including but not limited to, harmful algal blooms and harmful concentrations of other pollutants. The plan shall evaluate steps for lake water quality restoration as well as provisions for supplying potable water to the citizens impacted by loss of the PWS system source. The applicant shall demonstrate the capability to respond to the temporary loss of a PWS system source due to IPR impacts.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Benchmarks and Implementation for IPR Source Water Discharges
252:628-3-2.  Other rules apply
(a)    The IPR benchmarks established by this Subchapter apply in addition to other rules for wastewater discharges, including OAC 785:45252:730, OAC 785:46252:740, OAC 252:301, OAC 252:606 and OAC 252:690. For parameters which are subject to both the IPR benchmarks established by this Subchapter and effluent limitations developed in accordance with OAC 252:606 and OAC 252:690, the more stringent effluent limitations and monitoring requirements shall apply.
(b)    IPR Source Water discharges shall maintain existing and designated beneficial uses; shall not cause or contribute to a violation of narrative and numeric criteria; and shall be consistent with anti-degradation policy established in the OWQS.
(c)    IPR Source Water discharges to SWS-R waterbodies shall not consume more than the portion of the assimilative capacity determined and allocated to the discharger in accordance with OAC 785:45252:730, OAC 785:46252:740, OAC 252:606 and OAC 252:690.
(d)    IPR Source Water discharges to lakes shall be at least as protective as Oklahoma's Discharges to State Lakes policy as described in Oklahoma's Continuing Planning Process (CPP) document.
252:628-3-6.  IPR benchmarks for additional conservative parameters
(a)     Additional conservative parameters. Refer to Appendix A of this Chapter for the list of additional conservative parameters.
(b)     Effluent limitations for TDS. Effluent limitations for TDS shall be set so the maximum ambient concentration will not exceed the greater of 700 milligrams per liter or two (2) standard deviations above the mean background TDS value of the receiving waterbody prior to IPR Source Water discharge. The calculated permit limit shall be applied as a monthly average permit limit in the OPDES discharge permit. The daily maximum permit limit shall be established as 1.5 times the monthly average permit limits. Background levels may be established from any combination of scientifically defensible data, including historical data, segment averages, and baseline monitoring.
(c)     Permit reopener for TDS. Should receiving water monitoring for TDS indicate that the receiving waterbody has exceeded the greater of 700 milligrams per liter or two (2) standard deviations above the mean background TDS value prior to IPR discharge, the permit may be reopened and modified to reduce effluent limitations or increase frequency of effluent monitoring.
(d)     Effluent limitations for additional conservative parameters other than TDS. Effluent limitations for additional conservative parameters other than TDS shall be calculated to meet action levels established in accordance with Subchapter 11 of this Chapter. The calculated permit limits shall be applied as monthly average permit limits in the OPDES discharge permit. Daily maximum permit limits shall be established as 1.5 times the monthly average permit limits.
(e)     Mixing zones. Complete mixing of effluent and receiving water shall be used to determine appropriate effluent limitations for additional conservative parameters, unless superseded by mixing zones or dilution factors established in OAC 785:46252:740. An HMB model or other DEQ-approved model shall be used for implementation purposes.
(f)     Effluent monitoring requirements. The following effluent monitoring requirements apply:
(1)    IPR Source Water discharges shall be monitored for additional conservative parameters monthly.
(2)    DEQ may increase the monitoring frequencies listed in (f)(1) of this Section for a period not to exceed two years during the initial permit cycle for the purpose of establishing the pattern and extent of variation for a given parameter.
252:628-3-7.  IPR benchmarks for nutrients, chlorophyll-a, and algal biomass
(a)     Water quality standards. IPR Source Water discharges shall not cause or contribute to an exceedance of narrative or numerical OWQS for nutrients, dissolved oxygen or chlorophyll-a. The evaluation of potential OWQS impacts shall be made using DEQ-approved effluent and receiving waterbody modeling.
(b)     Eutrophication. IPR Source Water discharges shall not cause or contribute to excessive growth of algal biomass, periphyton, phytoplankton, cyanobacteria, or aquatic macrophyte communities, which impairs any existing or designated beneficial use.
(c)     Mixing zones. No mixing zones or dilution factors shall be allowed for establishing effluent limitations for nitrate (as N) and nitrite (as N). Mixing zones or dilution factors shall be designated on a case-by-case basis for establishing effluent limitations for other nutrients, unless superseded by mixing zones or dilution factors established in OAC 785:46252:740.
(d)     Total nitrogen. Total nitrogen shall not exceed 8 milligrams per liter as a monthly average or 12 milligrams per liter daily maximum. More stringent effluent limitations representing enhanced nutrient removal technologies for nitrogen may be established where DEQ-approved modeling demonstrates that the IPR Source Water discharge may cause or contribute to an increase in ambient receiving waterbody concentrations of nitrogen to levels that would violate paragraph (a) or (b) of this Section, or of nitrate (as N) to levels that would exceed 10 milligrams per liter.
(e)     Total phosphorus. Total phosphorus shall not exceed 0.2 milligrams per liter monthly average or 0.3 milligrams per liter daily maximum. More stringent effluent limitations representing enhanced nutrient removal technologies for phosphorus may be established where DEQ-approved modeling demonstrates that the IPR Source Water discharge may cause or contribute to an increase in ambient receiving waterbody concentrations of phosphorus to levels that would violate paragraph (a) or (b) of this Section.
(f)     Chlorophyll-a. The following requirements apply:
(1)     SWS-R Waterbodies. IPR Source Water discharges shall not cause or contribute to an increase in ambient receiving waterbody concentrations to levels that would exceed the aggregate long-term average concentration of chlorophyll-a at a depth of 0.5 meters below the waterbody surface of 0.010 milligrams per liter. Effluent limitations for nutrients to ensure compliance with this criterion shall be developed based on DEQ-approved modeling of the discharge and receiving waterbody.
(2)     Non-SWS-R Waterbodies. IPR Source Water discharges shall not cause or contribute to an exceedance of narrative or numerical water quality standards for nutrients or chlorophyll-a. Effluent limitations for nutrients to ensure compliance with these criteria shall be developed based on DEQ-approved modeling of the discharge and receiving water.
(g)     Effluent monitoring requirements. The following effluent monitoring requirements apply:
(1)    Nutrient parameters which are included in the permit shall be monitored at a frequency of weekly during the period of May through October and twice a month during the period of November through April; and
(2)    DEQ may increase the monitoring frequencies listed in (g)(1) of this Section for a period not to exceed two years during the initial permit cycle for the purpose of establishing the pattern and extent of variation for a given parameter.
(h)     Harmful algal blooms. In the event HABs occur at an area of the receiving waterbody influenced by the IPR Source Water discharge, the permittee shall immediately cease discharge via the IPR Source Water outfall, and notify DEQ within 24 hours.
(1)    A written report evaluating the size and extent of the HABs, the potential causes for the HABs, and the steps taken to eliminate the HABs shall be submitted to DEQ within ten (10) days.
(2)    Discharge via the IPR Source Water outfall may resume after corrective action is completed, if necessary, the HABs are eliminated and written approval is received from DEQ.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Permitting Requirements for IPR Source Water
252:628-9-4.  Feasibility study
(a)    Applicants shall submit to DEQ three (3) copies and receive approval of the feasibility study for the proposed new IPR SWTP prior to the submittal of the IPR SWTP engineering report. Applicants shall also submit a letter in which the applicant endorses the content of each feasibility study submitted to DEQ.
(b)    The feasibility study shall include, at a minimum:
(1)    An evaluation of the applicant's needs, preferably sourced from the applicant's local Strategic Water Supply Plan, or other similar document;
(2)    A description of water reuse and reclamation opportunities;
(3)    A description of potential alternatives (including reuse and non-reuse) with comparisons as appropriate of cost effectiveness, operational complexity, environmental impact, reliability, and flexibility;
(4)    A discussion of the potential of the project for water supply diversification, such as lowered demand on groundwater supplies in time of drought;
(5)    For waterbodies and watersheds designated as SWS-R, a discussion of the project's potential impact on water quality and the environment, including but not limited to a discussion regarding antidegradation requirements, criteria to protect beneficial uses, and assimilative capacity as described in OAC 785:45252:730, OAC 785:46252:740; and
(6)    A discussion of any legal, regulatory, jurisdictional, and partnership concerns regarding the project.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  IPR Receiving Waterbody Monitoring
252:628-11-1.  General provisions
(a)     Purpose. The rules of this Subchapter provide protocols which shall be used to monitor ambient water quality in sources for Public Water Supply (PWS) systems being augmented with IPR Source Water. The goals of the waterbody monitoring are as follows:
(1)    To protect public health and the environment by monitoring for changes in the receiving waterbody;
(2)    To protect the beneficial uses of the receiving waterbody by performing trend monitoring on parameters that are evaluated in use attainment assessments; and
(3)    To evaluate modeling outcomes for all waterbodies and to monitor the assimilative capacity for SWS-R waterbodies.
(b)     Testing Procedures. Testing procedures for the monitoring of IPR receiving waterbodies shall be in accordance with OAC 785:46-1-4252:740-1-4.
(c)     Quantitative data. Data collected for the monitoring of IPR receiving waterbodies shall use analytical methods listed at 40 CFR Part 136 or other EPA-approved methods. Where there is no approved analytical method listed, the applicant shall fully describe the method used for DEQ review and obtain written approval prior to utilizing these data. All data submitted shall be defensible analytical data. Reporting and recordkeeping shall be in accordance with Subchapter 7 of this Chapter.
(d)     Measurable levels and data characterization. Measurable levels for the monitoring of IPR receiving waterbodies shall be less than or equal to the MQLs established in Appendix B of OAC 252:690. Where there is no established MQL, the applicant shall fully describe the method and MQL used for DEQ review and obtain approval prior to utilizing these data. Where a monitored parameter has an established MQL, DEQ shall include a provision in the permit requiring measurable levels be less than or equal to the MQL. Data shall be characterized as outlined in OAC 252:690-3-2.
(e)     Agency discretion to consider additional data. An agency with jurisdiction may consider other relevant data meeting the requirements of this Subchapter in addition to that required by the rules in this Subchapter for any particular parameter.
(f)     Parameter Groups. There are ten parameter groups, as described in this Subsection. The permittee shall monitor the waterbody for specific parameters subject to DEQ approval.
(1)     In-Situ. In-situ parameters include dissolved oxygen (DO), temperature, pH, electro-conductivity (EC), and oxidation/reduction potential (ORP);
(2)     Nutrients. Nutrient parameters include total nitrogen (TN), nitrite (as N), nitrate (as N), total Kjeldahl nitrogen (TKN), ammonia, total phosphorus (TP), and dissolved reactive phosphorus, also known as ortho-phosphorus (OP);
(3)     Algal biomass and related products. Algal biomass and product parameters include chlorophyll-a, pheophyton, phytoplankton, phycocyanin, and cyanotoxins. Taxonomy and phytoplankton density are also included;
(4)     Minerals. Minerals include TDS, chloride, and sulfate. Alkalinity is included in this parameter group for monitoring purposes;
(5)     Metals. Metals include inorganic toxics listed in Appendix G of OAC 785:45252:730, inorganic chemicals included in the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, and metals included in the National Secondary Drinking Water Regulations. Hardness is included in this parameter group for monitoring purposes;
(6)     Microorganisms. Microorganism parameters include E. coli, total coliform, viruses, giardia, cryptosporidium, and legionella;
(7)     Toxics. Toxics include the organic toxics listed in Appendix G of OAC 785:45252:730 and organic chemicals included in the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations;
(8)     Constituents of Emerging Concern. CECs are defined in Subchapter 1 of this Chapter. For monitoring purposes, CECs are sorted into functional groups represented by at least one surrogate;
(9)     Other drinking water parameters. National primary drinking water regulations list maximum contaminant levels (MCLs) or action levels for disinfection byproducts, inorganic chemicals, organic chemicals, microorganisms, and radionuclides. Maximum residual disinfection levels (MRDLs) are listed for disinfectants. For monitoring purposes, the drinking water parameters are those parameters listed in the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations that are not addressed in one of the other nine parameter groups; and
(10)     Total Organic Carbon. TOC is the amount of carbon found in an organic compound.
252:628-11-2.  Sampling plans
(a)     General. The applicant shall submit sampling plans for baseline monitoring, OPDES permit monitoring, and OPDES permit renewal monitoring for DEQ approval. Sampling plans shall consider the environmental and spatial variability of the waterbody, including limnological, hydrologic, seasonal, and temporal variation. The sampling plans shall also consider both the internal and external loading and nutrient cycling.
(b)     Baseline characterization. The provisions of this Subsection shall be used to establish a baseline characterization of the IPR receiving waterbody before the IPR Source Water discharge begins.
(1)     Baseline characterization sampling plan. The permittee shall submit a baseline characterization sampling plan to DEQ for review and approval. The plan shall meet the minimum requirements outlined in this Subchapter.
(2)     Duration. The baseline characterization of the waterbody shall include data collected for a minimum of one (1) year. Length of monitoring plan may be adjusted by DEQ based on location and parameter.
(3)     Frequency. Sampling frequency for each parameter is subject to DEQ approval and shall be identified in the sampling plan. Sampling frequency may be adjusted by DEQ based on location and parameter. Each sampling event shall occur at least once per month so that a scientifically defensible data set will be generated after one (1) year. At least ten (10) data points per monitoring site are required for a baseline data set to be considered complete.
(4)     Spatial. Sampling locations for each parameter are subject to DEQ approval.
(5)     Baseline waterbody monitoring list. The list of parameters monitored to establish a baseline shall be robust enough to establish a scientifically defensible baseline for all factors of concern in the receiving waterbody. The required parameters for baseline characterization are subject to DEQ approval. Additional information can be found in Subchapter 7 of this Chapter.
(6)     SWS-R Waterbodies. Baseline sampling of SWS-R waterbodies shall meet the requirements of OAC 785:46-13252:740-13.
(c)     OPDES waterbody monitoring requirements. The provisions of this subsection shall be used to establish OPDES permit waterbody monitoring requirements.
(1)     Monitoring requirements. The permittee shall submit a waterbody monitoring plan to DEQ for review and approval. The approved monitoring plan shall be part of the OPDES permit. The plan shall meet the minimum requirements outlined in this Subchapter. Monitoring shall be adequate to characterize the accumulation and concentration of conservative substances.
(2)     Frequency. Sampling frequency for each parameter is subject to DEQ approval.
(3)     Spatial. Sampling location for each parameter is subject to DEQ approval.
(4)     OPDES waterbody monitoring list. The OPDES permit establishes waterbody monitoring requirements. The parameters subject to the routine OPDES waterbody monitoring may be a reduced list, utilizing surrogates and parameters likely to be present in discharge. Monitored parameters are subject to DEQ approval. Additional information can be found in Subchapter 7 of this Chapter.
(5)     SWS-R Waterbodies. OPDES sampling of SWS-R waterbodies shall meet the requirements of OAC 785:46-13252:740-13.
(d)     OPDES permit renewal sampling requirements. The provisions of this subsection shall be used to establish monitoring requirements for renewal of the OPDES permit.
(1)     Monitoring requirements. The permittee shall submit a sampling plan to DEQ for approval. The sampling plan shall address the sampling requirements for permit renewal and these requirements shall be included in the permit. Sampling results shall be included with the OPDES renewal application. The sampling requirements may be updated during the OPDES permit renewal process with DEQ approval.
(2)     Frequency. OPDES permit renewal sampling occurs once every five years during OPDES permit renewal.
(3)     Spatial. Sampling locations are subject to DEQ approval.
(4)     OPDES permit renewal monitoring list. The waterbody shall be monitored for a more comprehensive list of parameters during the OPDES permit renewal cycle, occurring once every five years. The sampled parameters are subject to DEQ approval. Additional information can be found in Subchapter 7 of this Chapter.
(e)     Lake and stream monitoring reports. OPDES waterbody monitoring sampling plan shall include a proposed LMR form for DEQ approval. The LMR form shall provide all relevant information. LMR forms shall be completed and submitted in accordance with Subchapter 7 of this Chapter.
252:628-11-3.  Data requirements
(a)     General. Scientific data from the waterbody shall be used as prescribed in this Section. Data shall be collected and analyzed in a manner consistent with testing procedures provided in OAC 785:46252:740 or practices that are institutionally recognized and appropriate for the parameter of concern and documented in accordance with OAC 785:46-15-3(g)252:740-15-3(g). All relevant existing data available for a waterbody shall be used in the analysis, subject to the spatial, temporal, and other requirements of this Section.
(b)     Spatial coverage. Subject to DEQ approval, IPR monitoring sites shall include:
(1)    All drinking water intake structures located on the receiving waterbody. Some parameters may be sampled from a raw water tap at the water treatment plant. Other parameters shall be sampled in the receiving waterbody at a point near the intake. Intake structure sampling site requirements for individual parameters are subject to DEQ approval.
(2)    Any additional drinking water intake structures within five (5) miles downstream of the discharge point.
(3)    IPR Source Water discharge areas.
(4)    Beneficial Use Monitoring Program (BUMP) monitoring stations, if applicable. Waivers for individual BUMP monitoring stations may be granted at DEQ's discretion.
(5)    Other sites as assigned. If the receiving water does not have BUMP monitoring stations, or the BUMP monitoring stations are not adequate for IPR receiving water monitoring requirements, DEQ shall assign additional monitoring sites. Alternatively, the permittee may propose monitoring sites, subject to DEQ approval.
(c)     Temporal coverage. Monitoring frequency for all parameters shall address seasonal variability and critical periods, subject to DEQ approval. At a minimum, nutrients and algal biomass shall have a monitoring frequency of once every two weeks during the critical season of May through October and once per month during the remainder of the year. DEQ may increase the monitoring frequency of nutrients and algal biomass in the event of a harmful algal bloom in the receiving waterbody.
(d)     Additional data requirements. The following data requirements apply.
(1)     In-Situ. Daily diurnal 1-meter profiles shall be required for water temperature and dissolved oxygen during periods of thermal stratification and daily diurnal surface measurements shall be required during periods of complete mix. Because periods of thermal stratification may vary seasonally and can be reservoir specific, both baseline sampling and IPR receiving waterbody monitoring may be used to determine the approximate beginning date of stratification setup, or if lakes are polymictic, the multiple stratification/mixing periods that may setup during a particular season. Validation profiles shall be measured periodically during periods of complete mix.
(2)     Nutrients. Nutrient monitoring shall be adequate to characterize both external and internal loading and nutrient cycling.
(3)     Algal biomass and related products. Algal biomass monitoring and taxonomy shall be adequate to characterize algal growth and community shifts during critical periods.
(e)     Quality assurance. Quality of data shall be assured as outlined in OAC 785:46-15-3(g)252:740-15-3(g).
252:628-11-4.  SWS-R requirements
(a)     Assimilative capacity. The permittee shall determine assimilative capacity and propose allowable consumption, if any, as outlined in OAC 785:45-5-25(c)(8)(C)252:730-5-25(c)(8)(C) and OAC 785:46-13252:740-13. Monitoring for assimilative capacity in SWS-R waterbodies shall meet the requirements outlined in OAC 785:46-13252:740-13. The IPR receiving waterbody monitoring program shall include monitoring the assimilative capacity.
(b)     Chlorophyll-a. The long-term average concentration of chlorophyll-a shall not exceed 0.010 milligrams per liter (mg/L), as outlined in OAC 785:45-5-10(7)252:730-5-10(7). The IPR receiving waterbody monitoring program shall include monitoring chlorophyll-a levels, with greater frequency during critical periods.
(c)     Technical evaluation report. The permittee shall technically evaluate the IPR receiving waterbody at least once every five years to determine the attainment or nonattainment of beneficial uses, as outlined in OAC 785:45-5-25(c)(8)(D)252:730-5-25(c)(8)(D). The IPR receiving waterbody monitoring program shall include the collection of data necessary to complete the technical evaluation report.
252:628-11-5.  Action levels
(a)     General. At a minimum, action levels shall protect beneficial uses and the criteria developed to protect them and consider rules regarding use of assimilative capacity in SWS-R waterbodies as outlined in OAC 785:45252:730 and OAC 785:46-13252:740-13.
(b)     Statistical significance. Some action levels, such as the action levels for CECs, are based on a statistically significant increase. Determination of statistical significance is subject to DEQ approval. The determination of statistical significance may be determined by methods listed in this subsection, or by other DEQ-approved methods.
(1)     The Student's t Test. The student's t test can be used to determine if two sets of data are significantly different from each other. A 95% confidence level shall be used when using the student's t test to determine statistical significance.
(2)     Multiple range tests. Multiple range tests can be used to test for significant difference for a group of ranked means. Tests may include least significant difference or multiple t test, Student-Newman-Keuls test, Tukey's test based on allowances, and Duncan's multiple range test. A significance level of 5% shall be used.
(3)     Distribution free methods. For parameters that will likely not be normally distributed, distribution free methods shall be used to determine statistical significance. Options include the Mann-Whitney test, Mood's Median test, and the Kruskal-Wallis test.
(c)     Reporting. Permittee shall report results from statistical significance tests on the LMR forms as required by the permit.
(d)     Actions and action levels by parameter group. The following requirements apply.
(1)     In-Situ. Actions and action levels shall be determined by DEQ.
(2)     Nutrients. The actions and action levels for nutrients are as follows:
(A)     Accumulation of phosphorus. Actions and action levels shall be determined by DEQ; and
(B)     Accumulation of nitrogen. Actions and action levels shall be determined by DEQ.
(3)     Algal biomass. Actions and action levels shall be determined by DEQ.
(4)     Minerals. The following requirements apply for minerals.
(A)     Total Dissolved Solids. Requirements shall be placed in the permit to prevent the maximum ambient concentration exceeding the greater of 700 milligrams per liter or two (2) standard deviations above the mean background TDS value of the receiving waterbody prior to IPR Source Water discharge. Background levels can be established from any combination of scientifically defensible data, including historical data, segment averages, and baseline monitoring. Potential actions to control TDS shall include one or more of the following:
(i)    Cease discharge;
(ii)    Reduce discharge;
(iii)    Increase treatment; and
(iv)    Other appropriate action as approved by DEQ.
(B)     Chloride and sulfate. Actions and action levels shall be determined by DEQ.
(5)     Metals. Actions and action levels shall be determined by DEQ.
(6)     Microorganisms. There are no action levels for this parameter group.
(7)     Toxics. Actions and action levels shall be determined by DEQ.
(8)     Constituents of Emerging Concern. When a statistically significant accumulation is identified at any monitoring site in the waterbody, the following actions may be required at DEQ's discretion:
(A)    Investigate implications for public health and the environment. Permittee shall submit findings to DEQ.
(B)    Increase effluent and/or waterbody monitoring frequency. Increased monitoring requirements shall be reflected in the OPDES permit. Additionally, the permittee shall not be eligible for reduced waterbody monitoring for the parameter of concern at the permit renewal.
(C)    Pursue additional source delineation and submit findings to DEQ.
(D)    Notification of PWS systems and any other entities as appropriate using the waterbody of the detected increase.
(E)    Other appropriate action as approved by DEQ.
(9)     Other drinking water parameters. Actions and action levels shall be determined by DEQ.
(10)     Total Organic Carbon. There are no action levels for this parameter group.
[OAR Docket #23-629; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 631.  Public Water Supply Operation
[OAR Docket #23-630]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Introduction
252:631-1-3 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Date of 40 CFR provisions incorporated by reference in these rules is changed to "as published on August 17, 2022."
Incorporating rules:
OAC 252:631-1-3
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is to update the rule concerning the date of the incorporation by reference of certain federal regulations from July 1, 2021, to August 17, 2022, which allows for inclusion of all pertinent CFR parts amended between July 1, 2021, and August 17, 2022, specifically allowing for newly approved alternative testing methods for contaminants listed at 40 CFR 141.21, Appendix A to Subpart C.
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Introduction
252:631-1-3.  Adoption of U.S. EPA regulations by reference
     The provisions of Parts 141, "National Primary Drinking Water Regulations," and 143, "National Secondary Drinking Water Regulations," of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) as published on July 1, 2021 August 17, 2022, and the requirements contained therein are, unless otherwise specified, adopted and incorporated by reference.
[OAR Docket #23-630; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 633.  Drinking Water State Revolving Fund
[OAR Docket #23-631]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Appendix A. Funding Priority Formula [REVOKED]
Appendix A. Funding Priority Formula [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is to remove language related to application of the median household income as an element used by the Department in prioritizing projects seeking funding through the Drinking Water State Revolving Fund (DWSRF) program. This change is intended to clarify that the Department is to utilize information from the latest census on the median household income when prioritizing the award of DWSRF funds, rather than the dollar amounts currently listed in Appendix A. The language the Department proposes to remove does not reflect the latest census information on median household income and was intended to be illustrative only. Removing this language will clarify that DEQ is to utilize the information from the latest census for the household median income and is not required to only use the dollar amounts listed in Appendix A.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:

APPENDIX A.  Funding Priority Formula  [REVOKED]
APPENDIX A.  Funding Priority Formula  [NEW]
252_633A1R.tif

252_633A2R.tif

252_633A3R.tif

252_633A4R.tif
[OAR Docket #23-631; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 652.  Underground Injection Control
[OAR Docket #23-632]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Exclusionary Siting Criteria for Class I Wells
252:652-3-1 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The underlying reason for the rulemaking is the Legislature passed and the Governor signed Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfer authority for establishing Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) and specifically allows DEQ to issue Water Quality Standard Variances. The gist of the changes to this rule includes updating an internal reference to OAC 785:45 and "Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB)" and replacing it with a reference to OAC 252:730, and "Department of Environmental Quality", respectively. This rulemaking is the permanent replacement for the Emergency Rules signed by the Governor on October 25, 2022.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
David Cates, Land Protection Division, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, OK 73101-1677, e-mail at public.comments@deq.ok.gov, phone 405-702-5100, or fax 405-702-5101.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Exclusionary Siting Criteria for Class I Wells
252:652-3-1.  Siting criteria
     The following rules shall apply to owners and operators of all Class I wells:
(1)     Groundwater resources and recharge areas. Except as otherwise provided by Title 27A O.S. § 2-7-111, no permit for a proposed new site shall be granted for a Class I injection well facility to be located over or through an unconsolidated alluvial aquifer or terrace deposit aquifer, or over or through a bedrock aquifer. Site-specific hydrological and geological information which demonstrates that the proposed location does not lie in a prohibited area may be provided by an applicant. The DEQ may require site-specific hydrological and geological information for a facility proposed to be located outside a designated principal groundwater aquifer or recharge area where there is reason to believe the proposed location may be unsuitable due to localized groundwater conditions. Sources used to determine if a site is unpermittable are the "Map of Aquifers and Recharge Areas in Oklahoma", compiled by Kenneth S. Johnson, Oklahoma Geological Survey (1991), or any successor map(s) to this source, and the Oklahoma Water Resources BoardDepartment of Environmental Quality rules codified at OAC 785:45OAC 252:730 Appendices A through D, inclusively, or any successor map(s) to these sources.
(2)     Water wells. No permit shall be granted for a new Class I injection well facility proposed to be located within 1320 feet (one-quarter statute mile) of any public or private water supply well. Provided, however, that existing or proposed private water supply wells located on the applicant's property may be exempt from this paragraph at the applicant's discretion. Where proximity of a Class I facility to water supply well(s) is in doubt, a survey shall be conducted by an Oklahoma licensed land surveyor to determine actual distances.
(3)     Flood plain. No new Class I injection well facility shall be permitted in the 100 year flood plain unless the 100 year flood plain is subsequently redefined to not include the land area proposed for the new disposal area.
(4)     Surface water. No permit shall be granted for a new Class I injection well facility proposed to be located within the established conservation pool elevation of any reservoir which supplies water for a public water supply.
[OAR Docket #23-632; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 653.  Aquifer Storage and Recovery
[OAR Docket #23-633]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Raw Water and Aquifer Characterization
252:653-3-4 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Aquifer Storage and RecoveryASR Treatment Plant Construction
252:653-5-1 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Aquifer Storage & Recovery Operations
252:653-9-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 4, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The underlying reason for the rulemaking is the Legislature passed and the Governor signed Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfer authority for establishing Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) and specifically allows DEQ to issue Water Quality Standard Variances. The gist of the changes to these rules includes updating internal references to OAC 785:45 and replacing these references with OAC 252:730.
This rulemaking is the permanent replacement for the Emergency Rules signed by the Governor on October 25, 2022.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
David Cates, Land Protection Division, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, OK 73101-1677, e-mail at public.comments@deq.ok.gov, phone 405-702-5100, or fax 405-702-5101.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Raw Water and Aquifer Characterization
252:653-3-4.  Groundwater standards
     Water, as delivered to the aquifer, shall meet the numeric values and any applicable narrative criteria listed in OAC 785:45OAC 252:730 for the class of the groundwater aquifer that will receive the water. No allowance for attenuation will be considered unless outlined in OAC 785:45OAC 252:730 or on a case-by-case basis, at DEQ's discretion, if human health will not be impacted.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Aquifer Storage and RecoveryASR Treatment Plant Construction
252:653-5-1.  Permit and pilot study required
(a)    Subject to the results of the raw water and aquifer characterization of Subchapter 3 of this Chapter, an ASR water treatment plant and a pilot study may be required.
(b)    No person shall construct or modify an ASR water treatment plant without first obtaining a permit to construct in accordance with applicable requirements of OAC 252:626 and 656 and be designed to meet the Groundwater Quality Standards of OAC 785:45-7OAC 252:730-7.
(c)    The ASR water treatment plant shall be operated pursuant to the operating requirements of Subchapter 9 of this Chapter.
(d)    The applicant shall demonstrate that adequate capacity and treatment are consistent with all applicable state and federal laws and regulations.
(e)    Unless an extension is granted, a construction permit expires if construction does not begin within one (1) year.
(f)    The permit application is a three-step process:
(1)    demonstrate compliance with the provisions of Subchapter 3 of this Chapter;
(2)    submit an engineering report (as described in applicable sections of OAC 252:626 and 656); and
(3)    submit the final design report (as described in applicable sections of OAC 252:626 and 656), along with the required application forms and fees. The final design report shall:
(A)    include two (2) sets of plans and specifications (or as otherwise directed by DEQ), and
(B)    reflect any changes from the approved engineering report.
(g)    The applicant shall inform DEQ in writing at least ten (10) days before completion of the project.
(h)    If treated water is chlorinated, it shall be dechlorinated, as appropriate, prior to delivery to the aquifer.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Aquifer Storage & Recovery Operations
252:653-9-2.  Duration and continuation of expiring permit
(a)    Any ASR operating permit issued under this Subchapter shall extend for a period of (10) ten years, and shall be reviewed by DEQ every (5) five years for possible permit modification. Upon expiration of an ASR operating permit, a permittee may seek a renewal in accordance with the application requirements of this Subchapter.
(b)    A permittee may continue operating under the conditions of an expired permit provided that a permit renewal application has been submitted to DEQ 180 days prior to expiration of the permit.
(c)    In the event that the water quality standards of OAC 785:45OAC 252:730 change within the duration of an ASR operating permit, the permittee shall submit a plan within 180 days of the effective date of the standard to ensure the continued operation of the ASR project shall meet the new water quality standards.
[OAR Docket #23-633; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 656.  Water Pollution Control Facility Construction Standards
[OAR Docket #23-634]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Introduction
252:656-1-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Permit Procedures
252:656-3-1 [AMENDED]
252:656-3-4 [AMENDED]
252:656-3-5 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 11. Lagoon Standards
252:656-11-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is that on July 1, 2021, House Bill 2402 was enacted authorizing conservancy districts, municipalities, counties, public trusts, and other political subdivisions operating a public water supply system or wastewater treatment system to utilize design-build as a project delivery method for those systems. Design-build is defined as a project delivery method in which one entity works under a single contract to provide design and construction services. The bill requires that the Department incorporate a flexible permitting process to allow this design-build authorization into its rules and authorizes up to 5 pilot projects in the interim before the rules are adopted. This bill was codified in Oklahoma Statutes, Title 61, Section 220.1. The Department proposes to update this rule to include definitions for "Design-build", "Design package", and "Flexible permitting process", and to update language regarding Permitting Process, Engineering Report, and Plans and Specifications. Additionally, the Legislature passed and the Governor signed Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating a reference from OAC 785:45 to OAC 252:730. OAC 252:730 is a new rule being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Introduction
252:656-1-2.  Definitions
     In addition to terms defined in Title 27A of the Oklahoma Statutes, the following words or terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"25-year flood" means a flood event that has a 4 percent chance of being equaled or exceeded in magnitude in any given year.
"100-year flood" means a flood event that has a 1 percent chance of being equaled or exceeded in magnitude in any given year.
"208 Plan" means an area wide wastewater treatment management plan that states are required to submit to EPA for approval pursuant to section 208 of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. § 1288.
"ASTM" means the American Standard Testing Method and Material.
"Biosolids" means organically treated wastewater materials from municipal wastewater treatment plants that are suitable for recycling as a soil amendment. This term is within the meaning of "sludge" as defined in 27A O.S. § 2-6-101(11). Biosolids are divided into the following classes:
(A)    Class A Biosolids meets the pathogen reduction requirements of 40 CFR § 503.32(a);
(B)    Class B Biosolids meets the pathogen reduction requirements of 40 CFR § 503.32(b).
"BOD" means total 5-day biochemical oxygen demand.
"Bypass" means the intentional or unintentional diversion of a waste stream from any portion of a wastewater treatment system.
"CBOD" means 5-day carbonaceous biochemical oxygen demand.
"Cell" means an individual basin of a lagoon system.
"cfm" means cubic feet per minute.
"Collection system" means pipelines or conduits, pumping stations, force mains and all other facilities used to collect or conduct wastewater to a treatment works.
"CT" means the product of residual disinfectant concentration, (C) in (mg/l), and the corresponding disinfectant contact time (T) in minutes, i.e., C x T. CT requirements for a variety of disinfectants and conditions are in the EPA Guidance Manual to the Surface Water Treatment Rule.
"DEQ" means the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality.
"Design-build" means a project delivery method in which one entity works under a single contract with the project owner to provide design and construction services.
"Design package" means a submittal to DEQ for an approvable design-build flexible construction permitting process. The number and scope of design packages is defined and set in the approved engineering report with the last design package encompassing the final and completed 100% project design.
"Discharge point" means the point at which wastewater enters Waters of the State or become Waters of the State.
"Domestic wastewater" means wastewater from drinking fountains, showers, toilets, lavatories and kitchens.
"End-of-pipe" means the terminal points in all reclaimed water users' distribution systems.
"Engineer" means a person licensed to practice engineering in Oklahoma.
"Flexible permitting process" means construction permitting for a design-build project that is approved to start construction with multiple design packages, noting that an approved DEQ construction permit is required before construction or modification of a wastewater collection system or treatment works begins. Construction is limited to the scope of the approved design package(s).
"fps" means feet per second.
"Freeboard" means the vertical distance from the surface water level to the overflow elevation in a treatment unit.
"GPM" means gallons per minute.
"Land application" means the controlled application of treated wastewater onto the land surface for beneficial use.
"MGD" or "mgd" means million gallons per day.
"MLSS" means mixed liquor suspended solids.
"MLVSS" means mixed liquor volatile suspended solids.
"New technology" means any method, process or equipment which is used to treat or convey sewage which is not addressed in this Chapter. This does not refer to innovative technology as defined by 40 CFR Part 35.
"NPDES" means the National Pollution Discharge Elimination System.
"OAC" means Oklahoma Administrative Code.
"OSHA" means the Occupational Health and Safety Administration.
"Open storage basin" means an uncovered basin, below or above ground level, that is designed, maintained and operated to store Category 2 or 3 reclaimed water.
"Person" means any individual, company, corporation, government agency, municipality, or any other entity.
"Population equivalent" and "PE" mean the calculated population which would normally contribute the same amount of biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) per day of wastewater. It is computed on the basis of 0.17 lb. of 5-day BOD per capita per day.
"PSRP" means process to significantly reduce pathogens.
"PVC" means polyvinyl chloride.
"Reclaimed water" means wastewater that has gone through various treatment processes to meet specific water quality criteria with the intent of being used in a beneficial manner.
"Retention time" means the theoretical time required to displace the contents of a tank or treatment unit at a given rate of flow (volume divided by rate of flow).
"Riprap" means a permanent, erosion resistant ground cover that consists of hard, sound durable stones that average in weight between thirty to fifty pounds (30-50 lbs), with no more than twenty percent (20%) weighing less than twenty pounds (20 lbs).
"Service line" means a wastewater line that connects an individual home, building or business to a permitted collection system.
"Total Kjeldahl nitrogen (TKN)" means the total of the organic and ammonia nitrogen.
"Treatment works" means any plant, disposal field, lagoon, incinerator or other facility used to treat, stabilize, hold or reclaim non-industrial wastewater.
"UL" means Underwriters Laboratories Inc.
"U.S.C." means United States Code.
"Variation" means change from the adopted or current standards for equipment, material or process.
"Wastewater system" means a collection system and treatment works.
"Water reuse system" means a treatment and distribution system designed to treat and supply reclaimed water.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Permit Procedures
252:656-3-1.  Permitting process
(a)    This Subchapter implements the permitting process of Part 4, Wastewater and Wastewater Treatment Systems, 27A O.S. § 2-6-401 et seq., and the Oklahoma Uniform Environmental Permitting Act, 27A O.S. § 2-14-101 et seq.
(b)    Permits are required for the construction or modification of non-industrial wastewater and water reuse systems.
(c)    The permit application is a two-step process:
(1)    The first step is the submission of an engineering report (as described in 252:656-3-4); and
(2)    The second step is the submission of the final design report along with the required application forms and fees. The final design report shall:
(A)    include 2 sets of plans and specifications, with at least one set of plans printed on 11" x 17" paper and at least one set of specifications loosely bound and suitable for scanning, and
(B)    reflect any changes from the approved engineering report. Provided, an authorized design-build project may use the flexible permitting process upon approval by DEQ as provided in these rules. If design-build is used, the final design package must encompass the entire completed project.
(d)    Unless an extension is granted, a construction permit expires if construction does not begin within one year from the date the permit is issued.
(e)    Permits to construct or modify non-industrial wastewater and water reuse systems shall only be issued to public entities unless all components of the proposed systems, including all service lines, are located on property:
(1)    owned by the applicant, or
(2)    dedicated to the applicant through a recorded easement for the installation and operation of the system.
252:656-3-4.  Engineering report
(a)    Applicants shall submit to DEQ two (2) copies of the engineering report for proposed new construction or modifications to sewage collection systems, or treatment works at least thirty (30) days prior to the submittal of plans and specifications. Applicants shall also submit a letter in which the applicant endorses the contents of each engineering report submitted to DEQ. For line extension and lift station construction, the submission of an Engineering Report Form, developed by DEQ, signed and sealed by an engineer licensed by the State of Oklahoma, may be submitted to meet the requirements of the necessary engineering report, unless a full engineering report is required by DEQ. Engineering reports shall include:
(1)     Volume and strength of sewage flow. Establish the existing and anticipated design average and design peak flows and waste load for the existing and ultimate conditions. Include the basis for projecting initial current and/or future dry and wet weather flows and waste load for the existing, or initial, service area, and the anticipated future service area. For discharging facilities, the report must demonstrate that the proposed project complies with the design flow in the 208 Plan and other applicable OPDES permit limits.
(2)     Existing system. Describe the existing system, including the need for the project related to health and safety, system operations and maintenance, and population growth. Issues that must be addressed include, but are not limited to, suitability of existing facilities for continued use, adequacy of water supply, history of compliance with state and federal requirements, and comparison of existing treatment units with state and federal design requirements.
(3)     Project description and alternatives. The report must contain a description of the alternatives that were considered to meet the identified need. Provide a service area and project site maps showing the existing and proposed systems. The information must describe legal and natural boundaries, major obstacles, elevations, and any other information necessary to properly evaluate the project. Describe the proposed project and, where two or more solutions exist, discuss the alternatives including cost analysis and discuss the reasons for selecting the one recommended. For each alternative considered, the report must provide the following:
(A)     Description. A description of the collection system, pumping systems, treatment, and discharge facilities associated with each alternative as applicable.
(B)     Design criteria. The design parameters used for evaluation purposes.
(C)     Schematic. A schematic diagram(s) of all existing and proposed treatment processes.
(D)     Land requirements. The identification of sites and easements that will be used and whether the sites:
(i)    are currently owned or leased by the applicant, or
(ii)    will be acquired or leased by the applicant.
(E)     Construction problems. A discussion of concerns such as subsurface rock, high water table, limited access, or other conditions that may affect the cost of construction or the operation of the facility.
(F)     Advantages and disadvantages. A description of the ability of each alternative to meet the owner's needs, address violations cited in any enforcement orders, satisfy public and environmental concerns, and comply with regulatory requirements. The report must demonstrate the compatibility of each alternative with existing, comprehensive, and area-wide development plans. Provide a short description of environmental impacts that may preclude any alternatives.
(G)     Selected alternative. A complete description of the proposed project based on the general description presented in the evaluation of alternatives. The report must show that the proposed project will comply with all the requirements of this Chapter. At a minimum, the following information must be included:
(i)     Treatment. A description of the processes, including biosolids management, in detail and the identification of the location of the plant and the site of any discharges; a status of compliance with the 208 Plan, and if applicable, include current revisions with copy of DEQ approval letter, if approved in the current 208 Plan.
(ii)     Pumping stations. The size, type, location and any special power requirements, including provisions for emergency operations, of all pumping stations.
(iii)     Collection system layout. Identify general location of line improvements, including: lengths, sizes and key components.
(iv)     Calculations. Provide supporting calculations in sufficient detail to demonstrate compliance with DEQ design requirements to assure adequate capacity for the collection and treatment system as a whole to transport and treat the wastewater or reclaimed water. For collection system projects, the submittal must include a map with a list of manholes and pipes and the associated characteristics, such as elevation of inverts, pipe diameter, pipe segment length, and other information necessary to evaluate the project. The report must provide assurance that the receiving collection and treatment systems have adequate capacity.
(4)     Construction sequence. A description of the sequence of construction and steps needed to maintain compliance during construction. If the project is not to be completed in one sequence, then provide details of the phases.
(5)     Site. Describe the topography, soils, geologic conditions, depth to bedrock, groundwater level, floodway or floodplain considerations, and other pertinent site information. The project must be constructed on the site consistent with approved plans. Include 6 months of data on the groundwater level. Provide soil boring information pursuant to OAC 252:656-11-3 (a) for projects that include lagoons or other non-industrial impoundments.
(6)     Water supply. Identify surface water intakes within five (5) miles of the discharge and known public and private water wells within three hundred feet (300').
(7)     Receiving stream. Identify the receiving stream and its wasteload requirements according to the Water Quality sections of OAC 252:606 and Oklahoma's Water Quality Management Plan (208 Plan).
(8)     Disposition of biosolids. Discuss the available alternatives for biosolids reuse and/or disposal (OAC 252:606 and OAC 252:515). Submit a sludge management or sludge disposition plan to DEQ for approval. All biosolids that will be land applied and/or disposed in a landfill must comply, at a minimum, with the Class B pathogen reduction requirements contained at 40 CFR, Part 503, adopted by reference at OAC 252:606.
(9)     Industrial wastes. Discuss the characteristics and volume of anticipated industrial wastes.
(10)     Collection system. Describe the area to be served by existing and proposed sewers. Sewer capacities must be designed for the estimated ultimate population that will be served. Similarly, consideration must be given to the maximum anticipated loadings from institutions, industrial parks and other similarly situated facilities.
(11)     Financing. Provide itemized cost estimates to build, operate and maintain the proposed project including, but not limited to:
(A)    development, construction, land and rights-of-way, legal services, engineering services, contingencies, refinancing, and any other factors associated with the proposed project;
(B)    discuss financing methods;
(C)    provide information regarding rate structures, annual operating and maintenance (O&M) cost, tabulation of users by monthly usage categories and revenue received for the last three fiscal years; and
(D)    give status of existing debts and required reserve accounts. Include a schedule of short-lived assets and a recommended annual reserve deposit to fund replacement of short-lived assets such as pumps, paint and small equipment.
(12)     Enforcement orders. Discuss all applicable enforcement orders, including the violations cited in the orders and how the project will eliminate said violations.
(13)     Conclusions and Recommendations. Provide any additional findings and recommendations that must be considered in development of the project. This must include:
(A)    recommendations for a specific course of action to be undertaken;
(B)    any special studies to be developed;
(C)    highlight the need for special coordination, include a recommended plan of action to expedite project development, etc.
(14)     Project Schedule. The report must propose a schedule to:
(A)    obtain funds to complete the proposed project;
(B)    submit construction plans, specifications, and permit application(s);
(C)    start construction;
(D)    complete construction, and
(E)    attain compliance with applicable OPDES discharge permits.
(b)     Water reuse treatment and reclaimed water distribution systems. Applicants shall submit to DEQ two (2) copies of the engineering report for proposed new construction or modifications to water reuse treatment and reclaimed water distribution systems. Engineering reports shall be submitted at least thirty (30) days prior to the submission of plans and specifications and all engineering reports submitted to DEQ shall be signed and sealed by an engineer licensed by the State of Oklahoma. Applicants shall also submit a letter in which the applicant endorses the contents of each engineering report submitted to DEQ. For line extension and lift station construction, the submission of an Engineering Report Form, developed by DEQ, signed and sealed by an engineer licensed by the State of Oklahoma, may be submitted to meet the requirements of the necessary engineering report, unless a full engineering report is required by DEQ. Engineering reports shall include the following, as applicable:
(1)     Volume and quality of reclaimed water flow. Describe anticipated flow from wastewater treatment works to the water reuse treatment facility. For discharging facilities, the report must demonstrate how the proposed project impacts the design flow in the 208 Plan and other applicable OPDES permit limits.
(2)     Existing system. Describe existing wastewater treatment and water reuse systems. Descriptions shall include: the suitability of existing facilities for continued use, adequacy of water supply and the facility's history of compliance with state and federal requirements.
(3)     Project description. Provide service area and project site maps showing the existing and proposed systems. The information shall describe legal and natural boundaries, elevations, major obstacles and any other information necessary to properly evaluate the project. Project descriptions shall include the following:
(A)     Description. A description of the wastewater treatment system preceding the water reuse treatment facility.
(B)     Design criteria. The design parameters used for evaluation purposes.
(C)     Schematic. Schematic diagrams of all existing and proposed treatment processes.
(D)     Land requirements. Identification of the sites and easements that will be used and whether the sites:
(i)    are currently owned or leased by the applicant, or
(ii)    will be acquired or leased by the applicant.
(E)     Treatment. A detailed description of the treatment processes, including biosolids management, identification of the location of the plant and the site of any discharges:
(i)     Pumping stations. Identify the size, type, location, any special power requirements and provisions for emergency operations of all pumping stations.
(ii)     Reclaimed water distribution system layout. Identify the general locations of line improvements, including lengths, sizes and key components.
(iii)     Calculations. Provide supporting calculations in sufficient detail to demonstrate compliance with DEQ design requirements.
(4)     Construction sequence. A description of the sequence of construction and steps needed to maintain compliance during construction. If the project is not to be completed in one sequence, then provide details of the phases.
(5)     Site. Describe the topography, soils, geologic conditions, depth to bedrock, groundwater level, floodway or floodplain considerations, and other pertinent site information. The project must be constructed on the site consistent with approved plans. Include 6 months of data on the groundwater level. Provide soil boring information pursuant to OAC 252:656-11-3 (a) for projects that include lagoons or other non-industrial impoundments.
(6)     Biosolids handling. If the proposed project will increase the production of biosolids and/or residuals, provide a description of any modifications necessary to properly treat and dispose of biosolids. All biosolids that will be land applied and/or disposed in a landfill must comply, at a minimum, with the Class B pathogen reduction requirements contained at 40 CFR, Part 503, adopted by reference at OAC 252:606. Submit a sludge management or sludge disposition plan as appropriate to the DEQ for approval.
(7)     Reclaimed water distribution system. A description of the following:
(A)    The location, size, and direction of flow of all existing and proposed reclaimed water distribution lines from the point of connection with the existing or proposed treatment works or storage locations to the end user.
(B)    A summary of quantities that includes, at a minimum, pipe size, materials and linear feet of piping, types of testing and number and size of pumps.
(C)    The disinfection system design based on one of the following criteria:
(i)    maintaining a chlorine residual to end-of-pipe pursuant to Appendix A of OAC 252:627; or
(ii)    a DEQ approved calibrated model of chlorine decay rate in the distribution system to demonstrate that adequate chlorine residual will be maintained to prevent slime growth and regrowth of pathogens to end-of-pipe.
(8)     Financing. Itemized cost estimates to build, operate and maintain the proposed project including, but not limited to:
(A)    development, construction, land and rights-of-way, legal services, engineering services, contingencies, refinancing, and any other factors associated with the proposed project;
(B)    financing methods;
(C)    information regarding rate structures, annual operating and maintenance (O&M) cost, tabulation of users by monthly usage categories and revenue received for the last three fiscal years; and
(D)    the status of existing debts and required reserve accounts. Include a schedule of short-lived assets and a recommended annual reserve deposit to fund replacement of short-lived assets such as pumps, paint and small equipment.
(9)     Enforcement orders. A discussion of all enforcement orders, identifying the violations cited in orders and explaining how the project will eliminate those violations.
(10)     Conclusions and Recommendations. All engineering reports shall include a recommendation for a specific course of action to be undertaken. The conclusions and recommendations shall also include any additional findings, identify any special studies to be developed, and any other recommendations that must be considered in development of the project.
(11)     Project Schedule. A proposed schedule to obtain funds to:
(A)    complete the proposed project;
(B)    submit construction plans, specifications, and permit application(s);
(C)    start construction;
(D)    complete construction; and
(E)    attain compliance with applicable OPDES discharge permits.
(c)    Authorized design-build projects may use the flexible permitting process as approved in the engineering report, including:
(1)    Label cover documents prominently as "Design-build;"
(2)    Provide completed attestation form from applicant certifying that project is design-build;
(3)    Description of design packages, including the number (maximum of six), scope of each package, expected schedule of each package, and expected schedule of completion for major construction items;
(4)    The engineering report will address the entire scope of the project at 100% completion.
252:656-3-5.  Plans and specifications
(a)     General plans. Applicants shall submit to DEQ two (2) copies of general plans that include the following:
(1)     Plan view. Include a plan view of the plant and any discharge points, using at least 10- foot contours.
(2)     Flood elevations. Show both the 25-year and 100-year flood elevations and their boundaries.
(3)     Existing and proposed treatment works. Show the physical arrangement of all treatment units on a project site plat.
(4)     Existing collection systems. Show the location, size and direction of flow of all existing sanitary sewers at the point of connection with proposed new sanitary sewers. Show the elevations of all sewer inverts close to the manholes.
(5)     Proposed collection systems. Show the location of all proposed sewers, sewer easements and direction of flow. Number all manholes on the layout and correspondingly on the profile. Provide a summary of quantities that includes, at a minimum, linear feet of trenching, number of manholes, size, materials and linear feet of piping, types of testing and number and size of pumps (if applicable).
(6)     Existing and proposed reclaimed water distribution systems. Show the location, size, and direction of flow of all existing and proposed reclaimed water distribution lines from the point of connection with the existing or proposed treatment works or storage locations to the end user. Provide a summary of quantities for proposed reclaimed water distribution lines that includes, at a minimum, pipe size, materials and linear feet of piping, types of testing and the number and size of pumps. Testing specifications shall include requirements for flushing mains to remove any construction debris before placing the system into service. Construction of reclaimed water distribution systems shall be in accordance with OAC 252:626-19-2, except as follows:
(A)    locate reclaimed waterlines at least 5 feet horizontally from any existing or proposed potable waterlines;
(B)    locate reclaimed waterlines at least 5 feet horizontally from any existing or proposed sewer lines;
(C)    locate reclaimed waterlines crossing any existing or proposed potable waterlines at least 2 feet vertically below the potable waterlines; and
(D)    locate reclaimed waterlines crossing any existing or proposed sewer lines at least 2 feet vertically above the sewer lines.
(7)     Drawings. Show the name of the municipality, sewer district, or institution; scale in feet; north point; date; and name, telephone number, address, signature of engineer and/or imprint of engineer's seal on the drawings. In the case of bound documents, engineers must affix their seal, signature and date to the cover sheet or index page, which identifies all documents bound together for which the registrant has responsible charge. In the absence of a cover sheet or index page each sheet must have the seal, and dated signature of the registrant who has responsible charge. For bound documents involving multiple registrants, either each document in the bound set must be sealed, signed and dated by the registrant in responsible charge for that portion of the work, or the cover sheet or index page must be sealed, signed and dated by each registrant with a breakdown of responsibility for each document clearly identified. Draw general plans to a scale of 100 feet per inch. Establish and reference a permanent benchmark. The minimum plan size must be 11" x 17", one-sided and of adequate contrast sufficient for electronic imaging and storage.
(8)    Authorized design-build projects must label cover documents prominently as "Design-Build" specify the design package number, and reference the approved engineering report number.
(b)     Detailed plans. The applicant shall submit to DEQ two (2) copies of detailed plans drawn to a suitable scale. Plans to modify or extend existing wastewater treatment systems or water reuse systems shall clearly indicate the changes.
(1)     Non-industrial wastewater systems. Detailed plans for non-industrial wastewater systems shall include the following:
(A)     Sewer plan and profile. Include a plan and profile of all sewers to be constructed showing all special features, such as inverted siphons, extra strength pipe, concrete encasements, outfall structures and sewer bridges. Show all stream crossings on the profile with stream bed elevations, normal flow elevation and extreme high and low water levels. Scale the profiles to not more than 100 feet per inch horizontal and 10 feet per inch vertical. Show the scale on the profiles. Show all known existing structures both above and below ground that might interfere with the proposed construction; including water mains, gas mains, storm drains, and nature of street surfacing. Show wyes on the plan view and dimensions from the nearest down-stream manhole recorded on maps.
(B)     Sewer details. Include profiles showing manhole stationing, size of sewers, top of rim and sewer invert elevations at each manhole and the grade and length of sewers between adjacent manholes. Show ground elevations at the house line or at approximately 50 to 75 feet from the centerline of the sewer in each direction except in the case of out-fall and/or relief sewers, where no wyes for house connections are needed.
(C)     Sewer appurtenances. Include the details of all ordinary sewer appurtenances such as manholes, drop manholes, inverted siphons and pumping stations. A sufficiently detailed drawing of each structure must show dimensions, equipment, elevations, capacities, and any explanatory notes necessary to make them easily interpreted.
(D)     Sewer cross sections. Include cross sections for manholes, outfall structures, headwalls, pipe cradling and encasement, and similar structures.
(E)     Sewage pumping station details. Include complete construction details showing number and size of pumps, isolation valves, check valves, alarm system and emergency operation provisions.
(F)     Treatment works hydraulic profile. Show hydraulic profiles with sewage, supernatant liquor and sludge flow through the plant.
(G)     Schematic diagrams. Label schematic piping diagrams with all lines, appurtenances and direction of flow.
(H)     Treatment units. Provide complete construction details of all treatment units including high and low water levels of receiving stream.
(I)     Fillets. Eliminate dead spots in all tanks by designing fillets and otherwise rounding edges.
(2)     Water reuse systems. Detailed plans for water reuse systems shall include the following information:
(A)     Treatment works hydraulic profile. Show hydraulic profiles with sewage, supernatant liquor and sludge flow through the system.
(B)     Schematic diagrams. Label schematic piping diagrams with all lines, appurtenances and direction of flow.
(C)     Treatment units. Provide complete construction details of all treatment units including high and low water levels of receiving stream.
(D)     Distribution system. Provide complete construction details of the distribution system, which shall be designed in compliance with Subchapter 27.
(c)     Specifications. Applicants shall submit to DEQ complete detailed specifications for the proposed project with the plans and shall include a detailed summary of equipment and design data, with references to the specific applicable standards (e.g., ASTM, UL, etc.) for construction, installation and testing of said equipment.
(d)     Construction materials. Applicants are responsible for complying with any occupational, safety and building codes. Reference in the plans or specifications where these codes require special construction materials, such as the National Electrical Code requirement for explosion- proof wiring where gases may accumulate. The DEQ will not, however, determine whether the proposed construction will meet such codes.
(e)     Redundant equipment. Provide redundant treatment units and equipment for maintenance and repair.
(f)     Maintenance and cleaning. For maintenance and operational controls, all units must be equipped with means for cleaning. Direct discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited.
(g)     Weather protection. Protect the structures and all electrical and mechanical equipment and controls from elements and a 100-year flood. Protect mechanical units, pumps, valves and piping from freezing.
(h)     Construction sequence. Include a program for keeping existing wastewater facilities in compliance with all applicable water quality permit conditions during construction of additional facilities in accordance with OAC 252:656-3-4(a)(4) and/or OAC 252:656-3-4(b)(4).
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Lagoon Standards
252:656-11-2.  Basis of design
(a)     Facultative Lagoons. Facultative lagoons depend on the relationship between organic loading and surface area (algal photosynthesis) or on surface area and supplemental mechanical aeration to provide an aerobic layer of water at the surface. Facultative lagoons may be either total retention or flow-through (discharge) to waters of the state.
(b)     Flow-through lagoons.
(1)     Organic loading. Limit the organic load to 35 pounds BOD per acre (water surface area) per day for any cell depending solely on algal photosynthesis for oxygen. The total water surface area requirement based on organic loading is calculated at the average water depth. Flow-through lagoon systems will not consistently provide ammonia removal through the nitrification process so the effluent from these facilities may be toxic to aquatic life and thus cause whole effluent toxicity test failures.
(2)     Flow Control. Provide at least two primary cells on new systems. Design the primary cells so they may be operated in either series or in parallel, with at least 60 days retention time. Provide at least two secondary cells operating in series with the primary cells and in series with each other. Provide a bypass line around any secondary cell in a series to the next cell. The secondary cells shall have at least 60 days detention for a total of at least 120 days detention in the system.
(3)     Depth. The maximum water depth shall not exceed 6 feet in primary cells and 10 feet in secondary cells. Provide structures to allow the primary cells to operate between four foot depth and the maximum design depth plus three feet of freeboard. The operating depth for a flow-through lagoon shall be between 4 and 6 feet.
(c)     Total Retention. Size the primary cell(s) for the expected organic loading and additional evaporation cells designed for the hydraulic load. Base the design of all cells receiving raw wastewater on an organic loading of 35 lbs BOD per surface acre per day at the average operating depth. Design the primary cells so they may be operated in either series or in parallel.
(1)     Surface evaporation. Where more than one acre of surface area is needed, provide at least two cells. For those systems greater than five (5) acres surface area provide at least two primary cells.
(A)    Provide sufficient area to evaporate the annual influent flow based on the average daily design flow with allowances for infiltration and inflow to the sewage collection system.
(B)    Base the evaporation rates on the annual average pan evaporation minus the 90th percentile annual precipitation for the geographical location, as contained in Appendix E.
(C)    The system shall be designed with a five (5) foot operating depth, with three (3) feet of freeboard.
(2)     Land Application. Design two (2) primary cells and one storage cell. Follow design guidelines stated in Subchapter 25 of this Chapter.
(A)    Primary cells shall have sixty (60) days of retention time.
(B)    Secondary cells shall have ninety (90) days of storage with the operating depth not to exceed ten (10) feet.
(d)     Aerated lagoon systems. The following apply to all new aerated lagoon systems. Only partial-mix systems will be considered for systems with 30 day average concentration limits for BOD and TSS of 30 mg/l and 90 mg/l, respectively, as their basic permit requirement. Aerated lagoon systems will not consistently provide ammonia removal through the nitrification process so the effluent from these facilities may be toxic to aquatic life and thus cause whole effluent toxicity test failures.
(1)     Number of cells. At least two aerated cells, in series, followed by one settling lagoon and provide a hydraulic retention time of at least two days.
(2)     Depth. The design water depth shall be 10 to 15 feet.
(3)     Design Requirements. Submit design calculations to the DEQ for review, and justify the use of any constants not listed.
(4)     Aeration requirements. Oxygen requirements will depend on organic loading, required treatment, and concentration of suspended solids to be maintained in the aerated cells. Aeration equipment shall be capable of maintaining a minimum dissolved oxygen level of 2 mg/l in the lagoons at all times. In the absence of experimentally determined values, the design oxygen requirements shall be 1.8 lb O2/lb BOD applied at maximum loading.
(5)     Additional information. For a more detailed discussion of aerated lagoon design see Design Manual Municipal Wastewater Stabilization Ponds, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA-625/1-83-015 (1983). Also use Wastewater Engineering: Treatment, Disposal & Reuse, Metcalf & Eddy, Inc., 4th Edition, (2003).
(6)     Disinfection. Disinfection shall be required for all lagoon systems proposed to discharge to "waters of the state" where the beneficial use of the receiving water body is designated in Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards (OAC 785:45252:730) as either "Primary Body Contact Recreational" or "Public or Private Water Supply".
[OAR Docket #23-634; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 690.  Water Quality Standards Implementation
[OAR Docket #23-635]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Introduction
252:690-1-1 [AMENDED]
252:690-1-2 [AMENDED]
252:690-1-3 [AMENDED]
252:690-1-4.1 [AMENDED]
252:690-1-6 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Point Source Discharges
252:690-3-11 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-16 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-18 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-21 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-26 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-40 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-47 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-54 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-60 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-61 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-64 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-67 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-71 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-74 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-82 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-87 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-91 [AMENDED]
252:690-3-93 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Groundwater Protection
252:690-5-10 [AMENDED]
252:690-5-17 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Water Quality Standards Implementation Plan, Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality [NEW]
252:690-7-1 [NEW]
252:690-7-2 [NEW]
252:690-7-3 [NEW]
Appendix A. Water Quality Standards Implementation Plan, Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality [REVOKED]
Appendix B. Priority and Nonpriority Pollutants with Numerical Criteria Requiring Reasonable Potential Screening [REVOKED]
Appendix B. Priority and Nonpriority Pollutants with Numerical Criteria Requiring Reasonable Potential Screening [NEW]
Appendix C. Methodology and Equations for Characterizing Effluent and Background Concentrations in Determination of Reasonable Potential to Exceed Numerical Criteria [REVOKED]
Appendix C. Methodology and Equations for Characterizing Effluent and Background Concentrations in Determination of Reasonable Potential to Exceed Numerical Criteria [NEW]
Appendix D. Whole Effluent Toxicity (WET) Testing Critical Dilutions and Dilution Series [REVOKED]
Appendix D. Whole Effluent Toxicity (WET) Testing Critical Dilutions and Dilution Series [NEW]
Appendix E. Equations for Implementation of Temperature Criteria to Protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation Beneficial Use [REVOKED]
Appendix E. Equations for Implementation of Temperature Criteria to Protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation Beneficial Use [NEW]
Appendix F. Equations for Implementation of Numerical Criteria for Toxic Substances to Protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation Beneficial Use [REVOKED]
Appendix F. Equations for Implementation of Numerical Criteria for Toxic Substances to Protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation Beneficial Use [NEW]
Appendix G. Equations for Implementation of Numerical Human Health and Raw Water Criteria to Protect the Fish Consumption and Public and Private Water Supply Beneficial Uses [REVOKED]
Appendix G. Equations for Implementation of Numerical Human Health and Raw Water Criteria to Protect the Fish Consumption and Public and Private Water Supply Beneficial Uses [NEW]
Appendix H. Equations for Implementation of Numerical Criteria to Protect the Agriculture Beneficial Use [REVOKED]
Appendix H. Equations for Implementation of Numerical Criteria to Protect the Agriculture Beneficial Use [NEW]
Appendix I. Performance-Based Effluent Monitoring Frequency Reductions and Increases [REVOKED]
Appendix I. Performance-Based Effluent Monitoring Frequency Reductions and Increases [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Date of 40 CFR provisions incorporated by reference in these rules is changed to "as published on July 1, 2022."
Incorporating rules:
OAC 252:690-1-4.1
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is due to the Legislature passing and the Governor signing Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating references to OAC 785:45, OAC 785:46 and OWRB, and replacing these references with OAC 252:730, OAC 252:740, and Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ), respectively, and where applicable. OAC 252:730 and OAC 252:740 are new rules being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above. The Department also proposes to update its rules concerning the date of incorporation by reference for the Code of Federal Regulations from July 19, 2021, to July 1, 2022. The final regulatory change consisted of a technical amendment to modify the submission location for Continuous Release Reports (CRRs) subject to the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA). These reports were submitted to respective EPA regional offices but with the technical amendment, EPA now requires reports be submitted to the appropriate EPA Headquarters office. The amendment also corrected a typographical error, corrected citations within the section, and amended the listed authority.
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).

DUE TO EXCESSIVE LENGTH OF THESE RULES (AS DEFINED IN OAC 655:10-7-12), THE FULL TEXT OF THESE RULES WILL NOT BE PUBLISHED. THE RULES ARE AVAILABLE FOR PUBLIC INSPECTION AT THE OKLAHOMA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY, WATER QUALITY DIVISION, 707 NORTH ROBINSON AVE, OKLAHOMA CITY, OKLAHOMA 73101-1677, AND AT THE SECRETARY OF STATE’S OFFICE OF ADMINISTRATIVE RULES. THE FOLLOWING SUMMARY HAS BEEN PREPARED PURSUANT TO 75 O.S., SECTION 255(B):

Subchapter 1. Introduction
252:690-1-1. Purpose and applicability
OAC 252:690-1-1 establishes guidance and requirements for DEQ jurisdictional areas for the implementation of Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards.
252:690-1-2. Definitions
OAC 252:690-1-2 provides the definitions for certain words used in OAC 252:690.
252:690-1-3. Technical Acronyms
OAC 252:690-1-3 provides certain technical acronyms as used in this Chapter.
252:690-1-4 Incorporation of EPA regulations by reference
There were no changes to this provision.
252:690-1-4.1. Date of federal regulations incorporated
OAC 252:690-1-4.1 explains references to the Code of Federal Regulations.
252:690-1-5. Equations and tables
There were no changes to this provision.
252:690-1-6. Relationship to other rules
OAC 252:690-1-4.1 explains the relationship of this Chapter to other applicable rules related to Water Quality Standards, beneficial uses, anitdegradation, and mixing zones.
252:690-1-7. Water quality management planning
There were no changes to this provision.
Subchapter 3. Point Source Discharges
252:690-3-1. Quantitative effluent data in permit application
252:690-3-2. Measurable levels and data characterization
252:690-3-3. Effluent characterization for determining reasonable potential
252:690-3-4. Effluent characterization for determining reasonable potential for parameters other than temperature
252:690-3-5. C E(mean) for effluent characterization for determining reasonable potential for parameters other than temperature
252:690-3-6. C E(max) for effluent characterization for determining reasonable potential for parameters other than temperature
252:690-3-7. Coefficient of variation for parameters other than temperature
252:690-3-8. C 95 for determining reasonable potential for parameters other than temperature
252:690-3-9. Effluent characterization for determining reasonable potential for effluent temperature
252:690-3-10. Receiving water background characterization
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-1 through OAC 252:690:3-10.
252:690-3-11. Receiving water background characterization requirements
OAC 252:690-3-11 concerns receiving water background characterization requirements.
252:690-3-12. Background monitoring and frequency
252:690-3-13. Background monitoring location
252:690-3-14. Requirements specific to numeric criteria for toxic substances for the Fish and Wildlife propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-15. Requirements specific to human health criteria
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-12 through OAC 252:690:3-15.
252:690-3-16. Requirements specific to agriculture criteria
OAC 252:690-3-16 concerns the requirements for specific agriculture criteria.
252:690-3-17. Implementation of narrative toxicity criterion for the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use using whole effluent toxicity
There were no changes to this provision.
252:690-3-18. Reasonable potential to exceed narrative toxicity criterion for the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use utilizing whole effluent toxicity
OAC 252:690-3-18 concerns the reasonable potential to exceed narrative toxicity criterion for the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use using whole effluent toxicity and refers to OAC 252:740.
252:690-3-19. TREs, TIEs and WET limits
252:690-3-20. Interim strategy for implementation of narrative toxicity criterion for ammonia
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-19 through OAC 252:690:3-20.
252:690-3-21. Reasonable potential for ammonia
OAC 252:690-3-21 concerns the reasonable potential for ammonia and refers to OAC 252:740.
252:690-3-22. Toxicity-based permit limit development for ammonia
252:690-3-23. Comparison of toxicity-based limitations with other ammonia limitations
252:690-3-24. Effective date of toxicity-based ammonia limits
252:690-3-25. Concurrent ammonia, pH and WET testing
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-22 through OAC 252:690:3-25.
252:690-3-26. Monitoring frequencies for ammonia
OAC 252:690-3-26 provides for the monitoring frequencies for ammonia.
252:690-3-27. Intermittent lethality
252:690-3-28. Toxicity from halogens
252:690-3-29. WET testing methods
252:690-3-30. Concurrent chemical-specific sampling and analysis
252:690-3-31. WET test requirements
252:690-3-32. Test failure notification and retesting
252:690-3-33. WET testing dilution series
252:690-3-34. Test duration for WET tests
252:690-3-35. Critical dilution for WET tests
252:690-3-36. Dilution water for discharges to intermittent streams
252:690-3-37. WET test dilution water for discharges to perennial streams and lakes
252:690-3-38. Test acceptability
252:690-3-39. Endpoint and test failure criteria for acute tests
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-27 through OAC 252:690:3-39.
252:690-3-40. Endpoint and test failure criteria for chronic tests
OAC 252:690-3-40 concerns endpoint and test failure criteria for chronic tests.
252-690-3-41. WET testing frequency and trial period
252:690-3-42. WET testing frequency reductions after WET testing trial period
252:690-3-43. Concurrent acute and chronic WET testing
252:690-3-44. Implementation of temperature criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-45. Effluent regulatory flows for the implementation of temperature criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-46. Q* ratio for the implementation of temperature criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-41 through OAC 252:690:3-46.
252:690-3-47. Reasonable potential to exceed temperature criterion for the implementation of temperature criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-47 concerns the reasonable potential to exceed temperature criterion for the implementation of temperature criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use and refers to OAC 252:740.
252:690-3-48. WLAT
252-690-3-49. LTAT
252:690-3-50. Development of permit limitations for the implementation of temperature criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-51. Implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-52. Effluent regulatory flows for the implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-53. Q* ratio for the implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-48 through OAC 252:690:3-53.
252:690-3-54. Reasonable potential determination for the implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-54 concerns reasonable potential determination for the implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use and refers to OAC 252:740.
252:690-3-55. Wasteload allocations for the implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-56. Criteria long-term averages for the implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-57. Development of permit limitations for the implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-58. Implementation of dissolved oxygen criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-59. Effluent characterization for the implementation of dissolved oxygen criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-55 through OAC 252:690:3-59.
252:690-3-60. Receiving water characterization for the implementation of dissolved oxygen criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-60 concerns receiving water characterization for the implementation of dissolved oxygen criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-61. Reasonable potential determination for the implementation of dissolved oxygen criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-61 concerns the reasonable potential determination for the implementation of dissolved oxygen criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use and refers to OAC 252:740.
252:690-3-62. Modeling procedures for the implementation of dissolved oxygen criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
252:690-3-63. Development of permit limitations for the implementation of dissolved oxygen criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-62 through OAC 252:690:3-63.
252:690-3-64. Implementation of human health criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-64 concerns the implementation of human health criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use.
252:690-3-65. Effluent regulatory flows for the implementation of human health criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use
252:690-3-66. Q* ratio for the implementation of human health criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-65 through OAC 252:690:3-66.
252:690-3-67. Reasonable potential determinations in the implementation of human health criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-67 concerns the reasonable potential determinations in the implementation of human health criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use and refers to OAC 252:740.
252:690-3-68. Wasteload allocations for the implementation of human health criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use
252:690-3-69. Criterion long term average for the implementation of human health criteria for conservative substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use
252:690-3-70. Development of permit limitations for the implementation of human health criteria for conservative substances to protect the Fish Consumption beneficial use
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-68 through OAC 252:690:3-70.
252:690-3-71. Implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-71 concerns the implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use.
252:690-3-72. Effluent regulatory flows for the implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use
252:690-3-73. Q* ratio for the implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-72 through OAC 252:690:3-73.
252:690-3-74. Reasonable potential determination for the implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-74 concerns the reasonable potential determination for the implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use.
252:690-3-75. Wasteload allocations for implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use
252:690-3-76. Criteria long-term averages for implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use
252:690-3-77. Development of permit limitations for the implementation of human health and raw water criteria for toxic substances to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use
252:690-3-78. Implementation of bacteriological criteria to protect the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use
252:690-3-79. Implementation of mineral constituent criteria to protect the Agriculture beneficial use
252:690-3-80. Effluent regulatory flows for the implementation of mineral constituent criteria to protect the Agriculture beneficial use
252:690-3-81. Q* ratio for the implementation of mineral constituent criteria to protect the Agriculture beneficial use
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-75 through OAC 252:690:3-81.
252:690-3-82. Reasonable potential to exceed YMS and SS criteria
OAC 252:690-3-82 concerns the reasonable potential to exceed YMS and SS criteria and refers to OAC 252:740.
252:690-3-83. Wasteload allocations for the implementation of mineral constituent criteria to protect the Agriculture beneficial use
252:690-3-84. Criteria long-term averages for the implementation of mineral constituent criteria to protect the Agriculture beneficial use
252:690-3-85. Development of permit limitations for the implementation of mineral constituent criteria to protect the Agriculture beneficial use
252:690-3-86. Implementation of bacteriological criteria to protect the Primary Body Contact Recreation (PCBR) and the Secondary Body Contact Recreation (SBCR) beneficial use
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-83 through OAC 252:690:3-86.
252:690-3-87. Implementation of criteria to protect the Aesthetics beneficial use
OAC 252:690-3-87 provides for the implementation of criteria to protect the aesthetics beneficial use.
252:690-3-88. Effluent monitoring
252:690-3-89. Effluent monitoring frequency where permit limitations are required
252:690-3-90. Effluent monitoring where permit limitations are not required
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:3-88 through OAC 252:690:3-90.
252:690-3-91. Performance-based monitoring frequency reductions and increases
OAC 252:690-3-91 outlines performance-based monitoring frequency reductions and increases.
252:690-3-92. Reopener clause
There are no changes to this provision.
252:690-3-93. Monitoring for a nutrient limited watershed
OAC 252:690-3-93 concerns the monitoring for a nutrient limited watershed as designated in OAC 252:730.
Subchapter 5. Groundwater Protection
252:690-5-1. General
252:690-5-2. Discharge Standards
252:690-5-3. General Water Quality
252:690-5-4. Industrial Wastewater Systems
252:690-5-5. Non-Industrial Impoundments and Land Application
252:690-5-6. Public Water Supply Construction Standards
252:690-5-7. Public Water Supply Operation
252:690-5-8. Individual and small public on-site sewage disposal systems
252:690-5-9. Land application of Septage
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:5-1 through OAC 252:690:5-9.
252:690-5-10. Land application of Biosolids
OAC 252:690-5-10 concerns land application of biosolids.
252:690-5-11. Underground injection control
252:690-5-12. Water pollution facility construction
252:690-5-13. Hazardous waste general requirements
252:690-5-14. Hazardous waste transfer stations
252:690-5-15. Hazardous waste recycling
252:690-5-16. Hazardous tank and container recycling.
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:5-11 through OAC 252:690:5-16.
252:690-5-17. Solid waste disposal sites
OAC 252:690-5-17 concerns the requirements for an owner/operator of a solid waste disposal site as needed to protect groundwater quality.
252:690-5-18. Land application of treatment plant sludge
252:690-5-19. Groundwater protection in DEQ regulatory activities
There were no changes to provisions OAC 252:690:5-18 through OAC 252:690:5-19.
Subchapter 7. Water Quality Standards Implementation Plan, Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality
252:690-7-1.Required WQSIP Elements
OAC 252:690-7-1 provides that pursuant to 27A O.S. §1-1-202(B), each agency with a Water Quality Standards Implementation Plan ("WQSIP") must include eight required elements. This section details those requirements.
252:690-7-2. WQSIP Elements by Jurisdictional Area
OAC 252:690-7-2 addresses the eight required WQSIP elements by jurisdictional area. The jurisdictional areas of the Department of Environmental Quality are listed in 27A O.S. §1-3-101(B), 27A O.S. § 2-6-103(B)(2), and 82 O.S. § 1085.30. This section additionally covers and addresses topics including the following: Water Quality Planning, Point Source Discharges-OPDES Permitting, Point Source Discharges - Pretreatment, Point Source Discharges - Whole Effluent Toxicity (WET), Point Source Discharges - Stormwater Management, Nonpoint Source Pollution, Section 106 Pollution Control Program, Water Quality Protection and Certification, Operator Certification, Land Protection, Water and Wastewater Treatment Systems (Non-Industrial), Emergency Response, Environmental Laboratory Services, Hazardous Substances, Wellhead and Surface Source Water Protection, Groundwater Protection, Utilization and Enforcement of WQS and WQS Implementation Environmental Regulation, Pollution Control and Abatement, Public and Private Water Supplies, Air Quality, and Computerized Water Quality Data Information System.
252:690-7-3. Public and Interagency Participation
OAC 252:690-7-3 details the attendant public and interagency participation applicable for this Chapter.
APPENDIX A. WATER QUALITY STANDARDS IMPLEMENTATION PLAN, OKLAHOMA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY [REVOKED]
Appendix A provides the applicable statutory authority for WQSIP and sets forth definitions and terms that are applicable. It also addresses the eight required elements by jurisdictional area. The eight required WQSIP elements are presented by jurisdictional area, and in some cases individual program areas within the scope of the jurisdictional area. DEQ's WQSIP will evolve to adapt to future changes in the OWQS and WQS implementation criteria.
APPENDIX B. PRIORITY AND NONPRIORITY POLLUTANTS WITH NUMERICAL CRITERIA REQUIRING REASONABLE POTENTIAL SCREENING [REVOKED]
APPENDIX B. PRIORITY AND NONPRIORITY POLLUTANTS WITH NUMERICAL CRITERIA REQUIRING REASONABLE POTENTIAL SCREENING [NEW]
Appendix B sets forth priority and nonpriority pollutants with numerical criteria requiring reasonable potential screening.
APPENDIX C. METHODOLOGY AND EQUATIONS FOR CHARACTERIZING EFFLUENT AND BACKGROUND CONCENTRATIONS IN DETERMINATION OF REASONABLE POTENTIAL TO EXCEED NUMERICAL CRITERIA [REVOKED]
APPENDIX C. METHODOLOGY AND EQUATIONS FOR CHARACTERIZING EFFLUENT AND BACKGROUND CONCENTRATIONS IN DETERMINATION OF REASONABLE POTENTIAL TO EXCEED NUMERICAL CRITERIA [NEW]
Appendix C details the applicable methodology and equations for characterizing effluent and background concentrations in determining reasonable potential to exceed numerical criteria.
APPENDIX D. WHOLE EFFLUENT TOXICITY (WET) TESTING CRITICAL DILUTIONS AND DILUTION SERIES [REVOKED]
APPENDIX D. WHOLE EFFLUENT TOXICITY (WET) TESTING CRITICAL DILUTIONS AND DILUTION SERIES [NEW]
Appendix D covers WET testing critical dilutions and dilution series.
APPENDIX E. EQUATIONS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF TEMPERATURE CRITERIA TO PROTECT THE FISH AND WILDLIFE PROPAGATION BENEFICIAL USE [REVOKED]
APPENDIX E. EQUATIONS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF TEMPERATURE CRITERIA TO PROTECT THE FISH AND WILDLIFE PROPAGATION BENEFICIAL USE [NEW]
Appendix E sets forth the equations for implementation of temperature criteria to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation Beneficial Use.
APPENDIX F. EQUATIONS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF NUMERICAL CRITERIA FOR TOXIC SUBSTANCES TO PROTECT THE FISH AND WILDLIFE PROPAGATION BENEFICIAL USE [REVOKED]
APPENDIX F. EQUATIONS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF NUMERICAL CRITERIA FOR TOXIC SUBSTANCES TO PROTECT THE FISH AND WILDLIFE PROPAGATION BENEFICIAL USE [NEW]
Appendix F sets forth the equations for implementation of numerical criteria for toxic substances to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation Beneficial Use.
APPENDIX G. EQUATIONS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF NUMERICAL HUMAN HEALTH AND RAW WATER CRITERIA TO PROTECT THE FISH CONSUMPTION AND PUBLIC AND PRIVATE WATER SUPPLY BENEFICIAL USES [REVOKED]
APPENDIX G. EQUATIONS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF NUMERICAL HUMAN HEALTH AND RAW WATER CRITERIA TO PROTECT THE FISH CONSUMPTION AND PUBLIC AND PRIVATE WATER SUPPLY BENEFICIAL USES [NEW]
Appendix G sets forth the equations for implementation of numerical human health and raw water criteria to protect the Fish Consumption and Public and Private Water Supply Beneficial Uses.
APPENDIX H. EQUATIONS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF NUMERICAL CRITERIA TO PROTECT THE AGRICULTURE BENEFICIAL USE [REVOKED]
APPENDIX H. EQUATIONS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF NUMERICAL CRITERIA TO PROTECT THE AGRICULTURE BENEFICIAL USE [NEW]
Appendix H sets forth the equations for implementation of numerical criteria to protect the Agriculture Beneficial Use.
APPENDIX I. PERFORMANCE-BASED EFFLUENT MONITORING FREQUENCY REDUCTIONS AND INCREASES [REVOKED]
APPENDIX I. PERFORMANCE-BASED EFFLUENT MONITORING FREQUENCY REDUCTIONS AND INCREASES [NEW]
Appendix I covers the performance-based effluent monitoring frequency reductions and increases.

FULL TEXT OF THE RULES ARE AVAILABLE FOR PUBLIC INSPECTION AT THE OKLAHOMA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY, WATER QUALITY DIVISION, 707 NORTH ROBINSON AVE, OKLAHOMA CITY, OKLAHOMA 73101-1677 AND AT www.deq.ok.gov/wp-content/uploads/water-division/690-Permanent-Rules-Text-RH.pdf, AND AT THE SECRETARY OF STATE’S OFFICE OF ADMINISTRATIVE RULES.
[OAR Docket #23-635; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 710.  Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Certification
[OAR Docket #23-636]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
252:710-1-8 [AMENDED]
252:710-1-9 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Certification
252:710-3-37 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Duties and Responsibilities
252:710-5-53 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is to update the rule to allow the Department to permanently revoke, or revoke for a set time, an operator's certification; to better define special requirements for instructors of approved training courses including taking a Department-proctored exam; and, to allow recording of laboratory analyses utilizing software applications in addition to bound volumes.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
252:710-1-8.  Operator disciplinary actions
(a)     Grounds for action. DEQ may, after notice and opportunity for an individual proceeding, permanently revoke, revoke for a set time, or suspend a certification for good cause including, but not limited to,:
(1)    Gross inefficiency or incompetence,
(2)    Violation of any provisions of the Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Certification Act or applicable provisions of the Oklahoma Environmental Quality Code, rules promulgated thereunder or the terms of any certificate or order issued pursuant thereto; or,
(3)    Fraud or misrepresentation in obtaining a certificate
(b)     Suspension. A suspended certification may be reinstated by DEQ upon application and payment of all fees. In order to be reinstated, the person making application:
(1)    must satisfy all training requirements in accordance with this Chapter;
(2)    may be required by DEQ to retake the certification examination, at a level not to exceed the prior level of certification, and score at least a 70%, and;
(3)    who fails to receive a passing grade on the re-examination may be required to wait one year before taking the examination again. A person holding a suspended certification may work as a helper under the supervision of a person certified by DEQ.
(c)     Revocation. After the expiration of one year after DEQ revokesany revocation of a certification pursuant to the Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Certification Act that is not a permanent revocation, the holder of such certificate may make application to DEQ for reinstatement. Such reinstatement shall be made at the discretion of DEQ. In order to be considered for reinstatement, the person making application must:
(1)    satisfy all training requirements in accordance with this Chapter, and;
(2)    score at least a 70% on the certification examination at a level not to exceed the prior level of certification.
252:710-1-9.  Certificate issuance prohibited
     DEQ shall not issue a certification if the applicant:
(1)    is not in compliance with the Act, the Code, or rules of DEQ;
(2)    holds a revoked or suspended certification from a different operator level;
(3)    was determined to have cheated on an operator certification examination; or
(4)    had any certification permanently revoked; or
(45)    misrepresented or omitted material facts on an application within the past year.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Certification
252:710-3-37.  Approved instructor
     DEQ may establish special requirements for instructors of approved training courses.
(1)     Standard course. To be an instructor of a standard course for certification of any type, a person must have a current operator's license in the State of Oklahoma and at least a C Certification in the subject to be taught, as well as one of the following:
(A)    score at least 80% on the examination and at least an 80% on a subsequent DEQ-proctored examination for the standard course to be taught; or
(B)    score at least 80% on the standard examinationsat ahigher type of certification than the course taught and at least an 80% on a subsequent DEQ-proctored examination for a level type of certification higher than the course taught. To change approved instructor status to a higher level, compliance with this subsection is required.
(2)     Fees. For any certified operator, retaking an examination at a class certification level already obtained, for the purposes of becoming an approved instructor, the application fee is waived for the initial time to take the examination. For any subsequent examinations, the certified operator shall pay the application fee.
(3)     Examination Failure. An applicant who fails to answer at least 80% of the questions correctly may not take the examination again for thirty (30) days.
(4)     Examination Review. No instructor will be allowed to review the exam during the six-month period prior to taking the examination.
(5)     Instruction. At least four (4) hours of documented instruction must be completed each certificate year to maintain approved instructor status. Each person must retake the examination at least once every four (4) years and obtain a score of 80% or above to retain certification as an approved instructor.
(6)     Professional development training class. The training class provided by the instructor shall comply with the continuing education requirement found at 252:710-1-7(c) for the certificate year the class is taught.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Duties and Responsibilities
252:710-5-53.  Laboratory operator
(a)    Except as provided in 252:710-3-31(b)(4), all duties relating to the laboratory analysis of water quality samples from water treatment plants, groundwater systems, storage and distribution systems (including purchased-water systems) must be performed by or under the general supervision of a laboratory operator certified by DEQ.
(b)    Operators of laboratories owned by or associated with waterworks/wastewater works shall record the results of all laboratory analyses for each entry at each facility in a bound volume for each facility and shall date and sign each entry., database, or other software application. Records shall be kept on file at the laboratory for inspection and review for ten (10) years for waterworks and three (3) years for wastewater works. Each database or other software application used in lieu of a bound volume shall be protected by some form of electronic authorization. All entries shall be date and time stamped and include an audit trail.
(c)    Laboratory operator certification is not required for waterworks or wastewater works laboratory operators performing the minimum analyses required by rules of the Department for purchased water systems, groundwater systems using no treatment other than chlorination for disinfection, or for total retention lagoon facilities unless the Department has determined that additional laboratory tests, required to be performed by a certified laboratory operator, are necessary for proper operation.
[OAR Docket #23-636; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 730.  Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards
[OAR Docket #23-637]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [NEW]
252:730-1-1 [NEW]
252:730-1-2 [NEW]
252:730-1-3 [NEW]
252:730-1-4 [NEW]
252:730-1-5 [NEW]
252:730-1-6 [NEW]
Subchapter 3. Antidegradation Requirements [NEW]
252:730-3-1 [NEW]
252:730-3-2 [NEW]
Subchapter 5. Surface Water Quality Standards [NEW]
Part 1. General Provisions [NEW]
252:730-5-1 [NEW]
252:730-5-2 [NEW]
252:730-5-3 [NEW]
252:730-5-4 [NEW]
252:730-5-5 [NEW]
252:730-5-6 [NEW]
252:730-5-7 [NEW]
Part 3. Beneficial Uses and Criteria to Protect Uses [NEW]
252:730-5-9 [NEW]
252:730-5-10 [NEW]
252:730-5-11 [NEW]
252:730-5-12 [NEW]
252:730-5-13 [NEW]
252:730-5-14 [RESERVED]
252:730-5-15 [RESERVED]
252:730-5-16 [NEW]
252:730-5-17 [NEW]
252:730-5-18 [NEW]
252:730-5-19 [NEW]
252:730-5-20 [NEW]
Part 5. Special Provisions [NEW]
252:730-5-25 [NEW]
252:730-5-26 [NEW]
252:730-5-27 [RESERVED]
252:730-5-28 [RESERVED]
252:730-5-29 [NEW]
Subchapter 7. Groundwater Quality Standards [NEW]
252:730-7-1 [NEW]
252:730-7-2 [NEW]
252:730-7-3 [NEW]
252:730-7-4 [NEW]
252:730-7-5 [NEW]
Appendix A. Designated Beneficial Uses of Surface Waters [NEW]
Appendix B. Areas with Waters of Recreational and/or Ecological Significance [NEW]
Appendix C. [RESERVED] [NEW]
Appendix D. Classifications for Groundwater in Oklahoma [NEW]
Appendix E. Requirements for Development of Site-Specific Criteria for Certain Parameters [NEW]
Appendix F. Statistical Values of the Historical Data for Mineral Constituents of Water Quality (Beginning October 1976 Ending September 1983, Except as Indicated) [NEW]
Appendix G. Numerical Criteria to Protect Beneficial Uses [NEW]
Appendix H. Beneficial Use Designations for Certain Limited Areas of Groundwater [NEW]
Appendix I. Criteria for Groundwater Protection [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is due to the Legislature passing and the Governor signing Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating references to OAC 785:45, OAC 785:46 and OWRB, and replacing these references with OAC 252:730, OAC 252:740, and Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ), respectively, and where applicable. OAC 252:730 and OAC 252:740 are new rules being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).

DUE TO EXCESSIVE LENGTH OF THESE RULES (AS DEFINED IN OAC 655:10-7-12), THE FULL TEXT OF THESE RULES WILL NOT BE PUBLISHED. THE RULES ARE AVAILABLE FOR PUBLIC INSPECTION AT THE OKLAHOMA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY, WATER QUALITY DIVISION, 707 NORTH ROBINSON AVE, OKLAHOMA CITY, OKLAHOMA 73101-1677, AND AT THE SECRETARY OF STATE’S OFFICE OF ADMINISTRATIVE RULES. THE FOLLOWING SUMMARY HAS BEEN PREPARED PURSUANT TO 75 O.S., SECTION 255(B):
CHAPTER 730. OKLAHOMA'S WATER QUALITY STANDARDS
Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 252:730 is adopted to transfer authority for administering the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) at OAC 785:45 to the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) and to authorize DEQ to issue Water Quality Standards Variances as provided by Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824. The text of OAC 252:730 reflects the text of OAC 785:45 and has been updated to change references from OAC 785:45 and OAC 785:46 to OAC 252:730 and OAC 252:740. References to OWRB have also been changed to DEQ.
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
OAC 252:730-1-1. Purpose
OAC 252:730-1-1 provides that DEQ has the authority for administering the OWQS and provides the OWQS are intended to promote and protect beneficial uses as are attainable and to assure the degradation of existing quality of waters of the State does not occur.
OAC 252:730-1-2. Definitions
OAC 252:730-1-2 provides the definitions for certain words and terms used in OAC 252:730.
OAC 252:730-1-3. Adoption and Enforceability of the Standards
OAC 252:730-1-3 concerns the adoption of the OWQS by DEQ and their enforceability under the laws of Oklahoma.
OAC 252:730-1-4. Testing Procedures
OAC 730-1-4 provide that certain testing procedures used for the OWQS shall be in accordance with 40 C.F.R. Part 136.
OAC 252:730-1-5. Revision Procedures
OAC 252:730-1-5 specifies the applicable revision procedures for the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-1-6. Errors and Separability
OAC 252:730-1-6 concerns how errors of the OWQS are corrected and that a determination that a provision of the OWQS as invalid does not render the remaining provisions invalid.
Subchapter 3. Antidegradation Requirements
OAC 252:730-3-1. Purpose; Antidegradation Policy Statement
OAC 252:7303-1 establishes that the purpose of the OWQS is to protect the waters of the State for the benefit of the citizens and states the antidegradation policy for the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-3-2. Applications of Antidegradation Policy
OAC 252:730-3-2 concerns the application of the antidegradation policy for Outstanding Resource Waters, High Quality Waters, Sensitive and Private Supplies, beneficial uses, and improved waters.
Subchapter 5. Surface Water Quality Standards
Part I. General Provisions
OAC 252:730-5-1. Declaration of Policy; Authority of Board
OAC 252:730-5-1 provides the purpose of the OWQS is to protect, maintain, and improve the water quality for waters of the State. It further provides DEQ has the authority to promulgate the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-2. Beneficial Uses; Existing and Designated
OAC 252:730-5-2 concerns beneficial uses of the waters of the State, both existing and designated.
OAC 252:730-5-3. Beneficial Uses; Default Designations
OAC 252:730-5-3 concerns the default designation of certain beneficial uses of the waters of the State, including surface waters excluding lakes and lakes.
OAC 252:730-5-4. Applicability of narrative and numerical criteria
OAC 252:730-5-4 addresses the applicability of narrative and numerical criteria for the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-5. Water Quality Standard Variance
OAC 252:730-5-5 addresses water quality standard variances under this Chapter.
OAC 252:730-5-6. Compliance Schedules
OAC 252:730-6 addresses the use of compliance schedules for the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-7. Site-specific Criteria
OAC 252:730-7 addresses site-specific criteria for the OWQS.
Part 3. Beneficial Uses and Criteria to Protect Uses
OAC 252:730-5-9. General Narrative Criteria
OAC 252:730-5-9 addresses the general narrative criteria for certain waters of the State for the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-10. Public and Private Water Supplies
OAC 252:730-10 governs the applicability of certain criteria for surface waters of the State with the designated beneficial use of Public and Private Water Supplies for the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-11. Emergency and Private Water Supplies
OAC 252:730-5-11 concerns the emergency use of waters designated as Emergency and Private Water Supplies for OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-12. Fish and Wildlife Propagation
OAC 252:730-5-12 concerns the propagation of fish and wildlife in relation to the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-13. Agriculture
OAC 252:730-5-13 concerns the OWQS and agriculture.
OAC 252:730-5-16. Primary Body Contact Recreation
OAC 252:730-5-16 addresses the OWQS and Primary Body Contact Recreation.
OAC 252:730-5-17. Secondary Body Contact Recreation
OAC 252:730-5-16 addresses the OWQS and Secondary Body Contact Recreation.
OAC 252:730-5-18. Navigation
OAC 252:730-5-18 addresses navigation as a beneficial use of the waters of the State under the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-19. Aesthetics
OAC 252:730-19 concerns aesthetics in connection with the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-20. Fish Consumption
OAC 252:730-5-20 concerns fish consumption and the OWQS.
Part 5. Special Provisions
OAC 252:730-5-25. Implementation Policies for the Antidegradation Policy Statement
OAC 730-5-25 concerns the implementation policies for the antidegradation policy statement and the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-26. Mixing Zones and Zones of Passage
OAC 730-5-26 concerns mixing zones and zones of passage for the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-5-29. Delineation of NLW Areas.
OAC 730-5-29 concerns the delineation of NLW areas for the OWQS.
Subchapter 7. Groundwater Quality Standards
OAC 252:730-7-1. Scope and Applicability; Purpose
OAC 730-7-1 addresses the scope and applicability of OWQS for fresh groundwater as well as covers the purpose of Subchapter 7.
OAC 252:730-7-2 Groundwater Quality Antidegradation Policy
OAC 730-7-1 addresses the antidegradation policy for groundwaters for the State under the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-7-3. Groundwater Classifications, beneficial uses and vulnerability levels
OAC 730-7-3 concerns the various classifications, beneficial uses, and vulnerability levels for the groundwaters of the State under the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-7-4. Criteria for groundwater quality protection
OAC 730-7-4 governs the criteria groundwater quality protection under the OWQS.
OAC 252:730-7-5 Corrective Action
OAC 730-7-5 addresses corrective actions for groundwaters of the State under the OWQS.
Appendix A. Designated Beneficial Uses of Surface Waters
Appendix A concerns the designated beneficial uses for certain waterbodies in the State under the OWQS and includes several applicable tables.
Appendix B. Areas with Waters of Recreational and/or Ecological Significance
Appendix B includes tables that list national and state parks, national forests, wildlife forests, wildlife areas, wildlife management areas, wildlife refuges, and areas that contain federally listed threatened or endangered species under the Federal Species Act.
Appendix D. Classifications for Groundwater in Oklahoma
Appendix D concerns the classifications of groundwater in the State and includes applicable tables.
Appendix E. Requirements for Development of Site-Specific Criteria for Certain Parameters
Appendix E concerns provisions for the requirements for the development of site-specific criteria for certain parameters.
Appendix F. Statistical Values of the Historical Data for Mineral Constituents of Water Quality (Beginning October 1976 Ending September 1983, Except as Indicated)
Appendix F concerns certain statistical values of the historical data for mineral constituents of water quality beginning in October 1976 and ending September 1983, except as indicated, and includes applicable tables.
Appendix G. Numerical Criteria to Protect Beneficial Uses
Appendix G concerns provisions for numerical criteria to protect beneficial uses and includes applicable tables.
Appendix H. Beneficial Use Designations for Certain Limited Areas of Groundwater
Appendix H concerns provisions for the beneficial use designations for certain limited areas of groundwater and includes applicable tables.
Appendix I. Criteria for Groundwater Protection
Appendix I includes tables related to criteria for protection of groundwater

FULL TEXT OF THE RULES ARE AVAILABLE FOR PUBLIC INSPECTION AT THE OKLAHOMA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY, WATER QUALITY DIVISION, 707 NORTH ROBINSON AVE, OKLAHOMA CITY, OKLAHOMA 73101-1677 AND AT www.deq.ok.gov/wp-content/uploads/water-division/730-Permanent-Rules-RH.pdf, AND AT THE SECRETARY OF STATE’S OFFICE OF ADMINISTRATIVE RULES.
[OAR Docket #23-637; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 252.  Department of Environmental Quality
CHAPTER 740.  Implementation of Oklahoma's Water Quality Standards
[OAR Docket #23-638]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [NEW]
252:740-1-1 [NEW]
252:740-1-2 [NEW]
252:740-1-3 [NEW]
252:740-1-4 NEW]
252:740-1-5 [NEW]
252:740-1-6 [NEW]
Subchapter 3. Implementation of Narrative Toxics Criteria to Protect Aquatic Life Using Whole Effluent Toxicity (WET) Testing [NEW]
252:740-3-1 [NEW]
252:740-3-2 [NEW]
252:740-3-3 [NEW]
252:740-3-4 [NEW]
252:740-3-5 [NEW]
Subchapter 5. Implementation of Numerical Criteria to Protect Fish and Wildlife From Toxicity Due to Conservative Substances [NEW]
252:740-5-1 [NEW]
252:740-5-2 [NEW]
252:740-5-3 [NEW]
252:740-5-4 [NEW]
Subchapter 7. Implementation of Numerical Criteria to Protect Human Health From Toxicity Due to Conservative Substances [NEW]
252:740-7-1 [NEW]
252:740-7-2 [NEW]
252:740-7-3 [NEW]
Subchapter 9. Implementation of Criteria to Protect the Agriculture Beneficial Use [NEW]
252:740-9-1 [NEW]
252:740-9-2 [NEW]
252:740-9-3 [NEW]
252:740-9-4 [NEW]
Subchapter 11. Implementation of Temperature Criteria to Protect Fish and Wildlife Propagation Beneficial Use [NEW]
252:740-11-1 [NEW]
252:740-11-2 [NEW]
252:740-11-3 [NEW]
252:740-11-4 [NEW]
252:740-11-5 [NEW]
Subchapter 13. Implementation of Antidegradation Policy [NEW]
252:740-13-1 [NEW]
252:740-13-2 [NEW]
252:740-13-3 [NEW]
252:740-13-4 [NEW]
252:740-13-5 [NEW]
252:740-13-6 [NEW]
252:740-13-7 [NEW]
252:740-13-8 [NEW]
Subchapter 15. Use Support Assessment Protocols [NEW]
252:740-15-1 [NEW]
252:740-15-2 [NEW]
252:740-15-3 [NEW]
252:740-15-4 [NEW]
252:740-15-5 [NEW]
252:740-15-6 [NEW]
252:740-15-7 [NEW]
252:740-15-8 [NEW]
252:740-15-9 [NEW]
252:740-15-10 [NEW]
252:740-15-11 [NEW]
252:740-15-12 [NEW]
Subchapter 17. Implementation of Dissolved Oxygen Criteria to Protect Fish and Wildlife Propagation [NEW]
252:740-17-1 [NEW]
252:740-17-2 [NEW]
252:740-17-3 [NEW]
Appendix A. [RESERVED]
Appendix B. Mean Hardness (CaCO3) and pH by Stream Segment [NEW]
Appendix C. Index of Biological Integrity [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Environmental Quality Board; 27A O.S. § 2-2-101.
Water Quality Management Advisory Council; 27A O.S. §§ 2-2-201, 2-6-103, and 2-6-203.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 8, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022, to January 5, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 5, 2023, Water Quality Management Advisory Council
February 17, 2023, Environmental Quality Board
ADOPTION:
February 17, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 21, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The gist of this rule and the underlying reason for the rulemaking is due to the Legislature passing and the Governor signing Senate Bill No. 1325 and House Bill No. 3824 which transfers authority for administering Oklahoma Water Quality Standards (OWQS) from the Oklahoma Water Resources Board (OWRB) to the Department and specifically allows for the Department to issue a Water Quality Standard Variance. Changes include updating references to OAC 785:45, OAC 785:46 and OWRB, and replacing these references with OAC 252:730, OAC 252:740, and Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ), respectively, and where applicable. OAC 252:730 and OAC 252:740 are new rules being promulgated due to the legislation referenced above.
Availability:
The standards are on file at the Department of Environmental Quality, 707 North Robinson, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73102, and are available to the public for examination Monday through Friday between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., excluding state holidays. The standards may also be viewed on the Department of Environmental Quality Website at the following link: www.deq.ok.gov/council-meeting-single/?meetingid=MTMyOTI=
CONTACT PERSON:
Brian Clagg, Department of Environmental Quality, Water Quality Division, 707 North Robinson, P.O. Box 1677, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73101-1677, (405) 702-8100 (phone), brian.clagg@deq.ok.gov (e-mail).
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
252:740-1-1.  Purpose, scope and applicability
(a)    According to 82 O.S., §1085.30, the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality is authorized to promulgate rules to be known as "Oklahoma Water Quality Standards" which establish classifications of uses of waters of the state, criteria to maintain and protect such classifications, and other standards or policies pertaining to the quality of such waters. [82 O.S. § 1085.30(A)]. The "Oklahoma Water Quality Standards" are codified at OAC 252:730. Section 1085.30 of Title 82 O.S. also provides for the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality to adopt and promulgate accompanying rules to implement the Oklahoma Water Quality Standards. Such implementation rules are set forth in OAC 252:740 and shall be enforced by all state agencies within the scope of their jurisdiction. Implementation rules promulgated by other state environmental agencies shall not be inconsistent with the implementation rules in OAC 252:740.
(b)    If an affected person can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the permitting authority that scientific methods, data, or implementation procedures different than those specified in this Chapter will achieve a more appropriate or representative implementation of the Standards, then the permitting authority shall use or apply such methods, data, or procedures to implement the Standards. In those circumstances where the permitting authority does not agree that the affected person's proposed scientific methods, data, or implementation will result in a more appropriate or representative implementation of the Standards, the affected person may request a review of the proposed scientific methods, data, or implementation by the agency responsible for Standards implementation who shall determine its appropriateness.
(c)    Implementation rules promulgated in this Chapter by DEQ and promulgated elsewhere by other state environmental agencies with authority for implementation provide a bridge between Water Quality Standards in OAC 252:730 and water quality management. For example, Water Quality Standards contain numerical criteria to protect aquatic life. Permits incorporating these criteria must be issued to limit effluent concentrations so that the criteria are not violated outside the mixing zone. In this case the implementation rules describe how the criteria are translated into permit limits.
252:740-1-2.  Definitions
     In addition to definitions of terms found in OAC 252:730-1-2, which are incorporated herein by reference, the following words, terms and notations, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"7T2" means the seven-day maximum temperature likely to occur with a 50% probability each year. The 7T2 is calculated using a moving average of seven consecutive days for each year in a given record. These seven-day receiving stream temperature values are ranked in descending order. An order number, m, is calculated based on the number of years of record, n, with a recurrence interval of 2 years, as m = (n+1)/2. The mth highest average temperature is the 7T2.
"A" means mean annual average flow.
"ACR" means acute to chronic ratio.
"Acute to chronic ratio" means LC50/NOEC. The NOEC is the highest concentration at which no effect on test organisms is observed over a relatively long period. Quarterly biomonitoring over the life of the permit is sufficient to determine the ACR if the NOEC and LC50 may be determined. If the ACR is unknown, a default value of 10 may be used for implementation purposes.
"Background" means the ambient condition upstream or upgradient from a facility, practice or activity which has not been affected by that facility, practice or activity.
"Beneficial use limitation" means a more stringent restriction than that required to protect the beneficial use. A prohibition on new point sources is an example of a beneficial use limitation.
"Board" means the Environmental Quality Board.
"BOD" means biochemical oxygen demand.
"C" means maximum concentration on the mixing zone boundary.
"C95" means the 95th percentile maximum likelihood concentration.
"Cb" means background concentration.
"Ce" means effluent concentration.
"cfs" means cubic feet per second.
"Cmean" means the geometric mean of all effluent concentrations analyzed for the toxicant.
"Ct" means the appropriate criterion listed in OAC 252:730.
"CBOD" means carbonaceous biochemical oxygen demand.
"Coefficient of variation" means standard deviation divided by the mean.
"Continuing Planning Process (CPP)" means the most recent edition of the document produced annually by the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality which describes water quality programs implemented within the State.
"Continuing toxicity" means a tendency to be toxic.
"Control" means test organisms exposed to 0% effluent as part of the whole effluent toxicity testing procedure.
"Cooling water reservoir" means a privately owned reservoir used in the process of cooling water for industrial purposes.
"CPP" means the Continuing Planning Process document.
"CV" means coefficient of variation.
"D" means diameter of the discharge pipe in feet.
"df" means dilution factor.
"Dilution capacity" means a measure of the ability of the receiving stream to dilute effluent, defined as the ratio of the regulatory effluent flow to the regulatory receiving stream flow.
"Dilution factor" means a measure of the minimum dilution that occurs on the mixing zone boundary.
"DO" means dissolved oxygen.
"Drainage area" means the area above the discharge drained by the receiving stream.
"Event mean concentration" means the flow-weighted average for a given storm event. The flow-weighted average is represented as the sum of the loads calculated for a series of storm samples divided by the sum of the discharges calculated for each of the storm samples.
"EPA" means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
"HQW" means high quality waters as defined in OAC 252:730-3-2(b).
"Implementation Plan" means a Water Quality Standards Implementation Plan developed and promulgated by a state environmental agency as required by 27A O.S. § 1-1-202.
"Increased load" means the mass of pollutant discharged which is greater than the permitted mass loadings and concentrations, as appropriate, in the discharge permit effective when the SWS, SWS-R, HQW, or ORW beneficial use limitation was assigned.
"Lake mixing zone" means a volume extending one hundred feet from the source for implementation purposes, unless otherwise specified in OAC 252:730.
"LC50" means the lethal concentration as defined in OAC 252:730-1-2.
"LMFO" means licensed managed feeding operation as defined in 2 O.S. § 9-202.
"Mean annual average flow" means the annual mean flow found in "Statistical Summaries", USGS publication no. 87-4205, or most recent version thereof, or other annual mean flow as approved by the Oklahoma Water Resources Board or the permitting authority.
"Monthly average level" means the concentration of a toxicant in the permit which may not be exceeded by the observed effluent concentration averaged over a calendar month.
"Naturally occurring condition" means any condition affecting water quality which is not caused by human influence, including, but not limited to, soils, geology, hydrology, climate, wildlife, and water flow with specific consideration given to seasonal and other natural variations.
"NLW" means nutrient-limited watershed as defined in OAC 252:730-1-2.
"NOEC" means no observed effect concentration.
"NPDES" means National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System.
"Normal pool elevation" means the elevations listed in the "Oklahoma Water Atlas", Oklahoma Water Resources Board publication no. 135, or most recent version thereof.
"ORW" means Outstanding Resource Waters as defined in OAC 252:730-3-2(a).
"Outfall" means a point source which contains all the effluent being discharged to the receiving water.
"OWQS" means Oklahoma Water Quality Standards.
"Permitting authority" means state environmental agency as defined or provided in Title 27A of the Oklahoma Statutes having jurisdiction as provided by law.
"Persistent toxicity" means toxicity due to effluent constituents which are not subject to decay, degradation, transformation, volatilization, hydrolysis, or photolysis.
"Q*" means dilution capacity.
"Qe" means the regulatory effluent flow.
"Qel" means long-term average effluent flow.
"Qes" means short-term average effluent flow.
"Qu" means the regulatory receiving stream flow.
"Regulatory mixing zone" means the volume of receiving water described in OAC 252:730-5-26.
"Reasonable potential factor" means the 95th percentile maximum likelihood estimator for a lognormal distribution.
"SS" means sample standard as defined in OAC 252:730-1-2.
"Storm event" means precipitation, after a minimum of 72 hours has elapsed since cessation of previous precipitation, in the watershed of a stream segment that produces a 30 percent rise in stream flow over the average flow of the preceding 72 hours resulting from surface run-off.
"SWS" means Sensitive Public and Private Water Supplies.
"SWS-R" means waterbodies classified as sensitive public and private water supplies that may be augmented with reclaimed municipal water for the purpose of indirect potable reuse.
"T" means maximum temperature difference at the edge of the mixing zone boundary.
"Ta" means regulatory ambient temperature.
"Tc" means the temperature criterion.
"Tf" means the 95th percentile maximum observed effluent temperature.
"TDS" means total dissolved solids at 180C.
"TMDL" means total maximum daily load.
"Total maximum daily load" means the sum of individual wasteload allocations for point sources, safety reserves, and loads from nonpoint source and natural backgrounds.
"Trophic State Index" means a numerical quantification of lake productivity. The Trophic State Index shall be determined by TSI = 9.81 x Ln(chlorophyll-a) + 30.6.
"TSI" means Trophic State Index.
"TSS" means total suspended solids.
"USGS" means United States Geological Survey.
"W" means canal width in feet.
"YMS" means yearly mean standard as defined in OAC 252:730-1-2.
252:740-1-3.  Procedural and substantive authority
     The rules in OAC 252:740 provide for implementation of the "Oklahoma Water Quality Standards". The rules in this Chapter are promulgated as rules by DEQ pursuant to the procedures specified in the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S. Section 250 et. seq., and pursuant to the substantive law provided in 82 O.S. Section 1085.30.
252:740-1-4.  Testing procedures
     All methods of sample collection, preservation, and analysis used in implementing OAC 252:730 shall be in accordance with "The Guidelines Establishing Test Procedures for the Analysis of Pollutants" as provided by 40 C.F.R. Part 136, or other procedures approved by the Oklahoma Laboratory Accreditation Program of the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality or practices that are institutionally recognized and appropriate for the parameter of concern and documented in accordance with OAC 252:740-15-3(e) and (g).
252:740-1-5.  Errors and separability
(a)    Any errors in OAC 252:740 resulting from inadequate and erroneous data or human or clerical oversight will be subject to correction by DEQ. Discovery of any such errors does not render the remaining and unaffected implementation rules in OAC 252:740 invalid.
(b)    If any implementation rule in OAC 252:740 is held to be invalid, the application of such rule to other circumstances and the remainder of OAC 252:740 shall not be affected thereby.
252:740-1-6.  Determination of regulatory low flow
(a)     General.
(1)     7Q2. The 7Q2 is calculated as a moving average of seven consecutive days for each year in a given record. These seven-day low flow values are ranked in ascending order. An order number (m) is calculated based upon the number of years of record (n), with a recurrence interval (R) of two years, as m = (n+1)/R, where R = two years. A value of flow corresponding to the mth order is taken as the seven-day, two-year low flow for those historical data.
(2)     Seasonal 7Q2. The seasonal 7Q2 is calculated as a moving average of seven consecutive days for the applicable dates specified in Table 1 of Appendix G of OAC 252:730 in a given period of record. These seven-day low flow values are ranked in ascending order. An order number (m) is calculated based upon the number of seasons (n) specified in Table 1 of OAC 252:730 Appendix G during the period of record, with a recurrence interval (R) of two years, as m = (n+1)/R, where R = two years. A value of flow corresponding to the mth order is taken as the seasonal seven-day, two-year low flow for those historical data.
(b)     Primary method for determination. If the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 for a given stream or stream segment is determinable from the United States Geological Survey publication entitled "Statistical Summaries of Streamflow in and near Oklahoma Through 2007" or the latest version of the Water Quality Management Plan published by the Department of Environmental Quality, then that 7Q2 and seasonal 7Q2 shall be conclusive except as provided otherwise in this section.
(c)     Alternative methods for determination of 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2.
(1)    In lieu of determining the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 as provided in (b) of this Section, the 7Q2 for a given stream or stream segment may be determined by an affected person or the permitting authority if all of the following conditions are satisfied:
(A)    A hydrological modification affecting the flow in the stream is documented to the satisfaction of DEQ and the permitting authority;
(B)    At least 10 years of daily flow data comporting with the requirements of this section are available; and
(C)    Data from the entire period of record for the stream, unless a different time frame of record is approved by the Board and the permitting authority, are used in the calculation.
(2)    If the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 for a given stream or stream segment is not determinable as provided in (b) or (c)(1) of this Section or if additional daily flow data have been collected, then the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 for that stream or stream segment may be determined by an affected person or the permitting authority using the calculations provided in (a) of this Section, provided at least 10 years of daily flow data are available for that stream.
(3)    If the flow is affected by contributions from gaged tributaries or other permitted discharges, then the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 for a given stream or stream segment may be determined taking those contributions at 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2, or both, into account on a case-by-case basis if approved by either DEQ or the permitting authority.
(4)    If the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 for a given stream or stream segment is not determinable as provided in (b), (c)(1), (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this Section, then the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 for that stream or stream segment may be determined by an affected person or the permitting authority using an estimate based upon limited data only if both the method for estimating, and the estimate itself, are approved by both the Board and permitting authority.
(d)     Additional rules for 7Q2 and seasonal 7Q2 determinations.
(1)    Any 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 determined with a period of record less than 20 years shall be invalid for any purpose except the issuance of the permit or establishment of the site-specific criteria based upon and developed contemporaneously with such 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2. Any subsequent renewal of such permit must be based upon a fresh determination of the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 until the pertinent period of record equals or exceeds 20 years.
(2)    Any subsequent renewal of a permit based upon a 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 determined pursuant to (c)(3) or (c)(4) of this Section must be based upon a fresh determination of the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 that takes into account all discharge and flow data from the time the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 was previously determined.
(3)    Any subsequent renewal of a permit based upon a 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 determined pursuant to (c)(1) of this Section must be based upon a fresh determination of the 7Q2 or seasonal 7Q2 that takes into account whether the hydrological modification continues to exist.
(e)     Alternative method for determination of regulatory low flow. In stream segments where dams or other structures have substantially affected the historic flow regime of the stream segment, including but not limited to the portions of the Verdigris and Arkansas Rivers constituting the McClellan-Kerr Arkansas River Navigation System, on a site-specific basis a properly designed and implemented hydrologic study approved by the permitting authority and OWRB may be used to determine the appropriate regulatory low flow.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Implementation of Narrative Toxics Criteria to Protect Aquatic Life Using Whole Effluent Toxicity (WET) Testing
252:740-3-1.  Applicability and scope
(a)    The rules in this Subchapter provide a portion of the framework for implementing narrative criteria in OAC 252:730 which prohibit toxicity to aquatic life in waters of the state. This framework is based upon a testing method known as whole effluent toxicity (WET) testing. WET testing is to be used to address point source activities which have the potential for persistent effluent toxicity. The rules in this Subchapter prescribe the method for determining regulatory flow, dilutions required for WET tests, and the method for determining whether there is a reasonable potential to exceed the narrative criteria for the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use.
(b)    If it is determined that toxicity is related to a particular chemical constituent, a numerical permit limit may be imposed for that toxicant.
(c)    Toxicity from halogens (e.g. chlorine, bromine and bromo-chloro compounds) will be controlled by dehalogenation rather than WET testing. However, use of dehalogenation shall not exempt an effluent from the WET testing requirements of this Subchapter.
252:740-3-2.  Dilutions for whole effluent toxicity testing
(a)     General. Generally, two whole effluent toxicity tests shall be used to implement the narrative criteria to protect fish and wildlife propagation. The 48-hour acute test will be used to protect against acute toxicity in receiving water, and the 7-day or 21-day chronic test will be used to protect against chronic toxicity outside the chronic regulatory mixing zone.
(b)     Differing requirements for WET tests.
(1)    Three different toxicity testing requirements exist. Each is based upon dilution capacity, represented by Q*.
(2)    When Q* is less than 0.054, acute testing only shall be required.
(3)    When Q* is greater than 0.33, chronic testing only shall be required.
(4)    When Q* is greater than or equal to 0.054 and less than or equal to 0.33, both acute and chronic testing shall be required.
(5)    For a discharge directly to a lake, acute testing only shall be required.
(c)     Dilutions for chronic WET tests for streams. Whole effluent chronic toxicity testing requires that test organisms be subjected to various effluent dilutions. The dilution series for chronic toxicity testing is based on the critical dilution (CD). The chronic critical dilution equations are as follows: CD = (1.94Q*) / (1 + Q*) when Q* is less than or equal to 0.1823, or CD = 1 / (6.17 - 15.51Q*) when Q* is greater than 0.1823 and less than 0.3333, or CD = 1 when Q* is greater than or equal to 0.3333. Q* = Qe/Qu. Qe is the largest thirty-day average flow for an industrial discharge, if known, and the design flow otherwise. Qu is 1 cfs or the 7Q2 receiving stream flow, if known to be larger.
(d)     Dilutions for acute WET tests. The acute critical dilution is 100%.
252:740-3-3.  Sampling for whole effluent toxicity testing
(a)    Discharges with overlapping mixing zones may be combined, at the discretion of the permitting agency, and whole effluent toxicity tests may be required on the combined effluent. Samples shall be combined in proportion to the flow for each outfall. If some of the discharges are not toxic, combining discharges may allow intermittent instream toxicity if the discharge rates fluctuate. In these cases, combined discharge testing will be disallowed. If the outfall originates from a lagoon with a retention time greater than 24 hours, composite samples may not be necessary. The permitting agency may determine that a grab sample near the discharge is sufficient.
(b)    The toxicity test must be initiated within 36 hours after sample collection. No sample may be held for more than 72 hours prior to use.
252:740-3-4.  Reasonable potential to exceed narrative toxicity criterion for fish and wildlife propagation
     Reasonable potential to exceed the narrative criterion to protect the beneficial use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation against toxicity exists whenever persistent lethality is demonstrated. A permitting authority may deem reasonable potential to be demonstrated whenever intermittent lethality or persistent sublethality occurs. Reasonable potential is assumed to exist when a known toxicant is present, or expected to be present, in a discharge in toxic amounts.
252:740-3-5.  Regulatory flow determination
(a)    The regulatory flow for a receiving stream is determined according to OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(6)(G) and OAC 252:740-1-6.
(b)    No regulatory flow determination is required for a lake.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Implementation of Numerical Criteria to Protect Fish and Wildlife From Toxicity Due to Conservative Substances
252:740-5-1.  Applicability and scope
     Rules in this Subchapter prescribe the method for determining regulatory flow and the method for determining whether there is a reasonable potential to exceed the criteria, all in order to implement numerical criteria identified in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(6)(G) and Table 2 of OAC 252:730 Appendix G for protection of the beneficial use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation.
252:740-5-2.  Regulatory flow determination
(a)     Regulatory receiving stream flow. Section 252:730-5-12(f)(6)(G) of the OAC defines the regulatory receiving stream flow upstream of the discharge, Qu, to be used in implementing fish and wildlife propagation criteria. The Qu is the greater of the 7Q2 or 1 cfs. 7Q2 shall be determined according to OAC 252:740-1-6. Qu is assumed to be 1 cfs if the 7Q2 is unknown or the permittee chooses not to develop an actual 7Q2.
(b)     Regulatory flow for lakes. No regulatory flow determination is required for lakes.
(c)     Regulatory effluent flows. The regulatory effluent flow, Qe, is the highest monthly averaged flow over the previous two years for industrial discharges if the permitting authority determines that sufficient data are available. For other dischargers (e.g. municipalities), Qe is the design flow. If a significant daily or seasonal variability in effluent flow is present, a regulatory effluent flow should take this variability into account.
252:740-5-3.  Reasonable potential
(a)     General. The need for a permit limit will be determined, on a pollutant-by-pollutant basis, after determination of reasonable potential, which considers assimilation capacity of the receiving water and effluent variability.
(b)     Use of reasonable potential factor; relationship with wasteload allocation process.
(1)    The technical report produced by the Oklahoma Water Resources Board entitled "The Incorporation Of Ambient Concentration With That Due To Effluent For Wasteload Allocation" shall be used to determine if there is a reasonable potential for a criterion exceedance outside the mixing zone. C95 = 2.13Cmean is used for effluent concentration in the reasonable potential calculation. Cmean is the geometric mean of all effluent concentrations analyzed for the toxicant. If the geometric mean cannot be determined, an arithmetic mean may be substituted. If a large dataset of effluent concentrations is available, the permitting authority may not need to estimate C95; the 95th percentile value can be calculated from the data.
(2)    The wasteload allocation process is used to determine reasonable potential. C is the reasonable potential concentration on the chronic regulatory mixing zone boundary. C is calculated for chronic criteria in streams as: C = Cb + (1.94Q*(C95 - Cb)) / (1 + Q*) when Q* is less than or equal to 0.1823, or C = Cb + (C95 - Cb) / (6.17 - 15.51Q*) when Q* is greater than 0.1823 and less than 0.3333, or C = C95 when Q* is greater than or equal to 0.3333. Q* = Qe/Qu. Q* is the dilution capacity. C is calculated for lakes as: pipe: C = Cb + (D(C95 - Cb)) / 20.15 when D is greater than or equal to 3 feet, or canal: C = Cb + (W1/2(C95 - Cb)) / 4.2 when W is greater than or equal to 3 feet. D is the diameter of the discharge pipe in feet and W is the width of the canal in feet. D and W shall not be less than three feet for implementation purposes. When C is the concentration on the acute regulatory mixing zone boundary it is calculated as C = Cb + (Qe (C95 - Cb) / 100). If Qe is greater than 100 cfs, then 100 cfs shall be substituted for Qe.
(3)    For regulatory purposes, there is a reasonable potential for chronic toxicity if concentrations of ammonia outside the chronic regulatory mixing zone exceed 6 mg/L.
252:740-5-4.  pH and hardness dependent toxicity
     The criteria for some of the substances listed in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(6) are hardness or pH dependent. The segment-averaged pH in Appendix B of this Chapter shall be used to determine the criterion if there is insufficient site-specific data to determine receiving stream pH. The mean hardness of the receiving stream, collected near the outfall but not affected by the discharge (as CaCO3) may be used if at least 10 monthly samples were collected over a ten-month period. The segment-averaged hardness in Appendix B of this Chapter shall be used in the determination of the criterion if there is insufficient site-specific data to determine receiving stream hardness. If the required pH or hardness is not specified for a particular waterbody segment, appropriate data from surrounding waterbody segments may be used.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Implementation of Numerical Criteria to Protect Human Health From Toxicity Due to Conservative Substances
252:740-7-1.  Applicability and scope
(a)     General. Rules in this Subchapter prescribe the method for determining regulatory flow and to determine whether there is a reasonable potential to exceed the criteria, all in order to implement numerical criteria to protect human health for consumption of fish flesh and/or water.
(b)     Applicable Public and Private Water Supply criteria. Applicable criteria for waters designated Public and Private Water Supplies are found in OAC 252:730-5-10(1) and OAC 252:730-5-10(6) and OAC 252:730 Appendix G.
(c)     Applicable Fish Consumption criteria. Applicable criteria for waters designated Warm Water Aquatic Community and/or Cool Water Aquatic Community and/or Trout Fisheries are found in OAC 252:730-5-20 and OAC 252:730 Appendix G.
(d)     Appropriate criterion. If several criteria apply to human health implementation, the most stringent is used for implementation purposes.
(e)     Applicable receiving waters. The human health criteria apply in receiving waters designated as Public and Private Water Supplies and certain designated sub-categories of Fish and Wildlife Propagation. Some streams in Appendix A of OAC 252:730 are designated Habitat Limited Aquatic Communities and are not designated for the Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use. Therefore, human health criteria do not apply to these streams. For implementation purposes these streams are considered conduits to the downstream water body. Human health criteria must be implemented on the first downstream water body to which they apply.
252:740-7-2.  Determination and use of regulatory flow
(a)     General. OAC 252:730-5-10(1), OAC 252:730-5-10(6)(B), and OAC 252:730-5-20(b) require that long-term average receiving stream flows shall be used to implement water column numerical criteria to protect human health.
(b)     Long-term average flow on gaged receiving streams. Mean annual average flow as determined in the technical report produced by the Oklahoma Water Resources Board entitled "Estimation of Mean Annual Average Flows" shall be used for long-term average flow in receiving streams which are or have been measured by USGS gages.
(c)     Mean annual average flows on ungaged receiving streams. Mean annual average flow may be estimated on streams where flow is not routinely measured. This method for estimation is demonstrated in the technical report produced by the Oklahoma Water Resources Board entitled "Estimation Of Mean Annual Average Flows". Other scientifically defensible methods of long-term average flow estimation are permissible if approved by the permitting authority.
(d)     Long-term average flow in lakes. Qu cannot be estimated in a lake as easily as it can be for a stream. Therefore, mean annual average discharge from the lake shall be used for Qu.
(e)     Long-term effluent flow. The regulatory effluent flow, Qe, is long-term average effluent flow over the previous two years for industrial discharges if the permitting authority determines that sufficient data are available. For other discharges, Qe is the design flow.
252:740-7-3.  Reasonable potential
(a)     General. Complete mixing of effluent and receiving water shall be used to determine appropriate permit limits. A mass balance model shall be used for implementation purposes.
(b)     Determination of reasonable potential factor.
(1)    The mass balance equation will be used in the determination of human health reasonable potential: C = (CeQ* + Cb) / (Q* + 1). Q* = Qe/Qu, where Qe is the regulatory effluent flow. C must be considered a long-term average concentration after complete mixing. Cb is the background concentration. To determine if there is a reasonable potential to exceed the criterion after complete mixing, choose Ce = 2.13Cmean, where Cmean is a geometric mean of all effluent concentrations analyzed for the toxicant. If the geometric mean cannot be determined, an arithmetic mean may be used instead.
(2)    Representative background concentrations will be used if available. Such representative data should reflect long-term average pollutant concentrations for implementation purposes. Otherwise, Cb is assumed zero.
(3)    C must be compared with the applicable water quality criterion to determine if there is a reasonable potential for the pollutant discharge to cause a criterion exceedance. If concentration after complete mixing is greater than the human health criterion, a permit limit will be required.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Implementation of Criteria to Protect the Agriculture Beneficial Use
252:740-9-1.  Applicability and scope
     Rules in this Subchapter prescribe the method for determining whether there is a reasonable potential to exceed the criteria identified in OAC 252:730-5-13(h) and OAC 252:730 Appendix F for protection of the beneficial use of Agriculture. Included are criteria for chlorides, sulfates and total dissolved solids.
252:740-9-2.  Applicable mineral criteria
(a)     General. OAC 252:730 Appendix F contains yearly mean standards and sample standards for protection of the Agriculture beneficial use. Historical values for chlorides, sulfates and TDS for water quality segments identified in OAC 252:730 Appendix F will not be updated. Data from surrounding segments shall be used by the permitting authority to develop yearly mean standards and sample standards for those segments with inadequate historical data.
(b)     Segment averages. Segment averages of yearly mean standards and sample standards or more appropriate determinations as prescribed in (e) and (f) of OAC 252:730-5-13 or (a) of 252:740-9-2 shall be the criteria for chlorides, sulfates and TDS to protect the Agriculture beneficial use.
252:740-9-3.  Regulatory flows
(a)     General. Six regulatory flows are required for implementation of yearly mean standards and sample standards. They include stream flows, regulatory flows for lakes and regulatory effluent flows.
(b)     Long-term average flows for streams. The greater of 1.47 cfs or mean annual average flow, A, will be used by the permitting authority for long-term average flows to implement yearly mean standards. Mean annual average flows may be obtained from the USGS publication entitled "Statistical Summaries of Streamflow in and near Oklahoma Through 2007". They may also be estimated on streams without gages using the Oklahoma Water Resources Board publication entitled "Estimation of Mean Annual Average Flows" (OWRB Technical Report 96-2).
(c)     Long-term average flow for lakes. Mean annual average discharge from the lake, A, shall be used to implement the Agriculture beneficial use.
(d)     Regulatory long-term effluent flows. If the permitting authority determines that sufficient data is available to calculate the mean annual effluent discharge, then such discharge shall be the long-term effluent flow, Qel. If the permitting authority determines insufficient data is available to calculate the mean annual effluent discharge, then the design flow shall be the long-term effluent flow, Qel.
(e)     Short-term average flow for streams. OAC 252:730-5-4(d) requires that short-term average flow, Qs, be used to implement sample standards. The short-term average flow is determined so that short-term and long-term wasteload allocations are equally likely to be more stringent, depending on the historical concentration distribution for a particular segment. Qs shall equal the greater of 1.0 cfs or 0.68 A, where A is mean annual average stream flow.
(f)     Short-term average flows for lakes. Short-term average flows for lakes are also determined by the formula in OAC 242:740-9-3(e). In this case A is the mean annual average lake discharge.
(g)     Short-term average effluent flows. If the permitting authority determines that sufficient data is available to calculate the highest monthly average discharge for industrial discharges, then such discharge shall be the short-term average effluent flow, Qes. If the permitting authority determines insufficient data is available to calculate the highest monthly average discharge for industrial discharges, then the design flow shall be the short-term average effluent flow, Qes.
252:740-9-4.  Reasonable potential
(a)     General. The need for a permit limit will be determined on a mineral constituent basis, after application of the reasonable potential equation specified in (b) of this Section, which considers assimilation capacity of the receiving water and effluent variability.
(b)     Reasonable potential equation. OAC 252:730-5-13(d) requires that complete mixing of effluent and receiving water be taken into account in the reasonable potential equation. The use of mass balance to obtain wasteload allocations for complete mixing is codified at OAC 252:740-7-3(a). Therefore, the reasonable potential equation for mineral constituents is C = (QuBC + QeC95) / Qu + Qe), where C95 = 2.13 Cmean, where Cmean is the geometric mean of all effluent concentrations analyzed for the mineral. If the geometric mean cannot be determined, an arithmetic mean may be used. If sufficient effluent concentration observations exist as determined by the permitting authority, then the permitting authority may compute the 95th percentile concentration and use it as C95, in accordance with OAC 252:740-5-3(b)(1).
(c)     Reasonable potential to exceed yearly mean standard. Qu = A and Qe = Qel in OAC 252:740-9-4(b) to obtain a long-term average concentration in-stream after complete mixing. If C is greater than the higher of the YMS or 700 milligrams per liter for TDS or 200 milligrams per liter for chlorides and sulfates, there is a reasonable potential to exceed an Agriculture beneficial use criterion, and a permit limit is required.
(d)     Reasonable potential to exceed sample standard. Qu =0.68A and Qe = Qes in OAC 252:740-9-4(b) to obtain a short-term average concentration in-stream after complete mixing. If C is greater than the higher of the SS or 700 milligrams per liter for TDS or 200 milligrams per liter for chlorides and sulfates, there is a reasonable potential to exceed an Agriculture beneficial use criterion, so a permit limit is required.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Implementation of Temperature Criteria to Protect Fish and Wildlife Propagation Beneficial Use
252:740-11-1.  Applicability and scope
(a)    OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(2) provides that at no time shall heat be added in excess of the amount that will raise receiving water temperature more that 2.8 °C outside the mixing zone. Therefore, the temperature criterion will be implemented with respect to regulatory flow and reasonable potential at the maximum temperature on the edge of the mixing zone.
(b)    OAC 252:730-5-26 provides generally to the effect that in streams the mixing zone encompasses 25% of the total flow. The mixing zone in lakes may be designated by the permitting authority on a case-by-case basis. To be consistent, the mixing zone used for numerical criteria implementation to protect fish and wildlife propagation from toxicity will be employed for temperature implementation in lakes. This mixing zone is defined to extend 100 feet into the lake from the source.
(c)    Temperature implementation does not apply to privately owned cooling water reservoirs. Such reservoirs are specifically exempted in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(2)(F) from implementation of temperature criteria to protect aquatic life. However, implementation of the antidegradation policy includes a maximum temperature (52 °C)which applies to all waters of the state including privately owned cooling water reservoirs. Privately owned cooling water reservoirs, however, that demonstrate no reasonable potential to exceed the antidegradation temperature shall not be limited in permits by such temperature.
(d)    All calculations to implement temperature criteria shall be done in degrees Celsius (°C) at critical temperature conditions.
252:740-11-2.  Applicable temperatures
(a)     General. OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(2) governs what the applicable temperature criteria are.
(b)     Habitat Limited and Warm Water Aquatic Community.
(1)    In waters which are designated in OAC 252:730 to be Habitat Limited Aquatic Community and/or Warm Water Aquatic Community, no heat of artificial origin shall be added that causes the receiving water to exceed the critical temperature plus 2.8 °C outside the mixing zone.
(2)    The temperature criterion for Habitat Limited Aquatic Community and/or Warm Water Aquatic Community, Tc, is the critical temperature plus 2.8 °C. In the absence of data, Tc is 32.24 °C. Where data exist, the critical temperature is the higher of 29.44 °C or the seven-day maximum temperature likely to occur with a 50% probability each year, 7T2. The 7T2 is calculated using a moving average of seven consecutive days for each year in a given record. These seven-day receiving stream temperature values are ranked in descending order. An order number, m, is calculated based on the number of years of record, n, with a recurrence interval of 2 years, as m = (n+1)/2. The mth highest average temperature is the 7T2. Provided, in the segment of the Arkansas River from Red Rock Creek to the headwaters of Keystone Reservoir, the maximum temperature outside the mixing zone shall not exceed 34.4 °C.
(3)    To implement the temperature criterion for Habitat Limited Aquatic Community and/or Warm Water Aquatic Community protection, the critical temperature also is the regulatory ambient temperature, Ta.
(c)     Cool Water Aquatic Communities. In waters designated in OAC 252:730 to be Cool Water Aquatic Community, Tc is 28.9 °C. To be consistent with implementation for Warm Water and Habitat Limited Aquatic Communities, the regulatory ambient temperature must be 2.8 °C less than Tc. Therefore, Ta = 26.1 °C or Cool Water Aquatic Communities.
(d)     Trout Fisheries. In waters designated in OAC 252:730 to be Trout Fishery, no artificial heat shall be added such that the temperature in the receiving water exceeds 20 °C outside the mixing zone. However, water temperatures regularly reach in excess of 20 °C in Oklahoma's summers. When background levels exceed this criterion, the effluent level should equal the criterion. Therefore, the wasteload allocation for Trout Fisheries is 20 °C.
252:740-11-3.  Regulatory flows
(a)    Regulatory receiving stream flow to protect the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use, Qu, is the greater of the 7Q2 or 1 cfs. Qu is assumed to be 1 cfs if the 7Q2 is unknown.
(b)    The regulatory effluent flow, Qe, is defined as the highest monthly averaged flow in cfs over the past two years for industrial discharges with adequate data. Qe is the design flow in cfs for other dischargers.
252:740-11-4.  Reasonable potential
     A permit limit for temperature is required if there is a reasonable potential that the temperature increase at the edge of the mixing zone is greater than 2.8 °C. EPA Region 6 uses a reasonable potential factor to determine if there is a reasonable potential that concentration of a given substance will exceed the criterion. An analogous reasonable potential factor, Tf, will be used to determine if there is a reasonable potential that temperature will exceed the criterion by 2.8 °C at the edge of the mixing zone. Tf is determined such that only approximately 5% of the observed temperatures are higher. Therefore, Tf is the upper 95th percentile of the effluent temperature distribution.
252:740-11-5.  Reasonable potential equations
(a)    The maximum temperature difference on the mixing zone boundary must be computed using the following equation to determine if there is a reasonable potential to exceed 2.8 °C outside the mixing zone: T' = (Tf - Ta) / df. The dilution factor, df, must be that which yields the maximum temperature difference on the mixing zone boundary.
(b)    Substituting for df, the following equations shall be used for discharges to streams:T' = (1.94Q* (Tf - Ta)) / (1 + Q*) when Q* is less than or equal to 0.1823, orT' = (Tf - Ta) / (6.17 - 15.51Q*) when Q* is greater than 0.1823 and less than 0.3333, or T' = Tf - Ta when Q* is greater than or equal to 0.3333. Q* = Qe/Qu (the dilution capacity).
(c)    The following equations shall be used for discharges to lakes: T' = (D(Tf - Ta)) / 20.15 when is greater than or equal to 3 feet. D is pipe diameter, and T' = (W1/2(Tf - Ta)) / 4.2 when W is greater than or equal to 3 feet. W is canal width.
(d)    There is a reasonable potential that the effluent may cause a criterion exceedance at the maximum concentration on the mixing zone boundary if T' > 2.8C.
SUBCHAPTER 13.  Implementation of Antidegradation Policy
252:740-13-1.  Applicability and scope
(a)    The rules in this Subchapter provide a framework for implementing the antidegradation policy stated in OAC 252:730-3-2 and OAC 252:730-5-25 for all waters of the state. This policy and framework includes four tiers, or levels, of protection.
(b)    The four tiers of protection are as follows:
(1)    Tier 1. Attainment or maintenance of an existing or designated beneficial use.
(2)    Tier 2. Maintenance and protection Sensitive Water Supply-Reuse waterbodies.
(3)    Tier 2.5 Maintenance and protection of High Quality Waters, Sensitive Public and Private Water Supply waters.
(4)    Tier 3. No degradation of water quality allowed in Outstanding Resource Waters.
(c)    In addition to the four tiers of protection, this Subchapter provides rules to implement the protection of waters in areas listed in Appendix B of OAC 252:730. Although Appendix B areas are not mentioned in OAC 252:730-3-2, the framework for protection of Appendix B areas is similar to the implementation framework for the antidegradation policy.
(d)    In circumstances where more than one beneficial use limitation exists for a waterbody, the most protective limitation shall apply. For example, all antidegradation policy implementation rules applicable to Tier 1 waterbodies shall be applicable also to Tier 2, Tier 2.5 and Tier 3 waterbodies or areas, and implementation rules applicable to Tier 2 waterbodies shall be applicable also to Tier 2.5 and Tier 3 waterbodies.
(e)    Publicly owned treatment works may use design flow, mass loadings or concentration, as appropriate, to calculate compliance with the increased loading requirements of this section if those flows, loadings or concentrations were approved by the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality as a portion of Oklahoma's Water Quality Management Plan prior to the application of the ORW, HQW, SWS, or SWS-R limitation.
252:740-13-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Specified pollutants" means:
(A)    Oxygen demanding substances, measured as Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (CBOD) and/or Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD);
(B)    Ammonia Nitrogen and/or Total Organic Nitrogen;
(C)    Phosphorus;
(D)    Total Suspended Solids (TSS); and
(E)    Such other substances as may be determined by DEQ or the permitting authority.
252:740-13-3.  Tier 1 protection; attainment or maintenance of an existing or designated beneficial use
(a)     General.
(1)    Beneficial uses which are existing or designated shall be maintained and protected.
(2)    The process of issuing permits for discharges to waters of the state is one of several means employed by governmental agencies and affected persons which are designed to attain or maintain beneficial uses which have been designated for those waters. For example, Subchapters 3, 5, 7, 9 and 11 of this Chapter are rules for the permitting process. As such, the latter Subchapters not only implement numerical and narrative criteria, but also implement Tier 1 of the antidegradation policy.
(b)     Thermal pollution. Thermal pollution shall be prohibited in all waters of the state. Temperatures greater than 52 °C shall constitute thermal pollution and shall be prohibited in all waters of the state.
(c)     Prohibition against degradation of improved waters. As the quality of any waters of the state improves, no degradation of such improved waters shall be allowed.
252:740-13-4.  Tier 2 protection; maintenance and protection of sensitive water supply-reuse and other tier 2 waterbodies
(a)     General rules for Sensitive Water Supply - Reuse (SWS-R) Waters.
(1)    Classification of SWS-R Waters. DEQ may consider classification of a waterbody as an SWS-R waterbody based upon required documentation submitted by any interested party. The interested party shall submit documentation presenting background information and justification to support the classification of a waterbody as SWS-R including, but not limited to, the following:
(A)    Determination of the waterbody's assimilative capacity pursuant to OAC 252:740-13-8, including all supporting information and calculations.
(B)    Documentation demonstrating that municipal wastewater discharge for the purpose of water supply augmentation has been considered as part of a local water supply plan or other local planning document.
(C)    Any additional information or documentation necessary for DEQ's consideration of a request for the classification of a waterbody as SWS-R.
(D)    Prior to consideration by DEQ, any interested party seeking the classification of a waterbody as SWS-R shall submit documentation to DEQ staff demonstrating that local stakeholders, including those that use the waterbody for any designated or existing beneficial uses, have been afforded notice and an opportunity for an informal public meeting, if requested, regarding the proposed classification of the waterbody as SWS-R at least one hundred eighty (180) days prior to DEQ consideration. In addition, all information or documentation submitted pursuant to this subsection shall be available for public review.
(2)    The drought of record waterbody level shall be considered the receiving water critical condition for SWS-R waterbodies.
(A)    All beneficial uses shall be maintained and protected during drought of record conditions.
(B)    Drought of record shall be determined with the permitting authority approved monthly time step model using hydrologic data with a minimum period of record from 1950 to the present. If empirical data are not available over the minimum period of record, modeled data shall be included in the analysis, if available.
(3)    In accordance with OAC 252:730-5-25(c)(8)(D), SWS-R waterbodies with a permitted discharge shall be monitored and water quality technically evaluated to ensure that beneficial uses are protected and maintained and use of assimilative capacity does not exceed that prescribed by permit. Prior to any monitoring and/or technical analysis, the permittee shall submit a Receiving Water Monitoring and Evaluation Plan to the permitting authority for review and approval.
(A)    The Receiving Water Monitoring and Evaluation Plan shall include, at a minimum, the following sections:
(i)    Monitoring section that meets the required spatial, temporal, and parametric coverage of this subchapter, OAC 252:740-15, and OAC 252:628-11.
(ii)    Analysis and reporting section that meets the requirements of this subchapter, OAC 252:740-15, and OAC 252:628-11.
(iii)    Quality Assurance Project Plan that meets the most recent requirements for United States Environmental Protection Agency Quality Assurance Project Plans.
(B)    The monitoring section of the Receiving Water Monitoring and Evaluation Plan, at a minimum shall:
(i)    Include parametric, temporal (including frequency of sampling events), and spatial sampling design adequate to characterize water quality related to limnological, hydrologic, seasonal, and diurnal influences and variation.
(ii)    Include nutrient monitoring adequate to characterize both external and internal loading and nutrient cycling.
(iii)    Include algal biomass monitoring consistent with this sub-paragraph (B) and phytoplankton monitoring sufficient to evaluate general shifts and/or trends in phytoplankton community dynamics over time.
(iv)    Include in-situ monitoring of dissolved oxygen, temperature, and pH adequate to characterize diurnal changes and fluctuations during periods of thermal stratification and complete mix.
(v)    Include monitoring of pollutants with a permit effluent limit and/or permit monitoring requirements.
(C)    The Receiving Water Monitoring and Evaluation Plan may include special studies, as necessary.
(D)    At least biennially and prior to permit renewal, the permittee shall submit a Receiving Water Monitoring and Evaluation Report to the permitting authority that includes, at a minimum:
(i)    Summarized review of monitoring objectives and approach.
(ii)    Presentation and evaluation of monitoring results, including an analysis of both short-term and long-term trends.
(iii)    An assessment of beneficial use attainment that is at a minimum in accordance with OAC 252:740-15.
(iv)    Summarized assessment of data quality objectives, including an explanation of any data quality issues.
(v)    All monitoring data shall be submitted electronically.
(E)    If the report documents nonattainment of a beneficial use(s) resulting from the discharge, the permitting authority shall consider actions including, but not limited to, additional permit requirements, cessation of the discharge, and/or a recommendation to DEQ to revoke the SWS-R waterbody classification.
(b)     General rules for other Tier 2 Waterbodies. General rules for other Tier 2 waterbodies shall be developed as waters are identified.
252:740-13-5.  Tier 2.5 protection; maintenance and protection of high quality waters, sensitive water supplies, and other tier 2.5 waterbodies
(a)     General rules for High Quality Waters. New point source discharges of any pollutant after June 11, 1989, and increased load or concentration of any specified pollutant from any point source discharge existing as of June 11, 1989, shall be prohibited in any waterbody or watershed designated in Appendix A of OAC 252:730 with the limitation "HQW". Any discharge of any pollutant to a waterbody designated "HQW" which would, if it occurred, lower existing water quality shall be prohibited. Provided however, new point source discharges or increased load or concentration of any specified pollutant from a discharge existing as of June 11, 1989, may be approved by the permitting authority in circumstances where the discharger demonstrates to the satisfaction of the permitting authority that such new discharge or increased load or concentration would result in maintaining or improving the level of water quality which exceeds that necessary to support recreation and propagation of fishes, shellfishes, and wildlife in the receiving water.
(b)     General rules for sensitive public and private water supplies. New point source discharges of any pollutant after June 11, 1989, and increased load of any specified pollutant from any point source discharge existing as of June 11, 1989, shall be prohibited in any waterbody or watershed designated in Appendix A of OAC 252:730 with the limitation "SWS". Any discharge of any pollutant to a waterbody designated "SWS" which would, if it occurred, lower existing water quality shall be prohibited. Provided however, new point source discharges or increased load of any specified pollutant from a discharge existing as of June 11, 1989, may be approved by the permitting authority in circumstances where the discharger demonstrates to the satisfaction of the permitting authority that such new discharge or increased load will result in maintaining or improving the water quality in both the direct receiving water, if designated SWS, and any downstream waterbodies designated SWS.
(c)     Stormwater discharges. Regardless of subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, point source discharges of stormwater to waterbodies and watersheds designated "HQW", "SWS" may be approved by the permitting authority.
(d)     Nonpoint source discharges or runoff. Best management practices for control of nonpoint source discharges or runoff should be implemented in watersheds of waterbodies designated "HQW", or "SWS" in Appendix A of OAC 252:730.
252:740-13-6.  Tier 3 protection; prohibition against degradation of water quality in outstanding resource waters
(a)     General. New point source discharges of any pollutant after June 11, 1989, and increased load of any pollutant from any point source discharge existing as of June 11, 1989, shall be prohibited in any waterbody or watershed designated in Appendix A of OAC 252:730 with the limitation "ORW" and/or "Scenic River", and in any waterbody located within the watershed of any waterbody designated with the limitation "Scenic River". Any discharge of any pollutant to a waterbody designated "ORW" or "Scenic River" which would, if it occurred, lower existing water quality shall be prohibited.
(b)     Stormwater discharges. Regardless of OAC 252:740-13-6(a), point source discharges of stormwater from temporary construction activities to waterbodies and watersheds designated "ORW" and/or "Scenic River" may be permitted by the permitting authority. Regardless of OAC 252:740-13-6(a), discharges of stormwater to waterbodies and watersheds designated "ORW" and/or "Scenic River" from point sources existing as of June 25, 1992, whether or not such stormwater discharges were permitted as point sources prior to June 25, 1992, may be permitted by the permitting authority; provided, however, increased load of any pollutant from such stormwater discharge shall be prohibited.
(c)     Nonpoint source discharges or runoff. Best management practices for control of nonpoint source discharges or runoff should be implemented in watersheds of waterbodies designated "ORW" in Appendix A of OAC 252:730, provided, however, that development of conservation plans shall be required in sub-watersheds where discharges or runoff from nonpoint sources are identified as causing or significantly contributing to degradation in a waterbody designated "ORW".
(d)     LMFO's. No licensed managed feeding operation (LMFO) established after June 10, 1998 which applies for a new or expanding license from the State Department of Agriculture after March 9, 1998 shall be located...[w]ithin three (3) miles of any designated scenic river area as specified by the Scenic Rivers Act in 82 O.S. Section 1451 and following, or [w]ithin one (1) mile of a waterbody [2:9-210.3(D)] designated in Appendix A of OAC 252:730 as "ORW".
252:740-13-7.  Protection for Appendix B areas
(a)     General. Appendix B of OAC 252:730 identifies areas in Oklahoma with waters of recreational and/or ecological significance. These areas are divided into Table 1, which includes national and state parks, national forests, wildlife area, wildlife management areas and wildlife refuges; and Table 2, which includes areas which contain threatened or endangered species listed as such by the federal government pursuant to the federal Endangered Species Act as amended.
(b)     Protection for Table 1 areas. New discharges of pollutants after June 11, 1989, or increased loading of pollutants from discharges existing as of June 11, 1989, to waters within the boundaries of areas listed in Table 1 of Appendix B of OAC 252:730 may be approved by the permitting authority under such conditions as ensure that the recreational and ecological significance of these waters will be maintained.
(c)     Protection for Table 2 areas. Discharges or other activities associated with those waters within the boundaries listed in Table 2 of Appendix B of OAC 252:730 may be restricted through agreements between appropriate regulatory agencies and the United States Fish and Wildlife Service. Discharges or other activities in such areas shall not substantially disrupt the threatened or endangered species inhabiting the receiving water.
(d)     Nonpoint source discharges or runoff. Best management practices for control of nonpoint source discharges or runoff should be implemented in watersheds located within areas listed in Appendix B of OAC 252:730.
252:740-13-8.  Antidegradation review in surface waters
(a)     General. The antidegradation review process below presents the framework to be used when making decisions regarding the intentional lowering of water quality, where water quality is better than the minimum necessary to protect beneficial uses. OWRB technical guidance TRWQ2017-01 provides additional information.
(b)     Determination of Assimilative Capacity in Tier 2, Tier 2.5, and Tier 3 Waters.
(1)    All water quality monitoring and technical analyses necessary to determine receiving waterbody assimilative capacity for all applicable numeric and narrative criteria and associated parameters protective of waterbody beneficial uses shall be conducted by the interested party.
(2)    Prior to initiating any monitoring or technical analysis to support determination of waterbody assimilative capacity, the interested party shall submit a workplan for review and approval by DEQ staff.
(3)    As part of an approved workplan, the interested party shall characterize existing water quality of the receiving waterbody for each applicable criteria and associated parameters and evaluate if there is available assimilative capacity. Characterization of existing water quality shall address, at a minimum:
(A)    Measurement of load and or concentration for all applicable criteria and associated parameter(s) in the receiving water; and
(B)    The measurement of both existing and proposed point and nonpoint source discharge concentrations and or loadings; and
(C)    The critical low flow or critical lake level of the receiving waterbody, including drought of record in waterbodies receiving IPR discharges; and
(D)    The limnological, hydrologic, seasonal, spatial and temporal variability and critical conditions of the waterbody; and
(E)    Volumetric determination of anoxic dissolved oxygen condition consistent with OAC 252:730 and OAC 252:740; and
(F)    The bioaccumulative nature of a pollutant shall be considered when determining assimilative capacity; and
(G)    The 303(d) list as contained in the most recently approved Integrated Water Quality Assessment Report shall be reviewed and any difference between the water quality assessment information and the characterization of existing water quality shall be reconciled.
(4)    Assimilative capacity shall be determined by comparing existing water quality, as determined consistent with subsection (a)(3) above to the applicable narrative and numeric criteria. In Tier 2 waters, assimilative capacity shall be determined and used with a margin(s) of safety (OAC 252:740-13-8(d)(1)(D)), which takes into account any uncertainty between existing or proposed discharges and impacts on receiving water quality.
(5)    When existing water quality does not meet the criterion or associated parameter necessary to support beneficial use(s) or is identified as impaired on Oklahoma's 303(d) list as contained in the most recently approved Integrated Water Quality Assessment Report, no assimilative capacity shall exist for the given criterion.
(c)     Use of Assimilative Capacity in Tier 1 Waters. Available assimilative capacity may be used in Tier 1 waters such that, water quality is maintained to fully protect all designated and existing beneficial uses.
(d)     Use of Assimilative Capacity in Tier 2 Waters.
(1)    If it is determined that assimilative capacity is available, the consumption of assimilative capacity may be allowed in a manner consistent with the requirements in 40 C.F.R. 131.12(a)(2) and this subchapter. In allowing the use of assimilative capacity, the state shall assure that:
(A)    Water quality shall be maintained to fully protect designated and existing beneficial uses.
(B)    Assimilative capacity shall be reserved such that all applicable narrative criteria in OAC 252:730 are attained and beneficial uses are protected.
(C)    Fifty percent (50%) of assimilative capacity shall be reserved for all applicable water quality criteria listed in OAC 252:730, Appendix G, Table 2.
(D)    In order to preserve a margin of safety; in no case shall any activity be authorized without the application of margin(s) of safety specified below:
(i)    A twenty percent (20%) margin of safety shall be applied to an applicable numeric criterion for chlorophyll-a, total phosphorus, and total nitrogen. If numeric criteria are not available, the narrative nutrient criterion (OAC 252:730-5-9(d)) shall be applied and a twenty percent (20%) margin of safety shall be applied to the parameters listed in the criterion.
(ii)    No more than forty-five percent (45%) of the lake volume shall be less than the dissolved oxygen criterion magnitude in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(1)(C)(ii).
(iii)    If the existing value of a criterion is within the margin of safety, no assimilative capacity is available and existing water quality shall be maintained or improved.
(E)    When existing water quality does not satisfy the applicable criterion and support beneficial use(s) or has been designated as impaired in Oklahoma's 303(d) list as contained in the most recently approved Integrated Water Quality Assessment Report, the applicable criterion shall be met at the point of discharge. If a TMDL has been approved for the impairment, loading capacity for the parameter may be available if TMDL load allocations include the proposed load from the discharge.
(2)    An analysis of alternatives shall evaluate a range of practicable alternatives that would prevent or lessen the water quality degradation associated with the proposed activity. When the analysis of alternatives identifies one or more practicable alternatives, the State shall only find that a lowering is necessary if one such alternative is selected for implementation.
(3)    After an analysis of alternatives and an option that utilizes any or all of the assimilative capacity is selected, the discharger must demonstrate that the lowering of water quality is necessary to accommodate important economic or social development in the area in which the waters are located.
(e)     Use of Assimilative Capacity in Tier 2.5 or 3.0 Waters. Consistent with OAC 252:730-3-2(a) - (c), 252:730-5-25(a), 252:730-5-25(b), and 252:730-5-25(c)(1) - (c)(6) all available assimilative capacity shall be reserved in waterbodies classified as Tier 2.5 or 3.0 waters.
(f)     Public Participation. Agencies implementing subsection 8(d), shall conduct all activities with intergovernmental coordination and according to each agency's public participation procedures, including those specified in Oklahoma's continuing planning process.
SUBCHAPTER 15.  Use Support Assessment Protocols
252:740-15-1.  Scope and applicability
(a)     General. The rules in this Subchapter provide protocols which shall be used on and after October 1, 2000, to determine whether certain beneficial uses of waters of the state designated in OAC 252:730 are being supported. Such determinations shall be made only to the extent that pertinent provisions of OAC 252:730 apply to a waterbody or its designated uses. The rules in this Subchapter are not intended and should not be construed to limit any actions by federal or state agencies or citizens to prevent pollution or to limit remedies to abate pollution from a single incident or activity or series of incidents or activities.
(b)     Significance of assessment that a use is other than fully supported. A determination based upon application of the rules in this Subchapter that a waterbody's beneficial use is not supported or is partially supported creates a presumption that the use is impaired or not attained for that waterbody and that the waterbody segment is a water quality limited segment.
(c)     Agency discretion to consider additional data. An agency with jurisdiction may consider other relevant data meeting the requirements of this Subchapter in addition to that required by the rules in this Subchapter for any particular parameter to determine full support or non-support.
252:740-15-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"303(d) List" means the list of waterbodies with uses that are either threatened or impaired, developed for the State of Oklahoma in accordance with Section 303(d) of the federal Clean Water Act.
"305(b) Report"means the report of water quality in the State of Oklahoma developed in accordance with Section 305(b) of the federal Clean Water Act.
"Ecoregion" means a geographical area within which ecosystems and the type, quality and quantity of environmental resources are generally similar, as more specifically described in EPA's 1997 revision of Omernick, "Ecoregions of the Conterminous United States", Annals of the Association of American Geographers.
"Impaired" means one or more designated beneficial uses are not being attained.
"MQL" means minimum quantification level.
"Non-wadable" means a stream which is not wadable.
"Rolling average" means the mathematical average of data values across a fixed length of time that incrementally changes its starting point but retains a fixed length of time by also incrementally changing its end point for each recalculation of the average. This term is also known as "moving average".
"Screening level" means an evaluation threshold based upon criteria prescribed in OAC 252:730 to protect a designated beneficial use.
"Seasonal base flow" means the sustained or fair-weather runoff, which includes but is not limited to groundwater runoff and delayed subsurface runoff.
"Trophic State Index" means the results of the calculation for chlorophyll-a concentration using both Carlson, R.E. 1977, A Trophic State Index For Lakes, Limnology and Oceanography, 22:361-369 and the methods outlined in the Board guidance document "Guidance For Determining Lake Trophic State For Determination Of Nutrient Limited Waters Status".
"Wadable" means a stream or segment thereof, at least 10 percent of which under seasonal base flow conditions is:
(A)    less than 1.25 meters deep at its thalweg, and
(B)    has an instantaneous discharge of less than 10 cubic feet per second, or has a velocity of less than 10 centimeters per second.
"Waterbody" means a body of waters of the state.
252:740-15-3.  Data requirements
(a)     General. In order to determine whether a given beneficial use of a waterbody is supported, scientific data from the waterbody shall be used as prescribed in this Section. Data shall be collected and analyzed in a manner consistent with testing procedures provided in OAC 252:730-1-4 or practices that are institutionally recognized and appropriate for the parameter of concern and documented in accordance with OAC 252:740-15-3(g). All existing data available for a waterbody shall be used in the analysis, subject to the spatial, temporal and other requirements of this Section.
(b)     Spatial coverage.
(1)     General for streams. The spatial extent of assessment of use support in terms of stream miles shall be determined after taking into account existing data, spatial distribution of monitoring sites, sources of pollution and influence of tributaries. Major hydrological features, such as the confluence of a major tributary or a dam, may limit the spatial extent of an assessment based on one station.
(2)     Non-wadable streams. Unless it is demonstrated to the contrary, a single monitoring site shall be considered representative of no more than 25 stream miles for non-wadable streams.
(3)     Wadable streams. Unless it is demonstrated to the contrary, a single monitoring site shall be considered representative of no more than 10 stream miles for wadable streams.
(4)     Lakes. The spatial extent of assessment of use support in terms of lake surface acres shall be estimated based on the spatial distribution of monitoring sites having the requisite number of samples, sources of pollution, influence of tributaries and best professional judgment. Arms or portions of lake may be treated separately from the main body of a lake. Unless it is demonstrated to the contrary, a single site shall be considered representative of an entire lake or an arm of no more than two hundred and fifty surface acres in size.
(5)     Spatial limitation for sampling sites. For purposes of this Subchapter, observations, samples, and other data shall not be taken within any regulatory mixing zone.
(c)     Temporal coverage.
(1)     General. Observations, samples or other data collected for purposes of assessing use support shall be taken to avoid temporal bias, and seasonality shall be represented in the sampling scheme.
(2)     Streams. Data no older than five years old shall be utilized in assessing use support for a stream unless:
(A)    the data available from the preceding five-year period is insufficient to satisfy the requirements of OAC 252:740-15-3(d) or other more specific minimum requirements provided in this Subchapter, in which case data older than five years old may be utilized, or
(B)    the provisions of OAC 252:740-15-4(b)(3) or OAC 252:740-15-4(c)(3) apply.
(3)     Lakes. Data no older than ten years old shall be utilized in assessing use support for a lake unless
(A)    the data available from the preceding ten-year period is insufficient to satisfy the requirements of OAC 252:740-15-3(d) or other more specific minimum requirements provided in this Subchapter, in which case data older than ten years old may be utilized, or
(B)    the provisions of OAC 252:740-15-4(b)(3) or OAC 252:740-15-4(c)(3) apply.
(d)     Minimum number of samples.
(1)    Except when (f) of this Section applies, or unless otherwise noted in subchapter OAC 252:740-15 for a particular parameter, a minimum number of samples shall be required to assess beneficial use support.
(A)    For streams and rivers, a minimum of 10 samples shall be required.
(B)    For lakes greater than 250 surface acres, a minimum of 20 samples shall be required.
(C)    For lakes 250 surface acres or smaller, a minimum of 10 samples shall be required.
(D)    For toxicants for the protection of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation and Public and Private Water beneficial uses, a minimum of 5 samples shall be required.
(2)    In order to satisfy the minimum sample requirements of this sub-section, samples may be aggregated consistent with the spatial and temporal requirements prescribed in (b), (c), and (d) of this Section.
(3)    The prescribed minimum samples shall not be necessary if the available samples already assure exceedance of the applicable percentage for beneficial use assessment.
(4)    If a mathematical calculation including, but not limited to, a mean, median, or quartile, is required for assessment, a minimum of ten samples shall be required, regardless of the parameter type.
(5)    Additional samples for the calculation of temperature, pH and hardness dependent acute and chronic criteria shall be collected as required by OAC 252:740-5-4.
(e)     Application of PQL.
(1)     Criteria above PQL.
(A)    If sample values are below the PQL for a parameter whose criterion is above the PQL, appropriate nonparametric statistical measures shall be used to determine the reporting value.
(B)    For waterbodies identified as impaired on the current 303(d) List or 305(b) Report, if sample values are nondetectable for a parameter whose criterion is above the PQL, then such value shall be deemed to be one-half (1/2) of the parameter PQL.
(C)    All sample values that are above the PQL shall be the reported values.
(2)     Criteria equal to or below PQL.
(A)    If sample values are below the PQL for a criterion which is less than one-half (1/2) of the PQL, then the values shall be deemed to be zero (0) until the first test result above the PQL appears. After that time, sample values which are below the PQL shall be deemed to be equal to the criterion value until four (4) subsequent contiguous samples are shown to be below the PQL. Any subsequent sample values which are nondetectable may be treated as zero (0) until the next test result appears above the PQL.
(B)    For those parameters whose criteria are at least two (2) orders of magnitude below the PQL, evidence considered with respect to assessment of use support shall include fish tissue analysis, biological community analysis, biological thresholds wherever available, or other holistic indicators which are appropriate for the beneficial use in question.
(C)    If sample values are below the PQL for a criterion which is greater than or equal to one-half (1/2) of the PQL but less than the PQL, then the values shall be deemed to be one-half (1/2) of the criterion value until the first test result above the PQL appears. After that time, sample values which are below the PQL shall be deemed to be equal to the criterion value until four (4) subsequent contiguous samples are shown to be below the PQL. Any subsequent sample values which are nondetectable may be treated as equal to one-half (1/2) of the criterion value until the next test result appears above the PQL.
(D)    For waterbodies identified as impaired on the current 303(d) List or 305(b) Report, if sample values are nondetectable for a parameter whose criterion is below the PQL, then such value shall be deemed to be one-half (1/2) of the criterion value.
(E)    All sample values that are above the PQL shall be the reported values.
(f)     Magnitude of criteria exceedance.
(1)     General. The magnitude of exceedance, as well as frequency of exceedances, shall be used in determining beneficial use support. Samples shall be taken only during conditions when criteria apply.
(2)     Toxicants. If two or more concentrations of toxicants exceed criteria or screening levels to protect human health or aquatic life by two orders of magnitude or more, the associated beneficial use shall be deemed to be not supported.
(3)     Dissolved oxygen. If more than two concentrations of DO in a stream are observed to be below 2 mg/L in any given year, the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use shall be deemed to be not supported.
(4)     Other parameters. The magnitude and frequency of exceedances to be used for determining beneficial use support for parameters other than toxicants and DO shall be as prescribed in the rules elsewhere in this Subchapter.
(g)     Quality assurance. On and after July 1, 2002, data collected for purposes of use support assessment shall be collected using documented programmatic quality assurance and quality control methods substantially in accordance with those required by "EPA Requirements for Quality Assurance Project Plans", EPA publication no. EPA/240/B-01/003 (March 2001). The sampling and testing methods used shall protect the integrity of the sample and provide detailed documentation of analysis.
252:740-15-4.  Default protocols
(a)     General. The protocols prescribed in this Section shall apply whenever the more specific protocols prescribed elsewhere in this Subchapter do not apply.
(b)     Short-term average numerical parameters.
(1)    Short-term average numerical parameters are based upon exposure periods of less than seven days. Short-term average parameters to which this Section applies include, but are not limited to, sample standards and turbidity.
(2)    A beneficial use shall be deemed to be fully supported for a given parameter whose criterion is based upon a short-term average if 10% or less of the samples for that parameter exceed the applicable screening level prescribed in this Subchapter.
(3)    A beneficial use shall be deemed to be fully supported but threatened if the use is supported currently but the appropriate state environmental agency determines that available data indicate that during the next five years the use may become not supported due to anticipated sources or adverse trends of pollution not prevented or controlled. If data from the preceding two-year period indicate a trend away from impairment, the appropriate agency shall remove the threatened status.
(4)    A beneficial use shall be deemed to be not supported for a given parameter whose criterion is based upon a short-term average if at least 10% of the samples for that parameter exceed the applicable screening level prescribed in this Subchapter.
(c)     Long-term average numerical parameters.
(1)    Long-term average numerical parameters are based upon exposure periods of seven days or longer. Assessment decisions shall be based upon the mean of all data meeting the temporal and spatial data requirements described elsewhere in this Subchapter.
(2)    A beneficial use shall be deemed to be fully supported for a given parameter whose criterion is based upon a long-term average if the mean of the sample results does not exceed the long-term criterion.
(3)    A beneficial use shall be deemed to be fully supported but threatened if the use is supported currently, but the appropriate state environmental agency determines that available data indicate that, during the next five years, the use may become not supported due to anticipated sources or adverse trends of pollution not prevented or controlled. If data from the preceding two-year period indicate a trend away from impairment, the appropriate agency shall remove the threatened status.
(4)    A beneficial use shall be deemed to be not supported for a given parameter whose criterion is based upon a long-term average if the mean of the sample results exceeds the criterion or screening level.
252:740-15-5.  Assessment of Fish and Wildlife Propagation support
(a)     Scope. The provisions of this Section shall be used to determine whether the beneficial use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation or any subcategory thereof designated in OAC 252:730 for a waterbody is supported.
(b)     Dissolved oxygen. For purposes of assessment, listing and reporting under sections 303(d) and 305(b) of the federal Clean Water Act as amended, the procedure for determining use support of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use or any subcategory thereof with respect to dissolved oxygen shall be as follows:
(1)     Support tests for HLAC streams.
(A)    The HLAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a stream shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to the DO criterion if 10% or less of the samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentration below the following season-specific thresholds:
(i)    April 1 through June 15: 4.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 16 through March 31: 3.0 mg/L
(B)    The HLAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a stream shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to the DO criterion if more than 10% of the samples across all seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the following season-specific thresholds due to other than naturally occurring conditions:
(i)    April 1 through June 15: 4.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 16 through March 31: 3.0 mg/L
(2)     Support tests for WWAC streams.
(A)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a stream shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to the DO criterion if 10% or less of the samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentration below the following season-specific thresholds:
(i)    April 1 through June 15: 6.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 16 through March 31: 5.0 mg/L
(B)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a stream shall be deemed to be undetermined with respect to the DO criterion if more than 10% of the samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the upper DO threshold and 10% or less of the samples across all seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the lower DO threshold considering the following season-specific ranges:
(i)    April 1 through June 15: 5.0 mg/L to 6.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 16 through October 15: 4.0 mg/L to 5.0 mg/L
(C)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a stream shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to the DO criterion if more than 10% of the samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the following season-specific thresholds due to other than naturally occurring conditions:
(i)    April 1 through June 15: 5.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 16 through October 15: 4.0 mg/L
(iii)    October 16 through March 31: 5.0 mg/L
(3)     Support tests for CWAC and Trout streams.
(A)    The CWAC or Trout subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a stream shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to the DO criterion if 10% or less of the samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the following season-specific thresholds:
(i)    March 1 through May 31: 7.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 1 through last day of February: 6.0 mg/L
(B)    The CWAC or Trout subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a stream shall be deemed to be undetermined with respect to the DO criterion if more than 10% of the samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the upper DO threshold and 10% or less of the samples across all seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the lower DO threshold considering the following season-specific ranges:
(i)    March 1 through May 31: 7.0 mg/L to 6.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 1 through October 15: 6.0 mg/L to 5.0 mg/L
(C)    The CWAC or Trout subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a stream shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to the DO criterion if more than 10% of the samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the following season-specific thresholds due to other than naturally occurring conditions:
(i)    March 1 through May 31: 6.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 1 through October 15: 5.0 mg/L
(iii)    October 16 through the last day of February: 6.0 mg/L
(4)     Support tests for WWAC lakes. The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to the DO criterion if both the Surface and Water Column criteria prescribed in (5)(A) and (6)(A) of this subsection (b) are satisfied. If either of the Surface or Water Column criteria prescribed in (5)(B) or (6)(B) produce a result of undetermined, then the WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be undetermined with respect to the DO criterion; provided, if either of the Surface or Water Column criteria prescribed in (5)(C) or (6)(C) produce a result of not supported, then the WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to the DO criterion.
(5)     Surface criteria for WWAC lakes.
(A)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to the DO criterion if 10% or less of the surface samples across life stages and all seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the following season-specific thresholds:
(i)    April 1 through June 15: 6.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 16 through March 31: 5.0 mg/L
(B)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be undetermined with respect to the DO criterion if more than 10% of the surface samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the upper DO threshold and 10% or less of the surface samples across all seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the lower DO threshold considering the following season-specific ranges:
(i)    April 1 through June 15: 5.0 mg/L to 6.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 16 through October 15: 4.0 mg/L to 5.0 mg/L
(C)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to the DO criterion if more than 10% of the surface samples across all life stages and seasons exhibit DO concentrations below the following season-specific thresholds due to other than naturally occurring conditions:
(i)    April 1 through June 15: 5.0 mg/L
(ii)    June 16 through October 15: 4.0 mg/L
(iii)    October 16 through March 31: 5.0 mg/L
(D)    "Surface", when used in this Section, means surface waters or the mixed surface layer, typically represented by a sample taken at least 0.5 m below the surface.
(6)     Water column criteria for WWAC lakes.
(A)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to the DO criterion if less than 50% of the volume (if volumetric data is available) or 50% or less of the water column (if no volumetric data is available) of all sample sites in the lake are less than 2.0 mg/L.
(B)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be undetermined with respect to the DO criterion (if no volumetric data is available) if 50% or more, but not greater than 70%, of the water column at any given sample site in the lake is less than 2.0 mg/L due to other than naturally occurring conditions.
(C)    The WWAC subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a lake shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to the DO criterion if 50% or more of the water volume (if volumetric data is available) or more than 70% of the water column (if no volumetric data is available) at any given sample site is less than 2.0 mg/L.
(D)    If a lake specific study including historical analysis produces a support status which is contrary to an assessment obtained from the application of (A), (B) or (C) of (b)(6) of this section, then that lake specific result will control.
(7)     Additional application/exercise when support undetermined. In instances where application of the tests in this subsection (b) initially produce a result that the pertinent subcategory is undetermined with respect to the DO criterion, such shall be subject to additional investigation that considers diurnal data for further application of such tests in order to resolve the determination of use support.
(c)     Toxicants.
(1)     Test for Full Support.
(A)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to any individual toxicant parameter if no more than one of the sample concentrations from the waterbody exceeds the acute criterion for that toxicant prescribed in the numerical criteria for toxic substances in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(6)(D) and (E) and OAC 252:730 Appendix G, Table 2.
(B)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to any individual toxicant parameter if not more than 1 sample concentration or not more than 10% of the sample concentrations from the waterbody exceeds the chronic criterion for that toxicant prescribed in the numerical criteria for toxic substances in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(6)(D), (E) and OAC 252:730 Appendix G, Table 2.
(2)     Test for Non-Support.
(A)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to any individual toxicant parameter if more than one of the sample concentrations from the waterbody exceed the acute criterion for that toxicant prescribed in the numerical criteria for toxic substances in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(6)(D) and (E) and OAC 252:730 Appendix G, Table 2.
(B)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to any individual toxicant parameter if more than 10 % of the sample concentrations from the waterbody exceed chronic criterion for that toxicant prescribed in the numerical criteria for toxic substances in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(6)(D) and (E) and OAC 252:730 Appendix G, Table 2
(d)     pH.
(1)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to pH occurring other than by naturally occurring conditions if no more than 10% of the sample concentrations from that waterbody fall outside the criteria range prescribed in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(3).
(2)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to pH occurring other than by naturally occurring conditions if greater than 10% of the sample concentrations from that waterbody fall outside the criteria range prescribed in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(3).
(e)     Turbidity. The criteria for turbidity stated in OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(7) shall constitute the screening levels for turbidity. The tests for use support shall follow the default protocol in OAC 252:740-15-4(b).
(f)     Oil and grease.
(1)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to oil and grease if a visible sheen or bottom deposits of oil or grease are observed on that waterbody in 10% or less of the observations.
(2)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to oil and grease if a visible sheen or bottom deposits of oil or grease are observed on that waterbody in more than 10% of the observations.
(g)     Suspended and bedded sediments.
(1)    If a stream is supporting the biological criteria assigned to that stream as provided in (e) and (i) through (n) of this section, then that stream will be deemed to be supporting its assigned Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use with respect to suspended and bedded sediments.
(2)    If a stream is not supporting the biological criteria assigned to that stream as provided in (e) and (i) through (n) of this section, then a habitat assessment must be conducted using the habitat assessment protocols found in OWRB Technical Report TRWQ2001-1, "Unified Protocols for Beneficial Use Assignment for Oklahoma Wadable Streams." The results of the habitat assessment shall then be compared to either historical conditions or regional reference conditions in order to determine attainment with respect to suspended and bedded sediments in that stream.
(3)    The method for establishing reference conditions shall meet the following requirements:
(A)    a minimum of five (5) reference streams or reaches shall be assessed;
(B)    all of the reference streams or reaches must be within the same ecoregion as the test stream;
(C)    all of the reference streams or reaches must be streams with similar flow regimes no more than two (2) stream orders removed from the test stream; and
(D)    the reference streams shall be selected from the least impacted streams in the ecoregion whose watersheds contain soils, vegetation, land uses, and topography typical of the watershed of the test stream(s).
(4)    The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use will be considered to be not supported with respect to suspended and bedded sediments if any of the following habitat parameters deviate from the reference conditions by the specified amount:
(A)    The total percent of clay, silt, and loose sand in the pool bottom substrate of the test stream is increased by more than 30% over the reference condition;
(B)    Cobble embeddedness in the test stream is increased by 15% or more over the reference condition;
(C)    The percentage of the length of the reach containing fresh (non-vegetated) point bars and/or islands in the test stream is 20 or more percentage points above that of the reference condition; or
(D)    The percentage of the length of the reach dominated by pools of a depth of 0.5 meters or more in the test stream is less than 70% of that of the reference condition.
(5)    If all of the habitat parameters identified in (h)(4) of this section deviate from the reference conditions by less than the amounts specified in (h)(4) of this section, then the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use is not impaired due to suspended and bedded sediments.
(h)     Metals. The Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use designated for a waterbody may be assessed using either total recoverable or dissolved metals. When available, the concentrations of dissolved metals shall be compared following the provisions of (c) of this subsection to the criteria in OAC 252:730 Appendix G converted to dissolved criteria by multiplying the total metal criterion listed in table 2 by the appropriate conversion factor listed in Table 3. Preference shall be given to the beneficial use determinations based upon dissolved metals. For those metals criteria requiring a hardness component, individual assessment results may be calculated using the average of all hardness data meeting the requirements of OAC 252:740-15-3. The segment-averaged hardness in Appendix B of this Chapter shall be used in the determination of the criterion if there is insufficient site-specific data to determine stream hardness.
(i)     Biological criteria.
(1)    If data demonstrate that an assemblage of fish or macro invertebrates from a waterbody is significantly degraded, according to OAC 252:730-5-12(f)(5), from that expected for the subcategory of Fish and Wildlife Propagation designated in OAC 252:730 for that waterbody, then that subcategory may be deemed by the appropriate state environmental agency to be not supported.
(2)    All physical assessments and biological collections shall be performed in accordance with the requirements set forth in OWRB Technical Report No. 99-3 entitled "Standard Operating Procedures for Stream Assessments and Biological Collections Related to Biological Criteria in Oklahoma".
(3)    Evaluation of the biological collections shall include identification of fish samples to species level. Determinations of tolerance level shall be made according to Jester et al. 1992, "The Fishes of Oklahoma, Their Gross Habitats, and Their Tolerance of Degradation in Water Quality and Habitat", Proceedings of Oklahoma Academy of Sciences, 72:7-19.
(4)    The determination of whether the use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation is supported in wadable streams in Oklahoma ecoregions shall be made according to all of the requirements of this subsection (e), the application of Appendix C of this Chapter, and the special provisions in subsections (i) through (o), where applicable, of this Section. Streams with undetermined use support status shall be subject to additional investigation that considers stream order, habitat factors and local reference streams before the use support determination is made. A finding of impairment for biocriteria due to any one of the parameters listed in this section shall trigger an evaluation of all likely causes, not precluding monitoring, assessment, and subsequent support determination of the Fish and Wildlife beneficial use for any of the other parameters in this section
(j)     Special provisions for Ouachita Mountains wadable streams. The determination of whether the use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation is supported for wadable streams located in the Ouachita Mountains ecoregion shall be made according to the application of Appendix C of this Chapter, together with this subsection, as follows:
(1)    Where designated, the subcategory of Warm Water Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 35 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 24 or less. If a score is 25 to 34 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(2)    Where designated, the subcategory of Habitat Limited Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 27 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 18 or less. If a score is 19 to 26 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(k)     Special provisions for Arkansas Valley wadable streams. The determination of whether the use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation is supported for wadable /streams located in the Arkansas Valley ecoregion shall be made according to the application of Appendix C of this Chapter, together with this subsection, as follows:
(1)    Where designated, the subcategory of Warm Water Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 35 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 24 or less. If a score is 25 to 34 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(2)    Where designated, the subcategory of Habitat Limited Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 27 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 18 or less. If a score is 19 to 26 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(l)     Special provisions for Boston Mountains and Ozark Highlands wadable streams. The determination of whether the use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation is supported for wadable streams located in the Boston Mountains and Ozark Highlands ecoregions shall be made according to the application of Appendix C of this Chapter, together with this subsection, as follows:
(1)    Where designated, the subcategory of Cool Water Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 37 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 29 or less. If a score is 30 to 36 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(2)    Where designated, the subcategory of Warm Water Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 31 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 22 or less. If a score is 23 to 30 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(m)     Special provisions for Central Irregular Plains wadable streams. The determination of whether the use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation is supported for wadable streams located in the Central Irregular Plains ecoregion shall be made according to the application of Appendix C of this Chapter, together with this subsection, as follows:
(1)    Where designated, the subcategory of Cool Water Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 35 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 28 or less. If a score is 29 to 34 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(2)    Where designated, the subcategory of Warm Water Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 30 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 22 or less. If a score is 23 to 29 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(3)    Where designated, the subcategory of Habitat Limited Aquatic Community shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 25 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 16 or less. If a score is 17 to 24 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(n)    Special provisions for Central Oklahoma - Texas Plains wadable streams. The determination of whether the Warm Water Aquatic Community subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use is supported for wadable streams located in the Central Oklahoma - Texas Plains ecoregion shall be made according to the application of Appendix C of this Chapter, together with this subsection, as follows:
(1)    Such subcategory shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 26 or more.
(2)    Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported if the application of Appendix C produces a score of 19 or less.
(3)    If the application of Appendix C produces a score of 20 to 25 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported shall be deemed undetermined.
(o)     Special provisions for Central Great Plains wadable streams. The subcategory of Warm Water Aquatic Community of the beneficial use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation in the wadable streams located in the Central Great Plains ecoregion shall be deemed fully supported if the application of Appendix C of this Chapter produces a score of 22 or more. Such subcategory shall be deemed not supported for the streams in the ecoregion of the application of Appendix C produces a score of 18 or less. If the application of Appendix C produces a score of 19 to 21 inclusive, the issue of whether this subcategory is supported for the streams in this ecoregion shall be deemed undermined. Provided, however, this subsection does not apply to the area bounded by State Highway 54 on the west, U.S. Highway 62 on the south, U.S. Highway 281 on the east and State Highway 19 on the north.
252:740-15-6.  Assessment of Primary Body Contact Recreation support
(a)     Scope. The provisions of this Section shall be used to determine whether the subcategory of Primary Body Contact of the beneficial use of Recreation designated in OAC 252:730 for a waterbody is supported during the recreation season from May 1 through September 30 each year. Where data exist for multiple bacterial indicators on the same waterbody or waterbody segment, the determination of use support shall be based upon the use and application of all applicable tests and data.
(b)     Escherichia coli (E. coli).
(1)    The Primary Body Contact Recreation subcategory designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to E. coli if the geometric mean of 126 colonies per 100 ml is met. These values are based upon all samples collected over the recreation period in accordance with OAC 252:740-15-3(c).
(2)    The Primary Body Contact Recreation subcategory designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to E. coli if the geometric mean of 126 colonies per 100 ml is not met. These values are based upon all samples collected over the recreation period in accordance with OAC 252:740-15-3(c).
(c)     Enterococci.
(1)    The Primary Body Contact Recreation subcategory designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to enterococci if the geometric mean of 33 colonies per 100 ml is met. These values are based upon all samples collected over the recreation period in accordance with OAC 252:740-15-3(c).
(2)    The Primary Body Contact Recreation subcategory designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to enterococci if the geometric mean of 33 colonies per 100 ml is not met. These values are based upon all samples collected over the recreation period in accordance with OAC 252:740-15-3(c).
252:740-15-7.  Assessment of Public and Private Water Supply support
(a)     Scope. The provisions of this Section shall be used to determine whether the beneficial use of Public and Private Water Supply or any subcategory thereof designated in OAC 252:730 for a waterbody is supported.
(b)     Toxicants.
(1)    The Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to any substance with criteria for such use listed in OAC 252:730 Appendix G if the sample concentrations from that waterbody do not exceed the criterion for that substance prescribed in OAC 252:730 Appendix G in more than 10% of the measurements, or if drinking water use restrictions are not in effect.
(2)    The Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to any substance with criteria for such use listed in OAC 252:730 Appendix G if the sample concentrations from that waterbody exceed the criterion for that substance prescribed in OAC 252:730 Appendix G in more than 10% of the measurements, or if drinking water use restrictions are put in effect by an agency with jurisdiction that require closure of the water supply.
(c)     Bacteria. The screening level for total coliform bacteria shall be 5000 colonies per 100 ml. The tests for use support shall follow the default protocol in OAC 252:740-15-4.
(d)     Threatened water supplies. Waters of the state designated in OAC 252:730 as Public and Private Water Supply shall be presumed to be threatened when toxicants are detected but do not exceed the applicable criteria prescribed in OAC 252:730 Appendix G, or some drinking water use restrictions have been put into effect by an agency with jurisdiction, or the potential for adverse impacts to water quality exists, or more than one such conditions exist.
(e)     Oil and grease.
(1)    The Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to oil and grease if a visible sheen or bottom deposits of oil or grease are observed on that waterbody in 10% or less of the observations, and drinking water use restrictions that require more than conventional treatment related to oil and grease have not been put into effect by an agency with jurisdiction.
(2)    The Public and Private Water Supply beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to oil and grease if a visible sheen or bottom deposits of oil or grease are observed on that waterbody in more than 10% of the observations, or drinking water use restrictions that require more than conventional treatment related to oil and grease have been put into effect by an agency with jurisdiction.
252:740-15-8.  Assessment of Agriculture support
(a)     Scope. The provisions of this Section shall be used to determine whether the beneficial use of Agriculture designated in OAC 252:730 for a waterbody is supported.
(b)     General support tests for chlorides, sulfates and TDS.
(1)    The Agriculture beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to chloride if the mean of all chloride sample concentrations from that waterbody do not exceed the yearly mean standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730 and no more than 10% of the sample concentrations from that waterbody exceed the sample standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730.
(2)    The Agriculture beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to chloride if the mean of all chloride sample concentrations from that waterbody exceeds the yearly mean standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730, or greater than 10% of the sample concentrations from that waterbody exceed the sample standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730. Provided, if the chloride sample concentrations are each less than 250 mg/L, then the Agriculture beneficial use shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to chloride.
(3)    The Agriculture beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to sulfate if the mean of all sulfate sample concentrations from that waterbody do not exceed the yearly mean standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730 and no more than 10% of the sample concentrations from that waterbody exceed the sample standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730.
(4)    The Agriculture beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to sulfate if the mean of all sulfate sample concentrations from that waterbody exceeds the yearly mean standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730, or greater than 10% of the sample concentrations from that waterbody exceed the sample standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730. Provided, if the sulfate sample concentrations are each less than 250 mg/L, then the Agriculture beneficial use shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to sulfate.
(5)    The Agriculture beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to TDS if the mean of all TDS sample concentrations from that waterbody do not exceed the yearly mean standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730 and no more than 10% of the sample concentrations from that waterbody exceed the sample standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730.
(6)    The Agriculture beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to TDS if the mean of all TDS sample concentrations from that waterbody exceeds the yearly mean standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730, or greater than 10% of the sample concentrations from that waterbody exceed the sample standard prescribed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E of OAC 252:730. Provided, if the TDS sample concentrations are each less than 700 mg/L, then the Agriculture beneficial use shall be deemed to be fully supported with respect to TDS.
(c)     Use of site-specific data. If the appropriate state environmental agency determines that the stream segment averages prescribed in Appendix F of OAC 252:730 are not appropriate for the entirety of a given stream segment or there is no value listed in Appendix F or site-specific criteria promulgated in Appendix E for the stream segment average for the parameter of concern, then yearly mean standards and sample standards developed from site-specific data may be used to assess whether the use of Agriculture is supported for that waterbody.
(d)     Use of data for lakes.
(1)     Lakes with one WBID segment. For support assessment in lakes with a single WBID segment, the segment averaged value prescribed in Appendix F to that same WQM segment shall be used.
(2)     Lakes with multiple WBID segments. For support assessment in lakes with multiple WBID segments, each segment shall use the segment averaged value prescribed in Appendix F to that same WQM segment when available. If a WBID segment in a lake has no corresponding WQM segment data available in Appendix F, the segment averaged value prescribed in Appendix F to the WQM segment immediately downstream of the lake shall be used.
252:740-15-9.  Assessment of Fish Consumption support
(a)     Scope. The provisions of this Section shall be used to determine whether the beneficial use of Fish Consumption designated in OAC 252:730 for a waterbody is supported.
(b)     Support tests.
(1)    The Fish Consumption beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be partially supported if restricted consumption as imposed by an agency with jurisdiction is in effect or if a fish or shellfish ban is in effect for a sub-population thereof.
(2)    The Fish Consumption beneficial use designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be not supported if an aquatic life closure or if a "no consumption" advisory imposed by an agency with jurisdiction is in effect.
(3)    The water column criteria for protection of the Fish Consumption beneficial use stated in OAC 252:730 Appendix G Table 2 shall be used according to the default protocol in OAC 252:740-15-4(c) to determine use support.
252:740-15-10.  Nutrients
(a)     General. OAC 252:730-3-2(c) prohibits water quality degradation by nutrients which will interfere with the attainment or maintenance of any existing or designated beneficial use. OAC 252:740-13-3(a)(1) requires maintenance of any existing or designated beneficial use. This Section provides a framework which shall be used in assessing threats or impairments to beneficial uses and waterbodies and watersheds caused by nutrients, and the consequences of such assessments.
(b)     Determining whether a stream is nutrient-threatened. The dichotomous process stated in this subsection shall be used in the determination of whether a stream is nutrient-threatened.
(1)    The stream order shall be identified. If the stream order is 1, 2 or 3, then proceed to paragraph (2). If the stream order is not 1, 2 or 3, then proceed to paragraph (9).
(2)    The stream slope shall be identified. If the stream slope is greater than or equal to 17 feet per mile, then proceed to paragraph (3). If the stream slope is less than 17 feet per mile, then proceed to paragraph (4).
(3)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if phosphorus concentrations in the stream are greater than 0.24 mg/L or if nitrite plus nitrate concentrations in the stream are greater than 4.95 mg/L, then proceed to paragraph (5). If such nutrient concentrations are less than the levels specified in this paragraph, then the stream is not threatened by nutrients.
(4)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if phosphorus concentrations in the stream are greater than 0.15 mg/L or if nitrite plus nitrate concentrations in the stream are greater than 2.4 mg/L, then proceed to paragraph (5). If such nutrient concentrations are less than the levels specified in this paragraph, then the stream is not threatened by nutrients.
(5)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if the percentage of canopy shading is greater than or equal to 80%, then the stream is not threatened by nutrients. If the percentage of canopy shading is less than 80%, then proceed to paragraph (6).
(6)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if the stream's turbidity is organic, then proceed to paragraph (7). If the stream's turbidity is inorganic, then proceed to paragraph (8).
(7)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if turbidity measured at seasonal base flow conditions is less than 20 NTU, then the stream is not threatened by nutrients. If turbidity measured at seasonal base flow conditions is 20 or more NTU, then the stream is threatened by nutrients.
(8)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if turbidity measured at seasonal base flow conditions is less than 20 NTU, then the stream is threatened by nutrients. If turbidity measured at seasonal base flow conditions is 20 or more NTU, then the stream is not threatened by nutrients.
(9)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if the stream slope is greater than or equal to 17 feet per mile, then proceed to paragraph (10). If the stream slope is less than 17 feet per mile, then proceed to paragraph (11).
(10)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if phosphorus concentrations in the stream are greater than 1.00 mg/L, or if nitrite plus nitrate concentrations in the stream are greater than 4.65 mg/L, then proceed to paragraph (12). If such nutrient concentrations are less than the levels specified in this paragraph, then the stream is not threatened by nutrients.
(11)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if phosphorus concentrations in the stream are greater than 0.36 mg/L, or if nitrite plus nitrate concentrations in the stream are greater than 5.0 mg/L, then proceed to paragraph (12). If such nutrient concentrations are less than the levels specified in this paragraph, then the stream is not threatened by nutrients.
(12)    Subject to the application of the foregoing paragraphs of this subsection, if the stream's inorganic turbidity measured at seasonal base flow conditions is greater than or equal to 20 NTU, then the stream is not threatened by nutrients. If the stream's inorganic turbidity measured at seasonal base flow conditions is less than 20 NTU, then the stream is threatened.
(c)     Alternative to dichotomous process for streams.
(1)    A wadable stream shall be deemed threatened by nutrients if the arithmetic mean of benthic chlorophyll-a data exceeds 100 mg per square meter under seasonal base flow conditions, or if two or more benthic chlorophyll-a measurements exceed 200 mg per square meter under seasonal base flow conditions. A non-wadable stream shall be deemed threatened by nutrients if planktonic chlorophyll-a values in the water column indicate it has a Trophic State Index (TSI) of 62 or greater.
(2)    If clear and convincing evidence indicates a result for a stream different from that obtained from application of the dichotomous process in (b) of this Section, then the appropriate state environmental agency may, after completing the public participation process developed by the Secretary of Environment pursuant to 27A O.S. § 1-2-101, accordingly identify the stream as threatened or not threatened by nutrients.
(d)     Demonstration that nutrients may be adversely impacting a beneficial use. If it is demonstrated by the Trophic State Index or by other relevant data as provided in OAC 252:740-15-1(c) that nutrient loading in a waterbody may be adversely impacting a beneficial use designated for that waterbody, then DEQ may determine that the waterbody and its watershed is an NLW, and shall identify the waterbody and watershed as NLW in Appendix A of OAC 252:730.
(e)     Consequence of identification as NLW. If a waterbody or its watershed is identified as NLW in Appendix A of OAC 252:730, then DEQ or other appropriate state environmental agency may cause an impairment study to be performed. Provided, if an impairment study demonstrates that the uses are not threatened, then DEQ shall consider deleting the NLW identification.
(f)     Consequence of assessment that use is threatened by nutrients. If it is determined that one or more beneficial uses designated for a waterbody are threatened by nutrients, then that waterbody shall be presumed to be nutrient-threatened. If it is determined or presumed, in accordance with this Section, that a waterbody is nutrient-threatened, then before the waterbody is determined to be nutrient-impaired, an impairment study must be completed by the appropriate state environmental agency.
(g)     Result of impairment study.
(1)     Impaired. If, independent of or in addition to the process set forth in this Section, an impairment study of a waterbody demonstrates that any beneficial use designated for a waterbody is impaired by nutrients, then the appropriate state environmental agency shall initiate the appropriate listing procedure in accordance with the public participation process developed by the Secretary of Environment pursuant to 27A O.S. § 1-2-101 for each such beneficial use.
(2)     Not impaired. If, independent of or in addition to the process set forth in this Section, an impairment study of a waterbody demonstrates that all beneficial uses designated for that waterbody are not impaired by nutrients, then the appropriate state environmental agency shall initiate the appropriate de-listing procedure in accordance with the public participation process developed by the Secretary of Environment pursuant to 27A O.S. § 1-2-101.
252:740-15-11.  Assessment of Navigation support
     The beneficial use of Navigation designated for a waterbody shall be deemed to be fully supported for the purpose of water quality reporting.
252:740-15-12.  Assessment of Aesthetics support
(a)     General provisions for all waterbodies other than Scenic Rivers. The tests prescribed in OAC 252:740-15-4 may be used to determine whether the beneficial use of Aesthetics designated in OAC 252:730 for a waterbody other than the Scenic Rivers is supported.
(b)     Special provisions for Scenic River reaches of Mountain Fork River, Lee Creek and Little Lee Creek.
(1)     Scope and applicability. This subsection shall be used to determine whether the Aesthetics beneficial use designated in OAC 252:730 is supported with respect to the total phosphorus criterion for Mountain Fork River, Lee Creek and Little Lee Creek.
(2)     Data and procedure.
(A)    The data used shall satisfy all of the requirements of OAC 252:740-15-3 except subsection (f) thereof. Notwithstanding such requirements, the data shall include samples collected from stream flow of at least six (6) storm events per calendar year or, if fewer than nine (9) storm events occurred in that year, then the majority of the storm events that occurred that year.
(B)    Whenever multiple samples are taken from a single storm event, the event mean concentration shall be determined and used as representative of that storm event.
(C)    A three-calendar-month geometric mean concentration shall be determined each month using the total phosphorus data from that month together with such data from the preceding two calendar months.
(3)     Support tests.
(A)    The Aesthetics beneficial use designated for a segment of a Scenic River shall be deemed to be supported with respect to total phosphorus if less than 25% of the monthly determinations made in accordance with (b)(2)(C) of this Section exceed 0.037 mg/L total phosphorus.
(B)    The Aesthetics beneficial use designated for a segment of a Scenic River shall be deemed to be not supported with respect to total phosphorus if 25% or greater of the monthly determinations made in accordance with (b)(2)(C) of this Section exceed 0.037 mg/L total phosphorus.
(c)     Special provisions for Scenic River reaches of Illinois River, Flint Creek, and Barren Fork Creek.
(1)     Scope and applicability. This subsection shall be used to determine whether the Aesthetics beneficial use designated in OAC 252:730 is supported with respect to the total phosphorus criterion for Illinois River, Flint Creek, and Barren Fork Creek.
(2)     Data and procedure.
(A)    The data used must satisfy all the requirements of OAC 252:740-15-3, unless otherwise specified in this subsection.
(B)    A rolling 6-month arithmetic mean must be calculated based on data from the current month and the five (5) preceding months. The calculation of a rolling 6-month arithmetic mean must include at least four values from four separate months. All available individual data values from any given month must be included in the rolling 6-month arithmetic mean calculation.
(C)    A minimum of ten (10) rolling 6-month arithmetic means are required to assess the Aesthetic beneficial use within a one-year period. The minimum of ten (10) rolling 6-month arithmetic means shall not be required upon affirmation that the beneficial use is not supported per of OAC 252:740-5-14(c)(3)(B).
(D)    A minimum of thirty (30) rolling 6-month arithmetic means are required to assess the Aesthetic beneficial use within a five-year period. The minimum of thirty (30) rolling 6-month arithmetic means shall not be required upon affirmation that the beneficial use is not supported per of OAC 252:740-5-14(c)(3)(B).
(3)     Support Tests.
(A)    If no more than one rolling 6-month arithmetic mean in any one-year period and not more than three rolling 6-month arithmetic means in any 5-year period exceed the total phosphorus criterion magnitude of 0.037 mg/L, the Aesthetic beneficial use is supported.
(B)    If more than one rolling 6-month arithmetic mean in any one-year period or more than three rolling 6-month arithmetic means in any 5-year period exceed the total phosphorus criterion magnitude of 0.037 mg/L, the Aesthetic beneficial use is not supported.
SUBCHAPTER 17.  Implementation of Dissolved Oxygen Criteria to Protect Fish and Wildlife Propagation
252:740-17-1.  Applicability and scope
     Rules in this Subchapter are designed to implement the criteria for dissolved oxygen prescribed in OAC 252:730 Appendix G Table 1 for protection of the beneficial use of Fish and Wildlife Propagation.
252:740-17-2.  Regulatory flows
(a)    The flow in the receiving stream, Qu, shall be deemed to be the greater of the 7Q2 or 1 cfs. If the 7Q2 is unknown, then Qu shall be deemed to be 1 cfs.
(b)    For industrial dischargers with adequate data as determined by the permitting authority, the effluent flow, Qe, shall be deemed to be the highest monthly averaged flow over the previous two years. For all other discharges, the effluent flow shall be deemed to be the design flow.
(c)    Provided, in stream segments where dams or other structures have substantially affected the historic flow regime of the stream segment, including but not limited to the portions of the Verdigris and Arkansas Rivers constituting the McClellan-Kerr Arkansas River Navigation System, the appropriate regulatory low flow in the receiving stream, Qu, shall be as determined on a site-specific basis pursuant to properly designed and implemented hydrologic study approved by the permitting authority and DEQ.
252:740-17-3.  Reasonable potential determination
(a)    A permit limit for oxygen demanding substances is required if there is a reasonable potential that the dissolved oxygen criteria will not be satisfied. Such a reasonable potential is demonstrated whenever an existing discharger proposes to increase the concentration or load of oxygen demanding substances, a new discharge of oxygen demanding substances is created, or a receiving waterbody is reclassified to a subcategory of the Fish and Wildlife Propagation beneficial use with a more stringent dissolved oxygen criterion.
(b)    The permitting authority may base its determination of the reasonable potential upon meeting the dissolved oxygen standard at the applicable regulatory low flow and at the applicable seasonal temperatures prescribed in Table 1 of Appendix G of OAC 252:730.

APPENDIX A.    [RESERVED]

APPENDIX B.  Mean Hardness (CACO3) and PH by Stream Segment  [NEW]
252_740B1R.tif

252_740B2R.tif

APPENDIX C.  Index of Biological Integrity  [NEW]
252_740C1R.tif

252_740C2R.tif

252_740C3R.tif
[OAR Docket #23-638; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 25.  Personnel Administration Rules
[OAR Docket #23-604]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 11. Employee Actions
Part 15. Agency Transfers [NEW]
260:25-11-150 [NEW]
260:25-11-151 [NEW]
260:25-11-152 [NEW]
260:25-11-153 [NEW]
260:25-11-154 [NEW]
260:25-11-155 [NEW]
260:25-11-156 [NEW]
260:25-11-157 [NEW]
Subchapter 13. Reduction-In-Force [REVOKED]
Part 1. General Provisions for Reduction-In-Force [REVOKED]
260:25-13-3 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 15. Time and Leave
Part 5. Miscellaneous Types of Leave
260:25-15-44 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 25. Oklahoma State Employees' Direct Deposit Rules
Part 1. General Provisions
260:25-25-6 [AMENDED]
260:25-25-11 [AMENDED]
260:25-25-14 [AMENDED]
260:25-25-16 [AMENDED]
260:25-25-18 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
The Office of Management and Enterprise Services; The Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 62 O.S. Section 34.6(8); The Human Capital Management Division and the Civil Service Division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 62 O.S. Section 34.301; The Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 74 O.S. Section 840-1.6A.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 30, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
February 21, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 24, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31,2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ ANALYSIS:
The amendments and additions to the rules are necessary to address any changes occurring because the State of Oklahoma's change to a new human resources system, Workday. The revocation in Subchapter 13 is necessary to address changes to the Oklahoma Personnel Act. The change to Subchapter 15. Time and Leave is in response to a statutory change.
CONTACT PERSON:
Tracy Osburn, Deputy General Counsel, General Counsel Section, OMES, 2401 North Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73105, (405) 522-3428, tracy.osburn@omes.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Employee Actions
PART 15.  AGENCY TRANSFERS
260:25-11-150.  Purpose
     The state of Oklahoma is one employer and therefore, employees moving from one agency to another should be seamless and ensure continuous access to benefits, time accrual and other rights as outlined in the Administrative Rules. The rules below outline how this should be done in Workday, the State of Oklahoma human resources system, and how to handle specific circumstances. These rules do not affect the rights and responsibilities of state agencies or state employees set forth in Oklahoma Administrative Code, Title 260, Chapter 130.
260:25-11-151.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Part, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Benefits service date" means the field in Workday that determines when an employee is eligible for benefits. The field also calculates cumulated service for the purposes of longevity and retirement.
"Effective date" means the date a transfer or employment with an agency begins according to the Workday state. The effective date should be the same as the start date.
"External" means anyone not currently employed with the State of Oklahoma.
"Interagency transfer" means an action in which an employee leaves employment with one agency while continuously employed with the State of Oklahoma.
"Internal" means anyone currently employed with the State of Oklahoma.
"Leaving agency" means the agency at which the employee is no longer employed.
"Receiving agency" means the agency which the employee has applied and received an offer letter of employment.
"Resignation date" means the date the employee agrees to end their employment with an agency.
"Start date" means the official first day for a new employee.
"Termination" means using the termination business process in Workday to end an employee's state service.
260:25-11-152.  Applying for internal State of Oklahoma jobs
     All employees shall be notified by their agency's human resources department that if they want to apply for a State of Oklahoma job while currently a State of Oklahoma employee, they must use the internal application process and not the external, public-facing website.
260:25-11-153.  Notifying agencies of the transfer
     Employees are encouraged to notify their former agency if they intend to transfer to a new agency within thirty (30) days of their resignation date. The receiving agency will be notified via the recruiting process if an applicant is already a State of Oklahoma employee.
260:25-11-154.  Timing a transfer
(a)    An employee's resignation date should be the last day of employment with the leaving agency. The receiving agency must initiate the transfer process within Workday with an effective date of the next date, regardless of holiday or weekend.
(b)    The leaving agency is responsible for annual leave payout for any accrued leave above the accumulation limits set in Oklahoma Administrative Code 260:25-15-11.
(c)    The leaving agency should work with the receiving agency to determine how much annual leave will be transferred with the employee in accordance with Oklahoma Administrative Code 260:25-11.
(d)    As of that effective date, the receiving agency is now fully responsible for that employee in terms of human resources, payroll, benefits and time tracking. This includes payout of any holidays that fall prior to the employee's first day unless they are placed in a transitional status as set forth in 260:25-11-146.
(e)    The human resources staff at both the leaving agency and the receiving agency should communicate with one another to coordinate the transfer of an employee. This practice will ensure the transfer date is beneficial for both agencies. Such communication should occur at the beginning and end of the pay period.
260:25-11-155.  Employee time off between agencies
(a)    If an employee chooses to take any amount of time between working at the leaving agency and starting at the receiving agency, they are required to adhere to all state policies surrounding annual leave and leave without pay status.
(b)    The leaving agency may agree to allow the employee to utilize his or her leave prior to his or her resignation date.
(c)    The receiving agency may require the employee to use leave for their time off that occurs during their regularly scheduled hours after the transfer is complete. (i.e., if an employee leaves an agency on Friday, they will not use leave to start on Monday, even though the effective date will be on that Saturday).
(d)    If an employee has no leave, they may be placed in a new transitional period, using the Agency Transition time code in Workday. This will work the same as leave without pay; however, this status will be indicated as a transition to avoid any negative assumptions.
260:25-11-156.  Transitional status
     Employees can be placed into a transitional status for no more than thirty (30) days. This status follows the rules indicated in 260:25-15-10 regarding leave without pay. Employees placed into a transitional status are employed by the received agency during the transitional status period.
260:25-11-157.  Employee hire post termination within thirty (30) days
     If an employee is terminated at an agency but receives an offer from another agency within thirty (30) days, the employee will avoid a break in service. However, the new agency cannot backdate the employee's employment status and therefore will need to consider the employee a re-hire in Workday@OK. However, the system is designed to recognize a less-than-30-day's break and will take the appropriate steps to maintain benefits.
SUBCHAPTER 13.  Reduction-In-Force  [REVOKED]
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS FOR REDUCTION-IN-FORCE  [REVOKED]
260:25-13-3.  Notice of reduction-in-force and time requirements  [REVOKED]
(a)     Cabinet Secretary approval. Prior to the posting of any reduction-in-force notice, the notice shall be approved by the cabinet secretary for the agency conducting the reduction-in-force. [74:840-2.27C] If there is no incumbent cabinet secretary for the agency or if the appointing authority is governed by an elected official, the approval requirement shall not apply.
(b)     Notice. At least 60 days before the scheduled beginning of reduction-in-force separations or as otherwise provided by law, the Appointing Authority shall post a notice in each office affected by the proposed reduction-in-force that a reduction-in-force will be conducted in accordance with the Oklahoma Personnel Act and Merit Rules. Such notice shall be posted for 5 days. The Appointing Authority shall provide a copy of the notice to the Administrator. A reduction-in-force shall not be used as a disciplinary action. [74:840 2.27C(A)]
(c)     Implementation plan. The reduction-in-force implementation plan and subsequent personnel transactions directly related to the reduction-in-force shall be in compliance with rules adopted by the Administrator. The reduction-in-force implementation plan, including the description of and reasons for displacement limits and protections from displacement actions, and severance benefits that will be offered shall be posted in each office affected by the plan within 5 business days after posting of the reduction-in-force notice. At the discretion of the Appointing Authority, the reduction-in-force implementation plan may be posted concurrently with the reduction-in-force notice. The reduction-in- force implementation plan shall:
(1)    Specify the position or positions to be abolished within specified units, divisions, facilities, agency-wide or any parts thereof, as determined by the Appointing Authority;
(2)    Provide for retention of affected employees based on type of appointment;
(3)    Require separation of probationary classified affected employees in affected job family levels, except those affected employees in probationary status after reinstatement from permanent classified status without a break in service, prior to the separation of any permanent classified affected employee in an affected job family level;
(4)    Provide for the retention of permanent classified affected employees in job family levels and those affected employees in probationary status after reinstatement, based on years of service;
(5)    Provide for exercise of displacement opportunities by permanent classified affected employees and those affected employees in probationary status after reinstatement if any displacement opportunities exist; and
(6)    Provide for outplacement assistance and employment counseling from the Oklahoma Employment Security Commission and any other outplacement assistance and employment counseling that may be available. [74:840-2.27C(B)]
(d)    Review of fiscal components. The Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services shall, within 5 business days of receipt, review the fiscal components of the reduction-in-force implementation plan and reject any plan that does not meet the requirements of Section 840-2.27C(D) of Title 74 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
(e)    Notice to State Employee Retirement Systems. Within 30 days after the approval of a reduction-in- force implementation plan by the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, the Appointing Authority shall provide written notice of the approved plan to the Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System or the Oklahoma Teachers' Retirement System, or a combination thereof to facilitate the possible purchase of termination credit if the affected employee(s) is a member of the aforementioned retirement system.
SUBCHAPTER 15.  Time and Leave
PART 5.  MISCELLANEOUS TYPES OF LEAVE
260:25-15-44.  Military leave of absence and restoration to position
(a)    Military leave of absence and right to restoration to former position shall be granted in accordance with Section 209 of Title 44, Sections 25.4, 25.5 and 25.7 of Title 51, and Section 48 of Title 72 of the Oklahoma Statutes; the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (38 U.S.C., 4301 et seq.); and such rights and privileges as these laws provide.
(b)    Military leave shall be granted to employees who are a member of any component of the Armed Forces of the United States or the Reserve Components, to include the Army & Air National Guard and the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps & Coast Guard Reserves, when ordered by proper authority to active or inactive duty (includes weekend drills and training exercises) or service. Such employees are entitled to leave of absence without loss of status or seniority.
(c)    The National Guard and Reserves Component - The first 30 regularly scheduled work days of military leave of absence during any federal fiscal year (October 1 to September 30) are with pay. If the period of military status extends beyond 30 days, the employee's absence for the period beyond 30 days is governed by applicable leave rules. Accrued compensatory leave, holiday leave, annual leave, or leave without pay may be requested to cover this period of time. During the remainder of such leave of absence the Appointing Authority mayshallelect to pay the employee an amount equal to the difference between his or her regular state pay and his or her military pay, except that the employee shall receive the difference between his or her full regular pay and his or her military pay when ordered by proper authority to active or inactive service during the period that Operation Enduring Freedom is in effect. The military pay could be verified through a Leave and Earnings Statement provided by the Military. The Appointing Authority should refer to Section 48 of Title 72 for guidance on how to calculate such payment.
(d)    An employee who is requested to report for physical examination in connection with military service is not considered absent from duty during the time required for the examination and travel.
(e)    An employee must notify the immediate supervisor of the requirement for military leave and provide as much advance notice as possible.
(f)    A supervisor does not have the right to request an employee or the federal government to reschedule military exercises for the convenience of the agency.
SUBCHAPTER 25.  Oklahoma State Employees' Direct Deposit Rules
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS
260:25-25-6.  Responsibility of employers
(a)    All employers shall offer direct deposit to any eligible employees [74:292.12(C)].
(b)    All employers shall distribute and make available to employees information about the direct deposit system and direct deposit authorization forms.
(c)    Employers receiving individual "earning statements" showing a record of earnings shall provide them to employees in the direct deposit system instead of payroll warrants.
(d)    Employers that do not use the OMES payroll accounting system shall provide a direct deposit service for their employees. The service shall agree with the Act and this Subchapter. It shall include the use of ana direct deposit authorization form like the form described in Section 260:25-25-14 and approved by HCM. The rules in this Chapter do not require revision of any direct deposit authorization form in effect before January 1, 1992, that substantially agrees with 260:25-25-14.
260:25-25-11.  Payroll date not affected
     An employee's participation in the direct deposit system shall not affect the employee's payroll date and frequency of payment unless the employee is on the supplemental payroll. If a participating employee is on supplemental payroll, the employee's payroll date may be delayed by 3 banking days.
260:25-25-14.  Forms and instructions
(a)    The direct deposit authorization formshallmay be used by the employee to authorize:
(1)    deposit of his or her payroll warrant in a specified checking or savings account in the financial institution of his or her choice through electronic funds transfer;
(2)    the specified financial institution to make a credit entry to the specified account;
(3)    the state of Oklahoma to direct the financial institution to return any moneys that are deposited in the employee's account to which the employee is not entitled;
(4)    changes in his or her enrollment information;
(5)    termination of the direct deposit of his or her payroll warrant; and
(b)    The direct deposit authorization form contains spaces for the employee to:
(1)    provide personal data to facilitate his or her personal banking needs;
(2)    sign and date the agreement.
260:25-25-16.  Procedures for direct deposit enrollment and changes
(a)    Procedures for employees under the Office of Management and Enterprise Services payroll accounting system. To authorize direct deposit, employees under the Office of Management and Enterprise Services payroll accounting system, or its successor, shall file a properly completed automatic deposit transmittal formshall enter the specific financial institution and checking or savings account information directly into the system. Employers may make exceptions to employee direct entry into the system. A completed direct deposit authorization form shall then be provided to the employer for entry into the system.An employee shall file this form 30 days before the desired effective date of the first electronic funds transfer, change or termination. The employee shall attach the form to an official document from the financial institution. (For example, an employee may attach a blank check with the word "VOID" printed across it.) The official document shall show the financial institution's FedACH routing number and employee's deposit account number. An employee shall directly enter banking information into the system or provide the completed form to the employer prior to the employer's deadline for the desired effective date of the first electronic funds transfer, change or termination.
(b)    Procedures for employees not under the Office of Management and Enterprise Services payroll accounting system. Employees of agencies not under the Office of Management and Enterprise Services payroll accounting system shall complete and submit automatic deposit transmittal forms according to the instructions of their employers.
260:25-25-18.  Warrant to replace returned direct deposit
     If a financial institution returns a direct deposit, OSFOMES (or the employer, if the employer does not pay through OSFOMES) shall issue a clearing account voucher to the employee for the amount of the returned deposit.
[OAR Docket #23-604; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 35.  Committee for Incentive Awards for State Employees  [REVOKED]
[OAR Docket #23-605]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [REVOKED]
260:35-1-1 [REVOKED]
260:35-1-2 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 3. Organization [REVOKED]
260:35-3-1 [REVOKED]
260:35-3-2 [REVOKED]
260:35-3-3 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 5. Types of Awards [REVOKED]
260:35-5-1 [REVOKED]
260:35-5-2 [REVOKED]
260:35-5-3 [REVOKED]
260:35-5-4 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 7. General Causes for Ineligibility [REVOKED]
260:35-7-1 [REVOKED]
260:35-7-2 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 9. General Requirements for Committee Consideration [REVOKED]
260:35-9-1 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 11. Protection [REVOKED]
260:35-11-1 [REVOKED]
260:35-11-2 [REVOKED]
260:35-11-3 [REVOKED]
260:35-11-4 [REVOKED]
260:35-11-5 [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
The Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 62 O.S. Section 34.6(8); The Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 74 O.S. Section 4115A
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 28, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
February 21, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 24, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ ANALYSIS:
The rules were revoked due to the fact that the statutes that authorized the rules have been repealed.
CONTACT PERSON:
Tracy Osburn, Deputy General Counsel, General Counsel Section, OMES, 2401 North Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73105, (405) 522-3428, tracy.osburn@omes.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions  [REVOKED]
260:35-1-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The rules of this Chapter have been adopted for the purpose of complying with the provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S., Sections 250 et seq. The specific purpose of this program, known as the Productivity Enhancement Program, is to encourage state employees to participate in improving the efficiency of state government operations. It is intended to increase the motivation to identify problems and to stimulate creativity in the solution of those problems. Additionally, the program provides a means for the state to communicate, to its employees and to the public, the high value placed on constructive ideas. To accomplish these goals, this program offers rewards and recognition for ideas, programs, and projects that result in increased productivity, cost curtailment, improved safety, efficiency, or morale or better services to the citizens of this state. [74:4116]
260:35-1-2.  Definitions  [REVOKED]
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Committee" or "program Committee" or "statewide PEP Committee" or "PEP Committee" means the Incentive Awards for State Employees Committee described in Section 260:35-3-1.
"Coordinator" or "program coordinator" or "statewide PEP coordinator" or "PEP Coordinator" means the Productivity Enhancement Program coordinator described in Section 260:35-3-2.
"PEP" means the Productivity Enhancement Program.
"Title 74" means Title 74 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Organization  [REVOKED]
260:35-3-1.  Incentive Awards for State Employees Committee  [REVOKED]
(a)     Structure of the Committee. The Productivity Enhancement Program will be managed by a seven-member committee. The members of the Committee will be appointed to represent state employees, management, and business. The Committee will be comprised of:
(1)    The Director of Central Services or designee who shall be the chairperson;
(2)    The Director of State Finance or designee;
(3)    The Administrator of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or designee;
(4)    The chief administrative officer of a state executive agency, department, commission, or office who shall be appointed by the Governor;
(5)    A state employee who does not occupy a supervisory position, to be appointed by the Governor;
(6)    A person who is not a state officer or employee, to be appointed by the President Pro Tempore of the Senate; and
(7)    A person who is not a state officer or employee, to be appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives. [74:4112]
(b)     Term of Members. Each member who is appointed by the Governor shall serve on the Committee at the pleasure of the Governor. Those members not appointed by the Governor shall serve on the Committee at the pleasure of their respective appointing authority. [74:4112] Apart from the Committee, the chairman will appoint or identify a Productivity Enhancement Program coordinator to handle administrative details, to act as an advisor to the Committee, and to act as secretary to the Committee at all meetings. The program coordinator shall have no vote.
(c)     Role of the Committee. It shall be the responsibility of the Committee to:
(1)    Promulgate rules and regulations and adopt policies and procedures to implement the Productivity Enhancement Program pursuant to the provisions of the Incentive Awards for State Employees Act. [74:4113]
(2)    Review all nominations and evaluations brought before it by the program coordinator.
(3)    Assure that each nomination is thoroughly and fairly investigated and reported upon by:
(A)    Calling upon any state employee or officer for information on the evaluation or implementation of any nomination;
(B)    Requesting any further information and investigation it deems appropriate.
(4)    Encourage employees to make nominations, and explain the program to agencies and groups upon request.
(5)    Periodically review and update the program rules as necessary, and waive procedural rules in individual cases in the interest of fairness and equity.
(6)    Authorize awards and the amounts of awards. [74:4117]
(7)    Prepare and submit to the Governor, Speaker of the House of Representatives and the President Pro Tempore of the Senate, a comprehensive annual status report on the activities, decisions, awards and recommendations of the Committee with respect to the Productivity Enhancement Program.
(d)     Operations of the Committee.
(1)    The Committee chair may cancel regularly scheduled Committee meetings if there is no business before the Committee. When meetings are canceled, the required public notices will be filed with the Secretary of State and publicly posted.
(2)    The Committee may consider "revenue generation" in evaluating cash nominations.
260:35-3-2.  The Productivity Enhancement Program coordinator  [REVOKED]
(a)     Status of the program coordinator. The coordinator shall be either a classified or unclassified/exempt employee of the state, working under the general guidance of the program Committee and under the supervision of the Administrator of the Human Capital Management Division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services. The Administrator shall provide the program coordinator with such clerical, computer, and other support and facilities as may be needed to effectively implement and sustain the program.
(b)     Role of the program coordinator. The program coordinator, under the direction of the Committee, shall:
(1)    Develop guidelines, requirements, and procedures for the administration, promotion and maintenance of the program.
(2)    Administer, promote, and maintain the program.
(3)    Ensure compliance with program requirements and goals by the orderly and timely processing of nominations and award payments.
(4)    Provide initial screening of all nominations received by the Committee, returning those ineligible for evaluation, and provide for evaluation of appropriate proposals.
(5)    Provide recommendations to the Committee for appropriate awards, recognition, and/or disposition.
260:35-3-3.  Agency nomination evaluators  [REVOKED]
(a)     Status of the evaluators. The director or administrator of each agency, department, commission, or office of state government participating in the Productivity Enhancement Program shall designate one or more qualified, objective agency nomination evaluators, who shall receive and review all nominations submitted by employees of their respective agencies and transmit to the Committee those nominations the agency deems worthy of cash awards.
(b)     Role of the evaluators. The evaluators shall:
(1)    Review and consider each nomination fairly, giving factual, complete, and prompt replies.
(2)    Review each proposal for merit and implementation feasibility, including defining such modifications as may be necessary for adoption.
(3)    Assess benefits and projected savings.
(4)    Return rejected nominations to agency employees with explanation for actions.
(5)    State any actions that approved proposal caused, such as partial or full implementation, both prior to submission of nominations to the Committee and during subsequent evaluations by the Committee.
(6)    For non-cash nominations:
(A)    Transmit non-cash nominations with recommendations for approval or rejection to the agency administrator (appointing authority) who shall approve or reject nominations.
(B)    Transmit copies of all non-cash nominations reviewed by the agency to the statewide PEP coordinator, clearly noting the disposition of each.
(C)    Develop procedures for awarding non-cash awards (lapel pins and certificates of commendation) furnished by the PEP Committee. Lapel pins and certificates will be supplied to the agency after receipt of approved non-cash nomination documentation.
(7)    For cash nominations:
(A)    Transmit nominations that demonstrate cost savings to their agency iscal officers for certification that cost savings or revenue generation are real and funds are therefore available for awards; costs will be determined by the formula adopted by the Committee. [74:4117]
(B)    Transmit nominations approved by the agency administrator (appointing authority), with agency recommendations, to the Committee.
(C)    Provide final documentation to the Committee of cost savings during a fiscal year and consequent award recommendations.
(D)    Transmit to the Committee, on a timely basis, copies of all cash nominations reviewed by the agency, clearly noting the disposition of each.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Types of Awards  [REVOKED]
260:35-5-1.  Individual productivity incentive awards  [REVOKED]
(a)     Definition. An individual productivity incentive award will consist of a certificate and lapel pin designed by the Committee. This type of award may be made by the agency administrator (appointing authority) of any state agency, office, or commission eligible to participate in the program to those eligible and nominated employees, as recommended by the agency nomination evaluator, who have demonstrated excellence by making an exceptional contribution to their respective work unit, to their agency or state government in general resulting in increased productivity, cost curtailment, improved safety, efficiency, or morale or better services to the citizens of this state. [74:4116]
(b)     Eligibility of employees to participate. With the exception of agencies and offices within the Legislature, the Office of the Governor, the Office of the Lieutenant Governor, and the Office of the State Auditor and Inspector, any agency, department, commission, or office of state government may participate in the incentive awards program . . . [74:4114] To be eligible for individual productivity incentive awards, an individual must be an employee of an eligible group and be nominated by a state employee occupying a supervisory position. State agency supervisors, managers and agency administrator may be nominated for noncash awards for making similar contributions. [74:4116]
(c)     Eligibility of employees to receive awards. To be eligible for an award, the nominated employee must have demonstrated excellence by making an exceptional contribution to their respective work unit, to their agency or to state government in general resulting in increased productivity, cost curtailment, improved safety, efficiency, or morale or better services to the citizens of this state. [74:4116]
(d)     Funding. The cost of award certificates and lapel pins shall be reimbursed to the Committee by the agency, board, commission or office that made the nomination. [74:4116]
(e)     Exceptionally meritorious individual productivity incentive awards. The statewide PEP Committee may review the various non-cash individual awards approval by state agency administrators to:
(1)    Evaluate the quality and quantity of awards being made to state employees.
(2)    Serve as a clearinghouse to share award winning ideas and actions with all state agencies.
(3)    Select exceptionally deserving actions by state employees for special recognition by the PEP Committee or the Governor
260:35-5-2.  Individual incentive compensation  [REVOKED]
(a)     Definition. An individual incentive compensation award will consist of a payment equal to at least twenty-five percent (25%) of the amount determined by the Committee to be the total unit dollar savings to the state for the level of services rendered, but shall not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The individual incentive compensation shall be paid in one lump sum if the twelve-month period mirrors the fiscal year, [otherwise, it shall be paid in two separate payments]. The calculation for two payments shall be based on the number of months in the first fiscal year of implementation for the first payment. The second payment shall come at the end of the first twelve (12) months of implementation, which falls in the second fiscal year. [74:4117]
(b)     Eligibility of employees to participate. All employees except state agency heads eligible to participate in the individual incentive awards program (see Section 260:35-5-1) shall be eligible to participate in the individual incentive compensation program. Eligibility of state agency supervisors and managers for cash awards will be reviewed on a case-by-case basis according to Section 260:35-7-1(2).
(c)     Eligibility of employees to receive individual incentive compensation. This type of award may be made to eligible employees, nominated for such compensation who, at a minimum, must have made an exceptional contribution similar to, but greater than, that required for an individual incentive award. Individual incentive compensation awards will be made only for proposals that result in real cost savings or revenue generation to an agency.
(d)     Funding. Individual incentive compensation awards shall be paid from the accrued savings in the operating budget of the nominating agency, department, commission, or office. [74:4117] Incentive pay awards shall be exempt from retirement contributions and shall not be included for the purpose of computing a retirement allowance pursuant to any public retirement system of the state. [74:4119]
260:35-5-3.  Unit incentive pay  [REVOKED]
(a)     Definition. A unit incentive pay award is a cash award made to the employees of a participating agency, commission, office or department who upon determination of the Committee, has reduced its unit dollar cost of operations or increased its level of services in the eligible fiscal year. The award shall consist of a sum not in excess of twenty-five percent (25%) of the amount determined to be the total unit dollar savings to the state for the level of services rendered. The amount awarded shall be divided and distributed in equal shares to the employees of the agency, department, commission, or office except that employees who have worked for the agency, department, commission, or office less than the full twelve (12) months of the fiscal year shall receive only a pro rata share based on the fraction of the year said employees have worked for that agency, department, commission, or office. Employees voluntarily leaving the employment of state government or employees dismissed for cause shall forfeit their share. [74:4119]
(b)     Eligibility of units to participate. With the exception of agencies and offices within the Legislature, the Office of the Governor, the Office of the Lieutenant Governor, and the Office of the State Auditor and Inspector, any agency, department, commission, or office of state government may participate in the unit incentive pay program. [74:4114]
(c)     Eligibility of units to receive unit incentive pay. To qualify for the award of unit incentive pay to its employees, an agency, department, commission, or office shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Committee that said agency, department, commission, [or] office has met both of the following two criteria in its operations during the fiscal year, after adjustment for inflation or deflation:
(1)    Operated at a lower unit cost. "Unit cost" shall be defined as expenditures in dollars to complete a measurable unit of work.
(A)    For first-time participants the unit cost for the participating year shall be compared to either the unit cost for the immediately preceding fiscal year or a standard unit cost approved by the Committee, or
(B)    For participants with one or more years in the program, the unit cost for the participating year shall be compared to either the average unit cost of prior successful participating years in the program or a standard unit cost approved by the Committee; and
(2)    Operated at no greater total dollar expenditures, except:
(A)    In a case where unit costs are reduced but total expenditures increased due to the agency or office maintaining its level of service; or
(B)    In a case where the Legislature or department head specifically mandates an increase in the workload. [74:4118]
(d)     Possible areas of award. The Committee will consider but is not limited to the considering as legitimate savings those reductions in expenditures made possible by such items as the following:
(1)    Reductions in overtime; [74:4118(C)(1)]
(2)    Elimination of consultant fees; [74:4118(C)(2)]
(3)    Less temporary help; [74:4118(C)(3)]
(4)    Elimination of budgeted positions; [74:4118(C)(4)]
(5)    Improved methods of communication; [74:4118(C)(5)]
(6)    Improved systems and procedures; [74:4118 (C)(6)]
(7)    Better development and utilization of manpower; [74:4118(C)(7)]
(8)    Elimination of unnecessary travel; [74:4118(C)(8)]
(9)    Elimination of unnecessary printing and mailing; [74:4118(C)(9)]
(10)    Elimination of unnecessary payments for advertising, memberships, dues, and subscriptions; [74:4118(C)(10)]
(11)    Elimination of waste, duplication, and operations of doubtful value; [74:4118(C)(11)]
(12)    Improved space utilization; [74:4118(C)(12)]
(13)    Proven cost-reduction techniques; [74:4118(C)(13)]
(14)    Any other items considered by the Committee as representing true savings. [74:4118(C)(14)]
(e)     Causes for denial of award. The Committee shall satisfy itself that the claimed unit dollar cost of operation is real and not merely apparent, and that it is not, in whole or in part, the result of any of the following:
(1)    A lowering of the level or quality of the service rendered; [74:4118(B)(1)]
(2)    Reduced pass-through on transfer expenditures; [74:4118(B)(2)]
(3)    Receipts realized in excess of amounts budgeted; [74:4118(B)(3)]
(4)    Nonrecurrence of expenditures which were single outlay, or one-time expenditures, in the preceding fiscal year; [74:4118(B)(4)]
(5)    Failure to reward deserving employees through promotions, reclassification, award of merit salary increments, or salary increases authorized by salary range revisions; [74:4118(B)(5)]
(6)    Postponement of normal purchases and repairs to a future fiscal year; [74:4118(B)(6)]
(7)    Stockpiling inventories in the immediately preceding fiscal year so as to reduce requirements in the eligible fiscal year; [74:4118(B)(7)]
(8)    Substitution of federal funds or any funds which are not state funds for state appropriations; [74:4118(B)(8)]
(9)    Unreasonable postponement of payments of accounts payable until the fiscal year immediately following the eligible fiscal year; [74:4118(B)(9)]
(10)    Shifting of expenses to another agency, department, commission, or office of government; [74:4118(B)(10)]
(11)    Any other practice, event, or device which the Committee decides has caused a distortion which misrepresents that a savings or increase in level of services has occurred. [74:4118(B)(11)]
(f)     Funding. Unit incentive pay shall be drawn from the accrued savings in the operating expenses of the agency, department, commission, or office for the eligible fiscal year. Incentive pay awards shall be exempt from retirement contributions and shall not be included for the purpose of computing a retirement allowance pursuant to any public retirement system of the state. [74:4119]
260:35-5-4.  Individual longevity incentive awards  [REVOKED]
(a)     Definition. An individual longevity incentive award will consist of certificate of appreciation and a lapel pin provided by the Committee. State employees will be recognized for their service to the state. They will receive length of service longevity awards at five-year intervals during the month following the anniversary date of the employee as defined in Section 805.2 of Title 74 of the Oklahoma Statutes. [74:4115A]
(b)     Eligibility of employees to participate. All state employees, classified, unclassified, and exempt are eligible to receive longevity awards, excluding members of boards, commissions, and institutions under the administrative authority of the State Regents for Higher Education, employees of public school districts and elected officials (re Section 805.2 of Title 74).
(c)     Funding. The cost of the individual longevity incentive awards shall be billed to the employing agency. [74:4115A]
(d)     Procedure for making awards. Appointing authorities are responsible for awarding the pins and certificates designed by the Committee, to eligible state employees at five-year intervals during the month following the anniversary date of the employee (see Section 260:35-5-4(a)). [74:4115A]
SUBCHAPTER 7.  General Causes for Ineligibility  [REVOKED]
260:35-7-1.  Ineligible persons and groups  [REVOKED]
     The following classes of persons and groups shall be ineligible for awards:
(1)    Members of the Incentive Awards for State Employees Committee, the program coordinator and their assistants.
(2)    Employees who submit proposals which would normally be expected in the performance of their duties and responsibilities, or for which the employees have authority to implement. (This applies to cash nominations only.)
(3)    Employees who submit proposals that are a result of assigned or contracted audits, studies, surveys, reviews, or research.
(4)    Employees serving on any department proposal system committee, sub-committee, or ad hoc committee are not eligible to become involved with the decision to adopt their proposals.
260:35-7-2.  Ineligible nominations  [REVOKED]
     In addition to those causes specifically mentioned in subchapter 5 of this Chapter, the following nominations shall be ineligible for awards:
(1)    Nominations which duplicate another nomination previously eligible for consideration or for which an award has previously been granted.
(2)    Nominations which concern matters which are actively being considered by supervision or management. (Note: Supporting documentation pre-dating the nomination should be available from management if requested.)
(3)    Nominations which involve routine maintenance matters or requests for supplies and services that should be reported through established channels. (This applies to cash nominations only.)
(4)    Nominations which, in fact, are personal grievances and complaints.
(5)    Nominations concerning individual employee compensation and individual position classifications.
(6)    Nominations which could result in either unit incentive pay or individual incentive compensation until the nominating agency, department, commission, or office assures that funds for said award are available, or will become available upon accrual of savings.
(7)    Nominations that would result in increased costs or decreased services rendered in other department or agencies
SUBCHAPTER 9.  General Requirements for Committee Consideration  [REVOKED]
260:35-9-1.  Cash nominations and proposals  [REVOKED]
(a)    Nominations and proposals must be submitted on forms and according to procedures prescribed by the Committee. Only those nominations and proposals forwarded to the Committee by agency administrators will be considered. Any nomination or proposal which may result in individual incentive compensation or unit incentive pay must:
(1)    Be certified by the administrator of the submitting agency that funds for such award are available, or will be available through accrued savings, and those funds have been encumbered for the purpose of making any resulting award.
(2)    Be accompanied by acceptable accounting procedure or guidelines to be used by the agency in documenting the actual savings during the fiscal year.
(b)    If an unadopted cash nomination is subsequently adopted within one year after the date of rejection, the proposer may submit to the Committee a request for reconsideration. Such request must be submitted within 90 days of adoption of the nomination. Any unadopted nomination may be resubmitted and considered eligible after a lapse of one year. The proposer may request the Committee to re-evaluate the amount of any award or the rejection of any nominations, acted upon by the Committee, if done so within 90 days of award or rejections. However, the Committee, the coordinator, and the evaluators, while acting in good faith, shall remain faultless for disposition of nominations.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Protection  [REVOKED]
260:35-11-1.  Ownership of proposals  [REVOKED]
     All proposals become the property of the state of Oklahoma. Use of the proposal by the state may not be the basis of any future claim of any nature against the state or the program by the proposer, his heirs, or assigns. In the event that proposals adopted by the state of Oklahoma are shared with the incentive awards programs of other states or public jurisdictions, and those jurisdictions likewise adopt the proposals, no future claim of any nature against the state of Oklahoma or the outside adopting jurisdiction may be made by the proposer, his heirs or assigns.
260:35-11-2.  Non-discrimination  [REVOKED]
     The Incentive Awards for State Employees Committee and the Productivity Enhancement Program will refrain from any practice which discriminates against participating employees on the basis of age, race, religion, color, national origin, sex, or handicap.
260:35-11-3.  Promulgation, amendment or repeal of rule(s)  [REVOKED]
     Any person seeking promulgation, amendment, or repeal of rules adopted by or to be considered by the Committee, shall do so in writing, to the chairperson of the Committee. Disposition of these will be made according to provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act.
260:35-11-4.  Public information  [REVOKED]
     The Committee shall make available for public inspection all rules and all other written statements of policy or interpretations formulated, adopted, or used by the agency in the discharge of its functions. The Committee shall make available for public inspection all final orders, decisions, and opinions. Persons desiring to inspect those materials may do so at the administrative office of the Committee during normal business hours.
260:35-11-5.  Savings clause  [REVOKED]
     If any section, sentence, clause, or phrase of the rules of this Chapter for the Committee for Incentive Awards for State Employees shall be held, for any reason, to be inoperative or unconstitutional, void or invalid, the validity of the remaining portion of the rules of this Chapter shall not be affected thereby. It being the intention of the Incentive Awards for State Employees Committee, in adopting the rules of this Chapter, that no portion thereof, or provision herein, shall become inoperative or fail by reason of the unconstitutionality or invalidity of any portion or provision. And, the Incentive Awards for State Employees Committee does hereby declare that it would have severally passed and adopted the provisions contained in this Chapter, separately, and apart one from the other.
[OAR Docket #23-605; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 50.  Employees Group Insurance Division - Health, Dental, Vision and Life Plans
[OAR Docket #23-563]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Purpose and Definitions
260:50-1-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Coverage and Limitations
Part 3. Healthchoice Plans
260:50-5-11 [AMENDED]
Part 5. Healthchoice Life Benefits
260:50-5-20 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
74 O.S. Section 1304.1 Office of Management and Enterprise Services Employees Group Insurance Division; The Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services: 62 O.S. §34.3.1; 62 O.S. §34.6(8).
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 28, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 25, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 25, 2023
ADOPTION:
February 21, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 24, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31st, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ ANALYSIS:
The rules and regulations are necessary to promote and enhance effective operation of the Employees Group Insurance Division. It is proposed that the rules and regulations be amended. The effect of the amended rules is to provide for the continued efficiency, responsiveness, the correction of citations and scrivener's errors, and changes to improve the clarity of the rules.
CONTACT PERSON:
Byron Knox, Deputy General Counsel, (405) 717-8744
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Purpose and Definitions
260:50-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms as defined by EGID, when used in this chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the content clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrative error" occurs when the coverage elections the member makes are not the same as those entered into payroll for deduction from the member's paycheck. This does not include untimely member coverage elections or member misrepresentation. When such an administrative error results in underpaid premiums, full payment to EGID shall be required before coverage elected by the member can be made effective. If overpayment occurs, EGID shall refund overpaid funds to the appropriate party.
"Administrator" means the Administrator of the Employees Group Insurance Division or a designee.
"Allowable fee" means the maximum allowed amount based on the HealthChoice Network Provider Contracts payable to a provider by EGID and the member for covered services.
"Attorney representing EGID" means any attorney designated by the Administrator to appear on behalf of EGID.
"The Board" means the seven [7] Oklahoma Employees Insurance and Benefits Board members designated by statute [74 O.S. §1303(1)].
"Business Associate" shall have the meaning given to "Business Associate" under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Privacy Rule, including, but not limited to, 45 CFR §160.103.
"Carrier" means the State of Oklahoma.
"Comprehensive benefits" means benefits which reimburse the expense of facility room and board, other hospital services, certain out-patient expenses, maternity benefits, surgical expense, including obstetrical care, in-hospital medical care expense, diagnostic radiological and laboratory benefits, providers' services provided by house and office calls, treatments administered in providers' office, prescription drugs, psychiatric services, Christian Science practitioners' services, Christian Science nurses' services, optometric medical services for injury or illness of the eye, home health care, home nursing service, hospice care and such other benefits as may be determined by EGID. Such benefits shall be provided on a copayment or coinsurance basis, the insured to pay a proportion of the cost of such benefits, and may be subject to a deductible that applies to all or part of the benefits as determined by EGID. [74 O.S. §1303 (14)]
"Cosmetic procedure" means a procedure that primarily serves to improve appearance.
"Current employee" means an employee in the service of a participating entity who receives compensation for services actually rendered and is listed on the payrolls and personnel records of said employer, as a current and present employee, including employees who are otherwise eligible who are on approved leave without pay, not to exceed twenty-four [24] months. An education employee absent from employment, not to exceed eight [8] years, because of election or appointment as local, state, or national education association officer who is otherwise eligible prior to taking approved leave without pay will be considered an eligible, current employee. A person elected by popular vote will be considered an eligible employee during his tenure of office. Eligible employees are defined by statute. [74 O.S. §1303 and §1315]
"Custodial care" means treatment or services regardless of who recommends them or where they are provided, that could be given safely and reasonably by a person not medically skilled. These services are designed mainly to help the patient with daily living activities. These activities include but are not limited to: personal care as in walking, getting in and out of bed, bathing, eating by spoon, tube or gastrostomy, exercising, dressing, using toilet, preparing meals or special diets, moving the patient, acting as companion or sitter, and supervising medication which can usually be self-administered.
"Dependent" means the primary member's spouse (if not legally separated by court order), including common-law. Dependents also include a member's daughter, son, stepdaughter, stepson, eligible foster child, adopted child, child for whom the member has been granted legal guardianship or child legally placed with the primary member for adoption up to the child's twenty-sixth [26th] birthday. In addition, other unmarried children up to age twenty-six [26] may be considered dependents if the child lives with the member and the member is primarily responsible for the child's support. A child that meets the definition of a disabled dependent in this section and also all requirements in 260:50-3-18, may also be covered regardless of age if the child is incapable of self-support because of mental or physical incapacity that existed prior to reaching age twenty-six [26]. Coverage is not automatic and must be approved with a review of medical information. A disabled dependent deemed disabled by Social Security does not automatically mean that this disabled dependent will meet the Plan requirements. [74 O.S. §1303(14)]. See additional eligibility criteria for disabled dependents over the age of twenty-six [26] at 260:50-3-18. Participating employer groups may have a more restrictive definition of Dependent.
"Durable medical equipment" means medically necessary equipment, prescribed by a provider, which serves a therapeutic purpose in the treatment of an illness or an injury. Durable medical equipment is for the exclusive use of the afflicted member and is designed for prolonged use. Specific criteria and limitations apply.
"Eligible Provider" means a practitioner who or a facility that is recognized by EGID as eligible for reimbursement. EGID reserves the right to determine provider eligibility for network and non-Network reimbursement.
"Emergency" means a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe pain) so that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in a condition described in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of section 1867(e)(1)(A) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1395dd (e)(1)(A)). (In that provision of the Social Security Act, clause (i) refers to placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious jeopardy; clause (ii) refers to serious impairment to bodily functions; and clause (iii) refers to serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.)
"Enrollment period" means the time period in which an individual may make an election of coverage or changes to coverage in effect.
"Excepted Benefits" means the four categories of benefits as established in section 2791 of the PHS Act, section 733 of ERISA and section 9832 of the Internal Revenue Code, as summarized in IRS Bulletin 2015-14 and subsequent regulatory guidance. These Excepted Benefits include but are not limited to vision coverage, dental coverage, long-term care insurance, Medicare supplement coverage, automobile liability insurance, workers compensation, accidental death and dismemberment insurance and specific disease coverage (such as cancer).
"Facility" means any organization as defined by EGID which is duly licensed under the laws of the state of operation and meets credentialing criteria established by EGID.
"Fee schedule" means a listing of one or more allowable fees.
"Former participating employees and dependents" means eligible former employees who have elected benefits within thirty [30] days of termination of service and includes those who have retired, or vested through an eligible State of Oklahoma retirement system, or who have completed the statutory required years of service, or who have other coverage rights through Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) or the Oklahoma Personnel Act. An eligible dependent is covered through the participating former employee or the dependent is eligible as a survivor or has coverage rights through COBRA.
"Health information" means any information, whether oral or recorded in any form or medium: (1) that relates to the past, present or future physical or mental condition of a member; the provision of health care to a member; or the past, present or future payment for the provision of health care to a member; and (2) that identifies the member or with respect to which there is a reasonable basis to believe the information can be used to identify the member.
"Home health care" means a plan of continued care of an insured person who is under the care of a provider who certifies that without the Home health care, confinement in a hospital or skilled nursing facility would be required. Specific criteria and limitations apply.
"Hospice care" means a concept of supportive care for terminally ill patients. Treatment focuses on the relief of pain and suffering associated with a terminal illness. Specific criteria and limitations apply.
"Inaccurate or erroneous information" means materially erroneous, false, inaccurate, or misleading information that was intentionally submitted in order to obtain a specific coverage.
"Initial enrollment period" means the first thirty [30] days following the employee's entry-on-duty date. A group initial enrollment period is defined as the thirty [30] days following the enrollment date of the participating entity.
"Insurance Coordinator" means Insurance/Benefits Coordinator for Education, Local Government, and State Employees.
"Insured(s)" means both the Primary insured and covered Dependents.
"Maintenance care" means there is no measurable progress of goals achieved, no skilled care required, no measurable improvement in daily function or self-care, or no change in basic treatment or outcome.
"Medically necessary" means services or supplies which are provided for the diagnosis and treatment of the medical and/or mental health/substance abuse condition and complies with criteria adopted by EGID. Direct care and treatment are within standards of good medical practice within the community, and are appropriate and necessary for the symptoms, diagnosis or treatment of the condition. The services or supplies must be the most appropriate supply or level of service, which can safely be provided. For hospital stays, this means that inpatient acute care is necessary due to the intensity of services the member is receiving or the severity of the member's condition, and that safe and adequate care cannot be received as an outpatient or in a less intensified medical setting. The services or supplies cannot be primarily for the convenience of the member, caregiver, or provider. The fact that services or supplies are medically necessary does not, in itself, assure that the services or supplies are covered by the Plan.
"Members" means all persons covered by one or more of the group insurance plans offered by EGID including eligible current and qualified former employees of participating entities and their eligible covered dependents.
"Mental health and substance abuse" means conditions including a mental or emotional disorder of any kind, organic or inorganic, and/or alcoholism and drug dependency.
"Network provider" means a practitioner who or facility that is duly licensed or operates under the laws of the state, satisfies credentialing criteria as established by EGID, and has entered into a contract with EGID to accept scheduled reimbursement for covered health care services and supplies provided to members.
"Non-Network out-of-pocket" means the member's expenses include the total of the member's deductibles and co-insurance costs plus all amounts that continue to be charged by the non-Network provider after the HealthChoice allowable fees have been paid.
"OEIBB" means Oklahoma Employees Insurance and Benefits Board.
"Open enrollment period" means a limited period of time as approved by either EGID or the Legislature in which a specified group of individuals are permitted to enroll.
"Option period" means the time set aside at least annually by EGID in which enrolled plan members may make changes to their enrollments. Eligible but not enrolled employees may also make application for enrollment during this time. Enrollment is subject to approval by EGID.
"Orthodontic limitation" means an individual who enrolls in the Dental Plan will not be eligible for any orthodontic benefits for services occurring within the first twelve [12] months after the effective date of coverage. Continuing orthodontic services for newly hired employees who had previous group dental coverage will be paid by prorating or according to plan benefits.
"Other hospital services and supplies" means services and supplies rendered by the hospital that are required for treatment, but not including room and board nor the professional services of any provider, nor any private duty, special or intensive nursing services, by whatever name called, regardless of whatever such services are rendered under the direction of the hospital or otherwise.
"Participating entity" means any employer or organization whose employees or members are eligible to be participants in any plan authorized by or through the Oklahoma Employees Insurance and Benefits' Act.
"The Plan or Plans" means the self-insured Plans by the State of Oklahoma for the purpose of providing health benefits to eligible members and may include such other benefits as may be determined by EGID. Such benefits shall be provided on a coinsurance basis and the insured pays a proportion of the cost of such benefits.
"Primary insured" means the member who first became eligible for the insurance coverage creating eligibility rights for dependents.
"Prosthetic appliance" means an artificial appliance that replaces body parts that may be missing or defective as a result of surgical intervention, trauma, disease, or developmental anomaly. Said appliance must be medically necessary.
"Provider" means a practitioner who or facility that is duly licensed or operates under the laws of the state in which the Provider practices and is recognized by this Plan, to render health and dental care services and/or supplies.
"Qualifying Event" means an event that changes a member's family or health insurance situation and qualifies the member and/or dependent for a special enrollment period. The most common qualifying life events are the loss of health care coverage, a change in household (such as marriage or birth of a child), or a change of residence or other federally required mandates. A complete summary of qualifying events are set out in Title 26, Treasury Regulations, Section 125.
"Schedule of benefits" means the EGID plan description of one or more covered services.
"Skilled care" means treatment or services provided by licensed medical personnel as prescribed by a provider. Treatment or services that could not be given safely or reasonably by a person who is not medically skilled and would need continuous supervision of the effectiveness of the treatment and progress of the condition. Specific criteria and limitations are applied.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Coverage and Limitations
PART 3.  HEALTHCHOICE PLANS
260:50-5-11.  Covered charges
     Items which will be considered for payment under HealthChoice will be referred to as covered charges that are medically necessary. Specific criteria and limitations apply. Covered charges may include:
(1)    Hospital services;
(2)    Provider's services;
(3)    Skilled Nurse facility expense;
(4)    Skilled nurse care;
(5)    Dentist's or oral surgeon's services;
(6)    Oral surgery;
(7)    Rehabilitative care;
(8)    Outpatient expense; and
(9)     Hospice care.
(10)    Approval of exceptional claims
(A)    EGID's Health Care Management Unit may recommend exceptions to the benefits provided by HealthChoice for situations which would otherwise be denied or subject to limited coverage.
(B)    Each request for exception must first be reviewed by the Health Care Management Unit on an individual basis. All responsibility for providing the documentation necessary to complete the review falls to the member. Recommendations will then be given to the Medical Director and Administrator both of whom must review all requested exceptions. Exceptions that have been reviewed but not approved in writing by the Medical Director and Administrator are deemed not approved. Approval of exceptions shall not establish precedent for other requests. All requests shall confirm that the requested exception is:
(i)    medically necessary, and
(ii)    within themedically-accepted standards of the communitycare, and
(iii)    cost effective, and/or
(iv)    in compliance with all criteria as established by the Medical Director or designee.
(C)    Requests conforming with all listed criteria shall remain subject to approval or denial at the discretion of the Medical Director or designee.
(11)     Facility of benefit payment. Whenever payments which should have been made under this plan in accordance with this section have been made under any other plans, EGID shall have the right, exercisable alone and in its sole discretion, to pay over to any organizations making such other payments any amounts it shall determine to be warranted in order to satisfy the intent of this section, and amounts so paid shall be deemed to be benefits paid under this plan and, to the extent of such payments, EGID shall be fully discharged from liability under this plan.
(12)     Right of recovery. Whenever payment has been made by EGID with respect to allowable expenses in a total amount, at any time, in excess of the maximum amount of payment necessary at that time to satisfy the intent of this section, EGID shall have the right to recover such payments, to the extent of such excess, from among one or more of the following, as EGID shall determine:
(A)    any persons to or for or with respect to whom such payments were made;
(B)    any other insurers; or
(C)    service plans or any other organizations.
PART 5.  HEALTHCHOICE LIFE BENEFITS
260:50-5-20.  Term life coverage
(a)     Group Term Life Benefits. A former employee who is reemployed by the samea participating employer within twenty-four [24] months after the date of termination of previous employment shall not be enrolled for a greater amount of life insurance than the individual had at the time of termination of previous employment with the employer, unless the individual provides satisfactory evidence of insurability or the guaranteed issue based on the employee's current salary exceeds his or her prior coverage. Any life insurance amount requested exceeding both prior coverage and the guarantee issue based on the employee's current salary would requireAdditionally, the amount of life insurance cannot exceed the amount of the employee's guaranteed issue based on the employee's current salary, unless the individual to provideprovides satisfactory evidence of insurability. The amount of coverage provided by the employer is specified in the benefit administration procedures or guidelines as adopted by EGID. However, to elect this benefit, the member must be either a) enrolled in one of the group health plans offered through EGID or b) be enrolled in other qualified health coverage. In the event of death, the proceeds of this coverage are payable to the beneficiary listed on the most recently signed beneficiary designation subject to the limitations in Title 15. [15 O.S. §178] If no beneficiary form is on file at EGID, benefits will be paid to the decedent's estate.
(b)     Unlimited contestability period. There shall be no time limitation imposed upon EGID, during which coverage based on evidence of insurability submitted to EGID can be contested, if it is found that materially erroneous, false, inaccurate, or misleading information was provided in order to obtain optional or supplemental coverage in excess of any guaranteed amounts of coverage. In the event EGID determines coverage was granted based upon erroneous, false, inaccurate or misleading information, and that such information was material to EGID providing any optional or supplemental coverage, EGID shall extinguish its liability by tendering a refund of premiums paid to the insured or the beneficiary.
[OAR Docket #23-563; filed 6-16-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 60.  Facilities Management
[OAR Docket #23-564]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
Permanent final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Use of Public Areas of Capitol and Plazas [AMENDED]
260:60-3-3. Use of public areas [AMENDED]
260:60-3-4. Provisions for exhibits and art exhibits [AMENDED]
260:60-3-5. Conditions for use [AMENDED]
260:60-3-6. Provisions for events, exhibits and art exhibits [AMENDED]
260:60-3-10. After Hours Events [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Use of State Capitol Park [AMENDED]
260:60-5-2. Use of State Capitol Park [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Operation of Buildings Owned, Used or Occupied by or on Behalf of the State [AMENDED]
Part 3. Access to the J. Howard Edmondson and Robert S. Kerr Office Buildings [REVOKED]
260:60-7-10. Purpose [REVOKED]
260:60-7-11. Access to the J. Howard Edmondson and Robert S. Kerr Office Buildings, operating hours and access requirements [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
74 O.S. §63(A); Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 21, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 19, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 2, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 3, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Chapter 60, Facilities Management, was amended to streamline processes, revoke rules regarding the use of space in the Kerr-Edmondson Building in Tulsa because the building has been transferred to the Oklahoma A&M Board of Regents, correct scrivener's errors, and simplify and clarify the rules.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kimberlee Williams, Deputy General Counsel, Office of Management and Enterprise Services, Kimberlee.Williams@omes.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Use of Public Areas of Capitol and Plazas
260:60-3-3.  Use of public areas
(a)     Reservation requests. All events, exhibits and art exhibits to be in the public areas of the Capitol or plazas, whether for a public or private purpose, require prior written approval of the Office.
(1)    A sponsor shall submit an application for a reservation together with payment for any applicable fees (Reference 260:60-3-5) to the Office at least ten (10) working days but no more than one (1) year prior to the beginning date of the proposed event or exhibit. The application must be submitted during the Office's business hours of 8:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding state holidays.
(2)    The application shall specify the desired date, time period, public use area, a description of the event or exhibit. The Office may request additional information as determined necessary to facilitate the reservation.
(3)    The Office may impose conditions and time limitations pursuant to the rules of this subchapter and state law.
(4)    If the Office denies a request for a reservation, the Office will issue written notice to the requesting sponsor indicating the reasons for denial. Reservation requests which indicate that the sponsor may allow or encourage conduct that is violent, threatening, abusive, obscene, or that jeopardizes the safety of self or others shall not be approved by the Office.
(5)    Exhibits and art exhibits shall not exceed a period of ten (10) days and require a state official sponsor.
(6)    All events in the second floor rotunda and fourth floor rotunda require a state official sponsor.
(7)    No events or exhibits will be scheduled in the Ground floor rotunda, Ground floor dining room, and first floor rotunda.
(8)    Events and exhibits shall not:
(A)    obstruct entrances or exits;
(B)    interrupt traffic flow throughout the building;
(C)    obstruct public corridors;
(D)    obstruct the view or access to fire-fighting equipment or fire alarm pull stations;
(E)    obstruct stairways or elevators; or
(F)    obstruct access to restrooms.
(b)     Prioritization of reservations. Except as otherwise provided, the Office shall issue approved reservations on a first-come, first-served basis and may limit the number of reservations in the public areas or plazas.
(c)     Reservation limitations. Reservations authorize events only in the public areas or plazas specified in the approved application.
(d)     Reservation Fee. In addition to any fees for equipment usage outlined in 260:60-3-5, the reservation fee schedule below applies (not applicable for After Hours Events) and all fees will be invoiced by the Office upon approval of the reservation:
(1)    $75.00 for the second floor rotunda;
(2)    $150.00 for the fourth floor rotunda.
(e)     Cancellation Policy. Approved reservations may be cancelled by notifying the Office in writing. Reservation fees and fees for equipment usage will be refunded only if the event or exhibit is cancelled at least 10 business days prior to the scheduled event or exhibit.
260:60-3-4.  Provisions for exhibits and art exhibits
(a)    In addition to the approval requirements of 260:60-3-3, all art exhibits exceeding ten (10) days shall be approved by the CPC prior to the date of the art exhibit. Art exhibits for ten (10) days or less require a state official sponsor.
(b)    In addition to the approval requirements of 260:60-3-3, any art exhibit or exhibit which exceeds ten (10) working days shall be approved by CPC prior to the date of the exhibit.
(c)    All exhibits, displays, literature racks, decorations, furniture, or equipment placed in the public areas of the capitol for a period exceeding ten (10) days requiresrequire CPC approval.
(dc)    The Office provides information to a sponsor to seek CPC approval for exhibits and art exhibits upon request.
260:60-3-5.  Conditions for use
(a)    Events, art exhibits, exhibits and meetings inside the Capitol or on a plaza are subject to the conditions in this subsection, whether they be for private purpose or public purpose.
(b)    A private purpose event, exhibit or art exhibit is subject to being preempted by a public purpose event, exhibit, or art exhibit, even if the private event was scheduled earlier.
(c)    Equipment may be available for use during an event, exhibit or art exhibit and shall be subject to the fee schedule below (not applicable for After Hours Events):
(1)    Tabletop Lectern/Microphone - $20.00
(2)    Large Sound System - $100.00
(32)    Floor Model Lectern - $15.00
(43)    Stage - $200.00
(54)    Easel - $10.00
(65)    Risers - $100.00
(76)    Table and Chairs Set-up - $50.00
260:60-3-6.  Provisions for events, exhibits and art exhibits
(a)    The following provisions apply to all events, exhibits or art exhibits:
(1)    Sponsors shall confine events, exhibits and art exhibits to the public areas specified in the reservation and shall not relocate to, install, or erect additional paraphernalia in other areas of the Capitol or plazas unless the Office grants prior approval.
(2)    No intoxicating beverage will be dispensed or consumed on state property.
(3)    Use of cooking or heating elements of any kind is prohibited. Crock pots are allowable with prior permission.
(4)    Placement of materials of any kind on structures, fixtures or vehicles in a state parking lot in conjunction with an event, exhibit or art exhibit is prohibited. The Office may remove and dispose of, or cause to be removed and disposed of, the materials without notice.
(5)    Unless authorized in the reservation application, affixing banners, signs, or materials in any manner on or in the Capitol or plazas, or to an appurtenance of the Capitol or plaza is prohibited. The Office may remove and dispose of, or cause to be removed and disposed of, the signs or banners without notice.
(A)    Plaza. Use of handheld signs and signs on hand sticks are allowed.
(B)    Capitol. Use of handheld signs is allowed in the Capitol. Signs mounted on sticks or rods are not allowed.
(6)    No individual or group may restrict access to, from or within the Capitol or a plaza.
(7)    No individual or group shall cause unreasonable risk to works of art, public property or persons within the Capitol or plaza.
(8)    The Office prohibits commercial activity, collection of fees, solicitation of money, or fund raising events which solicit or collect money, in the Capitol or on a plaza. State agencies and non-profit organizations that sell goods to benefit or promote the function of the agency or non-profit organization may request an exemption from the Director.
(9)    Events, exhibits or art exhibits for the purpose of promoting a profit making organization or individual are prohibited except as otherwise provided by law. Display of business cards or other means the Office considers promotional are prohibited.
(10)    Use of audio devices may be restricted or altered to a decibel level which does not disturb or disrupt other persons in the Capitol or on a plaza. No event or activity shall exceed 90 decibels.
(11)    The Office may order or seek to cause cessation of an event, activity, exhibit or art exhibit which may pose a hazard, as determined by the Office, to an individual, group, building, contents of the building, or building fixtures and appurtenances.
(12)    A sponsor shall place electrical cords and cables used for events, exhibits or art exhibits so that the cords and cables limit potential hazard to persons in the area. Electrical cords and cables must be placed out of walkways unless secured to the floor.
(13)    Compressed gas cylinders are prohibited.
(14)    Waste accumulation of any kind in any area or manner so as to create a potential hazard to health, safety or property is prohibited.
(15)    Open flames (including candles), confetti, balloons, rice, birdseed or other similar substances in conjunction with events, activities, exhibits or art exhibits are prohibited.
(16)    All reptiles, animals and fowl, with the exception of assistance dogs and law enforcement canines, are prohibited in the Capitol or on a plaza.
(17)    Food and drinks are not allowed on the plazas, with the exception of water.
(b)     Requirements at end of event, exhibit or art exhibit. A sponsor shall remove all materials used in conjunction with or created by an event, exhibit or art exhibit immediately following the conclusion of the event, exhibit or art exhibit.
(c)     Unauthorized events or activities. Sponsors shall confine events, activities, exhibits and art exhibits to the purpose of the event specified in the reservation. Security personnel is authorized to intervene and take appropriate action upon detection of unauthorized events or activities.
260:60-3-10.  After Hours Events
(a)    The following rules shall apply to after hours events inside the State Capitol: All rules in sections 260:60-1-1 through 260:60-3-3 apply to After Hours Events.
(b)    Additionally, the following rules apply:
(1)    Only the second floor rotunda, fourth floor rotunda, and plazas will be available. The rotundas are available for reservation on Friday evenings and on Saturday. Sunday reservations are not permitted in the rotundas. After hours events in the rotundas do not require a state official sponsor.
(2)    Events must be concluded and the premises vacated by 11:00 p.m.
(3)    Sponsor shall hire a state trooper from the Department of Public Safety to be present at the event for security, at Sponsor's sole cost. The Office will make the arrangements with the Department of Public Safety and include the fee on the invoice.
(4)    A staff member from the Office shall be present at the event to ensure compliance with the rules. The sponsor will be charged $25.00/hour for the staff member's time.
(5)    The reservation fees are as follows:
(A)    $200.00 for the second floor rotunda;
(B)    $400.00 for the fourth floor rotunda.
(6)    Equipment is subject to the following fee schedule:
(A)    Tabletop Lectern/Microphone - $40.00;
(B)    Large sound system - $100.00;
(CB)    Floor model lectern - $30.00
(DC)    Stage - $400.00
(ED)    Easel - $20.00
(FE)    Risers - $200.00
(GF)    Table and Chairs Set Up - $100.00
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Use of State Capitol Park
260:60-5-2.  Use of State Capitol Park
(a)     Reservation requests. All demonstrations, protests and events to be on the State Capitol Park, whether for a public or private purpose, require prior written approval of the Office.
(1)    A sponsor shall submit an application for a reservation together with a check for any applicable fees to the Office at least ten (10) working days prior to the beginning date of the proposed demonstration or event. The application must be submitted during the Office's business hours of 8:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding state holidays.
(2)    The application shall specify the desired date, time period, public use area, a description of the demonstration or event. The Office may request additional information as determined necessary to facilitate the reservation.
(3)    The Office may impose conditions and time limitations pursuant to the rules of this subchapter and state law.
(4)    Reservations for use of the Park are also subject to the provisions of 260:60-3-6.
(5)    If the Office denies a request for a reservation, the Office will issue written notice to the requesting sponsor indicating the reasons for denial. Reservation requests which indicate that the sponsor may allow or encourage conduct that is violent, threatening, abusive, obscene, or that jeopardizes the safety of self or others shall not be approved by the Office.
(b)     Prioritization of reservations. Except as otherwise provided, the Office shall issue approved reservations on a first-come, first-served basis and may limit the number of reservations in the public use areas of the park.
(c)     Reservation limitations. Reservations authorize demonstrations, protests and events only in the public area and during the time period specified in the approved application.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Operation of Buildings Owned, Used or Occupied by or on Behalf of the State
PART 3.  ACCESS TO THE J. HOWARD EDMONDSON AND ROBERT S. KERR OFFICE BUILDINGS  [REVOKED]
260:60-7-10.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The provisions of this Part prescribe procedures and conditions for access to the J. Howard Edmondson and Robert S. Kerr Office Buildings.
260:60-7-11.  Access to the J. Howard Edmondson and Robert S. Kerr Office Buildings, operating hours and access requirements  [REVOKED]
(a)    The Kerr and Edmondson Buildings operating hours are from 7:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding state holidays.
(b)    During operating hours, the Kerr and Edmondson Buildings may be accessed by the public through the North entrance of the Edmondson building only.
(c)    All persons entering the buildings shall submit to security screening requirements, including but not limited to magnetometer screening devices. Packages, briefcases, purses, and other container in the immediate possession of all persons shall be subject to inspection.
(d)    All state agencies located in the buildings shall compile and file a list of employees who are authorized by the chief administrative officer of the agency to access the building during time periods outside of the standard hours of operation established in this subchapter with the Department of Public Safety security personnel.
(1)    The list shall state the name, established location of employment in the buildings and office telephone number for each employee on the list; and, the name and telephone number of an administrative employee of the agency for emergency contact purposes outside of the buildings.
(2)    The list shall be filed and maintained by Department of Public Safety security personnel.
(3)    Information provided on the list shall be reviewed regularly and revisions filed with Department of Public Safety security personnel immediately.
(e)    Persons in the buildings and on the grounds immediately surrounding the buildings shall at all times comply with official signs of prohibitory, regulatory, or directory nature and with the lawful direction of law enforcement and other authorized individuals.
(f)    Public entrances, operating hours and access requirements for the buildings are subject to change to ensure the health and safety of visitors and employees in the event of an emergency, disaster or other circumstances as determined by the Director.
[OAR Docket #23-564; filed 6-16-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 65.  Construction and Properties
[OAR Docket #23-565]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
Permanent final adoption
RULES:
Chapter 65. Construction and Properties [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
61 O.S. §§62, 103, 202.1, 204, 209, 211; Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 21, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 19, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 2, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 3, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Chapter 65 was amended to make the rules consistent with changes made to statute by House Bill 2842 (2021), streamline processes, and modernize language, correct scrivener's errors, and simplify and clarify the rules.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kimberlee Williams, Deputy General Counsel, Office of Management and Enterprise Services, Kimberlee.Williams@omes.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Construction Contracting
260:65-1-1.  Purpose
(a)    The Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department, Office of Management and Enterprise Services is responsible for assisting and advising the using state agency, other departments and divisions of state government, in planning, programming, arranging and contracting for the services of professionals for the planning, design and construction of assigned projects and contracting for construction. The Department is also responsible for implementing the Public Competitive Bid Act, 61 O.S., Sections 101 through 138139. These rules are provided to assist concerned parties in the bidding of projects for construction, renovation or maintenance of state facilities.
(b)    The State of Oklahoma does not discriminate in its hiring practices and expects its contractors to abide by all Federal rules and regulations on non-discrimination. All bidders shall acknowledge in the bidding documents they are Equal Employment Opportunity employers.
(c)    The State of Oklahoma adheres to a policy which provides a drug free workplace to all of its employees. All contractors working on a state facility shall comply with the policies of the state agency controlling that facility.
260:65-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the State Construction Administrator of the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Alternate bid" (or "Alternate") means an amount stated in the bid to be added to or deducted from the amount of the base bid if the corresponding change in the work, as described in the bidding documents, is accepted.
"Base bid" means the sum stated in the bid for which the bidder offers to perform the work described in the bidding documents as the base. Work may be added or deleted for sums stated in the alternate bids.
"Bid" means the cost proposal submitted by a construction firm in response to a request or solicitation for bids from the Department for a construction project described in plans and/or specifications provided by the State.
"Claim" means a demand or assertion by a contractor seeking, as a matter of right, adjustment or interpretation of contract terms, payment of money, extension of time or other relief with respect to the terms of the contract. The term "Claim" also includes other disputes and matters in question between the owner and contractor arising out of or relating to the contract.
"Consultant" means an individual or legal entity possessing the qualifications to provide licensed architectural, registered engineering, or registered land surveying services or possessing specialized credentials and qualifications as may be needed to plan or design for any construction or public work improvement project. [61 O.S., §202]
"Department" means the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or a designee.
"Office" or "OMES" means the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"State agency" means all agencies, boards, commissions, offices, institutions, and other governmental bodies as defined in 61 O.S., Section 61.
260:65-1-3.  Bid solicitations
     The manner in which bids are solicited shall be determined by the estimated cost of the project. There are three categories, projects over the amount established by statute in 61 O.S., Section 102(6), projects under the statutory amount and minor maintenance or repair projects exempt from bidding pursuant to 61 O.S., Section 103.C.
(1)     Projects over statutory amount. Projects over the statutory amount established in 61 O.S., Section 102(6) are advertised in a newspaper of general circulation and published in the county where the work, or a major part of it, is to be done. The notice is published in two consecutive weekly issues of the said newspaper with the first publication at least twenty (20) days prior to the day set for bid opening. Information is also provided to various bid assistance centers and to trade publications such as the Dodge Report and Southwest Construction News. The State does not control how the trade publications handle the publishing of the information. For state agencies subject to the Public Building Construction and PlanningFacilities Act (61 O.S. Section 202201-209214), projects are advertised and awarded by the Department.
(2)     Projects under statutory amount. Projects under the statutory amount established in 61 O.S., Section 102(6) are not usually advertised. The state agency shall develop a written, clearly defined scope of work and detailed requirements for the project. For state agencies subject to the Public Building Construction and PlanningFacilities Act (61 O.S. Section 202201-209214), the Construction and Properties AdministratorDirector shall assess the ability of a state agency to prepare a bid package and solicit for bids under the statutory amount. [61 O.S., Section 209(3)] The state agency may adopt written procedures developed by the Department or internal procedures approved by the AdministratorDirector. The written procedures for soliciting bids shall include:
(A)    Direct mail or facsimileemail solicitations are made by the state agency to three or more contractors whose place of business is preferably located in the general vicinity of the proposed construction.
(B)    The state agency shall use procedures, forms and contracts developed by the Department.
(3)     Minor Maintenance or Repair. SmallMinor projects below the amount stipulated in 61 O.S., Section 103.C. may be awarded by the state agency to any qualified vendor. A written contract and proof of insurance is required prior to issuing the vendor a notice to proceed.
(4)     Emergency Projects. When an emergency situation is declared to exist by the chief administrative officer or governing body of a state agency, the Department may award a contract without competitive bids to correct the emergency condition.
260:65-1-4.  Bid documents
(a)     Solicitation notice. [61 O.S., Section 105] The solicitation notice shall contain:
(1)    Sufficient information concerning the proposed public construction contract to allow a contractor to determine if he may be interested in bidding the project.
(2)    The location where a complete set of bidding documents may be obtained.
(3)    The date and time for the MANDATORY site visit, if required. As most specifications shall indicate, contractors shall be responsible for visiting the site of a project prior to bidding. Failure to do so shall not excuse a contractor from any requirement of the specifications. Occasionally, a MANDATORY site visit shall be held which shall require the attendance of a contractor at a specific time and place prior to bidding.
(4)    The location and time for the pre-bid conference if one is to be held. Some projects may have a MANDATORY pre-bid conference which means that bidders MUST attend to have their bid accepted.
(5)    The date, time and place of the opening of bids.
(6)    The name and address to whom the sealed bids must be submitted.
(7)    If applicable, any pre qualification requirements.
(8)    Other information deemed of benefit to the public or prospective bidders.
(b)     Bidding documents. At least twenty days prior to the bid opening, a complete set of bidding documents shall be available for purchase, by check or money order, to prospective bidders at the location shown in the bid notice. The Department will require a reasonable deposit for each such set which shall be nonrefundable and so stated in the notice for bids.
(c)     Bid forms. Bidders must use the information found in the specifications and drawings to prepare their bids. Verbal information from any source cannot be used. All supplemental information, when required, shall be in the form of a written addendum provided by the Department to all bidders of record.
260:65-1-5.  Bid submittal
(a)     Advertised projects. Bids must be prepared on forms provided by the Office and in accordance with the instructions provided in the bid package. Instructions on obtaining the bid packages are in the solicitation notices. Bids cannot be submitted by telephone or fax machine or telegram. Bids may be delivered through the established bidding platform.in person, by the U.S. Mail, or by any of the express/delivery services available during regular business hours, 8:00 AM to 5:00 PM weekdays and shall be received during a period which does not exceed 96 hours (excluding weekends or holidays) before the scheduled bid opening at the time and day specified in the bid documents. [61 O.S., Section 109] The following information must be placed on the outside of each sealed bid envelope:
(1)    Company name and address.
(2)    Description of project.
(3)    OMES number of project.
(4)    Closing date and time.
(b)     Bid envelopes. Each envelope shall contain only one bid. Bids received after the time specified in the bid documents cannot be accepted. The time is determined by the stamp-clock on the desk of the Department receptionist where all bids must be received and stamped. The State cannot be responsible for delay of receipt of bids due to factors beyond the control of state employees.
(c)     Direct mail, facsimile or telephone solicitations. On projects under the statutory amount, written bids shall be received as indicated in the solicitation by telephone, facsimile or as indicated in the direct mailing according to Subsection 1-3. Before a construction contract shall be awarded by the Department, the state agency shall provide:
(1)    A properly signed requisition form.
(2)    Three or more original written bids, including any declined bids, signed by the bidders.
(3)    Scope of work with detailed requirements.
(4)    Acceptance letter to award the contract.
(d)     Equal opportunity employment requirements. The State of Oklahoma is an Equal Opportunity Employer.
260:65-1-6.  Modifications/withdrawal of bids
(a)     Withdrawal of bids. Bids may be modified or withdrawn up to the time set for bid opening. Modification notices or withdrawal instructions may be sent by registered mail or delivered in person. Appropriate identification reflecting the authority of the bearer to modify or withdraw a bid must be presented to the AdministratorDirector or his authorized representativedesignee. A bid to be withdrawn shall not be openedand shall be returned at the conclusion of the bid opening.
(b)     Bid modifications. A sealed bid modification shall be submitted by registered mail or delivered in person. The modification must state the amount of change, either additive or deductive, from the previously submitted sealed bid and shall not reveal the actual, new, modified bid amount. Upon acceptance of a bid modification, the AdministratorDirector or his authorized representative shall open the original bid, then open the sealed modification, add or subtract to compute the new bid amount, and publicly announce the resultant legal bid. The same bid modification procedures shall be used to submit, compute and announce any other modified bid items such as days to complete the work or unit prices. Any submission of a bid modification by fax or otherwise not in a sealed condition shall be considered an exposed bid and shall disqualify the bidder.
260:65-1-7.  Bid openings
(a)    The public is invited to all bid openings which are held as specified in the solicitation notice. The bids are opened by the AdministratorDirector or his designee in the following manner and recorded by an assistant. Bids may be examined by the public after the bid opening on request to the AdministratorDirector. [61 O.S., Section 110]
(1)    The bidder's name and city are announced.
(2)    The bid is checked for completeness and correctness. Any of these deficiencies shall be grounds for disqualifying the bid:
(A)    Addenda must be acknowledged. This may be waived in those cases where the addenda has no direct effect on the proposal cost.
(B)    The bid must be signed.
(C)    The affidavits required by the bid documents must be present, signed and properly notarized. [61 O.S., Section 108]
(D)    If the total bid including alternates exceeds the amount specified in 61 O.S., Section 107, a certified check, cashier's check, bid bond or bid letter of credit for 5% of the base bid price and the price of all alternate bids must be present. [61 O.S., Section 107]
(E)    All equipment lists, selected materials, or other information when required by the specifications must be present.
(F)    The price is read aloud.
(b)    Projects for which only a single bid is received shall not be opened until the state agency has been notified and permission has been received from the state agency to open the single bid.
260:65-1-8.  Prequalification of bidders
(a)     Scope. The Department may require prospective bidders, construction managers, design-builders, general contractors, subcontractors and material suppliers to prequalify prior to submitting bids on a public construction contract to determine the responsibility of bidders.
(b)     Notice. The solicitation notice for specific projects described in 260:65-1-4 (a), shall contain the requirements for prequalification, if any, and the availability of forms to be submitted to the Department.
(c)     Prequalification Form. When indicated on the solicitation notice, prospective bidders, construction managers, design-builders, general contractors, subcontractors and material suppliers must submit a prequalification form, prescribed by the AdministratorDirector, to the Department which may include the following information:
(1)    Company organization type;
(2)    Type of work or classification of work;
(3)    Organization information;
(4)    Licensing and registration information;
(5)    Experience on current projects;
(6)    Experience on projects completed within last five years;
(7)    Experience of key personnel;
(8)    Specialized experience for specific building types, subsystems or materials;
(9)    References from construction trades, bank and surety company;
(10)    Current financial statement, which according to statute shall remain confidential;
(11)    Any other business information that will enable the Department to evaluate the responsibility of prospective bidders.
(d)     Evaluation. The Department shall evaluate the information contained in the prequalification form and designate the qualification status as:
(1)    "Approved" for a firm that demonstrates verifiable experience and that has successfully completed contract work with the State; or,
(2)    "Approved/Conditional" for a firm that demonstrates verifiable experience but does not have a record of contract work with the State; or
(3)    "Unsatisfactory" for a firm that:
(A)    Does not demonstrate verifiable experience;
(B)    Does not demonstrate verifiable size and scope experience required for a specific project;
(C)    Does not have a verifiable record of successfully completed contract work with the State;
(D)    Has an unsatisfactory record of contract work for the State due to any of the following:
(i)    Unsatisfactory performance evaluations on past projects;
(ii)    Failure to complete a State construction contract;
(iii)    Demonstrated history of noncompliance with plans and specifications;
(iv)    Quality of past work does not meet minimum industry standards;
(v)    Failure to complete work in the specified contract time;
(vi)    Uncooperative and/or unprofessional work manner of the company owner(s) or key personnel;
(vii)    History of assigning unsatisfactory personnel to projects;
(viii)    Failure to coordinate and manage subcontracts; or
(ix)    Failure to maintain and provide accurate documentation of project records.
(E)    Financial information does not indicate financial ability to complete a State contract.
(4)    "Incomplete Submittal" for submittals that:
(A)    Are incomplete;
(B)    Do not contain the information requested in the solicitation notice.
(e)     Required status prior to bid. Bidders, general contractors, subcontractors and material suppliers shall have "Approved" or "Approved/Conditional" status prior to submitting a bid on a public construction contract when prequalification is required in the solicitation notice or if the Department requires prequalification on all public construction contracts.
(f)     Additional requirements. The Department may request additional information from an existing prequalified company whenever a solicitation notice requires prequalification for specific experience for specific project types, subsystems or materials.
(g)     Due date. If prequalification is required, prequalification forms shall be due by the date stated on the solicitation notice. The AdministratorDirector may elect to accept prequalification forms annually according to a written public procedure in order to eliminate duplicate submission for each individual project.
260:65-1-9.  Prequalification of insurance carriers, bonding companies and surety companies
(a)    Pursuant to 61 O.S., Section 204A.(11), the Department shall prequalify as good and sufficient insurance carriers, bonding companies and surety companies using the following criteria:
(1)    The insurance carrier, bonding company or surety company must be licensed to do business in the State of Oklahoma pursuant to 61 O.S., Section 134.
(2)    The insurance carrier, bonding company or surety company must have prior experience with insuring or bonding construction projects within the State of Oklahoma.
(3)    The insurance carrier, bonding company or surety company cannot have been deemed in default by the State of Oklahoma in connection with prior construction insurance or bonds on State construction projects.
(4)    The insurance carrier, bonding company or surety company shall not have a prior history of committing the following unfair claims settlement practices:
(A)    Not attempting in good faith to effectuate prompt, fair and equitable settlement of claims or demands submitted in which liability has become reasonably clear.
(B)    Compelling claimants or obligees, without just cause, to institute suits to recover amounts due under the insurance policy, insurance contract or bond by offering substantially less than the amounts ultimately recovered in suits brought by them or refusing to make an offer, when such claimants or obligees have made claims for amounts reasonably similar to the amounts ultimately recovered.
(C)    Failing to fully disclose to claimants or obligees benefits, coverages, or other provisions of any insurance policy, insurance contract or bond, when such benefits, coverages or other provisions are pertinent to a claim.
(D)    Knowingly misrepresenting to claimants or obligees pertinent facts, policy or bond provisions relating to the coverages at issue.
(E)    Failing to adopt and implement reasonable standards for prompt investigations of claims or demands on bonds arising under its insurance policy, insurance contract or bonds.
(F)    Except where there is a time limit specified in the policy or bond, making statements, written or otherwise, which require a claimant or obligee to give written notice of loss or proof of loss within a specified time limit and which seek to relieve the company of its obligations if such a time limit is not complied with unless the failure to comply with such time limit prejudices an insurer's or bonding company's rights.
(G)    Requesting a claimant or obligee to sign a release that extends beyond the subject matter that gave rise to the claim or demand payment.
(H)    Failing to promptly pay claims that have no reasonably apparent defect or impropriety.
(I)    Failing to notify the insured or obligee in writing within 30 calendar days of receipt of claim or demand that the claim is defective and/or lacks substantiating documentation, providing the insured or obligee reasons or basis for the determination.
(J)    Issuing checks or drafts in partial settlement of a claim or demand with language which releases an insurer, surety company, or bonding company from its total liability.
(K)    Colluding in any way with other parties to a construction claim or dispute in an effort to jointly steer a decision against the State, including but not limited to sharing legal counsel with the Contractor.
(5)    An insurance carrier that has received a notice to cease and desist from the Oklahoma Insurance Department within the previous five years shall not be eligible.
(6)    A bonding company shall demonstrate an "A" rating as determined by an insurance bond rating company acceptable to the AdministratorDirector.
(b)    The Department may periodically, in its discretion, reevaluate an insurance carrier, bonding company or surety company utilizing the criteria established in this section.
(c)    The Department may adjust or revoke the prequalification status of an insurance carrier, bonding company or surety company if a reevaluation determines the company fails to meet criteria established in this section.
260:65-1-11.  Contract award
(a)    Bids are awarded to the lowest responsible bidder as determined by the review of the bids pursuant to 260:65-1-10. Approximately 15 to 20 days after the bid opening, the successful bidder shall be notified by the Department of his selection and shall be provided copies of the contract to execute. The contractor shall be given a specific period of time, not to exceed sixty days, in which to execute the contract and obtain the necessary bonds and insurance. [61 O.S., Section 113(A)]
(b)    The notice to proceed, or WORK ORDER, shall not be issued until the contract has been executed by all parties. Work shall not commence until the WORK ORDER has been received by the contractor.
(c)    Projects over the amount set in 61 O.S., Section 113(B) require three bonds. The bonds shall be prepared on the forms provided by the Department. All bonds required by Title 61 shall be provided by insurance carriers, bonding companies or surety companies that are prequalified by the Department as good and sufficient in accordance with criteria established in 260:65-1-9(a). [61 O.S., Section 204A(11)
(1)     Performance bond. A bond with good and sufficient security valued at not less than the total value of the proposed contract which shall ensure the proper and prompt completion of the work in accordance with the contract and shall ensure that the contractor shall pay all indebtedness incurred by the contractor and his subcontractors and all suppliers for such labor, material and repair of and parts for equipment as are used and consumed in the performance of the contract.
(2)     Defect bond. A good and sufficient bond in an amount equal to the total value of the contract to protect the State against defective workmanship and materials for a period of one year after acceptance of the project.
(3)     Payment bond. A good and sufficient bond in an amount equal to the total value of the contract to protect the State against claims or liens from subcontractors or suppliers for services or materials used in the project.
(d)     Letters of credit. Irrevocable letters of credit may be substituted for the bonds listed in (c) of this Section. Each letter of credit must be for the total value of the contract. All letters of credit must be executed on forms prescribed by the AdministratorDirector.
(e)     Insurance.
(1)    Public liability insurance of not less than $100/300,000, property damage insurance of not less than $50/100,000 and workers' compensation insurance during construction are required for all projects, regardless of project size.
(2)    Proof of workers' compensation insurance shall be required for all projects exceeding the amount stated in 61 O.S., Section 113(B). The minimum level of coverage shall be the statutory requirement specified by Oklahoma law.
(3)    For projects less than the amount stated in 61 O.S., Section 113(B), a sworn affidavit certifying an exemption to the requirement of workers' compensation insurance coverage may be accepted in lieu of proof of workers' compensation insurance. The sworn affidavit shall be executed on a form prescribed by the AdministratorDirector.
(f)     Additional insurance. Additional forms of insurance or increases in the insurance amounts may be required. Any additions or increases shall be contained in the bid documents.
260:65-1-12.  Bid protests
     A bidder may protest a contract award by a state agency or the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department to the State Construction AdministratorDepartment. All remedies available to bidders through the sealed bid process pursuant to the Public Building Construction and Planning Act or the Oklahoma Central Purchasing Act are also available to online bidders in an online bidding process.
(1)     Bidder notification. A bidder shall submit written notice to the AdministratorDepartment of a protest of an award of contract by a state agency or the Department within ten (10) business days of contract award. The protest notice shall state bidder facts and reasons for protest.
(2)     State Construction AdministratorDepartment review and determination. The AdministratorDepartment shall review the bidder's protest and contract award documents. Written notice of the decision by the AdministratorDepartment to sustain or deny the protest will be sent to the bidder within ten (10) business days of receipt of the protest.
(3)     Bidder appeal of State Construction AdministratorDepartment denial. The bidder may appeal a denial of protest by the State Construction AdministratorDepartment to the Director of Central ServicesOMES. The bidder shall file a written appeal within ten (10) business days of the date of the Administrator's notice of denial pursuant to 75 O.S., Section 309 et seq.
(4)     Director actions and determination. The Director may hear the protest, assign the protest to an attorney employed by the Department, or assign the bidder's appeal to an administrative law judge the DepartmentOMES retains.
(A)    If the protest is assigned to an attorney employed by the DepartmentOMES or to an administrative law judge, the delegated party administrative law judge shall review the protest for legal authority and jurisdiction. If legal authority and jurisdictional requirements are met, the delegated party administrative law judge shall conduct an administrative hearing and provide proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law to the Director.
(B)    If the protest is heard by the Director, the Director shall have all powers granted by law including all powers delegated to the administrative law judge by this section.
(C)    The Director shall send written notice of the decision to sustain or deny final order sustaining or denying the contractor's appeal to the contractor parties.
(5)     Conduct of administrative hearing. Administrative hearings shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act [75 O.S. §250 et seq.] and the following procedures:
(A)     Prehearing conference. A prehearing conference shall be scheduled to determine the legal or factual issues which shall be limited to those brought by the bidder in its initial protest to the State Construction AdministratorDepartment.
(B)     Burden of proof. The burden of proof shall be upon the bidder, which must prove its case by a preponderance of the evidence. A preponderance of the evidence is that evidence which, in light of the record as a whole, leads the Administrative Law Judge to believe a fact is more probably true than not true.
(C)     Representation. Corporations must be represented by legal counsel in accordance with Oklahoma law. Legal counsel must be licensed or registered pursuant to the Rules Creating and Controlling the Oklahoma Bar Association.
(D)     Proper parties. In addition to the bidder protesting the contract award and the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, the bidder awarded the contract and the state agency for which the bid was let may participate in the bid protest proceedings as a proper party.
(E)     Discovery. The conduct of discovery is governed by the Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S., Section 309 et seq. and other applicable law.
(F)     Authority of the Administrative Law Judge. The Administrative Law Judge may:
(i)    Establish a scheduling order;
(ii)    Establish reasonable procedures such as authorizing pleadings to be filed by facsimile or electronic mail;
(iii)    Rule on all interlocutory motions, including requests for a temporary stay of the contract award pending a final order from the Director;
(iv)    Require briefing of any or all issues;
(v)    Conduct hearings;
(vi)    Rule on the admissibility of all evidence;
(vii)    Question witnesses; and
(viii)    Make proposed findings of facts and conclusions of law to the Director.
(G)     Remedies. The Administrative Law Judge may recommend that the Director deny the bidder's appeal or that the contract award be cancelled and rebid.
(6)     Contractor appeal of Director denial. If the Director denies a bidder's appeal, the bidder may appeal pursuant to provisions of 75 O.S., Section 309 et seq.
260:65-1-13.  Pre-construction conference
     Shortly after award of a contract, the design consultant or agency may schedule a pre-construction conference. This meeting shall include the design consultant, general contractor, agency representative, a representative from the Construction and Properties Department and other interested parties. The Department representative shall chair the meeting. The purpose of the meeting shall be to discuss the requirements and responsibilities of the various parties involved with the objective of expeditious handling of the construction contract.
260:65-1-16.  Change orders
(a)    When it has been determined that a change is needed in the work and prior to the issuance of any change order, the design consultant shall issue a Proposal Request to the contractor. The Proposal Request shall be completed by the contractor and shall fully describe the scope of work explaining completely what each item entails and the cost, credit, and time extension involved. The contractor shall provide a detailed breakdown of cost, showing quantities and sizes of materials, unit cost, labor, equipment, profit and overhead, and other expense items. The design consultant shall transmit the completed Proposal Request through the using agency to the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services. The change in work scope described in the Proposal Request is not authorized until it has been incorporated into a Change Order and issued by the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services. [61 O.S., Section 121]
(b)    When the proposal Request(s) are approved by all parties, the contractor shall prepare a Change Order using the form prescribed by the Department. All information required on the form shall be included. The completed Change order form shall be routed to the Consultant and using Agency for signature, and then to the Department for approval and signature.
(c)    When the change is less than $10,000, and the work involved can be costed by using a negotiated unit or lump sum price, the Proposal Request as discussed in subsection (a) of this Section is not required.
(d)    Projects under the statutory amount and not advertised according to 260:65-1-3(1), that are awarded on a unit price or basis cannot exceed the statutory amount with cumulative change orders without advertising for bids on that part of the contract.
260:65-1-18.  Substantial completion inspection
(a)    This inspection is to be requested by the contractor after he has determined that the project is substantially complete. Substantial completion is defined as the construction is sufficiently completed in accordance with the plans and specifications, as modified by any authorized changes, so that the owner can occupy the building and/or use the facility for its intended use. [61 O.S., Section 124]
(b)    After receipt of a list of items to be completed or corrected from the contractor, the inspection is to be scheduled by the design consultant who shall send out written notification inviting the using state agency, the Construction and Properties DepartmentDirector and other interested persons to attend. After the inspection, the Certificate of Substantial Completion Form with punch list shall be prepared by the design consultant. A time limit to complete the punch list of deficiencies shall be determined by the Contractor and approved by the Consultant and the Owner. Five copies of the form shall be provided to the DepartmentDirector for signature.
260:65-1-19.  Final inspection
     This inspection shall occur upon completion of construction and when requested by the contractor after he determines the project is finally complete and all punch list items have been completed. The design consultant shall send out formal notification inviting the using state agency, the Construction and Properties Department and other interested parties to attend. [61 O.S., Section 124]
260:65-1-20.  Contract completion
     A Certificate of Contract Completion shall be prepared by the design consultant using the form prescribed by the Department. The contractor shall complete the Contractor's Affidavit on all required copies of the Certificate of Contract Completion and return to the design consultant. The total of the contract shown on the certificate shall include the sum of all change orders. The contractor shall secure and transmit to the design consultant a completed and notarized Consent of Surety with the contractor's Certificate of Final Payment. All submittals, operating manuals, brochures, as-built drawings, receipts for keys given to the using agency, warranties, and all other requirements of the contract shall have been submitted to the design consultant with signed receipts from the using agency for the items received by them, before final payment is made.
260:65-1-22.  Contractor appeals process
(a)    If a contractor's claim has not been resolved after consideration by the consultant in accordance with the General Conditions for Construction Contracts, the claim shall be submitted in writing to the owner. The owner will render to the parties the owner's written decision relative to the claim, including any change in the contract sum or contract time or both within ten (10) calendar days.
(b)    The contractor may appeal the owner's decision by submitting written notice of a protest to the Director of Central Services the Office of Management and Enterprise Services within ten (10) calendar days of receiving the owner's decision.
(c)    The Director will review the protest and determine to hear the appeal or assign the appeal to an administrative law judge the DepartmentOMES retains.
(1)    If the appeal is assigned to an administrative law judge, the administrative law judge shall review the appeal for legal authority and jurisdiction.
(2)    If legal authority and jurisdictional requirements are met, the administrative law judge shall conduct an administrative hearing in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S. Section 309 et seq., and provide proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law to the Director.
(3)    If the protest is heard by the Director, the Director shall have all powers granted by law including all powers delegated to the administrative law judge by this section.
(d)    The Director shall send written notice to the contractor of the final decision sustaining or denying the contractor's appeal.
(e)    Administrative hearings shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act [75 O.S. §250 et seq.] and the following procedures:
(1)    A prehearing conference shall be scheduled to determine the legal or factual issues which shall be limited to those brought by the contractor in its initial claim.
(2)    The burden of proof shall be upon the contractor, which must prove its case by a preponderance of the evidence. A preponderance of the evidence is that evidence which, in light of the record as a whole, leads the Administrative Law Judge to believe a fact is more probably true than not true.
(3)    Corporations must be represented by legal counsel in accordance with Oklahoma law. Legal counsel must be licensed or registered pursuant to the Rules Creating and Controlling the Oklahoma Bar Association.
(4)    In addition to the contractor and the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, the contractor awarded the contract and the state agency for which the bid was let may participate in the bid protest proceedings as a proper party.
(5)    The conduct of discovery is governed by the Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S. Section 309 et seq. and other applicable law.
(6)    The Administrative Law Judge may:
(A)    Establish a scheduling order;
(B)    Establish reasonable procedures such as authorizing pleadings to be filed by facsimile or electronic mail;
(C)    Rule on all interlocutory motions, including requests for a temporary stay of the contract award pending a final order from the Director;
(D)    Require briefing of any or all issues;
(E)    Conduct hearings;
(F)    Rule on the admissibility of all evidence;
(G)    Question witnesses; and
(H)    Make proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law to the Director.
(7)    The Administrative Law Judge may recommend that the Director deny or sustain the contactor's appeal or that the contract award be cancelled and rebid.
(f)    If the Director denies a contractor's appeal, the contractor may appeal to district court pursuant to provisions of 75 O.S., Section 309 et seq. of the Administrative Procedures Act.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Selection of Architects, Engineers, and Other Design Consultants
260:65-3-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of these rules areis to provide information to consultant firms desiring to do business with the State of Oklahoma. It is also to serve as a guide to agencies and political subdivisions of the State of Oklahoma in the selection of architects, engineers, and other design consultants for the purpose of providing design documents for the construction or renovation of state facilities. These procedures implement the provisions 61 O.S., Sections 60 through 65, titled "State Consultants".
260:65-3-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Consultant" means an individual or legal entity possessing the qualifications to provide licensed architectural, registered engineering, or registered land surveying, certified appraisal, land title, or abstract services or possessing specialized credentials and qualifications as may be needed to plan or design for any construction or public work improvement project. [61 O.S., §202]
"Department" means the Construction and Properties DepartmentConstruction, Planning, and Real Estate Services of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, State of Oklahoma.
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or a designee.
"Fixed fee" means the type of fee to a consultant which is expressed as a firm, fixed amount, for the services specified in the scope of work. This fee is not determined by the amount of a construction contract.
"Interview committee" means a group of individuals designated by the chief administrative officer or governing body of a state agency to interview consultants for the purpose of selecting a consultant for a planned project. This group should include licensed architects or engineers, if available.
"Percentage fee" means a fee to be paid a consultant which is based upon a negotiated percentage of the resultant construction contract. For the consultant contract purposes, the construction contract amount is estimated.
"Program" means the detailed description of the work scope of the design services. This program is written by the state agency, or may be developed by the consultant as part of his contract.
"Screening committee" means a group of individuals designated by the chief administrative officer or governing body of a state agency which reviews the files of interested consultants for the purpose of selecting a short list of consultants to be interviewed. The group should include licensed architects or engineers, if available.
"Selection criteria" means a listing of the considerations and requirements used to evaluate each prospective consultant.
"Short list" means a listing of consultants chosen during the screening process for detailed interview. This list shall contain no less than three nor more than five consultants for a single project. If the process is selecting for more than one consultant contract, there should be two consultants on the short list for every planned project.
"State agency" means all agencies, boards, commissions, offices, institutions, and other governmental bodies as defined in 61 O.S., Section 61.
260:65-3-3.  Registration of consultants
(a)    All consultants desiring to perform services for the State of Oklahoma must register with the Department by requesting and completing a Consultant Registration Questionnaire (DCS/CAP-Form 254) prescribed by the AdministratorDirector and submitting it to the Department. [61 O.S., Section 62] The Consultant Registration Questionnaire can be found on the Department's website or may be obtained by calling or writing the Department.
(b)    The AdministratorDirector shall review a Consultant Registration Questionnaire submitted to the Department, determine whether the consultant qualifies for registration and notify the consultant of its registration status within twenty (20) days.
(c)    Registrations are valid for one year from the date of receipt by the Department.
(d)    Consultants shall not be solicited for projects with the State until the date the Consultant Registration Questionnaire is received by the Department. A consultant may register with the Department any time prior to the deadline for project consideration.
260:65-3-4.  Selection procedure
(a)     Define project. The state agency shall develop a description of the project which shall include: [61 O.S., Section 62(C)]
(1)    A narrative description of the work being planned.
(2)    The estimated cost and time schedule of the project.
(3)    The source of the funding i.e., appropriated state money, federal funding or other source of funding. Any funds designated for the project which has specific limitation of use, including deadlines for expenditure, shall be clearly defined and explained in the project description.
(4)    Any other pertinent data which would assist a consultant in determining his interest in the project.
(b)     Request list of consultants. The state agency shall forward a request to the Department for a listing of consultants currently listed with the Department in the form of a letter which includes the description of the project developed in (a) of this Section. A draft of the solicitation letter described in (c) of this Section shall also be included with a request for a list of consultants. The Department shall review the request and solicitation letter and if approved, shall print the list and/or one set of mailing labels and return themprovide the list, including contact information for the consultants, to the state agency.
(c)     Announce project. The state agency shall send the approved solicitation letter to each consultant on the list which includes the description developed in (a) of this Section and shall notify them of the last day their letters may be received to be considered. Any consultant not registered with the Department at the time the list is prepared, may register with the Department pursuant to this Section and submit a letter of interest to the state agency. The Consultant Registration Questionnaire (DCS/CAP-Form 254) must be received by the Department at least six (6) business days, excluding state holidays, prior to the solicitation deadline, to allow the AdministratorDirector time to evaluate and complete the review process. If the registration form requires revisions and resubmission, the Department is under no further obligation to process and approve a consultant's registration within the sixten-day time period. [61 O.S., Section 62(C)]
(d)     Request and review files. The state agency shall send a list of consultants that indicated interest in being considered for the announced project(s) to the Department. The Department then assembles and transmits to the state agency a copy of the information on file for each consultant on the list. [61 O.S., Section 62(D)]
(e)     Screen the files to select the "short list". The chief administrative officer or governing board of the state agency shall designate a screening committee of three or more persons to select the three to five best qualified consultants based upon the data in the files supplied by the Department and other information that may be supplied by the consultants. The screening committee should include licensed architects or engineers if they are available. If the selection is for more than one consultant contract, at least two consultants for each project should be included in the short list. The selection criteria is listed in 260:65-3-6. [61 O.S., Section 62(E)]
(fe)     Scheduling and performing interviews.
(1)    The chief administrative officer or governing board of the state agency shall designate an interview committee. All members of the interview committee shall participate in all interviews of each consultant.
(2)    An evaluation criteria list shall be developed to insureensure that all interviews are conducted identicallyconsistently. The interview committee should consider the criteria listed in 260:65-3-7.
(3)    Each consultant should be notified by letter informing him that he has been selected for interview. The letter should contain:
(A)    Date, time and place of interview. Interviews should be scheduled individually for each consultant.
(B)    Period of time permitted for the interview. Indicate how much time the consultant shall be permitted for his presentation and how much time shall be reserved for questions by the committee.
(C)    A copy of the interview criteria.
(D)    Names of the interview committee members.
(E)    The letter should contain any other information which shall help the committee to obtain information needed for them to properly evaluate the consultant.
(F)    Oklahoma Statutes prohibit the requesting of any information on fees. Any consultant who discloses its fee, or any indication thereof, prior to subsection (j) of this Section, Negotiation of Contract, shall be removed from the request list or short list and receive no further consideration for the project. Consultants must be selected on the basis of qualifications and not on a bid basis.
(4)    The interviews are conducted privately with each consultant out of the hearing of other consultants.
(5)    At the conclusion of all interviews, the committee shall then rate each consultant in a manner as to recommend to the state agency the relative ranking of each consultant. This document does not attempt to designate the exact procedure the committee shall use to make their selections. All criteria and procedures used by the committee shall be documented for the record.
(gf)     Forwarding of recommendations. The recommendations are forwarded to the state agency for the final selection.
(hg)     Preparation of report to the Department.
(1)    The state agency shall prepare a chronological report detailing the steps in the procedure actually followed by the state agency in making its selection. This report shall include the criteria used in the screening process as well as the interviews and the ratings of all firms considered. A copy of the approved minutes of any board action affecting the selection process shall be included.
(2)    The report is submitted to the Department for the independent review of the entire process. Upon approval of the report by the Department, the state agency shall be notified that fee negotiations with the first ranked firm may begin.
(ih)     Negotiation of Contract.
(1)    The negotiation of fees is the first time a discussion of costs is permitted. There are no defined procedures for negotiating. The Department shall usually open negotiations by designating a negotiator and by defining the detailed scope of work and forwarding that scope to the consultant in a letter formally requesting the cost proposal. The letter should require a detailed breakdown of costs to enable the Department to understand the cost items and have a basis for negotiation. The consultant should also be provided a copy of the proposed contract format. Copies of the approved contract formats may be obtained from the Department.
(2)    The consultant shall develop his fee proposal and return it to the Department. Fee proposals shall be based on the consultant's cost to produce the work along with projected expenses and a fair profit not to exceed fifteen per cent (15%). The AdministratorDirector may establish a standard format for estimating and itemizing the costs submitted with a fee proposal.
(3)    The Department shall then set up a meeting to negotiate and agree to the fee, or may authorize the state agency to begin fee discussions. The fee is expressed as a firm fixed price fee according to an agreed scope of work, or may be based on a time and expense basis with a "not-to-exceed" cap. The choice is up to the Department. Attached as Appendix A is a table which may be used as an aid in evaluating a fee proposal. After a fee has been determined, the consultant is asked to modify the proposal to reflect the agreed upon scope of work and fee. This modified proposal shall become part of the contract. [61 O.S., Section 62(G)]
(4)    The state agency then forwards an agency requisition to the Department.
(ji)     Award of contract.
(1)    The contract is processed for award by the Department. After the contracts have been signed by all parties, copies shall be provided to the state agency and the consultant.
(2)    Changes to the consultant's base contract may be approved by the AdministratorDirector as long as the scope of the change is generally included within the scope of work developed in (1) of this subsection for which the consultant selection process was conducted. Changes may be requested by the state agency in writing to the Department and must reference the correct contract, and include the scope of the change, the fee for the change and the source of the funding for the change.
260:65-3-5.  Consultant contracts
(a)    Contracts are written by the Department in standard formats as required by 61 O.S. The Department may be contacted for development of special requirements to be included in contracts. Non-standard contracts for specialized projects may be proposed by the state agency and approved by the AdministratorDirector for use on a specific project.
(b)    Phases of services may involve all or any of the following depending on the size and type of project:
(1)     Program planning. Program planning may include the following:
(A)    Space plan.
(B)    Written and/or graphic program document as specified.
(C)    Circulation allowances.
(D)    Cost estimate.
(E)    Specific additional features as required in the agencies request for proposal.
(2)     Schematic Design. Schematic design may include the following:
(A)    The line drawing and graphic representation of the floor plan, perspective drawings and site orientation of the project.
(B)    Energy and feasibility presentation of utility access, recommended materials, parking, traffic flow, site access, and space and volume estimates of cost.
(C)    Cost estimate.
(3)     Design Development. A set of drawings may be required to be produced which specifies the project's specified parameters, resulting in:
(A)    The site plan for parking, street and pedestrian access.
(B)    Overall dimensions.
(C)    Rooms and traffic circulation within the buildings.
(D)    Types of materials.
(E)    Building elevations.
(F)    Building sections.
(G)    Recommended structural systems.
(H)    Recommended mechanical systems and equipment based upon life cycle studies.
(I)    Cost estimate.
(4)     Construction Documents. Construction documents may include those items necessary for a construction contractor to properly bid and construct the project. They include:
(A)    Working drawings.
(B)    Specifications.
(C)    Project manuals.
(D)    Any other item specifically required by the contract.
(E)    Cost estimate.
(5)     Construction phase services. The consultant may be required to perform specific construction phase services which include:
(A)    Review and approval of shop drawings.
(B)    Review and approval of pay requests.
(C)    All standard contracts include a reference to construction monitoring which are periodic visits at intervals appropriate to the stage of the contractor's operations, by the consultant and sub-consultants to the construction site to determine that the contractor is following the intent of the construction contract documents. When more frequent monitoring is needed, the Department shall include this in the criteria package and negotiate this increased cost service.
(D)    The primary responsibility for the administration of the construction contract lies with the consultant.
260:65-3-6.  Screening criteria
(a)    The screening process is the examination of each consultant that has indicated interest in the project proposed by the state agency. Files on each consultant are provided by the Department for this purpose. Prior to beginning the review, a specific list of criteria must be developed and should include, but not be limited to the following:
(1)    Specialized experience related to the proposed project.
(2)    Similar experience on comparable projects.
(3)    Technical qualifications of the design team.
(b)    State agencies shall use the Consultant Screening Evaluation Form prescribed by the AdministratorDirector. The form may be modified for a specific project with prior approval of the AdministratorDirector.
(c)    A screening evaluation sheet should be prepared listing each consultant considered with a rating for each criteria listed as in the Consultant Screening Evaluation Form. After all consultants are evaluated, the ratings are compared and the top three to five consultants are identified for interview. If multiple projects are being considered, two consultants for each project are selected for interview. [61 O.S., Section 62(E)]
(d)    A copy of the evaluation sheets shall be included in the report to the Department.
260:65-3-7.  Interview criteria
(a)    The interview is the most important step in the selection process. Each consultant must be evaluated against a clearly established list of criteria which is provided to the consultant within seven days in advance of the interview. State agencies shall use the Consultant Interview Evaluation Form prescribed by the AdministratorDirector. The form may be modified for a specific project with prior approval of the AdministratorDirector. Information should be sought during the interview which shall answer these questions:
(1)    How will the consultant staff the proposed project?
(2)    What is the consultant's proposed management plan?
(3)    What is their previous experience for this project?
(4)    Where are they located? How will they reduce travel costs if they are not close to the proposed project?
(5)    What are their plans for project control?
(6)    What is their proposed approach to the design of this project?
(7)    What are examples of the similar projects they have completed?
(8)    What are their experiences in value engineering, life cycle costs analyses, critical path method of scheduling, energy conservation, new energy resources, environmental assessments or other specialized experience, if required?
(9)    Has a judgement been paid by the consultant or on their behalf for liability caused by professional errors and/or omissions in the past five years?
(10)    Any other additional factors?
(b)    Questions concerning fees may not be asked. Engineers, architects, and land surveyors are prohibited from being required to bid by Oklahoma Statutes. They are to be selected based upon their professional expertise and qualifications with their fees being negotiated after selection, as described in 260:65-3-6.
(c)    Copies of the completed evaluation sheets shall be included in the report to the Department.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Minimum Codes for State Construction
260:65-5-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"ADA" means the Americans with Disabilities Act
"Administrator" means the State Construction Administrator of the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"ASHRAE" means the American Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Engineers, Inc.
"Code" means the minimum building code or codes provided by this rule.
"Department" means the Construction and Properties DepartmentConstruction, Planning, and Real Estate Services of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, an agency of the State of Oklahoma.
"Facility" means any building or improvement to real property constructed for state use subject to the provisions of 61 O.S. This definition shall apply also to construction of real property that the state shall lease.
"IES" means the Illuminating Engineering Society.
"NFPA" means the National Fire Protection Association.
"OSFM" means the Oklahoma State Fire Marshal.
260:65-5-3.  Construction requirements; reviews and permits
(a)    Each facility shall be constructed or improved in such a manner as to provide reasonable safety from fire, smoke, panic and related hazards and to ensure a high level of health, comfort and well-being for all occupants.
(b)    Building construction and renovation will require formal code review and a building permit, unless otherwise determined by the Department. When required by the Department, construction plans and specifications shall be reviewed by the agency with applicable code jurisdiction according to policy prescribed by the AdministratorDirector.
(c)    Plans and specifications for State construction projects shall be reviewed and approved by the OSFM, who shall issue a permit upon approval. When directed by the Department, said plans shall also be reviewed by the Risk Management Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services. No project shall be let for public bids until such prescribed reviews are concluded and a building permit is issued by OSFM. Fees for plan review and permits shall be paid from the agency project funds.
(d)    When a State construction project requiring a permit from OSFM is located within a local code enforcement jurisdiction, the Department encourages obtaining an additional building permit from the local jurisdiction or arrangement of cooperative inspections. The Department, or it's agent, may invite a cooperative review between OSFM and the local jurisdiction and authorize payment for a local permit from the project funds.
260:65-5-5.  Adopted design standards
     The following standards are adopted by reference:
(1)     ASHRAE Standards.
(A)    Standard #55. Thermal and Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy.
(B)    Standard #62. Ventilation for Acceptable Indoor Air Quality.
(C)    Standard #90.1 Energy Efficient Design of New Buildings.
(2)     ASME Standards.
(A)    Standard A17.1. Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators
(B)    Standard A17.3 Safety Code for Existing Elevators
(3)     IES Standards. Illuminating Engineering Society Lighting Handbook Reference and Application Volumes.
260:65-5-6.  Sources for codes and standards
(a)    A copy of all codes adopted by reference in this subchapter are on file and available for public inspection at the following address: Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department, Office of Management and Enterprise Services, Will Rogers Office Building, 2401 N. Lincoln Blvd., Suite 106, Oklahoma City, OK 73105, (405)-521-2111.
(b)    Listed below are sources for the codes and standards referred to in this Subchapter:
(1)    International Code Council: 5203 Leesburg Pike, Suite 708, Falls Church, Virginia 22041-3401; Telephone: 1.703.931.4533
(2)    NFPA: National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169
(3)    ASHRAE: ASHRAE Publications Sales, 1791 Tullie Circle, NE, Atlanta, GA 30329
(4)    ASME: 22 Law Drive, Box 2300, Fairfield, NJ 07007-2300
(5)    IES: Illuminating Engineering Society, 345 East 47th Street, New York City, NY 10017
(6)    Oklahoma State Fire Marshal, 2401 N.W. 23rd Street, Oklahoma City, OK 73107; www.firemar.state.ok.us
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Procedures for Agencies to Perform Responsibilities Exercised by the Construction, Planning and Real EstateAnd Properties Department
260:65-7-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the State Construction Administrator of the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Architect" means a person legally qualified to practice the profession of architecture as defined in the State Architectural Act, Section 46, Title 59, Oklahoma Statutes.
"Consultant" means an individual or legal entity possessing the qualifications to provide licensed architectural, registered engineering, or registered land surveying, certified appraisals, land title, or abstract services or possessing specialized credentials and qualifications as may be needed to plan or design for any construction or public work improvement project. [61 O.S., §202]
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or a designee.
"Department" means the Construction and Properties DepartmentConstruction, Planning and Real Estate Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Engineer" means a person legally qualified to practice the profession of engineering as defined in Chapter 10, Engineering and Land Surveying, Title 59, O.S.
"Facility" means any building or improvement to real property constructed for state use subject to the provisions of Title 61, Oklahoma Statutes.
"FTE" means a full time equivalent personnel position authorized the state agency by current legislative authority.
"State agency" means all agencies, boards, commissions, offices, institutions, and other governmental bodies as defined in 61 O.S., Section 61.
260:65-7-4.  Requesting services of consultants, architects, engineers, and land surveyors
     All agencies requesting the services of consultant architects or engineers or land surveyorsconsultants are hereby delegated the following responsibilities of Section 62 as modified by Sections 208(A) and (B), Title 61:
(1)    Provide all of the information required by Section 62(C), Title 61, Oklahoma Statutes.
(2)    Prepare the letter of solicitation as required by Section 62(C).
(3)    Receive the replies of interested consultants and submit a list of the interested parties to the AdministratorDirector.
(4)    Conduct the selection as described in Section 62 (E) and (F).
(5)    Submit a requisition to the AdministratorDirector from which the Department shall prepare and execute a contract.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Full-Time Employment by Agencies for Minor Construction Projects
260:65-9-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the State Construction Administrator of the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Architect" means a person legally qualified to practice the profession of Architecture as defined in the State Architectural Act, Section 46, Title 59, Oklahoma Statutes.
"Consultant" means an individual or legal entity possessing the qualifications to provide licensed architectural, registered engineering, or registered land surveying services or possessing specialized credentials and qualifications as may be needed to plan or design for any construction or public work improvement project. [61 O.S., §202]
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or a designee.
"Department" means the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Engineer" means a person legally qualified to practice the profession of Engineering as defined in Chapter 10, Engineering and Land Surveying, Title 59, Oklahoma Statutes.
"Facility" means any building or improvement to real property constructed for State use subject to the provisions of Title 61, Oklahoma Statutes.
"FTE" means a full time equivalent personnel position authorized the state agency by current legislative authority.
"Minor Construction" means any construction which does not require the person performing the construction to have an occupational license.
"State Agency" means all agencies, boards, commissions, offices, institutions, and other governmental bodies as defined in O.S., Section 61.
SUBCHAPTER 15.  Energy Services Contracts
260:65-15-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Consultant" means an individual or legal entity possessing the qualifications to provide licensed architectural, registered engineering, or registered land surveying services or possessing specialized credentials and qualifications as may be needed to plan or design for any construction or public work improvement project. [61 O.S., §202]
"Department" means the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, State of Oklahoma.
"Energy audit" means to review facilities and systems, to identify existing operating and utility costs, to specify areas of potential savings, and to quantify those savings.
"Energy service company" means the company responsible for the installation of energy conservation measures and the guarantee of energy savings.
"Energy service contract" means a contract signed by a state agency and an energy service company which conforms to the provisions of this chapter.
"ESC" means energy service company.
"Equipment portion" means the portion of the energy service contract which deals with the purchase of equipment and its installation.
"Guaranteed savings" means the amount of money per year guaranteed by the ESC that shall be saved by the state agency on present utility costs.
"Service portion" means the portion of the energy service contract which deals with guaranteed savings, period of guaranteed savings, training, and bonds.
"State agency" means all agencies, boards, commissions, offices, institutions, and other governmental bodies as defined in 61 O.S., Section 61.
260:65-15-6.  Energy audit
(a)    An energy audit shall be conducted for each project for which an energy service contract is sought. An energy audit is used to gain more in-depth knowledge of the agency's facility and its energy usage. The requirements for an energy audit are outlined in the bid documents.
(b)    The energy audit may be conducted by one or more of the following as determined by the agency with approval of the Department:
(1)    A state agency with the technical expertise to conduct the audit. This could include the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
(2)    A contracted consultant selected consistent with Title 61 of the Oklahoma Statutes and the provisions of Subchapter 3 of this Chapter with the technical expertise to perform the energy audit.
(3)    One or more ESC's consistent with the provisions of this section.
(c)    If the energy audit is conducted by a state agency or a contracted consultant, the results of such audit shall be made available to all ESC's in the project bid documents. If the energy audit is conducted by one or more ESC's, the results of such audit must be included in any project submittal of the ESC.
(d)    ESC's may schedule with the agency inspections of facilities and equipment in order to conduct an energy audit or to gain a greater understanding of the facility and its energy use.
(e)    Any fees from a state agency or a contracted consultant incurred as a result of the energy audit must be paid outright by the agency.
(f)    A contracted consultant may be selected to provide a complete set of bid documents, evaluate all bids submitted, provide construction administration, related performance contracting methods and perform energy savings reconciliation for the Department or agency. Any fees charged by the consultant must be paid outright by the agency.
(g)    The Department may perform any of the services described in 260:65-15-6(f), and may levy and collect a reasonable fee for the agency for said services.
SUBCHAPTER 17.  Construction Management Procedures and Requirements
260:65-17-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the State Construction Administrator of the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Construction Management" (CM) means the project delivery method based on an agreement whereby the state acquires from a construction entity a series of services that can include, but are not necessarily limited to: design review, scheduling, cost control, value engineering, constructability evaluation, preparation and coordination of bid packages, and construction administration. Construction management includes:
(A)    "Construction Management/Agency"(CMa)(CMA) whereby the construction entity applies appropriate management techniques to project planning, design and construction for the purpose of controlling time, cost and quality for the state without taking on financial risks for the execution of the actual construction. CMaCMA services could include a range of management and/or consulting services spanning all phases of the design and construction process from conception to completion of the construction project.
(B)    "Construction Management/At-Risk"(CMc)(CMR) whereby the construction entity, after providing construction management/agency services listed in (a) of this section during the pre-construction period, takes on the financial obligation to carry out construction under a specified cost agreement.
"Construction Manager" means a person, properly certified in accordance with 20-17-3, who acts as an agent of the state for a construction project; who coordinates and manages the construction process; who is a member of the construction team with the state, design professional and other consultants that may be required for the project; and who utilizes skill and knowledge of general contracting to assist in the development of schedules, preparation of project construction estimates, study of labor conditions and provides advice concerning construction, safety and other issues related to the project that may surface. Issues may include, but are not limited to, monitoring progress, payments, changes and other factors affecting cost or as may otherwise be specified in the solicitation issued by the state agency.
"Consultant" means an individual or legal entity possessing the qualifications to provide licensed architectural, registered engineering, or registered land surveying services or possessing specialized credentials and qualifications as may be needed to plan or design for any construction or public work improvement project. [61 O.S., §202]
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or a designee.
"Department" means the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Guaranteed Maximum Price" (GMP) shall be the sum of the estimated cost of the work as defined in the contract and includes all of the contractor's fees and agreed upon contingencies.
"Notice to Proceed""GMP Amendment Exhibit" shall be the formal written notice, by letter, informing the Construction Manager that the Guaranteed Maximum Price (GMP) is approved and the construction management services advance to the next phase.
"State agency" means all agencies, boards, commissions, offices, institutions, and other governmental bodies as defined in 61 O.S., Section 202.
260:65-17-3.  Qualifications
(a)     General. An individual or business entity that desires to provide or provides construction management services to the state must meet minimum qualifications established in this Section.
(b)     Construction management certification. An individual or business entity that desires to provide construction management services to the state shall possess certification that demonstrates the individual's or business entity's capability to provide the services.
(c)     Certification sources. An educational program that provides certification of an individual as capable to provide construction management services shall include industry recognized standards for knowledge of construction, construction management and project management. An individual certified by one of the following sources may qualify to provide construction management services to the state.
(1)     Certified Construction Manager. An individual certified by the Construction Management Association of America as a certified construction manager.
(2)     Certified Cost Engineer/Certified Cost Consultant. An individual certified by the Association for the Advancement of Cost Engineering, International as a Certified Cost Engineer or Certified Cost Consultant.
(3)     Certified Professional Estimator. An individual certified by the American Society for Professional Estimators as a Certified Professional Estimator.
(4)     Certified Professional Constructor. An individual certified by the American Institute of Constructors as a Certified Professional Constructor.
(53)     Certified Construction Contract Administrator. An individual certified by the Construction Specifications Institute as a Certified Construction Contract Administrator.
(6)     Designated Design-Build Professional. An individual certified by the Design-Build Institute of America as a Designated Design-Build Professional.
(d)     Other professional certification recognition. If an individual presents professional certification from other than a professional entity this subsection specifies, the AdministratorDirector shall determine whether the individual may provide construction management services to the state.
260:65-17-4.  Construction Management registration
(a)     General. An individual that possesses the qualifications established in 20-17-365-17-3 shall register with the Department to provide construction management services.
(b)     Registration Application. An individual or business entity must submit registration application forms prescribed by the AdministratorDirector to the Department to request consideration for registration as a construction management firm. Registration application forms are available upon request to the Department.
(c)     Administrator reviewReview and notification. The AdministratorDirector shall review the registration application and:
(1)     Accept the registration. If the review determines that the applicant is qualified and the application is complete and accurate, the AdministratorDirector shall send written notification of the acceptance to the individual or business entity; or,
(2)     Grant conditional registration. The AdministratorDirector may consider other certification sources and grant to the applicant a one-year probationary approval of the registration application. Renewal for subsequent years shall not be approved unless the applicant submits proof of certification issued by one of the certification sources listed in 260:65-17-3(C).
(3)     Reject the registration. If the review determines that the applicant is not qualified or the application is incomplete or inaccurate, the AdministratorDirector shall send written notification of the rejection to the individual or business entity. The AdministratorDirector shall specify reasons for rejection in the notice; or,
(4)     Incomplete registration. If the review determines the application is incomplete, the AdministratorDirector may advise the individual or business entity to submit additional information to the AdministratorDirector.
(d)     Registration. Upon approval of the registration application, an individual or business entity will be added to the official list of registered construction managers maintained by the Department. Registration shall be effective for one (1) calendar year from the date of registration approval and renewed annually on or before the registration anniversary date of each succeeding year.
260:65-17-5.  Project designation consideration
(a)     General. The Administrator and the Director shall consider factors in this section to determine whether a state construction project merits consideration for use of the construction management delivery system.
(b)     Consideration factors. Each factor of this subsection must be considered prior to requesting or designating a project for construction management. [61 O.S., §202.1]
(1)    The project benefits the public. When considering designation, it shall be clearly evident that Construction Management will provide a public benefit, which may include:
(A)    early completion of work, allowing for beneficial public occupancy;
(B)    accommodating construction progress with phased funding;
(C)    enabling the project to be placed under contract prior to losing expiring funding source; or,
(D)    other demonstrated public benefit.
(2)    There is a need for cost control. When project requirements or technical components of a project are not fully defined, or options are available for building systems, the use of Construction Management would provide valuable input to the design process.
(3)    The need exists for specialized or complex construction methods due to the unique nature of the project. Projects involving sophisticated or complicated technical systems, renovation work or work that must be completed on a critical time frame, or otherwise when a critical mission of a public agency may be in jeopardy, shall be considered specialized and complex.
(4)    Other consideration factors may include:
(A)     Time constraints. The time period the state agency desires for project completion.
(B)     State agency capabilities. The capabilities of the Departmentstate agency staff and whether the staff has the ability and experience to effectively manage a project that utilizes construction management.
(C)     State agency funding. The state agency shall demonstrate whether the agency has adequate funding to pay for services of the construction management firm, design consultant and construction services.
(D)     Project components. The project complexity is sufficient to benefit from advisory consulting services during design or if the construction execution could be enhanced by the services of a construction manager. Such services during design might include, but are not limited to: independent preparation of cost estimates, independent design review, evaluation of alternate construction bid strategies and constructability evaluations. Services during construction that a construction manager might perform include, but are not limited to: certain elements of construction administration desired by the state agency that are outside the normal scope of the design consultant and overall coordination of multiphase, complex projects where one or more contractors may be involved in executing the work.
(c)     State agency request. A state agency shall submit a written request for consideration of formal designation of a state construction project for the construction management delivery method to the Director after careful review of the factors in (b) of this section. The request shall specify reasons the state agency believes the project merits consideration for construction management and the funding amount the state agency has available for the project.
(d)     Director consideration. Upon receipt of a state agency request for construction management services for a project, the Director shall consider whether the project merits designation for construction management and whether the state agency has adequate funds for the project.
(e)     Administrator consideration. The Director may request the Administrator to consider whether a project merits designation for construction management.
(f)     Administrator notificationNotification. Upon completion of the consideration of the state agency request, pursuant to Subsection 6, the AdministratorDirector shall forward the Director's official response to the requesting state agency which states reasons for the determination and whether the project has been determined to reasonably merit official designation for construction management.
260:65-17-6.  Project designation
(a)     General. After consideration of factors in 260:65-17-5, the Director may designate the project delivery method as construction management.
(b)     Construction management type. The AdministratorDirector shall determine the construction management type as:
(1)    Construction Management/Agency (CMa)(CMA) (See 260:65-17-2); or
(2)    Construction Management/At-Risk (CMc)(CMAR) (See 260:65-17-2).
(c)     Director notificationActions. If the Administrator determines that the project reasonably meets the criteria for designation for construction management and that the state agency has adequate funds for the project, the AdministratorUpon review, the Department shall determine whether the information in the written request is complete and shall apply the applicable project delivery method to the project, and sign and submit the prescribed project designation form to the Director.
(d)     Director actions. The Director shall determine whether the information on the project designation form is complete and agree or disagree with the Administrator's designation.
(1)    Director agreesapproval. If the Director agrees with the Administrator's designation, the Director shall sign the project designation form and return the form to the Administratorapproves, the Department shall acquire construction services pursuant to the provisions of this subchapter.
(2)    Director disagreesdenial. If the Director disagrees with the Administrator's designation, the Director shall return the unsigned form to the Administratordenies the designation, the Department shall acquire design consultant and construction services pursuant to the provisions of subchapters 1 and 3 of this chapter.
(d)     State agency notification. The Department shall provide the state agency written notice of the final designated project delivery method.
(e)     Project designation. The Administrator shall apply the applicable project delivery method to the project in accordance with the action of the Director.
(1)     Director signs designation form. If the Director signs the designation form, the Administrator shall acquire construction services pursuant to provisions of this subchapter.
(2)     Director does not sign designation form. If the Director does not sign the designation form, the Administrator shall acquire design consultant and construction services pursuant to provisions of subchapters 1 and 3 of this chapter.
(f)     State Agency notification. The Administrator shall provide the state agency written notice of the final designated project delivery method.
(g)     Designation form filing. The final project designation form shall be filed and maintained in the Department project file.
260:65-17-7.  Project requisition
(a)     State agency requisition preparation. Upon receipt from theAdministrator of the notice of project designation as construction management from the Department, the state agency shall complete a requisition form which must state on the form that the project delivery method is construction management and indicate the construction management type.
(b)     State agency requisition submission. The state agency shall submit the requisition form to the AdministratorDirector.
(c)     Administrator reviewReview. The AdministratorDirector shall review the requisition form to ensure the form contains the required information.
260:65-17-8.  Selection procedures for construction management services
     Selection of construction management firms shall be in accordance with Subchapter 21 of this Chapter and the procedures maintained by the Department.
260:65-17-9.  Fee negotiation and contracts
(a)    In accordance with the qualifications-based ranking of firms to perform construction management services in 260:65-21, the Department shall request a fee proposal from the highest ranking firm.
(b)    Upon receipt of the written fee proposal, the Department shall hold fee negotiations in a manner consistent with the selection criteria.
(1)    The Department shall negotiate a contract with the highest qualified firm at compensation determined in writing to be fair and reasonable.
(2)    In establishing the construction management fee, the Department shall take into account the estimated value of the services to be rendered and the scope, complexity and professional nature of the services
(3)    In the event the Department is unable to negotiate a satisfactory contract with the firm considered to be the most qualified, at a price determined to be fair and reasonable, negotiations with that firm shall be formally terminated. The Department shall then undertake negotiations with the second most qualified firm, beginning with a formal request for a fee proposal from that business. Failing accord with the second most qualified business, the Department shall formally terminate negotiations with that firm. This process shall continue, with proposals received from and negotiations held with the next most highly qualified firm, until such time as a contract is signed with a qualified firm or the procurement process is terminated and a new request for qualifications is initiated.
(4)    In general, pre-construction services are required on all types of construction management contracts. The fee for these services should be negotiated as a lump sum amount and should be based on the scope and duration of services.
(5)    For Construction Management/At-Risk (CMc)(CMAR), there are essentially two phases of the contract.
(A)    Phase One commences following completion of fee negotiations for pre-construction services. Pre-construction services include all activities by the construction manager up to the point at which the design is far enough along for the construction manager to establish a Guaranteed Maximum Price (GMP), this should be at 95% completion of drawings and specifications. The point in time when the GMP can be established will vary from one type of project to another. Included in the GMP quoted by the construction manager are the construction manager's fees for administering the construction contract (project fee) and the fee to cover the General Conditions for construction. The project schedule may also dictate the amount of contingency included in the GMP.
(B)    Approval of the GMP advances the project from Phase One of construction management services to Phase Two. This is accomplished through issuance by the Department of a Notice to Proceedthe executed GMP Amendment Exhibit, which shall also serve as the Notice to Proceed. Once the GMP is established, it will remain in effect through the development of the construction documents by the design consultant and the construction manager will work in conjunction with the design consultant to perform value engineering and construction coordination reviews and to develop individual bid packages for issuance to subcontractor trades.
(i)    Upon receiving the Notice to ProceedAccompanying the GMP Amendment Exhibit, the Construction Manager/At-Risk will be required to furnish 100% performance, payment and defect bonds, in an amount equal to the GMP or lump sum. Worker's Compensation, All Risk, Property and General Liability insurance shall be required.
(ii)    Non approval of the GMP allows the Department to terminate the services of the construction manager or to renegotiate, as required.
(iii)    When the design is complete and bid documents have been prepared for issuance of work packages to subcontractor trades, the construction manager becomes essentially a general contractor for the project, responsible for issuing and awarding individual work packages to subcontractor trades in accordance with subchapter 1, titled "Bidding Procedures", of this Chapter.
(6)    When individual work packages are bid as a lump sum, the CM's contract for that portion of the work converts from a GMP to a lump sum. Once all work packages have been bid, the construction manager's contract becomes all lump sum.
(7)    In the event that the GMP is exceeded after all bids are received from subcontractor trades, the construction manager and the Department must determine whether individual work packages need to be revised and then rebid in order to reduce cost. As an alternative, the Department may allow an adjustment to the GMP in order to allow the construction manager to award all work packages.
(8)    In administering the construction contract, the construction manager will adhere to Oklahoma public bidding laws in advertising and award of various work packages for a project. The estimated value of a work package will be published with the advertisement to bid.
(9)    Because the construction manager is "at risk" for the total contract amount, they are permitted to self-perform portions of the work, provided that they competitively bid the work as a lump sum (each work package) under the same terms and conditions as the other bidders. If the construction manager decides to bid a work package, they must declare this intent during the pre-bid meeting held by the Department.
(10)    In the award of subcontracts, the construction manager will award to the lowest responsible bidder. To be considered a "responsible bidder" the offeror must meet the minimum pre-qualification requirements, if any, that may be defined in the contract bid documents. An offeror shall meet the minimum pre-qualification requirements and complete the qualifications form that will be included as part of the bid package.
(11)    Procurement of project components costing less than the statutory amount established in 61 O.S., Section 103 may be accomplished by receipt of written bids pursuant to 61 O.S., Section 103. The Department may approve and direct the Construction Manager to prepare written bid solicitation for such items and furnish to at leaseleast three known suppliers. The solicitation shall clearly state the requirements for products delivery and installation, if applicable, and shall require the written quotes to be returned to the Department or the Department's agent by a specified date and time.
(c)     Award of contract. The construction management contract is written and processed for award by the Department. After the contracts have been signed by all parties, and processed, copies shall be provided to the state agency and the consultant.
(d)     Changes to base contract. Changes to the base contract are permitted as long as the scope of the change is generally included within the scope of work developed for which the selection process was conducted. All changes shall be in writing and signed by all parties to the contract.
(e)     Construction Management contracts. Contracts are written by the Department in standard formats as required by 61 O.S. Section 62.1. The Department may be contacted for development of special requirements to be included in the contracts.
SUBCHAPTER 19.  Design-Build Procedures and Requirements
260:65-19-1.  Purpose
     This subchapter provides information pertaining to procedures and requirements for individuals or business entities that provide design-build services on state construction projects that utilize the design-build delivery system for construction. These procedures implement the provisions of 61 O.S., Sections 201 through 211213 titled "Public Building Construction and PlanningFacilities Act."
260:65-19-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the State Construction Administrator of the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Consultant" means an individual or legal entity possessing the qualifications to provide licensed architectural, registered engineering, or registered land surveying services or possessing specialized credentials and qualifications as may be needed to plan or design for any construction or public work improvement project.[61 O.S., §202]
"Delivery System" is the approach used to develop and construct a project where Design-Build or Design-Bid-Build are typical approaches.
"Design-Bid-Build"(DBB) is the delivery method used on public projects whereby a licensed design professional retained based on qualifications, shall develop the project design in its entirety. The Department shall then solicit bids and award the contract to the general contractor who demonstrates that they can complete construction, as specified in the design, and that they are the lowest responsible bidder.
"Design-Build" (DB) is the project delivery method in which the Department procures both design and construction services in the same contract from a single, legal entity referred to as the design-builder. The method uses Request for Qualifications (RFQ)/Request for Proposal (RFP) procedures rather than the DBB Invitation for Bids (IFB) procedures. The design-build entity is liable for all design and construction costs and must provide a firm fixed price in its proposal.
"Design-Build Contract" shall be a contract between the Department and a design-builder to furnish the labor, materials and other services for both the design and construction for the same public project.
"Design-Builder" shall be the entity that proposes to design and construct any public project governed by the procedures of Title 61 and this Chapter.
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or his designee.
"Department" means the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Evaluation Criteria" shall be the requirements for the first phaseboth phases of the selection process and shall include, as appropriate, specialized experience, technical competence, capacity to perform, past performance and other appropriate factors. Prices shall be considered only in the second phase of the selection process.
"Final Selection Board" means a group of individuals designated by the chief administrative officer or governing body of a state agency which reviews the proposals with the Technical Review Committee of the short-listed firms for the purpose of receiving the recommendation from the Technical Review Committee to ultimately select the firm to be awarded the project. The board shall be proctored by a representative of the Department. The board should include licensed architects or engineers, if available. These professionals can be from another state agency.
"Proposal" shall be anthe technical and price offer, submitted by the design-builder, to enter into a design-build contract, as further defined in this subchapter.
"Request for Proposals" (RFP) shall be the document the state agency sends to each of the design-build firms on the "short list". The RFP shall contain the "Request for Proposals" (RFP) elements as described in OAC 260:65-19-11.
"Request for Qualifications" (RFQ) shall be the document or publication whereby a state agency solicits for qualified design-build firms.
"State agency" means all agencies, boards, commissions, offices, institutions, and other governmental bodies as defined in 61 O.S., Section 202.
"Technical Review Committee" means the group of individuals originating from the design consultant (OAC 260:65-19-8) which evaluates the proposals from short-listed firms for the purpose of recommending a firm to the state agency and Department. This committee shall be supervised by a representative of the Department. The group is to consist of the licensed/registered professionals that authored the RFP.
260:65-19-3.  Design-build qualifications
(a)     QualificationsGeneral. An individual or business entity that desires to provide design-build services to the state shall possess the construction experience that demonstrates the individual's or business entity's capability to provide the service.
(b)     ContractorDesign-builder Prequalification. The contractorbuilder of the design-build team shall be authorized to do business in the state and shall be prequalifiedregistered with the Department as a design-builder.
(c)     Architect of Record. The Architect-of Record of the design build team, for a specific project, shall be licensed and authorized to do business in the state.
(d)     Certification Sources. An education program that provides certification of an individual as capable to provide design-build services shall include industry-recognized standards of knowledge or construction, design-build and project management. An individual certified by one of the following sources may qualify to provide design-build services to the state:
(1)     Designated Design-build Professional. An individual with experience as a design-builder.
(2)     Other professional certification. If an individual presents professional certification from other than a professional entity this this subsection specifies, the Director shall determine whether the individual may provide design-building services to the state.
260:65-19-4.  Registration
(a)     General. An individual that desires to provide design-build services to the state shall prequalify with the Department pursuant to Section 260:65-1-8.
(b)     Registration Application. An individual or business entity must submit registration application forms prescribed by the Administrator Director to the Department to request consideration for registration as a design-build firm. Registration application forms are available upon request to the Departmenton the Department website.
(c)     Administrator review and notificationNotification. The AdministratorDirector shall review the registration application and:
(1)     Accept the registration. If the review determines that the applicant is qualified and the application is complete and accurate, the AdministratorDirector shall send written notification of the acceptance to the individual or business entity.
(2)     Reject the registration. If the review determines that the applicant is not qualified or the application is incomplete or inaccurate, the AdministratorDirector shall send written notification of the rejection to the individual or business entity. The AdministratorDirector may specify reasons for rejection in the notice.
(3)     Incomplete registration. If the review determines the application is incomplete, the AdministratorDirector may advise the individual or business entity to submit additional information to the AdministratorDirector.
(d)     Registration. Upon approval of the registration application, an individual or business entity will be added to the official list of registered design-build firms maintained by the Department. Registration shall be effective for one (1) calendar year and renewed annually on or before January 31st of each succeeding year.
260:65-19-5.  Project designation consideration
(a)     General. The Administrator and the Director shall consider factors in this section to determine whether a state construction project merits consideration for use of the design-build delivery system.
(b)     Consideration factors. Each factor of this subsection must be considered prior to requesting or designating a project for use of the design-build delivery system (61 O.S. Section 202-1).
(1)     The project benefits the public. When considering designation, it shall be clearly evident that design-build will provide a public benefit, which may include:
(A)    Single source of complete accountability;
(B)    Cost reductions;
(C)    Higher quality;
(D)    Emphasis on collaboration and innovation; or
(E)    Other demonstrated public benefit.
(2)     Specialized methods required. The need exists for specialized or complex construction methods due to the unique nature of the project. Or the project involves sophisticated or complicated technical systems.
(3)     Other factors. Other factors include:
(A)     Time constraints. The time period the state agency desires for project completion.
(B2)     Department capabilities. The capabilities of the Departmentstate agency staff and whether the staff has the ability and experience to effectively manage a project that utilizes design-build.
(C3)     State agency funding. The state agency can demonstrate it has adequate funding to pay for services of the design-build firm, a design consultant and construction services.
(D4)     Project components. The features of the project merit nomination of the project for execution using the design-build delivery approach.
(iA)    Project features that are compatible with using the design-build delivery method include:
(Ii)    Projects for which the definitive space program and functional building requirements can be clearly defined by the state agency prior to the selection of the design-build team, with low likelihood of these requirements changing during the design phase. Examples include, but not limited to: general purpose storage warehouses, multifamily housing or dormitory type projects.
(ii)    Repetitive type projects. For example, site adaptation of a standard or prototypical design that has been previously constructed at another location.
(IIiii)    Projects with certain unique factors that require special knowledge or experience to produce the least cost design.
(iv)    Pre-engineered structures.
(IIIv)    Performance based projects.
(vi)    Projects where the time to completion is a critical factor.
(iiB)    Projects features that are incompatible with using the design-build delivery method include:
(Ii)    Projects where the cost to prepare the Request For Proposal (RFP) and the cost to respond to the RFP by the design-build firms are not justified relative to the anticipated benefits.
(ii)    Projects where the scope of work is hard to define. Examples include: complex renovation projects and highly technical projects where the evaluation of alternative design approaches is critical.
(iii)    Projects which are design driven, such as museums, research laboratories, medical facilities, technology centers, courthouses and executive office buildings.
(IIiv)    Projects where the state agency or the Department desires to be closely involved during the design process to exercise discretionary control over the completed project.
(c)     State agency request. A state agency shall issue a written request for consideration of formal designation of a state construction project for the design-build delivery method to the Director after careful review of the factors in (b) of this Section. The request shall specify reasons the state agency believes the project merits consideration for design-build delivery system and, the funding amount the state agency has available for the project, and the staff and experience level in design-build.
(d)     Director consideration. Upon receipt of a state agency request for design-build services for a project, the Director shall consider whether the project merits designation for a delivery-build system and whether the state agency has adequate funds for the project.
(e)     Administrator consideration. The Director may request the AdministratorDirector to consider whether a project merits designation for a design-build delivery system.
(fe)     AdministratorDirector notification. Upon completion of the consideration of the state agency request, the AdministratorDirector shall advise the requesting person whether the project has been determined to reasonably merit official designation for a design-build delivery system. The Administrator shall provide a written response stating reasons for the determinationforward the official response to the requesting state agency.
260:65-19-6.  Project designation
(a)     General. After consideration of factors in 260:65-19-5, the Director may designate the project delivery method as design-build.
(b)     Director notification. If the Administrator determines that the project reasonably meets the criteria for designation for design-build delivery and that the state agency has adequate funds for the project, the Administrator shall complete, sign and submit the prescribed designation form to the Director.
(c)     Director actions. The Director shall determine whether the information on the designation form is complete and agree or disagree with the Administrator's designation.
(1)     Director agrees. If the Director agrees with the Administrator's designation, the Director shall sign the project designation form and return the form to the Administrator.
(2)     Director disagrees. If the Director disagrees with the Administrator's designation, the Director shall return the unsigned designation form to the Administrator.
(d)     Project designation. The AdministratorDirector shall apply the applicable project delivery method to the project in accordance with the action of the Director.as follows:
(1)     Director signs designation form. If the Director signs the designation formapproves the request, the AdministratorDepartment shall acquire construction services pursuant to provisions of this subchapter.
(2)     Director does not sign designation form. If the Director does not sign the designation form, the AdministratorDepartment shall acquire design consultant and construction services pursuant to provisions of subchapters 1 and 3 of this chapter.
(e)     State Agency notification. The Administrator shall provide the state agency written notice of the final designated project delivery method.
(f)     Designation form filing. The final designation form shall be filed and maintained in the Department project file.
260:65-19-7.  Project requisition
(a)     State agency requisition preparation. Upon receipt from the AdministratorDirector of the notice of project designation as design-build, the state agency shall complete a requisition form which must state that the project delivery method is design-build on the form.
(b)     State agency requisition submission. The state agency shall submit the requisition form to the AdministratorDirector.
(c)     AdministratorDirector review. The AdministratorDirector shall review the requisition form to ensure the form contains the required information.
260:65-19-8.  Selection Procedure for design consultant for design-build
(a)    The state agency shall select a design consultant pursuant to provisions of Subchapter 3 of this Chapter.
(b)    The state agency shall develop, with the assistance of the design consultant, a comprehensive scope of work statement and design criteria package that defines the project. This package will be issued to competing design-build teams, enabling the design-builders to submit proposals that meet the state agency's needs. The scope of work/design criteria package should contain, but not be limited to, the following information:
(1)    A conceptual design including, as a minimum, a space plan and programmatic summary of state agency's requirements.
(2)    Topographic survey and existing utility systems survey information for the project site.
(3)    Geotechnical report of soils conditions for the project site.
(4)    Clear definition of type of building desired, quality of materials, finishes, etc.
(5)    Disclosure of the construction price limit of the project so firms don't run the risk of preparing proposals that are not price competitive.
260:65-19-9.  Selection Procedures for design-build
     Selection of design-build firms shall be in accordance with Subchapter 21 of this Chapter, the specific design-build procedures outlined below, and the procedures maintained by the Department.
260:65-19-10.  ProposalsRequests for proposals and contracts
(a)    Following the qualifications-based ranking of firms to perform design-build in accordance with 260:65-21, the state agency shall solicit competitive Request for Proposals (RFP) from the four (4)three (3) to five (5) most highly qualified firms.
(b)    The Request for Proposals (RFP) shall contain, at a minimum, the following elements:
(1)    The procedures to be followed for submitting proposals and the procedures for making the selection decision, including a reference to the requirements of this Chapter and the regulations of the state agency.
(2)    A copy of the proposed design-build contract including other relevant contracting documents.
(3)    The evaluation factors and their relative weights.
(4)    The statement of work/design criteria package.
(5)    Provision for the design-builder to offer comments, enhancements or other appropriate value engineering recommendations pertaining to the concept drawings and technical specifications provided by the state agency in the RFP.
(6)    A stipend is required to be paid to each design-build firm in the event that the state agency elects to have the proposing design-buildersto develop design drawings as part of the submission. The RFP must describe the drawings, specifications, or other submittals to be provided with the proposal, with guidance as to the form and level of completeness of the drawings, specifications or submittals that will be acceptable.
(A)    The stipend should be sufficient to cover the cost to develop drawings, specifications or other technical narratives in response to the RFP.
(B)    The RFP should state that in return for the stipend, the State will retain ownership of the plans submitted by the competing design-build teams.
(C)    Stipends may not be required if the RFP documentation is complete enough that the proposing design-builders do not have to perform additional design work in order to respond to the requirements of the RFP.
(7)    A schedule for commencement and completion of the design-build contract.
(8)    Budget limits for the design-build contract.
(9)    Requirements for design-builders to have bonds and insurance.
(10)    Any other information that the state agency in its discretion chooses to supply, including without limitation, surveys, drawings or models of existing structures, environmental studies, photographs, or references to public records.
260:65-19-11.  Evaluation factors
(a)    The state agency, in consultation with the design consultant, shall determine the scope and level of detail required for the evaluation factors and shall submit the factors to the Department for approval. The evaluation factors should be detailed enough to permit qualified design-builders to submit proposals in accordance with the solicitation, without having to perform additional design services to meet the requirements of the RFP.
(b)    The design consultant who consults in the development of the evaluation factors shall be disqualified from submitting a proposal to enter into the design-build contract, and the design-builder shall not be permitted to delegate services under the design-build contract to the design professional who developed the evaluation factors.
(c)    The design consultant who develops the evaluation factors shall be either a full time employee of the state agency or shall be engaged in compliance with Title 61 of Oklahoma Statutes, and to the extent allowed by law may delegate the development of specific aspects of the design criteria to other consultants.
(d)    Evaluation factors shall include:
(1)    Past performance (cost, quality, schedule)Program compliance narrative;
(2)    Similar experience on comparable projectsProposed energy performance narrative;
(3)    Technical qualifications of design-build teamProposed quality of building systems and materials;
(4)    Proposed site design narrative;
(5)    Proposed subcontractors/trade partners and any teaming agreements, including any modifications to the RFQ team;
(6)    Proposed contract duration and milestone schedule;
(57)    Proposed costs;
(68)    Proposed technical approach including design submittals.; and
(79)    Any other factors relevant to project.
260:65-19-12.  Proposals
(a)    Proposals shall be sealed and shall not be opened until expiration of the time established for making proposals as set forth in the RFP.
(b)    Upon expiration of the time established for making proposals as set forth in the RFP, all proposals received shall be submitted to and evaluated by the SelectionTechnical Review Committee in conjunction with the Final Selection Board.
(c)    Clarifications may be required to ensure conformance of proposals with the evaluation factors. Clarifications may require revised price and/or technical proposals. No proposal shall be considered until the Selection Committee issues certification that the proposal is consistent with evaluation factors.
(d)    No proposal for a design-build contract may be accepted unless the SelectionTechnical Review Committee determines that there was adequate competition for such contract.
(e)    Proposals shall establish a cost of the design-build contract, which will not be exceeded if the proposal is accepted without change. The maximum project cost shall be provided to the teams in the RFQ.
(f)    Proposals may allow the design-builderare expected to identify subcontractors to whom the design-builder proposes to delegate obligations under the design-build contract. Entities so identified will not be replaced without the approval of the state agency, or the award may be revoked.
(g)    Each design-build team must include licensed architects and engineers independent from the state agency's design professional. The design-build team's licensed architects and engineers must be namedmaintained from the RFQ or further identified as a replacement with reasonable justification and qualifications in the proposal submitted to the state agency.
(h)    The state agency shall have the right to reject any and all proposals, except for the purpose of evading the provisions and policies of this Chapter. The state agency may thereafter solicit new proposals using the same or different evaluation factors, budget constraints, or qualifications.
(i)    The state agency shall maintain the secrecy and confidentiality of all proposals and all information contained in the proposals, and shall not disclose the proposals or the information contained therein to the design-builder's competitors or the public. Once a proposal is accepted, the disclosure of the proposal and the information in the proposal, and the ownership of the drawings, specifications, and information therein, shall be determined in accordance with existing law and the terms of the design-build contract.
(j)    When a design-builder receives notification from a state agency that its proposal has not been accepted, the design-builder may, within seven (7) days, submit a written request for a written explanation of the selection process to the state agency.
(k)    Proposals may be withdrawn for any reason at any time prior to acceptancethe deadline.
(l)    Written notice of the acceptance or rejection of a proposal shall be deliveredcommunicated to the design-builder that submitted the accepted proposal. The state agency shall deliver written notice to the unsuccessful design-builders that their proposals were not accepted at the same time the notice of acceptance is delivereddesign-builders.
260:65-19-13.  Design-build contracts
(a)    A design-build contract is written and processed for award by the Department. Upon receipt ofPrior to issuance of the Notice to Proceed, the design-builder will be required to furnish 100% performance, payment and defect bonds, in an amount equal to the GMP or lump sum, and proof of worker's compensation, all risk, property and general liability insurance. After the contracts have been signed by all parties, and processed, copies shall be provided to the state agency and the consultant.
(b)    Changes to the base contract are permitted as long as the scope of the change is generally included within the scope of work evaluated during the selection process. All changes shall be in writing and signed by all parties to the contract.
(c)    Contracts are written by the Department in standard formats as required by 61 O.S. The Department may be contacted for development of special requirements to be included in the contracts.
SUBCHAPTER 21.  Selection of Construction Management and Design-Build Firms
260:65-21-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of this subchapter is to provide procedures and information to construction management or design-build firms desiring to do business with the State of Oklahoma; and, to assist state agencies and political subdivisions of the state with the selection of construction management or design-build firms for the purpose of construction or renovation of state facilities. These procedures implement the provisions of 61 O.S., Sections 201 through 211213 titled "Public Building Construction and PlanningFacilities Act."
260:65-21-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Consultant" means an individual or legal entity possessing the qualifications to provide licensed architectural, registered engineering, or registered land surveying services or possessing specialized credentials and qualifications as may be needed to plan or design for any construction or public work improvement project. [61 O.S., §202]
"Department" means the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or a designee.
"Fixed Fee" means a fee to be paid to a firm which is expressed as a firm, fixed amount for the services specified in the scope of work.
"Interview committee" means a group of individuals designated by the chief administrative officer or governing body of a state agency to interview construction management or design-build firms for the purpose of selecting such a firm for a planned project. The interview committee shall include a representative from the Construction and Properties Department. This group should include licensed architects or engineers, ifwhen available. For design-build projects, the interview committee should include the individuals on the Technical Review Committee (260:65-19-2).
"Percentage fee" means a fee to be paid a firm which is based upon a negotiated percentage of the resultant construction contract.
"Program" means the detailed description of the work and the scope of the design services. This program is written by the state agency or a Design Consultant.
"Request for Qualifications (RFQ)" shall be the document or publication whereby a state agency solicits for qualified construction management or design-build firms. [Reference 20-21-4 (d)]
"Screening committee" means a group of individuals designated by the chief administrative officer or governing body of a state agency which reviews the qualifications of interested firms for the purpose of selecting a short list of firms to be interviewed. The screening committee shall include a representative of the Construction and Properties Department. The group should include licensed architects or engineers, ifwhen available.
"Selection criteria" means a list of the considerations and requirements used to evaluate each prospective construction management or design-build firm.
"Short list" means a list of construction management or design-build firms chosen during the screening process for a detailed interviewto move on to the next step. This list shall contain no less than three (3) nor more than five (5) firms for a single project. If the screening process is selecting for more than one construction management or design-build contract, there should be two firms on the short list for every planned project.
"State agency" means all agencies, boards, commissions, offices, institutions, and other governmental bodies as defined in 61 O.S., Section 202.
260:65-21-3.  Registration of construction management and design-build firms
(a)    All construction management or design-build firms desiring to perform services for the State of Oklahoma must register with the Department by delivering a completed registration application form to the Department.
(b)    A registration is valid for one (1) calendar year and must be renewed annually on or before the anniversary date of the previous year's registration.
(c)    Construction management or design-build firms shall not be solicited for projects with the state until the date the company's registration application is received and approved by the Department.
(d)    A construction management or design-build firm may register with the Department any time up to ten (10) days prior to the deadline for project consideration.
260:65-21-4.  Selection procedure
(a)     Define project. A state agency shall develop a description of the project which shall include:
(1)    A narrative description of the work being planned.
(2)    The estimated cost and time schedule of the project.
(3)    The source of the funding i.e., appropriated state money, federal funding or other source of funding.
(b)     Request list of construction management or design build firms. A state agency shall submit a written request to the Department for a list of construction management or design-build firms currently registered with the Department. The request must include the description of the project developed pursuant to (a) of this Section. The Department shall deliver to the state agency a printed list and/or one set of mailing labels in response to the request.
(c)     Announce project. The state agency shall:
(1)    advertise in a newspaper of general circulation and published in the county where the work, or a major part of it, is to be done. The notice is published in two consecutive weekly issues of said newspaper with the first publication at least thirty (30) days prior to the deadline of the RFQ, and.
(2)    send a Request for Qualifications (RFQ) to each consultant management or design-build firm on the list which must include the description developed in (a) of this Section and the deadline when letters must be received for consideration. In special circumstances, the Director or Administrator may choose to precede the RFQ with a request for Letters of Interest (LOI) from the registered construction management or design-build firms, whichever is applicable.
(d)     Request for Qualifications (RFQ) Contents. An RFQ must contain, at a minimum, the following elements:
(1)    Identity of the state agency that will select the construction management or design-build firm.
(2)    Procedures for submitting statements of qualification and procedures for making awards, including a reference to the requirements of this Chapter and the regulations of the Department.
(3)    Evaluation factors to be considered by the selectionscreening committee.
(4)    A statement of work including a summary description of the project.
(5)    A schedule for planned commencement and completion of the contract.
(6)    Budget limits for construction of the project for which services are being sought.
(7)    Requirements for Construction Management/at-risk or Design-Build firms to have bonds and insurance.
(e)     Request and review files. The state agency shall send a list of construction management or design-build firms that submitted Letters of Interest (LOI)/Statement of Qualifications (SOQ) for the announced project(s) to the Department. Upon receipt of the list, the Department will assemble and deliver a copy of any information on file for each firm on the list to the state agency.
(f)     Selection of the "short list". The screening committee shall select no less than three (3) and no more than five (5) of the best qualified construction management or design-build firms based upon the data supplied by the Department and other information which may be submitted by the construction management or design-build firms in response to the RFQ.
260:65-21-5.  Screen criteria
(a)    The screening process is the examination of each construction management or design-build firm that has submitted a Letter of Interest (LOI)/State of Qualifications (SOQ) for the project proposed by the state agency. Files on each firm are provided by the Department for this purpose. A specific list of screeningevaluation criteria shall include, but need not be limited to the following:
(1)    Specialized experience related to the proposed project.
(2)    Capacity of the firm to complete the project in the time available.
(3)    Past performance in similar projects.
(4)    Any other criteria deemed pertinent by the requesting state agency.
(b)    Each firm considered shall be rated by the Screening Committee for each criteriacriterion established by (a) of this Section and additional criteria established by the state agency or Department, if any. Written ratings for each firm shall be documented on a screening evaluation form prescribed by the Department which lists all criteria developed for the selection process. After all firms are evaluated, the ratings are comparedranked and the top three (3) to five (5) firms are identified for interview.
(c)    A copy of all screening evaluation forms shall be included in the report to the Department as required by Subsection 8.
260:65-21-6.  Scheduling and performing interviews
(a)    All members of the interview committee shall participate in all interviews of each firm.
(b)    AnFor construction management, an evaluation criteria list shall be developed to ensure that all interviews are conducted identically. The interview committee shall use the criteria listed in 260:65-21-7.
(c)    Each firm shall be notified by letter of the selection for interview. The letter shall contain:
(1)    Date, time and place of interview. Interviews should be scheduled individually for each firm.
(2)    Period of time permitted for the interview. Indicate how much time the firm shall be permitted for the presentation and how much time shall be reserved for questions by the committee.
(3)    A copy of the interview evaluation criteria.
(4)    The letter should contain any other information which would help the committee to obtain information needed for them to properly evaluate the firm.
(5)    Oklahoma Statutes prohibit the requesting of any information on fees. Any firm who discloses its fee, or any indication thereof, shall be removed from the request list or short list and receive no further consideration for the project. Construction management or design-build firms must be selected on the basis of qualifications and not on a bid basis. Design-build firms must be selected on the basis of qualifications and technical response and not on a bid basis.
(d)    Interviews must be conducted privately with each firm.
(e)    At the conclusion of all construction management interviews, the committee shall rate each firm in a manner so as to recommend to the state agency the relative ranking of each firm. All criteria and procedures used by the committee shall be documented for the record. The recommendations are forwarded to the state agency for the final selection.
(f)    At the conclusion of all design-build interviews, the firms continue with the RFP phase.
260:65-21-7.  InterviewConstruction Management interview criteria
(a)    The interview is the mostan important step in the selection process. Each firm must be evaluated against a clearly established list of criteria which is provided to the firm at least seven days prior to the interview.
(b)    The state agency shall use the interview evaluation form, prescribed by the Director, which includes, but is not limited to the following criteria:
(1)    Specialized experience and technical competence of the firm regarding the type of services required.
(2)    Capacity and capability of the firm, including any consultants, to perform the work, including any specialized services, within the stated time limitations of the project.
(3)    Past record of performance on contracts with government agencies or private industry with respect to control of costs, quality of work and ability to meet schedules.
(4)    Proximity to or familiarity with the area in which the project is located.
(5)    The volume of work previously awarded by the state to the firm.
(6)    Any other factors that are relevant to the project as determined by the Department.
(c)    Questions concerning fees shall not be asked.
(d)    Design-build interviews are for the purpose of providing feedback on the firm's proposed solutions and ensuring they are compliant with the RFP. These interviews are not evaluated.
SUBCHAPTER 23.  Fees for Services
260:65-23-1.  Purpose
     The Construction and Properties Department may collect reasonable fees for the purpose of providing or contracting for architectural, engineering, and land surveying services to state agencies; from persons requesting plans and notification of solicitations issued by the Department; and, for contract management for a construction project. [Title 61, Section 208.1] The purpose of this subchapter is to establish a schedule of fees for services provided by the Department.
260:65-23-3.  Deposits of fees
     All fees collected in accordance with the provisions of this section shall be deposited in the Construction & Properties Department's revolving fund created by Title 61, Section 208.2.
SUBCHAPTER 25.  Pre-Construction Planning
260:65-25-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the State Construction Administrator of the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Consultant" means either the architectural/engineering firm or other professional consultant under contract to the Department or a representative of the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department used for the planning, design or construction monitoring of the construction project.
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or his designee.
"Department" means the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Department" means the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Intent" means the point in time that a State Agency decides to pursue a project, either by incorporation into the agency's long range plan, by budget action or by action to obtain future funding.
"Pre-Design Services" means a formal planning process to establish function, scope and cost of a future project.
"Project or Improvement" means the collective act of design and construction of a new State building, facility or improvement, or the renovation of an existing State building, facility or improvement; or the acquisition of a building or facility for the purpose of renovation and occupancy by the State, where the construction and/or renovation cost is reasonably anticipated to exceed $158,000.00.
"State agency" means an agency, board, commission, counsel, court, office, officer, bureau, institution, unit, division, body, or house of the executive or judicial branches of government of this state, whether elected or appointed, excluding only political subdivisions. [61 O.S., §202]
260:65-25-4.  Determination of a need for pre-design services
     Upon review of the notice of intent submitted by the agency, the Administrator Director will consult with the agency and determine the specific project planning requirements. The AdministratorDirector shall determine a need for pre-design services based on the following factors:
(1)    Building type;
(2)    Project complexity;
(3)    Project schedule;
(4)    Funding sources or funding constraints; and,
(5)    Other factors unique to the project.
260:65-25-5.  Pre-Design Services
     When the AdministratorDirector determines pre-design services are required, the AdministratorDirector shall advise the agency of the anticipated cost of the service, and the procurement methods available to the agency. To initiate pre-design services, the agency shall submit a requisition to the Department and the Department shall procure the pre-design services on behalf of the agency.
SUBCHAPTER 27.  Use of Best Value Competitive Proposals to Award a Contract
260:65-27-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of this Subchapter is to provide information and procedures to issue competitive solicitations and award contracts using Best Value methodology. The rules implement the provisions of 61 O.S. §103(E) of the Public Competitive Bidding Act of 1974, which authorizes use of Best Value competitive proposals as an alternative to strictly price or qualification-based competition. The rules ensure fair and consistent contracting processes that satisfy the needs of the state. All vendors and state agencies are responsible for knowing the requirements of this Subchapter. These rules are administered by the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services to provide direction and ensure compliance with the Oklahoma Public Competitive Bidding Act, and other state laws and rules applicable to state construction acquisitions. These rules have been promulgated in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act and pursuant to the authority of 61 O.S. §103(E) and 61 O.S. §209.
260:65-27-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the State Construction Administrator of the Construction and Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Best Value" means an optional contract award system which can evaluate and rank submitted competitive performance proposals to identify the proposal with the greatest value to the state." [61 O.S. §103(E)]
"Department" means the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Department" means the Construction, Planning and Real Estateand Properties Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, State of Oklahoma.
"Director" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services or a designee.
"Past Performance Rating" means a numerical rating on a 1-10 scale mathematically derived from customer satisfaction surveys completed by past clients.
"Project" means the scope of services for which the Department requests competitive proposals from interested construction services vendors by issuance of a Solicitation or Request for Proposal.
"Project Capability" means the ability of a vendor to perform the requested services based on understanding of the requirement and mastery of necessary technical requirements while demonstrating a lack of technical risk as evidenced by measurement or accomplishment.
"Risk Assessment" means identification of risks that the vendor does not control and the vendor's plan to minimize the risk.
"Selection Committee" means a group of state representatives, designated by the AdministratorDirector, assembled to evaluate and rank proposal submittals by vendors.
"Selection Monitor" means the AdministratorDirector or his/her appointed representative placed in the role of presiding over a Selection Committee.
"State agency" means an agency, board, commission, counsel, court, office, officer, bureau, institution, unit, division, body, or house of the executive or judicial branches of government of this state, whether elected or appointed, excluding only political subdivisions. [61 O.S., §202]
"Value-added" means adjustment to the project requirement and/or benefit offered to the owner that may be proposed by a vendor, stated in terms of impact to the project in return for a deviation in price, schedule or quality.
"Vendor" means any service provider competing for a contract or performing work under a contract awarded by the Department. The term "Vendor" is interchangeable with Contractor, Construction Manager, Consultant, Design-Builder or other service provider. Vendor is used interchangeably with Bidder, Proposer and Offeror in context with the immediate topic herein.
260:65-27-5.  Selection committee
(a)     Members. Whenever a solicitation is issued requiring Best Value methodology to determine the successful bidder, the AdministratorDirector or Department designee will appoint members to a Selection Committee. The Committee will consist of three to five individuals with at least one representing the Department. The balance may consist of state agency representatives.
(b)     Selection Monitor. One Committee member, which may be the AdministratorDirector or his/her appointed representative, is designated as the Selection Monitor. The Selection Monitor is a non-voting member and presides over the Selection Committee. Duties of the Selection Monitor may include:
(1)    schedule and preside over Committee meetings;
(2)    provide instructions to Committee members on the Best Value methodology for evaluation and rating of bid submittals;
(3)    tabulation of the evaluation scores;
(4)    review the Committee's rating results for dominant information and/or inconsistencies;
(5)    discuss evaluations with Committee members to seek clarifications, if necessary;
(6)    prioritize the final rating score in matrix;
(7)    assist the Committee in determining the highest ranked firms for further consideration in interviews.
(8)    assist the Committee in determining the apparent Best Value firm; and,
(9)    assisting with the Clarification Period activities.
260:65-27-9.  Clarification Period
(a)    The identified apparent Best Value vendor is invited to participate in the Clarification Phase. Only one firm at a time may be invited to participate. This period is the final 'filter' and the invited firm is still at risk (the project is the identified firm's to lose). The clarification period is not a contract negotiation activity. Once invited to the clarification period, the vendor is responsible for scheduling and management of the related activities. The objective is to:
(1)    ensure the vendor understands the project scope; and,
(2)    allow the vendor to clarify how they will deliver the project/service on time;
(3)    identify the accountabilities of other parties; and
(4)    explain how the vendor will mitigate and manage any risk the vendor does not control.
(b)    The vendor is responsible for understanding the project requirements and expectations.
(c)    To complete the Clarification Phase, the vendor conducts required meetings, indentifies specific requirements and provides relevant documents, including but not limited to, the following:
(1)    Executive Summary;
(2)    A critical milestone schedule that includes the clarification period, the award, project/service delivery and the project completion, including requirements for information or actions by other parties necessary to meet the schedule;
(3)    Identify (ask questions) all technical concerns the customer may have or issues or risks identified by the customer and provide an explanation of how they will satisfy those concerns; make any additional investigations as warranted;
(4)    Provide a listing of major sub-vendor and suppliers. Ensure that any sub-vendors have a complete understanding of the project and have no technical or non-technical questions or concerns;
(5)    Identify activities where the vendor will experience situations where there may be a lack of information, where un-foreseen conditions may exist and activities where the vendor has no control over other participants or required activities in the delivery of the service.
(6)    Identify and document in writing any value-added ideas the Department has accepted or rejected, along with corresponding adjustments to the contract terms;
(7)    A project plan including any final clarification of their proposal and any omitted information and identification of value added provisions accepted by the owner;
(8)    Validation that the proposal is accurate and complete prior to submitting their final project scope;
(9)    Develop a weekly risk report template to communicate accountabilities and deviations, beginning with the clarification period;
(10)    Develop a risk management plan, which includes any risks the vendor does not control and how the vendor will mitigate or minimize those risks should they occur;
(11)    Identify a performance measurement plan to communicate to the Department how the vendor is performing during the project duration; and
(12)    Provide assurances to satisfy any remaining project concerns that the Department may have, including but not limited to adverse publicity, noncompliance with local, State or Federal law, Safety and accident prevention or other risks within the control of the vendor that would cause unnecessary time-and-effort transactions by the Department.
(d)    If the bidder determines their proposal contains errors or their proposal is inaccurate, the bidder may withdraw the project proposal without incurring a penalty. The bidder shall be prohibited from modifying their proposal cost, duration, or project team, unless there is dominant information justifying such action as determined by the AdministratorDirector.
(e)    The vendor must schedule a final Clarification Meeting at the end of the clarification period to present a summary of the project items developed. The clarification documents must be concise, organized and suitable for attachment to the Department's owner-vendor agreement.
(1)    The final clarification meeting is not a question and answer session.
(2)    The bidder must not wait for the meeting to ask questions. All coordination and planning with the Department must be conducted prior to the clarification meeting.
(3)    The bidder makes a clarification meeting presentation, which details completion of the project from start to finish and summarizes all coordination/planning completed during the Clarification Phase.
(f)    The Clarification Phase is the final selection filter. If at any time during the Clarification Phase, the Department determines progress being made by the invited bidder is unsatisfactory, the Department may terminate Clarification Phase activities with the invited bidder. The Department may then commence a new Clarification Phase with the next highest ranked bidder.
260:65-27-11.  Risk minimization and performance
(a)    The Risk Minimization and Performance Measurement phase begins upon award of the project contract. Risk includes anything that impacts project cost, quality or project schedule caused by the vendor, the State, unforeseen conditions or other parties. The Phase consists of, but is not limited to:
(b)     Weekly Risk Report System (WRR). The WRR is a project requirement and tool the vendor must use to manage and document all risks that occur throughout a project. The WRR is a standardized format prescribed by the AdministratorDirector, which may include:
(1)    all key contact information;
(2)    project milestone schedule;
(3)    risk sheet;
(4)    modification/deviation tracking;
(5)    risk management plan (RMP);
(6)    any risks the Department may require the vendor to document that could impact the customer or the Department's satisfaction.
(7)    performance measurements
(c)    The vendor shall submit a risk report for the project/service weekly throughout their contract, or as otherwise required by the AdministratorDirector.
260:65-27-13.  State transparency and Best Value documentation
(a)    For successful outcomes, the Best Value operating environment must be transparent to all stakeholders. The following key components are critical to the integrity of Best Value methodology:
(1)    A solicitation must clearly state submittal requirements.
(2)    A solicitation must clearly define the solicitation/acquisition schedule, which may include a Pre-Bid Education meeting to review Best Value concepts, process and submittal requirements
(3)    Following a contract award, the Department will provide a debriefing meeting to bidders, upon request. Alternatively, if scheduled by the solicitation, the Department will provide a debriefing review for all participants.
(b)    To protect the integrity of the selection process and fairness to bidders, the following will remain confidential as stated:
(1)    Identities of individual bidders will not be revealed to voting members of a selection committee during evaluation of key submittals as identified in the solicitation until such time as the highest rated bidders are identified and advanced to the oral interview or award phase.
(2)    To preserve integrity in the event a re-bid is necessary, contents of the individual bidders' submittals shall not be open to public inspection until such time as the contract award is made.
(3)    A bidder shall clearly identify any information submitted in a response to a solicitation that the bidder considers confidential or proprietary. The Administrator Director shall review the information and may or may not designate a bidder's information or proprietary information as confidential and may or may not reject requests to disclose the information so designated.
(c)    Following the contract execution, all selection process documentation not otherwise protected will be available to the public for inspection. The following shall be posted on the Department's website:
(1)    Tabulation of bid evaluation scores, and
(2)    Tabulation of bid pricing, and
(3)    Identification of Awardee and awarded price.
260:65-27-15.  Post project vendor performance rating
(a)    Upon completion of a project, the AdministratorDirector, in consultation with the customer agency, will conduct a performance review of the vendor.
(b)    The final vendor project performance review will replace previous performance evaluations for use in future contract award evaluations.
260:65-27-17.  Other requirements for contracts awarded using Best Value methodology
     Rules of this section apply to any contract awarded by the Department using Best Value methodology to select the successful vendor.
(1)    When otherwise prohibited by state law, fee proposals shall not be requested by a solicitation or considered by the selection committee prior to commencement of the Clarification Period (ie. Consultant or Construction Manager solicitations).
(2)    Construction service solicitations and contracts shall comply with the requirements of the Public Competitive Bidding Act of 1974 with respect to performance bonds, payment bonds, defect bonds and change order limits.
(3)    Solicitations for on-call, indefinite delivery and statewide specialty service contracts resulting in multiple contract awards may include the following provisions:
(A)    Top ranked vendors may receive awards as set forth by the solicitation and determined by the selection committee.
(B)    Multiple vendors may be invited to the clarification period to facilitate multiple awards. Multiple vendors must not be placed in competition with one another during this period.
(C)    Ranking, price schedule and performance information for awardees will be published by the Department as information to potential end users.
(D)    Authorized end users may utilize the available contracts according to procedures established by the Department for issuing proposal requests, making requisition and issuance of work orders.
(E)    Following completion of a work order assignment, the vendor's performance will be documented and added to the published performance line for consideration by future customers.
(4)    Construction Manager/At-Risk may use Best Value methodology to select subcontractors only in accordance with a plan authorized by the Administrator Director. Components of the plan must, as a minimum, include the following provisions:
(A)    Bid Notices: Method of making uniform public notification to interested subcontractors and suppliers;
(B)    Availability of Bid Documents for inspection or acquisition by interested bidders;
(C)    Bidding and bid submittal requirements, including contents of submittals and the place and time that bids are due.
(D)    Method of evaluation of bid documents to determine final recommended contract awards.
(E)    Method of public publication of pricing, scoring and final award information.
260:65-27-19.  Industry Advisory Committee
(a)     Committee. In order to maintain a balanced approach among stakeholders, the AdministratorDirector may establish an advisory committee comprised of volunteers from organizational stakeholders of the state construction program.
(b)     Purpose. The purpose of the Committee is to assist with procedures, review case studies, recommend implementation strategies, promote education and promote continual improvement. The AdministratorDirector may ask the committee to review complaints or concerns from stakeholders and recommend resolution thereof.
(c)     Membership. Committee membership is comprised of delegates from organizations representing general construction contracting; specialty contracting, suppliers, consultants and customers.
(d)     Meetings. The AdministratorDirector or designee is the Committee Chairperson and has responsibility for scheduling meetings.
260:65-27-21.  Third party oversight
     The AdministratorDirector may arrange for program oversight by an independent research organization or university. Services provided by the third party may include:
(1)    auditing the selection and project delivery processes;
(2)    preparing case study documentation;
(3)    ensure correct application of Best Value principles and processes; and,
(4)    provide educational support on theory, principles, application and updates to Best Value best practices.
260:65-27-29.  Waivers
     The AdministratorDirector may waive or modify any provision or requirement of this subchapter when such waiver is in the best interest of the State.
[OAR Docket #23-565; filed 6-16-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 70.  Risk Management Program
[OAR Docket #23-566]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
Permanent final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
260:70-1-2. Definitions [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Casualty or Liability Incident Management
260:70-3-2. Functions of Program [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Casualty or Liability Claims Management, Payment and Reports
260:70-5-1. Claims management [AMENDED]
2600:70-5-2. Claims payment [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards for Motor Vehicle Operations
260:70-9-1. Driver and vehicle safety standards for motor vehicle operations [AMENDED]
Subchapter 11. Coverage for State Owned Buildings, Contents and Other
260:70-11-1. Deductible levels and premiums [AMENDED]
260:70-11-2. Basic coverage for Property [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
74 O.S. §85.58A(G); Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 21, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 19, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 2, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 3, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Chapter 70, Risk Management Program, was amended to modernize processes and language, provide state agencies and other covered entities more time to complete required reporting, correct scrivener's errors, and simplify and clarify the rules.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kimberlee Williams, Deputy General Counsel, Office of Management and Enterprise Services, Kimberlee.Williams@omes.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
260:70-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the officer appointed by the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services to serve as Risk Management Administrator.
"Agency Risk Management Coordinator" means the individual, officer or employee of any state agency or other covered entity appointed by the state agency or other covered entity as the designated point of contact for the Risk Management Administrator for all risk management purposes, and shall include any employee or agent of the Risk Management Coordinator and such assistants as may be necessary shall be employed or appointed by such state agency or other covered entity to supervise and manage the agency Risk Management Program.
"Agency Risk Management Program" means the system within any individual state agency or other covered entity for coordination of risk management within such state agency or other covered entity for coordination of risk management activities between the state agency or other covered entity and the Risk Management Department, and for elimination, reduction, and minimizing of all insured or self-insured risks through a continuous effective loss-prevention and loss-control program, under the direction of the Risk Management Department.
"Authorized legal Counsel" means:
(A)    The Attorney General of the State of Oklahoma;
(B)    An attorney authorized to represent a state agency or other covered entity.
"Casualty incident" or "liability incident" means:
(A)    Any liability occurrence or event:
(i)    Taking place upon or within any real property owned or used by the State of Oklahoma; or,
(ii)    Involving participation by any officer, employee or volunteer of any agency of the State of Oklahoma who may be acting within the scope of his or her employment; or,
(iii)    Involving the temporary detention of a child in a juvenile detention facility which qualified as an other covered entity under the provision of 74 O.S. Section 85.34D85F; or
(iv)    Involving any vehicle or other personal property owned by an agency or other covered entity and operated by an employee or volunteer of that agency or other covered entity; and,
(B)    Any liability occurrence or event:
(i)    Which results in personal injury or property damage; and,
(ii)    Where there is probable cause to believe that such occurrence or event may give rise to a claim for damages against the state, an agency, an other covered entity or any of their employees.
"Claim" means the formal notice served upon proper legal authority by any claimant or the representative of any claimant, as provided by the Tort Claims Act, 51 O.S. Section 151 et seq., or any civil lawsuit brought against the state or its employees, or any administrative or arbitration proceeding brought against the state or its employees.
"Claimant" means the person or his authorized representative who files notice of a claim in accordance with 51 O.S. Section 151 et seq.
"Liability Insurance" means any type of commercial insurance, including self-insurance, administered or procured by the Risk Management Department including Directors and Officers Liability and any other liability insurance coverage for professional liability or errors and omissions coverage, including but not limited to, Law Enforcement Liability, Accountants Errors and Omissions, and Legal Liability.
"Loss Prevention and Loss Control" means any and all programs and systems designed to transfer, prevent, eliminate, mitigate, manage, and minimize the risk of loss due to any physical or financial cause, human or otherwise, and that may result in or give rise to a claim against the State, an agency, and any other covered entity, or any officers, directors, or employees of any group participating in the Risk Management Program.
"Other covered entity" means any organization or entity other than a state agency for which the Risk Management Administrator is authorized or required by law to obtain or provide insurance coverage.
"Payment of claim" means partial or full payment of a claim in compromise thereof by the appropriate lawful authority, and subject to any procedural requirements imposed by statute, resolution or written policy.
"Premiums" means the fees or payments levied and collected for the purpose of providing insurance coverage through a self-insurance program, or purchased insurance or a combination thereof.
"Property incident" means:
(A)    Any occurrence or event involving any real or personal property owned by the state or in the possession of the state for safekeeping; and
(B)    The result of which the property is damaged lost or destroyed by accident, misfortune or mishap.
"Reportable vehicle incident" means any occurrence or event involving a vehicle resulting in a liability incident including acts arising out of law enforcement practices. The term also includes any incident involving any vehicle or property used to conduct business within the scope of authority or employment of any employee, volunteer or official of the state, any agency or any other covered entity.
"Risk Management Department" means the organizational unit of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services which administers the Risk Management Program under the direction of the Risk Management Administrator.
"Risk Management Program" means the consolidated and centrally administered system for coordination of risk management activities between any state agency or other covered entity and the Risk Management Department for acquisition through the Risk Management Department of property and casualty insurance for the management of all property, casualty and liability incidents, and for eliminating, reducing and minimizing all risks through a continuous, effective loss-prevention and loss-control program, under the direction of the Risk Management Administrator.
"State" or "Agency" means any board, commission, committee, institution, department, instrumentality or entity designated to act on behalf of the State of Oklahoma.
"Vehicle" means:
(A)    In case of other covered entities extended services by authority of 74 O.S. Section 85.58B, any vehicle, vessel or aircraft used for or in fire fighting by an such entity:
(B)    In case of other covered entities extended services by authority of 74 O.S. Section 85.58E, any vehicle used for transportation of elderly or handicapped personpersons with a disability by such entity:
(C)    In the case of other covered entities extended services by authority of 74 O.S.Section 85.58F, any vehicle used to provide for the temporary detention of children in a juvenile detention facility by such entity;
(D)    In the case of the state or any agency, any self-propelled vehicle or mobile equipment which is owned by the state, or operated by any state employee who may be acting within the scope of state employment, whether or not the equipment is licensed for road use.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Casualty or Liability Incident Management
260:70-3-2.  Functions of Program
     Each Agency Risk Management Program shall have assigned to it sufficient personnel to fulfill each of the following functions:
(1)     Incident scene management.
(A)     General. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall be responsible for assuring that proper steps are taken at the scene of any liability incident to ensure the safety and security of personnel and property, and to otherwise manage the scene in the best interest of the Oklahoma Risk Management Program. Employees of all agencies and other covered entities must be informed and encouraged to promptly report any potential liability incident in which they might be involved, or which they might witness, to proper supervisory and security personnel.
(B)     Reports by witnesses. Any employee or officer of any agency or other covered entity who is involved in any potential liability incident, as a witness or otherwise, must immediately notify his or her immediate supervisor, as well as the security office or law enforcement officer with responsibility for the area where such incident occurs, if any. In case of any liability incident involving motor vehicles, the following procedure specified in paragraph (2) of this section, shall be followed.
(2)     Reporting vehicle liability incidents.
(A)    The operator of a vehicle involved in a reportable vehicle incident shall immediately notify the nearest security office or law enforcement officer with responsibility for the area where such incident occurs, unless incapacitated by injury to the extent that notification is impractical. The Scope of Employment form shall be completed and signed by the supervisor of the employee involved in the accident. The Scope of Employment form shall include a full and accurate description of the specific work activity or assignment the employee was engaged in at the time of the accident.
(B)    The operator shall remain at the scene until completion of all acts required by law or the rules in 260:70-3 to be performed at the scene, unless injuries sustained require treatment or other extenuating circumstance exist preventing the operator from remaining at the scene.
(C)    The operator shall fill out a required "In Case of Accident" form furnished in the glove compartment or other applicable designated place of all vehicles. This form shall be given to the Agency Risk Management Coordinator who will fill out a "Standard Liability Incident Report" from which, together with the "In Case of Accident" form, and "Scope of Employment" form shall be forwarded to the Risk Management Department as soon as the Risk Management Coordinator has completed an investigation of the liability incident.
(DC)    Any liability incident involving a fatality, personal injury or property damage must be reported immediatelywithin three days to the Risk Management Department. An answering service is available 24 hours a day, seven days a week.
(3)     Statements by parties involved.
(A)    Employees of any agency or other covered entity, whose conduct or performance of duty give rise to a "Liability Incident" shall be required to cooperate in good faith with the defense of any claim which may be presented in connection with the "Liability Incident". Any such employee's cooperation shall include, but not be limited to refraining from making any statement or comment, or from executing any writing or document concerning such incident, except as may be required by the employee's employer, authorized legal counsel, the Risk Management Department, any law enforcement authority investigating the "Liability Incident" at the scene, or by statute. No employee involved in a "Liability Incident" has the authority to agree to or promise to settle any claim
(B)    Any employee who is a witness to a "Liability Incident", but who did not commit or perform any act or omission contributing to the occurrence giving rise to the "Liability Incident" shall refrain from making any statement or comment, or from executing any writing or document concerning such incident, except as may be required by the employee's employer, authorized legal counsel, the Risk Management Department, or any law enforcement authority investigating the "Liability Incident" at the scene. Providing, however, that all such employees shall remain free to make any statement or comment concerning agency operations which are protected by 74 O.S. Section 840-2.5 and 840-2.6.
(4)     Investigation. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall ensure that each liability incident involving the property or personnel of the agency or other covered entity is promptly investigated and that such investigation shall, at a minimum, involve ascertainment of the identities of all possible claimants and all known witnesses. A description of the occurrences giving rise to damages including the date, time and location, shall be provided and an estimate of the possibleamount ofactual damages shall be madeprovided. Photographs of the accident scene or property damage should be taken as close to the date and time of the liability incident as possible. The identification of a party or a witness shall include full name, address, home and business phone numbersnumber, date of birth, social security numberemail and brief summary of what is known or reported by such witness. Risk Management, in order to adequately investigate and come to a timely determination as to whether or not a claim is valid, relies on the agency or covered entity to assist them in the investigation. Risk Management may require additional information other than the initial incident report and claim report. Information request(s) by Risk Management must be responded to within three (3) weeks of date of the request to the agency. If it is determined that an agency has not responded or is not acting in good faith to assist State Risk Management, Risk Management reserves the right to make a determination on the information received which could result in the approval of a claim when it might not otherwise be. In that case, Risk Management may pay the claim and invoice the full amount back to the responsible agency. The Risk Management Administrator reserves the right to waive this requirement for good cause.
(5)     Records keeping. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall keep orderly records, organized so as to be readily retrievable by date, location of incident and names of parties potentially giving rise to liability, of each investigation of any liability incident. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall also prepare and keep monthly summary of all liability incidents, recording the date, names of possible claimants, nature of incident, nature of injuries, estimate of damages and date investigation completed. A unique identification number shall be assigned to each liability incident which may be used to specify the matter in any communications between the Agency Risk Management Coordinator and the Risk Management Department.
(6)     Reporting procedures. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall:
(A)     Give telephone notice to the Risk Management Department. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall give telephone notice of any liability incident to the Risk Management Department not later than the next working daywithin three (3) days following the occurrence of any such incident.
(B)     Fill out "Scope of Employment". The Scope of Employment form shall be completed and signed by the supervisor of the employee involved in the accident. The Scope of Employment Form shall include a full and accurate description of the specific work activity or assignment the employee was engaged in at the time of the accident.
(C)     Fill out "Standard Liability Incident Report". The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall fill out and send to the Risk Management Department a "Standard Liability Incident Report" form furnished by the Administrator to all agencies and other covered entities by the Risk Management DivisionDepartment. This report should include but not be limited to the following information:
(i)    The time, date, and location of accident.
(ii)    The department involved, and where a vehicle is involved, vehicle number or tag number, year and make, operator's name and telephone number at home and work. Owner's name if leased or rented.
(iii)    A description of other property or vehicle, if any, year and make, name and address of operator and owner and telephone numbersnumber.
(iv)    The names of injured persons and the name of hospital(s) where such persons may receive treatment.
(v)    The damage to the vehicle, if any, and the vehicle's location.
(vi)    The name of the investigating officer.
(vii)    A brief description of the incident.
(viii)    The names, addresses and telephone numbers of all witnesses.
(ix)    Photographs of the incident scene.
(CD)     Forward "In Case of Accident Form" and "Scope of Employment Form" to the Risk Management Department. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall send to the Risk Management Department the "In Case of Accident" form filled out by the operator of any vehicle involved in a reportable vehicle incident. Be sure to place a new "In Case of Accident" form in the vehicle as soon as possible if the vehicle is to be subsequently used to conduct business after applicable repairs have been procured and the agency or other covered entity is satisfied the vehicle is safe to operate.
(DE)     Send informational material to the Risk Management Department. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall complete all preliminary investigations following a liability incident and send a completed "Standard Liability Incident Report", the "In Case of Accident" report, if any, and any other pertinent information that is the result of a thorough investigation to the Risk Management Department. The Scope of Employment form shall include a full and accurate description of the specific work activity or assignment the employee was engaged in at the time of the accident.
(7)     Training and notices. Every Agency Risk Management Program shall make adequate provision for training and notification to all employees regarding their responsibilities under the Oklahoma Risk Management Program. Employees shall be trained or notified regarding necessary reporting requirements in the event they may witness or be participants in a liability incident. Posters and signs shall be posted in conspicuous places informing employees, supervisors and other officers of their various responsibilities under the program.
(8)     Risk Management Manual. Every agency or other covered entity shall formulate and adopt an "Agency Risk Management Procedure Manual" consistent with the minimum requirements of the rules and regulations containcontained in OAC 260:70. Such a manual shall fully describe the organization and procedures for the conduct of Risk Management activities within such agency, shall contain samples of all forms in current use, shall describe the proper reporting chain-of-command for routing necessary information to the Agency Risk Management Coordinator, shall identify all personnel having specified responsibilities for risk management activities and shall contain such other information as shall be required from time to time by the Risk Management Department or deemed pertinent by the Administrator. Agency Risk Management procedures shall be updated from time to time to maintain the currency of the information contained in the manual, and such modifications or revised editions shall be promptly filed with the Risk Management Department.
(9)     Coordination with the Risk Management Department. One of the primary functions of the Agency Risk Management Coordinator will be to facilitate cooperation between the agency or other covered entity, the Risk Management Department, and legal counsel, when necessary, in cases where a liability incident actually gives rise to a claim for damages against the state or other covered entity. It will often be necessary for meetings, interviews, record reviews and other investigative activities to be arranged between Risk Management Department personnel and covered employees. The Agency Risk Management Coordinator will be the primary source of contact with an agency or other covered entity for purposes of arranging such matters.
(10)     Forms. From time to time, the Risk Management Department may promulgate forms for use in the various Risk Management activities described above, including forms of notices, reports, manuals, etc. Unless a form has been prescribed by the Risk Management Department, it shall be the duty of the Agency Risk Management Coordinator to establish standard forms for use within the other covered entity to carry out Risk Management activities under 74 O.S. Section 85.58A et seq. and the rules contained in OAC 260:70-3. In any case where such a form has been prescribed by the Administrator for any purpose, it shall be adopted and made the exclusive form for such purpose by each Agency Risk Management Coordinator. Seminars may be conducted from time to time by the Risk Management Department to inform state or other covered entities employee(s), officer(s), Agency Risk Management Coordinator(s), Director(s), manager(s), supervisor(s), and other responsible personnel of systematic changes in standard forms of notices, reports, manuals, etc. Instructions, dates, identity of personnel expected to attend, etc., will be communicated by the Risk Management Department on an as-needed basis.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Casualty or Liability Claims Management, Payment and Reports
260:70-5-1.  Claims management
(a)     Settlement and payment of claims.
(1)     General. While the Risk Management Department will explore alternatives, most claims may be paid from the state's respective risk pools and not from commercial insurance. This requires that procedures be established to administer and settle claims. Where the Risk Management Department has approved the acquisition of a policy or contract of liability insurance, the terms of which make it applicable to any liability incident, the Administrator shall, upon receiving notice of any liability incident or claim from an agency or other covered entity, ascertain the existence and applicability of such insurance, and, within a reasonable time thereafter, notify the insurer of the incident or claim, as may be required by the applicable policy or contract of insurance. The terms and conditions of the contract or policy shall govern the rights and obligations of the state, agency or other covered entity and the insurer with respect to the investigation, settlement, payment and defense of claims or suits against the state, an agency, and other covered entity or any of their employees.
(A)    With respect to claims subject to a contract or policy of liability insurance the following shall apply:
(i)    A State agency, or any other covered entity, and its authorized attorney shall cooperate with any and all requests for information made by the Risk Administrator, or his/her representative or the insurer, or risk denial of coverage.
(ii)    In the case of any possible settlement, regardless of the deductible or self-insured retention level claim, a state agency or any other covered entity and its attorney, shall notify the Risk Administrator or his/her representative prior to a settlement offer being made.
(iii)    If any State agency, or any other covered entity, or its attorney fails to reasonably cooperate with Risk Management or the insurer, or fails to notify the Risk Administrator or his representative, prior to a settlement offer being made on any claim subject to a contract or policy of liability insurance, the Risk Administrator may refuse to pay the claim.
(iv)    Settlement of claims subject to a commercial contract of policy of liability insurance shall also be subject to the liquidity of any accounts created for the self-insured retention pool established for that particular liability insurance policy or contract.
(v)    Any litigation concerning the Comprehensive Professional Risk Management Program of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services shall be handled by the Attorney General of the State of Oklahoma. [74 O.S., Section 61.4] Accordingly, settlements of matters in litigation shall not be settled without consultation with the Office of Attorney General and the Risk Administrator.
(vi)    Private counsel hired by Risk Management or by any state agency are subject to and must also comply with the rules and regulations of Risk Management with respect to claims subject to a contract or policy of liability insurance.
(B)    Claimants shall provide to Risk Management any and all requested information in order for Risk Management to comply with all State and Federal laws. If a claimant fails to comply with such requests, claimant's claim shall be invalid and ineffective unless and until claimant provides the information to Risk Management necessary for it to comply with State and Federal laws. However, nothing in this section shall toll or delay the time limits provided by the Oklahoma Governmental Tort Claims Act governing a claimant's obligation in reporting a claim.
(C)    Risk Management shall not be responsible, accountable, or liable for any insurance or self-insurance program outside of those offered by Risk Management under 74 O.S. § 85.58A et seq. or any other insurance or self-insurance program which fails to comply with the requirements of 74 O.S. § 85.58A et seq. under any State or Federal law.
(D)    In the event an entity covered under any insurance or self-insurance program administered by the Risk Management Department does not consent to the first Settlement Opportunity found to be acceptable to Risk Management's legal counsel and Risk Management, Risk Management's liability for all loss on account of such claim shall not exceed the amount for which Risk Management could have settled such claim (the Settlement Opportunity Amount).
(E)    Otherwise, in the absence of any applicable contract or policy of insurance, the following regulations shall be controlling:
(2)     "Official State Business" and "Scope of Employment". Claims against the state shall be investigated to determine whether the employee was on official state business within the scope of their employment. For the purposes of the Risk Management Program, the determination of whether an employee's negligent actions will be covered is at the sole discretion of the Risk Management Department of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services. Risk Management will first look to see if the employee is paid for their employment from state tax proceeds,; in the case of a volunteer, Risk Management will look to the organization utilizing the volunteersvolunteer's services to determine if the volunteer was reported as such in the annual Risk Management state employee/volunteer count. Next, Risk Management will determine whether the activity engaged in by the employee/volunteer at the time of said claim is officially sponsored by the insured organization. This determination is made by review of the information as well as additional investigation if necessary supplied on an official "Scope of Employment" form completed and turned into Risk Management by the organization. The Scope of Employment form shall be completed and signed by the supervisor of the employee involved in the accident. The Scope of Employment form shall include a full and accurate description of the specific work activity or assignment the employee was engaged in at the time of the accident.
(A)    In the case of Institutions of Higher Education, for liability coverage purposes all extracurricular activity clubs, associations or organizations shall be treated in the following manner:
(i)    Clubs, associations, and or organizations affiliated with a college or university shall be covered under the states self-insured liability insurance program for claims arising under the Oklahoma Governmental Tort Claims Act as long as the members are enrolled students of the college or university and the activity is part of a university/college course, athletic competition, or deemed by the college or university as an official university or college sponsored activity.
(ii)    In order to obtain liability coverage for such clubs, associations, and or organizations, the college or university must have paid the annual tort and motor vehicle premiums assessed by State Risk Management. Premiums for such clubs, associations and organizations shall be established by State Risk Management. Any use of state property utilized in the activity sponsored by the university or college shall be in compliance with state law regarding the use of state property.
(iii)    Claims arising out of the use of state vehicles or personal vehicles, while on official state business by students, will be deemed denied if the student is acting outside the scope of their volunteer/employment status.
(B)    In the case of state agencies, use of state vehicles and liability coverage for such use shall be provided by State Risk Management in the following manner:
(i)    Liability coverage will be afforded any state employee operating a motor vehicle while in the scope of their employment and on official state business. For the purposes of this section, motor vehicle includes state vehicles owned or leased by the agency, personal vehicles used by an employee for official state business, and privately leased vehicles.
(ii)    State employees provided a state vehicle on a "24 hour" take home basis will be deemed to be covered during their established lunch period if the use of the vehicle is for driving to and from an eating establishment. Personal errands or activities undertaken during a lunch hour will not be covered by State Risk Management. The employee will assume all liability while engaging in such activities.
(3)     Claims settled for amounts not exceeding $25,000.00. A claim settlement in which a payment not exceeding $25,000.00 is agreed upon may be paid by the Administrator pursuant to a settlement agreement negotiated and approved by authorized legal counsel.
(4)     Claims settled for amounts exceeding $25,000.00. A claims settlement in which a payment exceeding $25,000.00 is agreed upon may be paid by the Administrator pursuant to a settlement agreement negotiated and approved by authorized legal counsel, except that the settlement shall not be effective until approved by the district court as provided by law.
(5)     Disposition of claims against the state. In the case of any claim against the state or an agency, the Attorney General, or other authorized legal counsel representing the state or agency in place of the Attorney General, may defend, settle, deny, compromise or otherwise dispose of any liability incident or claim as may be deemed necessary and proper under existing Oklahoma law.
(6)     Disposition of claims against a political subdivision and other covered entities. In the case of any claim against any other covered entity which is also a political subdivision as defined by the Oklahoma Governmental Tort Claims Act, 51 O.S. Section 151 et seq. (the Act), defense, settlement or compromise of any claim or liability incident may be made byin conjunction with the Administrator and authorized legal counsel for the political subdivision, and payment or settlement may also require approval of the governing body, if any, of such political subdivision, as required by the Act, in addition to the approvals specified in 260:70-5-1(a)as may be deemed necessary and proper under existing Oklahoma law.
(7)     Limitations. In no event shall self-insurance coverage provided to the state, an agency or other covered entity exceed the limitations on the maximum dollar amount of liability specified by the Oklahoma Governmental Tort Claims Act, which limits are codified at the time of adoption of these rules at 51 O.S. Section 154. These limits shall be applicable in cases of liability incidents involving any other covered entity, without regard to whether the other covered entity is qualified for treatment as a political subdivision as that term is defined in the Oklahoma Governmental Tort Claims Act. Where the Risk Management Department has purchased a policy or contract of liability insurance, the terms of which make it applicable to any liability incident, the applicable limits of liability shall govern the dollar amount of indemnity available to the state, any agency or another covered entity. If a commercial policy of insurance has been purchased by any entity outside the Risk Management Program, whether or not approved by the Risk Administrator, no self-insurance coverage shall be paid from Risk Management funds.
(b)     Collection of liability claims owed to the state. In the case of any incident where the state has incurred a loss through the wrongful or negligent acts of a private person or other entity, the following procedures will apply:
(1)    Money damages collected by the Risk Management DivisionDepartment in any case of loss of property belonging to the state by a private person or other entity liable for a wrongful act, will be paid to the Risk Management DivisionDepartment and subsequently disbursed through the agency clearing account by the Division of Central Accounting and Reporting of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services to the injured agency having charge of such damaged or lost property pursuant to 74 O.S., Section 62.5.
(2)    In the event a private person or other entity, whether insured or uninsured, is liable for a wrongful act giving rise to damage or loss of property of the state and such person, entity, or its insurer declines or refuses to pay or settle a written demand by the Risk Management DivisionDepartment for damages within a reasonable time, the Administrator shall refer the matter to the Attorney General who may take whatever action he deems necessary and proper to collect all money damages owed to the state for its loss. All money damages collected pursuant to this provision by the Attorney General, less any amounts properly credited to the Attorney General's Evidence Fund, will be paid to the Risk Management DivisionDepartment and subsequently disbursed through the agency clearing account by the Division of Agency Accounting and Reporting of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services to the injured agency pursuant to 74 O.S., Section 62.5.
260:70-5-2.  Claims payment
     The Risk Management DivisionDepartment has several methods in which to pay claims against the state or other covered entities. Methods of paying claims for liability incidents include:
(1)     Issuance of a state warrant.
(A)    Upon approval of a claim payment by authorized legal counsel, the Risk Management DivisionDepartment shall:
(i)    Forward a request for a warrant to be issued with copies of documents showing all required approvals for claim payment.
(ii)    Attach to the request for a warrant to be issued, a fully and properly executed release of liability, if available, or a copy of the court approval.
(B)    The Division of Central Accounting and Reporting of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services shall:
(i)    Review all documents and ensure that payment of the claim complies with all applicable procedures, rules, and laws.
(ii)    Issue a warrant.
(2)     Agency special account voucher.
(A)    Upon approval of claim payment by authorized legal counsel, the Risk Management DivisionDepartment shall:
(i)    Forward a request for a voucher to be issued from the Risk Management "Quick Settlement Account", pursuant to 74 O.S. Section 85.58N.
(ii)    Attach to the request for a voucher to be issued, a release of liability form, if available, and copies of documents showing all required approvals for claim payment.
(iii)    The "Quick Settlement Account" shall not be used for payment of claims, settlements or judgments against other covered entities.
(B)    The Division of Central Accounting and Reporting of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services shall:
(i)    Review all documents and ensure that payment of the claim complies with all applicable procedures, rules, and laws.
(ii)    Issue the voucher.
(3)    Limitations on payments in connection with other covered entities
(A)    Because other covered entities, as defined in Chapter 70 of Title 260 largely constitute political subdivisions or private entities, and further because the State of Oklahoma is constitutionally prohibited from assuming the debts of such bodies, it is necessary that the funds, reserves and other financial resources for payment of claims, settlements and judgments against other covered entities be drawn entirely from contributions and premiums paid by such other covered entities which shall be maintained in one or more segregated revolving funds and which shall not be commingled with funds of the State of Oklahoma.
(B)    The Risk Management Department shall also be empowered to charge against the premiums and contributions paid into the above-described segregated revolving fund or funds the actual, reasonable administrative expense of all services provided to other covered entities under Chapter 70 of Title 260.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards for Motor Vehicle Operations
260:70-9-1.  Driver and vehicle safety standards for motor vehicle operations
     In order to helpTo protect the general public, as well as the state and other covered entities' property and their employees, the rules contained in OAC 260:70-9 shall apply:
(1)     Primary requirements. It being imperative that in order to assure the driving public that state vehicles will be operated properly and by trained individuals, State Risk Management reserves the right to insure for liability insurance only those state employees or volunteers it deems insurable. In order toTo facilitate this right, Risk Management may, from time to time, request Motor Vehicle Records (MVR's) from the Department of Public Safety. Any information found on the report that may be negative towards the driving record of the individual employee may be cause for Risk Management to inform the employing agency of said employee that the driver is uninsurable and that in the event of a loss involving said employee, Risk Management will refuse to pay for such loss(es) out of the Risk Management Comprehensive Risk Pool. Losses incurred under such conditions shall be borne by the employing agency. In addition to the above, the following are minimum requirements:
(A)    To operate a vehicle of any type, an individual must have a valid driver'sdriver license. Risk Management may assist agencies in checking whether or not an employee has a valid Oklahoma driversdriver license.
(B)    Driver will use the vehicle only for state or other covered entity business within the scope of the driver's employment/authority.
(C)    Driver will wear his/her safety belt.
(D)    Driver will observe all traffic laws.
(E)    Driver will not allow an unauthorized person to drive the vehicle.
(F)    Consumption of alcoholic beverages or narcotics prior to the operation of a vehicle is prohibited.
(2)     General requirements.
(A)    Backing of vehicles where the driver does not have a clear view of the entire area behind the vehicle will be accomplished with an assistance of a guide. If a second person is in the vehicle, he/she should guide the vehicle back using the appropriate hand and voice signals. If the driver is alone, he/she should check the area behind his/her vehicle before backing.
(B)    Drivers will ensure that windows, headlights, taillights, and wipers are clean and operational at all times.
(C)    In order to give ample warning to oncoming and following vehicles, turn signals must be utilized by drivers at all times, when making a turn or changing lanes.
(D)    Do not "tail-gate". When following other vehicles in normal traffic and under good weather conditions, a time gap of two seconds should be allowed.
(E)    On hills, curves, intersections or in any area where your vision is obstructed, do not make a turnabout, i.e., u-turn.
(F)    Vehicles and equipment shall not be parked or left adjacent to the roadway in such a manner as to constitute a traffic hazard to the driving public. Vehicles will not be parked where they will obstruct the sight of other drivers.
(3)     Specific requirements.
(A)    It shall be unlawful for any driver of any vehicle to operate said vehicle without a valid driversdriver license, pursuant to 47 O.S., Section 6-101 et seq. Drivers will carry a valid driversdriver license at all times, pursuant to 47 O.S., Section 6-112.
(B)    Any volunteer or employee who operates a state or other covered entity vehicle regularly or occasionally is required to report suspension or revocation of his/her license to their agency. Failure of an employee or volunteer to report a change in license status may result in denial of insurance coverage by the Risk Management Department in the event of an accident, pursuant to 260:70-9-1(3)(B).
(C)    All items or materials, which may move around during transport by truck or trailer, will be secured or tarped.
(D)    No more than three (3) persons will ride in the front seat of a state or other covered entity vehicle. Where only two single seats exist, only one rider may ride in each seat.
(E)    Drivers of state or other covered entity vehicles will drive in a courteous manner at all times.
(F)    Emergency vehicles under emergency situations are exempt from normal motor vehicle laws, but are required to exercise due regard for the safety of all persons pursuant to 47 O.S., Section 11-106.
(G)    Any Driver of a motor vehicle involved in an at faultat-fault accident or accidents while functioning as an agent of the State and in which the driver acted negligently (and caused personal injury and/or property damage) shall be required to attend and successfully complete a Motor Vehicle Improvement (MVI) course. Such course shall be approved by the State Risk Management Department and must be attended within six (6) months of the date of the accident being determined as at-fault. Failure to successfully complete an approved MVI course shall result in the driver of the state vehicle being declared uninsurable by the State Risk Management Administrator until such time that the driver successfully completes the required course. The Risk Management Administrator may waive this requirement and paragraph H upon proper application and for good cause.
(H)    Any driver of a motor vehicle, while functioning as an agent of the State, that is involved in two at faultat-fault accidents in a twenty four (24)twelve (12) month period shall, in addition to paragraph G, be declared uninsurable by the Risk Management Administrator for a period of three (3) months following the second accident.
(I)    Special equipment such as tractor-trailers, mowers, construction equipment, mobile cranes, fork lifts and emergency vehicles shall not be operated without adequate training provided by the Agency and authorization by the agency in charge.
(43)     Maintenance requirements.
(A)    Before operating a state or other covered entity vehicle, the driver is responsible for checking to see that all necessary safety equipment and control devices are in good condition before he/she operates it. These items should include;
(i)    Lights.
(ii)    Directional signals.
(iii)    Steering wheel.
(iv)    Brakes
(v)    Rear-view and side-view mirrors.
(vi)    Horn.
(vii)    Tires.
(viii)    Safety belts
(ix)    Windshield wipers.
(x)    Defroster.
(B)    For vehicles used to transport people, such as an activity bus or van, the following items in addition to those listed in 260:70-9-1(4)(A) should be checked for emergency use:
(i)    Reflectors.
(ii)    Fire extinguisher, type B-C.
(iii)    First aid kit.
(C)    No state or other covered entity vehicle will be operated without a current state safety inspection sticker.
(5)     Accident reporting. Any state or other covered entity vehicle involved in an incident with a third party shall report the incident to his Agency Risk Manager or the Risk Management Department not later than the next working day following the occurrence of the incident. Risk Management, in order to adequately investigate and come to a timely determination as to whether or not a claim is valid, relies on the agency Risk Coordinator to assist them in the investigation. Risk Management may require additional information other than the initial incident report and claim report. Information request(s) by Risk Management must be responded to within four (4) weeks of date of the request by the agency. If it is determined that an agency has not responded or is not acting in good faith to assist State Risk Management, Risk Management reserves the right to make a determination on the information received which could result in the approval of a claim when it might not otherwise be. In that case, Risk Management will pay the claim and invoice the full amount back to the responsible agency. The Risk Management Administrator reserves the right to waive this requirement for good cause.
(64)     Safety standards for other covered entities entitled to services from the Risk Management Program. To meet eligibility criteria for approval and participation under the State Risk Management Program, drivers and vehicles shall meet or exceed the following requirements;
(A)    Drivers of fire apparatus shall have a valid driversdriver license to drive the vehicle.
(B)    There shall be documentation of the driversdriver license for any individual who drives or may be required to drive a vehicle.
(C)    Drivers of fire apparatus must be thoroughly trained and the training documented.
(D)    Each other covered entity shall have a written policy that sets forth speed limits for its vehicles on emergency runs.
(E)    All emergency vehicles shall be provided with audible and visible warning devices. These devices shall be kept in proper working order and utilized without fail on emergency runs.
(F)    Wheel chocks must be used for rear wheels while using any aerial ladder apparatus to help prevent the apparatus from slipping.
(G)    There shall be a preventive maintenance program in place to ensure that all emergency vehicles are maintained in a safe condition. This list is not meant to be a complete listing, but only a guide. The following items are suggested safety areas that should be checked:
(i)    Visible and audible signals
(ii)    Lighting system.
(iii)    Tires.
(iv)    Steering
(v)    Brake system air tanks.
(vi)    Brake fluid.
(vii)    Windshield wipers.
(viii)    Rear view mirrors.
(H)    Applications of risk management coverage, pursuant to Section 85.58A of Title 74, are subject to review by the Administrator. The review may include a physical inspection of the vehicles and related records.
(I)    Other covered entities are subject to random safety and loss prevention inspections of equipment for as long as they choose to participate in the State Risk Management Program.
(J)    Non-compliance with safety standards as required by the Administrator could result in a denial to participate in the program or cancellation of coverage.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Coverage for State Owned Buildings, Contents and Other
260:70-11-1.  Deductible levels and premiums
(a)    Deductible amounts payable by the agency or other covered entity for losses to buildings, contents, and other property will be set by the Administrator with the approval of the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services. Deductible amounts or percentages may vary by types and use of property, and by actual or replacement value.
(b)    An annual premium will be levied and collected from each state agency pursuant to 74 O.S. Section 85.58M, in order to cover the purchase of excess insurance against catastrophic losses and to cover future losses using verifiable loss histories. Each state agency shall pay in full the premiums billed to them by the Risk Management Department for property and casualty insurance coverage. An invoice is due and payable upon receipt. Delinquent accounts will be collected pursuant to 74 O.S. Section 85.58M.
(c)    Annual premiums will be determined using a combination of identified markets available for acquisition of commercial excess insurance and verified loss history. The annual premiums will be reasonable and determined by the Risk Management Administrator with the approval of the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
(d)    Property losses will be determined by the Risk Management Department and/or a third partythird-party administrator under contract. These losses will be based on industry accepted investigations and resulting appraisals of estimated damages.
260:70-11-2.  Basic coverage for Property
(a)     Property covered. Property losses covered will be specified in an annual statement of coverage issued by the Risk Management Administrator and subject to commercial policy terms and conditions.Auto physical damage coverage. Auto physical damage coverage is available for additional premium to all state agencies or other covered entities. This coverage may be backed by commercial insurance or self-insured at the Risk Management Administor's discretion. Terms of the coverage will be specified in an annual statement of coverage issued by the Risk Management Administrator.
(b)     Property excluded. Property losses excluded from coverage will be specified in an annual statement of coverage issued by the Risk Management Administrator.
(c)     Perils covered. Perils covered will be specified in an annual statement of coverage issued by the Risk Management Administrator and subject to commercial policy terms and conditions.
(d)     Perils not covered. Perils not covered will be specified in an annual statement of coverage issued by the Risk Management Administrator and subject to commercial policy terms and conditions.
(ec)     Amount payable for losses.
(1)    The amount payable for covered losses will be specified in an annual statement of coverage issued by the Risk Management Administrator and subject to commercial policy terms and conditions.
(2)    The amount payable for any loss to property shall not exceed the lesser of the actual replacement cost or the reported value of the property.
(3)    The amount payable for any loss shall be reduced by the amount of any delinquent premiums or fees for coverage under the Risk Management Program.
(fd)     Conditions under which coverage is provided.
(1)    The building and/or contents must have been reported to Risk Management in writing prior to the date the loss occurs.
(2)    For boiler explosion losses to be covered, boilers must have been reported to Risk Management and all inspections required by the Oklahoma Department of Labor must have been completed.
(3)    The loss must be reported to Risk Management immediately uponwithin seven (7) days of learning of the occurrence of a loss. Failure to report a loss in a timely manner may negatively impact your recovery or will result in denial of coverage.
(A)    The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall give telephone notice of any property loss incident to the Risk Management Department immediately uponwithin seven (7) days of learning of the occurrence of such incident.
(B)    The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall fill out and send to the Risk Management Department a "Standard Property Loss ReportNotice" form or submit using the online form. This reportnotice shall be submitted within three workingseven (7) days from the date of first awareness of a loss and shall include but not be limited to the following information:
(i)    The time, date, and location of the loss
(ii)    The department involvedAgency/University Contact.
(iii)    A description of the property damage.
(iv)    A briefdetailed description of the incident.
(v)    An estimate of the amount of lossdamage.
(C)    The Agency Risk Management Coordinator shall complete all preliminary investigations following a property loss incident and send a completed "Standard Party Loss Report" and any other pertinent information that is the result of a thorough investigation to the Risk Management Division. All investigative information and loss data shall be submitted within ten working days from the date of first awareness of a loss, unless an extension of date is approved by the Administrator.
(4)    Losses occurring due to the negligence of the insured or insuredsinsured's contractor may result in no coverage being provided under the Risk Management property insurance program. In such case, Risk Management reserves the right to make a determination as to liability, extent of loss and amount which Risk Management may reimburse insured for the loss. It is the responsibility of the insured to determine whether contractors are adequately insured prior to any remodel, renovation or new construction.
(5)    Losses to buildings that completed the design/build phase after January 1, 2023 must comply with current building codes. Documentation substantiating inspections for all phases of construction must be provided. Buildings constructed after this date that do not meet these parameters may result in denial of coverage.
(6)    Other conditions under which coverage is provided will be specified in an annual statement of coverage issued by the Risk Management Administrator and subject to commercial policy terms and conditions. Failure to comply with terms and conditions in 260:70-11-2(f) or in the annual statement of coverage may result in denial of coverage.
(ge)     Questions and loss reporting. If there are any questions or to report a loss, contact the Risk Management DivisionDepartment.
(hf)     Time Limit to FileComplete a Claim. A final claim along with all the requested supporting documentation must be submitted, reviewed and approvedto Risk Management within 2two (2) years of the date of the incident or the claim will be considered invalid. After two (2) years, if the repairs have not been completed and documentation provided, no additional funds may be available.
[OAR Docket #23-566; filed 6-16-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 120.  State Use Committee Operational ProceduresProgram
[OAR Docket #23-618]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
260:120-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
260:120-1-2. Definitions [AMENDED]
260:120-1-3. State Use Program Qualifications [AMENDED]
260:120-1-4. Determination of fair market price [AMENDED]
260:120-1-5. Procurement schedule [AMENDED]
260:120-1-8. Protests and/or Grievances [AMENDED]
260:120-1-9. List of jobs [REVOKED]
260:120-1-10. Meetings [REVOKED]
260:120-1-11. Reports [AMENDED]
260:120-1-12. Contract Levy [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
74 O.S. Section 3001.1 Office of Management and Enterprise Services State Purchasing Director; 62 O.S. §34.6 A.8 the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
February 27, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 23, 2023
ADOPTION:
February 21, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 27, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 14, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The rules and regulations are necessary to promote and enhance effective operation of the State Use Program. The effect of the amended rules is to provide for the continued efficiency, responsiveness, the correction of citations and scrivener's errors, and changes to improve the clarity of the rules.
The purpose of this rulemaking action is to make the rules consistent with statutory changes, to update citations and scrivener's errors, to improve the clarity of the rules, correct omissions and streamline to promote and enhance operation through the removal of inaccurate or redundant verbiage and simplify language. Changes may also be made to reduce administrative burdens on state agencies where possible. These changes do not constitute any intrusion or add any costs which would not exist if there were no rules.
CONTACT PERSON:
Tim Tuck, Deputy General Counsel, (405) 521-2403
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 14, 2023:
260:120-1-1.  Purpose
     This subchapter contains the procedures and rules for the operations of the State UseCommittee.chapter is to provide information, requirements and procedures for state procurementstaff, suppliers, and state entities subject to the State Use Program authorized in 74 O.S. §3001et seq., to establish fair and consistent acquisition processes that satisfy the needs of the state,provide value, quality and ensures the best interest of all taxpayers. All suppliers and state entities are responsible for knowing the requirements of this chapter in the State Use Program.
260:120-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words orand terms, when used in this subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Committee" means the Oklahoma State Use Committee.
"Contracting Officer" means the person employed by the Department of Central Services as a contracting in the Purchasing Division, appointed by the State Purchasing Director with advice of the Committeemeans a person employed by the Office of Management andEnterprise Services Central Purchasing Division as a contracting officer, appointed by the State Purchasing Director and designated specifically to solicit, develop, and negotiate contracts with agencies and individuals.
"State Purchasing Director" means the director of the Central Purchasing Division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services appointed by the OMES Director.
"FEI" means Federal Employer Identification.
"Individual" means a severely disabled person that is self-employed and has been certified by the Committee to supply products and services, seventy-five percent (75%) of which, is actually manufactured, produced, processed, assembled, performed or offered by the severely disabled person.
"IRS" means the Internal Revenue Service.
"Severely disabled person" means an individual who has a physical or mental disability constituting a substantial handicap to employment and preventing the person from engaging in normal competitive employment and includes any blind person. [74 O.S., Section 3003(4)]
"Substantial handicap to employment" means a residual, limiting physical or mental condition resulting from an injury, disease, or congenital defect which so limits the person's mobility, communication, self-care, self-direction, work tolerance, or work skills that the person is unable to engage in normal competitive employment over an extended period of time.
"The Act" means the provisions of 74 O.S.. Section 3001 et seq. which relate to the purchase of products and services from qualified organizations.
"Qualified nonprofit agency for the severely handicapped" means a nonprofit agency which is certified as a sheltered workshop by the wage and hour division of the U.S. Department of Labor and employing severely disabled persons who constitute at least seventy- five percent (75%) of the personnel engaged in direct production of products or services offered by the agency for procurement by this state. [74 OS., Section 3003(3)]
"Qualified organization" means a blind person, qualified nonprofit agency for the severely handicapped or severely disabled person contracting to supply goods or services. [74 O.S., Section 3003(5)]
260:120-1-3.  State Use Program Qualifications
(a)     Qualification by Committeeto participate in the program. To ensure compliance with the Act, the CommitteeState Purchasing Director shall qualify individuals and nonprofit agencies prior to contract award.
(b)     Individual qualification. An individual shall apply for qualification to the CommitteeState Use Program byand submitsubmitting the following documents to indicate the individual meets the statutory definition of a severely disabledperson with significant disabilities, the individual shall provide:
(1A)    a copy of the application and supporting documentation the individual submitted to the Social Security Administration for determination of disability and a copy of the final disability determination from the Administration.
(2B)    a narrative report, prepared and signed by a person licensed in the state of Oklahoma as a physician describing physical disabilities, or a psychiatrist or psychologist describing mental disabilities. The report shall fully describe the nature of the disability constituting a substantial handicap to employment with supporting medical records; and
(3C)    any additional information the Committeethe State Purchasing Director may require related to work history, vocational assessments, and work-related documents.
(2)    an affidavit that the individual will perform 75% of the work to produce the productsor services the individual offers for procurement by the state; and
(3)    a statement which describes the nature and extent as expressed in a percentage ofwork a subcontractor, other person or entity may perform to produce the products orservices.
(c)     AgencyQualified Organization qualification. A nonprofit agency that has been approved by the Wage and Hour Division of the U.S. Department of Labor as a sheltered workshop shall apply for qualification to the CommitteeState Use Program and submit the following documents that indicate the nonprofit agency meets the requirements of a qualified organization:
(1)    a tax-exempt FEI number issued by the IRS, or a certificate from the IRS verifying that the entity meets the requirements for nonprofit status as defined by the IRS; and,
(2)    an affidavit that the individual will perform 75% of the work to produce the products orservices the individual offers for procurement to the state; and
(23)    a statement describing the nature and extent as expressed in a percentage of the work a subcontractor, other person or entity may perform to produce the products or services the nonprofit agency provides per a contract the CommitteeState Purchasing Director awards.
(34)    a copy of certification as a sheltered workshop issued by the U. S. Department of Labor.
(45)    a current copy of the nonprofit agency's certificate of insurance for worker's compensation insurance.
(d)     Continuation of qualification. No later thanOn January 31st of each year succeeding initial qualification by the CommitteeState Purchasing Director, the qualified organizations shall provide evidence to the CommitteeState Purchasing Director of continued ability to qualify as follows:
(1)    A qualified nonprofit agency for the severely handicappedpersons with significantdisabilities shall submit:
(A)    a current copy of its certification as a sheltered workshop from the U.S. Department of Labor; and
(B)    a report for products and services on the Committee'sState Use Program procurement schedule indicating the qualified nonprofit agency for the severely handicappedperson with significant disabilities total labor hours in direct production by disabled workers and total agency labor hours in direct production by non-disabled workers during the previous calendar year.
(C)    a current copy of the qualified nonprofit agency for the severely handicappedperson with significant disabilities certificate of insurance for worker's compensation insurance.
(2)    An individual shall submit:
(A)    a work history for the previous calendar year that indicates the number of hours the individual worked and the number of hours a subcontractor or other individuals worked in direct production of the products and services on the Committee'sState Use Program procurement schedule; and
(B)    a current physician, psychiatrist or psychologist statement indicating the current status of the condition which constitutes a substantial handicap to employment, which shall include changes in the condition since the previous date of qualification by the CommitteeState Purchasing Director.
(e)     Failure to meet qualifications. Whenever a qualified organization or an individual fails to meet qualifications, the Committee State Purchasing Director may:
(1)    Remove the qualified organization'sorganization or individuals'products and services from the procurement schedule; or,
(2)    Revoke the qualification of the qualified organization; or,
(3)    Cancel awarded contracts to the qualified organization or individual.
(f)     Notice of failure to meet qualifications. The CommitteeState Purchasing Director shall direct the contracting officer to send written notice to the qualified organization or individual at least thirty days prior to the effective date of the action taken pursuant to subsection (e) of this section.
260:120-1-4.  Determination of fair market price
     The contracting officer shall recommend a fair market price for products and services in accordance with the State Use Committee'sProgram approved Fair Market Price Policy and in the manner described in this section.
(1)    The contracting officer shall prepare a current market analysis to determine the fair price for the products or services requisitioned or used by state agencies utilizing internal as well as external sources and established pertinent criteria. When appropriate, the criteria may include, but not be limited to:
(A)    survey of comparable private contracts for like products and services;
(B)    Research of other governmental entities within and outside the State of Oklahoma;
(C)    Comparison, when appropriate, of wholesale and retail pricing of like commodities.
(2)    Based on the data described in OAC 260:120-1-4(1), the contracting officer or designee shall recommend a fair market price with supporting documentation to the CommitteeState Purchasing Director for consideration.
(3)    The Committee shall, by majority vote,State Purchasing Director shall approve, modify, amend or disapprove the recommended fair market price.
(4)    Whenever the CommitteeState Purchasing Director establishes a price, the price shall become the fair market price.
(5)    If the product or service is one for which the pricing does not vary by state agency or location, the fair market price as approved, modified, or amended, shall remain in effect until the CommitteeState Purchasing Director establishes a new fair market price.
(6)    If the product or service is one for which the price does vary depending on the state agency, location, or specifications, the CommitteeState Purchasing Director shall approve, each contract for the product or service.
(7)    If the product or service is one for which fair market has not been established, either because the fair market for the type of product or service has been determined to vary depending on the state agency, location or specifications, the Contracting Officer, with the approval of the State Purchasing Director, is authorized to award a contract in accordance with the State Use Fair Market Price Policy to a qualified individual or organizations, thereby establishing fair market price., which establishment shall be subject to ratification by the Committee at the next regular Committee meeting.
(8)    In the event of an emergency, with approval of the State Purchasing Director, the contracting officer may award a contract to an individual or agency for a maximum period of three (3) months.without prior Committee approval, but subject to Committee approval at the next regular Committee meeting. If the Committee approves the contract, the contract shall terminate at the end of the contract, the contract shall terminate at the end of the contract period.
260:120-1-5.  Procurement schedule
(a)     Compilation of procurement schedule. The contracting officer shall maintain and publish a current list of all products and services offered by qualified organizations or individuals.
(b)     Approval of procurement schedule. The CommitteeState Purchasing Director shall approve items on the list schedule or delete items from the list schedule, consistent with the provisions of the Act, and shall designate the final list schedule of approved itemsproducts and services as the Procurement Schedule. by majority vote. If additional products or services areoffered by individuals or agencies, the Committee may add products and services to the Procurement Schedule by majority vote.
260:120-1-8.  Protests and/or Grievances
(a)     Filing a protest or grievance. Any party who is aggrieved may file a written protest or grievance with the Chairperson of the CommitteeState Purchasing Director within fifteen (15)ten (10) days of the aggrieved action.
(b)     Investigation of protest ora grievance. The ChairpersonState Purchasing Director may assign a protest or grievance to a subcommitteedesignee to investigate and make recommendations to the CommitteeState Purchasing Director for resolving the grievance.
(c)     State Purchsing Director response to a grievance. The State Purchasing Director shall respond in writing to the grieving party within ten (10) days of receipt of the grievance.
(d)     Committee response to protest or grievance. The Committee shall respond in writing to the protesting or grieving party within ninety (90) days of receipt of the protest or grievance.
(cd)     Protest process. All protests of contract awards shall be handled in accordance with provision of OAC 260:115-3-19. shall be handled in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act. [75 O.S., Section 250 et seq.]
260:120-1-9.  List of jobs  [REVOKED]
     The Committee shall publish a catalog listing the jobs that workshops can do for the State of Oklahoma, annually. The list of jobs shall be the Procurement Schedule.
260:120-1-10.  Meetings  [REVOKED]
(a)     Number of regular meetings. The Committee shall conduct a minimum of six meetings per year, in compliance with the Open Meeting Act. The schedule for regular meetings will be adopted at the last regular meeting of each calendar year.
(b)     Special meetings. Special meetings shall be called by the Committee Chairperson.
(c)     Quorum. A majority of all current members of the Committee shall constitute a quorum.
(d)     Request for notices of meeting. Upon written request, the Committee Vice-Chairperson shall notify any person, state agency, qualified organization or contractor, at least ten days prior to meeting dates, and shall make available the minutes of all meetings.
260:120-1-11.  Reports
(a)     Failure to provide reports or documentation. Reports or documentation requested from a qualified organization or individual by the CommitteeState Purchasing Director through the contracting officer, shall be completed within thirty (30) days of the date requested. The CommitteeState Purchasing Director may cancel contracts of otherwise qualified organizations or individuals who fail to provide reports, documentation or information required by utilization terms of a contract.
(b)     Sales to state agencies and other governmental entities political subdivisions other than the state. A qualified organization or individual shall provide a quarterly usage report of purchases made by a political subdivision, excluding state agencies and other governmentalentities, from a contract the CommitteeState Purchasing Director awards. The report shall be in a format prescribed by the State Purchasing Director.include:
(1)    the name and address of each political subdivision;
(2)    total amount of sales made to each political subdivision.
(c)     Notice of contract cancellation. The CommitteeState Purchasing Director shall direct the Contracting Officer to send written notice to a qualified organization or individual at least thirty (30) days prior to the cancellation date of a contract pursuant to subsection (a) of this section.
260:120-1-12.  Contract levy
(a)     Contract levy. Pursuant to 74 O.S., Section 3004.1, a one percent (1%) fee assessment an administrative fee shall be levied against qualified organizations or individuals for every contract awarded under the act for products and servicesof the severely disabled.
(b)     Monthly reports Reports and contract levy administrative fee payments. Qualified organizations or individuals shall submit a monthlyquarterly report by the 15th of each monthto the State Use Contracting Officerno later than forty-five (45) days following the end of each calendar quarter. The report shall contain the total amount of payments received from state agencies and other governmental entities and the one percent (1%) fee assessmentadministrative fee based on the total amount of payments stated in the report.
(c)     Failure to submit monthlyquarterly reports and payments. Any administrative fee assessment payment or usage report that is past due more than sixty (60)forty-five (45) days shall be considered delinquent. TheA written notice of delinquency shall be sent by the State Use Contracting OfficerCentral Purchasing to each qualified organization or individual considered delinquent. The notice shall state the amount due and or the usage report missing and requirements for compliance.
(d)     Revocation of a qualified organization or individual. Failure to provide monthlyquarterly reports and administrative fee payments will be reported to the State Use CommitteeContracting Officer and the State Purchasing Director and may result in the revocation of the "qualified organization"or an individuals' product and/or services being offered on the procurement schedule and/or termination of their contracts.
[OAR Docket #23-618; filed 6-28-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 130.  Civil Service and Human Capital Modernization Rules
[OAR Docket #23-606]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
260:130-1-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. State Employee Dispute Resolution Program
260:130-3-1 [AMENDED]
260:130-3-2 [AMENDED
260:130-3-3 [AMENDED
260:130-3-4 [AMENDED
Subchapter 5. Jurisdiction, Rights and Processes
260:130-5-2 [AMENDED]
260:130-5-8 [AMENDED]
260:130-5-12 [AMENDED]
260:130-5-13 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Hearing Process
260:130-7-2 [REVOKED]
260:130-7-3 [REVOKED]
260:130-7-4 [AMENDED]
260:130-7-5 [AMENDED]
260:130-7-7 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Attorney Fees and Costs
260:130-9-1 [AMENDED]
260:130-9-5 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 21. Performance Evaluation and Career Enhancement Programs
Part 11. Certified Public Manager Program
260:130-21-111 [AMENDED]
260:130-21-112 [AMENDED]
260:130-21-113 [AMENDED]
260:130-21-114 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 23. Office of Veterans Placement
260:130-23-1 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
The Office of Management and Enterprise Services; The Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 62 O.S. Section 34.6(8); The Human Capital Management Division and the Civil Service Division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 62 O.S. Section 34.301.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
March 9, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 09,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 09, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ ANALYSIS:
The amendments to the rules update the process and program required by the Civil Service and Human Capital Modernization Act codified at 62 O.S. Section 34.301.
CONTACT PERSON:
Tracy Osburn, Deputy General Counsel, General Counsel Section, OMES, 2401 North Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73105, (405) 522-3428, tracy.osburn@omes.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
260:130-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning:
"Act" means the Oklahoma Civil Service and Human Capital Modernization Act.
"Action" or "disciplinary action" means issuing a written reprimand, punitively transferring an employee, suspending an employee without pay, involuntarily demoting an employee, or terminating an employee. The action is taken by providing a document in person that specifically states the type of action taken against the employee. In the event the Appointing Authority is unable to provide the document to the employee in person, the Appointing Authority may utilize acceptable electronic means, and the action will be complete upon receipt by the employee.
"Action occurred" means the date the action was taken.
"Administrative Law Judge" or "ALJ" means a person appointed by the Civil Service Division and empowered to preside over prehearing conferences and hearings with power to administer oaths, take testimony, rule on questions of evidence and make final decisions. All ALJs shall be licensed to practice law in the State of Oklahoma and in good standing with the Oklahoma Bar Association.
"Administrative Procedures Act" or "APA" means the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act set forth at Section 250 et seq. of Title 75 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
"Administrator" means the Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services. As the term is used in the Civil Service and Human Capital Modernization Rules, the term includes employees and the Administrator of Human Capital Management of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services to whom the Administrator has lawfully delegated authority to act on his or her behalf.
"Affidavit" means a sworn written statement, made voluntarily, and taken before a person with authority to administer an oath or affirmation.
"Affidavit of service" means a sworn written statement certifying that a motion, request or other document has been provided to other persons.
"Agency" means any office, department, board, commission or institution of the executive branch of state government.
"Allegation" means the claims of a party.
"Allege" means to state, assert or charge; to make an allegation.
"Allocation" or "Position allocation" means the process by which a position is assigned to an established job profile. A position is allocated on the basis of duties, authority, responsibilities, and other appropriate factors.
"Appointing Authority" means the chief administrative officer of an agency. As the term is used in the Rules, the term includes employees of an agency to whom the Appointing Authority has lawfully delegated authority to act on his or her behalf.
"Burden of proof" means the obligation of a party to establish alleged fact(s) by a preponderance of evidence.
"Civil Service Division" means the division within Human Capital Management that is responsible for receiving and hearing complaints as described in the Civil Service and Human Capital Modernization Act set forth at Section 34.301 of Title 62 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
"Civil Service Division Director" means the person designated by Human Capital Management to take action on behalf of the Civil Service Division.
"Complainant" means the state employee filing the complaint.
"Complaint" means, as a verb, the filing of a complaint petition, or as a noun, the procedure that takes place after a complaint petition is filed.
"Consolidation" means the combining of complaints containing the same or similar issues but filed by two (2) or more complainants into a single complaint.
"Continuance" means a postponement of a matter scheduled by Human Capital Management or the mediator to a date certain.
"Demotion" means the reduction in salary of an employee with or without a change in job profile. Demotion may be voluntary or involuntary.
"Deny" means to refuse to grant or accept.
"Disciplinary file" means the record of all disciplinary actions leading up to a written reprimand, punitive transfer, suspension without pay, demotion, or termination, the final action taken, and all relevant supporting documents.
"Dismiss" means to close without further consideration.
"Evidence" means relevant documents or testimony offered to prove or disprove the existence or non-existence of a fact.
"Exempted employee" means an employee to whom the provisions of the Act do not apply. Exempted employees must be designated in the central system of record by the employing executive branch agency. Exempted employees are:
(A)    Persons employed by the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Oklahoma House of Representatives, Oklahoma State Senate, Legislative Service Bureau, or the Legislative Office of Fiscal Transparency;
(B)    Elected officials;
(C)    Political appointees;
(D)    District attorneys, assistant district attorneys or other employees of the district attorney's office;
(E)    The state judiciary or persons employed by the state judiciary; or
(F)    Not more than five percent (5%) of an agency's employees designated as executive management as determined by the agency director. The number of employees shall be determined by the number of active position identification numbers an agency has.;
(G)    Temporary employees employed to work less than one thousand (1,000) hours in any twelve-month period;
(H)    Seasonal employees employed to work less than one thousand six hundred (1,600) hours in any twelve-month period;
(I)    Employees in a trial period; or
(J)    State employees whose employment status is otherwise provided by law.
"Exhibit" means items offered as evidence.
"Ex-parte communication" means communications by anyone with an ALJ or the Civil Service Division Director on the merits of a complaint which could affect its outcome.
"File" or "Filing" means submitting a complaint or other documents on the Civil Service Division's on-line filing system, or any acceptable means determined the Civil Service Division or the receipt of documents by the Civil Service Division.
"Grant" means to give or permit.
"Hearing" means an open, formal proceeding conducted by an ALJ. The proceeding is to provide each party with an opportunity to present evidence in support of their side of the case. The hearing is governed by the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act, Sections 309 through 316 of Title 75 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
"Human Capital Management" or "HCM" means Human Capital Management of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Initial appointment" or "original appointment" means the act of an Appointing Authority hiring a person for the first time as a state employee.
"Job code" means an identifying code that:
(A)    corresponds to a job profile, including, but not limited to, the basic purpose, typical functions performed, and the knowledge, skills, abilities, education, and experience required, and
(B)    does not include FLSA status or pay rate type, and
(C)    identifies the suggested pay range.
"Job family" means:
(A)    jobs which require similar core skills and involve similar work, and
(B)    a logical progression of roles in a specific type of occupation in which the differences between roles are related to the depth and breadth of experience at various levels within the job family and which are sufficiently similar in duties and requirements of the work to warrant similar treatment as to title, typical functions, knowledge, skills, abilities, education, and experience required.
"Job level" or "level" means a role in a job family having distinguishable characteristics such as knowledge, skills, abilities, education, and experience.
"Job profile" means a level in a job family.
"Joinder" means the combining of two (2) or more complaints of one complainant.
"Jurisdiction" means the authority of the Civil Service Division to complete its duties and responsibilities.
"Jurisdictional limitations" means the statutory restrictions on the scope, time limits, and type of appeals which may be considered by the Civil Service Division.
"Mediator" means a person who assists and facilitates the parties involved in a complaint to come to a resolution.
"Minimum qualifications" means the requirements of education, training, experience and other basic qualifications for a job.
"Moot" means no longer in dispute because issues have already been decided or when rendered, a decision could not have any practical effect on the existing dispute.
"Motion" means a request for a ruling to be made by a ALJ or the Civil Service Division Director.
"New position" means a position not previously existing.
"Office of Management and Enterprise Services" means the Human Capital Management Division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Order" means a command or directive given by an ALJ or the Civil Service Division Director.
"Party" means a complainant or respondent.
"Position" means a group of specific duties, tasks and responsibilities assigned by the Appointing Authority to be performed by one person; a position may be part time or full time, temporary, occupied or vacant.
"Prehearing conference" means a proceeding conducted by an ALJ with the parties to identify the issues, documents, witnesses and motions which will guide the ALJ in the conduct of the hearing.
"Preponderance of evidence" means information or evidence which is more convincing or believable than the information or evidence offered in opposition.
"Punitive transfer" means a transfer that is directed at and affects only one employee employed by the Appointing Authority. A punitive transfer must relocate the affected employee to a new worksite that is fifty (50) or more miles from the employee's previous worksite. A transfer that results from a closure of a worksite location or building or affects two or more employees does not qualify as a punitive transfer.
"Reallocation" or "Position reallocation" means the process of reassigning an established position, occupied or vacant, from one job profile to another.
"Reassignment" means the process of changing an employee from one job family to another job family or from one job level to another job level in the same job family, resulting in a change in the employee's assigned job profile.
"Regular and consistent" means, in connection with an employee's work assignments, the employee's usual and normal work assignments, excluding incidental, casual, occasional tasks, and activities the employee assumes without direction to do so. Temporary work assignments of less than sixty (60) days in any twelve (12) month period are not considered regular and consistent.
"Reinstatement" means the reappointment of a former employee and does not trigger the trial period.
"Relevant" means directly related to the issue or issues being examined.
"Remedy" means corrective action sought by or afforded to a party.
"Representative" means the designated attorney of record, who shall be licensed to practice law in the state of Oklahoma identified in the complaint petition or through an entry of appearance or other written means, acting on behalf of a party. An individual other than an attorney licensed to practice law in the state of Oklahoma may act as the representative of the party if approved by the mediator or ALJ.
"Resignation" means an employee's voluntary termination of his or her employment with the state.
"Respondent" or "Responding agency" means the state agency which the complaint has been filed against.
"Rules" means the Civil Service and Human Capital Modernization Rules.
"State employee" or "employee" means an employee [within the executive branch, excluding employees within The Oklahoma State System of Higher Education] in state service afforded the protections under the Act set forth at Section 34.301 of Title 62 of the Oklahoma Statutes and these Rules.
"Stipulation" means a voluntary admission of fact.
"Subpoena" means an order to appear at a certain time and place to give testimony.
"Subpoena Duces Tecum" means an order requiring the production of books, papers and other documents.
"Supervisor" means an employee [within the executive branch, excluding employees within The Oklahoma State System of Higher Education] who has been assigned authority and responsibility for evaluating the performance of other state employees.
"Sustain" means to grant a request; to grant a complaint.
"Testimony" means statements given by a witness under oath or affirmation.
"Trial period" means a working test period lasting for a period of one year following the initial hiring of a state employee into state service, the hiring of an employee who is transferring from one state agency to another state agency, or the hiring of an employee returning to state service following a break in service. The Appointing Authority has the authority to waive the trial period at any time at their discretion.
"Veteran" means any person who served the full obligation for active duty, reserves or National Guard service in the military, or received an early discharge for a medical condition, hardship or reduction in force; and has been separated or discharged from such service honorably or under honorable conditions.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  State Employee Dispute Resolution Program
260:130-3-1.  Purpose, use and scope of State Employee Dispute Resolution Program
(a)     General. The Civil Service Division shall establish and maintain a State Employee Dispute Resolution Program, which may include mediation, to provide dispute resolution services to state agencies and state employees [62:34.301(B)(1)]. When the Civil Service Division is contracted with the Early Settlement Mediation Program through the Administrative Office of the Courts, the State Employee Dispute Resolution Program is subject to the laws and protections of the Dispute Resolution Act found at Title 12, Sections 1801-1813 of the Oklahoma Statutes and rules promulgated thereunder.
(b)     Purpose. The purpose of the State Employee Dispute Resolution Program is to provide an economical means and access to effective alternative dispute resolution services to all state agencies and state employees. The State Employee Dispute Resolution Program affords the parties to a complaint the same equity and impartiality as the hearing process while offering faster, less costly and more flexible ways to resolve disputes.
(c)     Use and Scope. Complaints relating to written reprimands shall only be administered through mediation. Complaints relating to punitive transfer must first go through mediation before proceeding to a hearing if the mediation is unsuccessful. Mediation may also be available for suspensions without pay, involuntary demotions, and terminations.
260:130-3-2.  Mediation
(a)     General. Mediation provides an opportunity for the parties to present and discuss settlement with each other and a mediator in order to resolve the issues of a complaint. The parties may discuss, negotiate and settle any differences or issues to reach a resolution to the complaint. The Civil Service Division will assign a mediator to the complaint as set forth in 260:130-3-4.
(b)     Party responsibility. Each party shall be present and on time. Complainant's failure to do so may result in dismissal of the complaint unless good cause is shown. Each party is expected to negotiate in good faith, without time constraints, and put forth his or her best efforts with the intention to settle, if possible. Even if the parties do not reach a complete settlement, they may reach agreement on various issues.
(1)    The complainant shall speak for himself or herself or with the assistance of a Representative.
(2)    The Appointing Authority shall send one person to speak and act on behalf of the Appointing Authority with full settlement authority and a Representative.
(3)    Each party attending mediation shall have knowledge and the ability to discuss the facts around the action.
(c)     Party submissions. At the mediation, each party shall provide to the mediator a copy of a mediation statement, which shallmay include a proposed settlement offer.
(d)     Representation. Each party to the complaint may have a Representative, as defined within these Rules, accompany him or her to the mediation. Representatives will be expected to take an active role in mediation, but will not be allowed to interrogate or question any party. As set forth above in 260:130-1-1, an individual other than an attorney licensed to practice law in the state of Oklahoma may act as the representative of the party if approved by the mediator or ALJ.
(e)     Mediator. The mediator shall:
(1)    take an active role in the mediation to aid the parties in the discussion of settlement and resolution of the complaint;
(2)    have the flexibility to adapt the mediation to the situation at hand;
(3)    have the authority to require any party to produce documents, limited to the disciplinary file as defined within these Rules, for review at the mediation if to do so will aid in the discussion of settlement and resolution of the complaint. Documents produced and reviewed at the mediation shall not become part of the complaint record at that time; and
(4)    terminate the mediation because of the disruptive behavior or conduct of a party or representative.
(f)     Mediation. The mediation shall be informal, structured by the mediator, and not open to the public. The mediation shall be a confidential procedure and shall not be filmed or taped.
(1)     Notice. At least seven (7) calendar days before the scheduled mediation, the mediator shall notify the parties of the date, time and location of the mediation.
(2)     Location. The mediation shall be held at the appointing authority office or any other location determined appropriate by the mediator.
(3)     Witnesses. Witnesses shall not appear or give testimony at the mediation.
(4)     Caucus. The mediator may call a caucus at any stage of the mediation.
(5)     Continuance. A request for continuance shall be submitted to the mediator in writing no less than three (3) calendar days before the mediation date. The mediator shall follow the requirements of OAC 260:130-5-13 and shall reschedule the mediation ensuring the timing requirements of OAC 260:130-5-13 are followed.
(g)     Agreement. If agreement between the parties is reached, it shall be reduced to writing and signed by each party and the mediator. The agreement shall be reviewed and approved by the Civil Service Division Director or his or her designee for complaints arising from termination, suspension without pay, involuntary demotion, or punitive transfer before dismissal of the complaint shall be entertained. The agreement shall become part of the complaint record. All mediation agreements are enforceable by a court of competent jurisdiction.
(h)     Conclusion. The mediator shall end the mediation when an agreement is reached and reduced to writing. If an agreement is not reached, the mediator shall end the mediation when he or she determines settlement is not possible, unless sooner terminated for just cause. If agreement is not reached:
(1)    a complaint arising from termination, suspension without pay, involuntary demotion, or punitive transfer shall continue on for a prehearing conference and hearing.
(2)    a complaint arising from written reprimand will be considered closed and the agency's action will stand.
260:130-3-3.  State Employee Dispute Resolution Program Mediators
     The Civil Service Division shall be responsible for offering mediation training and certifying all mediators available through the State Employee Dispute Resolution Program. The Civil Service Division will maintain a list of all available mediators. Mediators will be state employees who have completed the Civil Service Division-approved program and applied to the Civil Service Division to be mediators within this program. State employees will not receive additional compensation for working as mediators. Serving as a mediator will be included within the employees' job duties. An employee must have had satisfactory performance ratings, must obtain written approval from his or her supervisor before applying to be a mediator, and submit such approval with his or her application. In the event the Civil Service Division does not have an adequate pool of mediators to assign to complaints and ensure the complaints are mediated within enough time to either resolve the complaint or have the hearing take place within the twenty-five (25) thirty (30) business day requirement set forth in 62 O.S. Section 34.301, the Civil Service Division may utilize other methods of obtaining mediators.
260:130-3-4.  Assignment of mediators
     The Civil Service Division will assign a mediator to every complaint regarding written reprimand and punitive transfer. The Civil Service Division will assign a mediator to complaints regarding termination, suspension without pay, and involuntary demotion if mediation is requested by the complainant in the complaint. A mediator that is a current or former employee of the employing agency named in the complaint will not be assigned. The Civil Service Division may approve a mediator who is a former employee of the employing agency if the former employee has not worked for the employing agency for a period of twenty (20) years and has no knowledge of or relationship to the parties involved in the complaint.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Jurisdiction, Rights and Processes
260:130-5-2.  Time
     Complaints shall be filed with the Civil Service Division within five (5)ten (10) business days of the date of when the termination, suspension without pay, involuntary demotion, written reprimand, or punitive transfer occurred. The action occurs when the employee receives the written notice of the disciplinary action either in person or via acceptable electronic means.
260:130-5-8.  Settlement of complaints
     Settlement discussions are appropriate and encouraged at any stage of the complaint process. The parties may elect to enter into settlement discussions on their own. TheAny settlement agreement shall be submitted withto the Civil Service Division and shall be reviewed and approved before dismissal of the complaint will be entertained. All settlement agreements are enforceable by a court of competent jurisdiction. All settlement agreements will be treated as confidential.
260:130-5-12.  Motions and requests
     Oral motions may be made during a prehearing conference or hearing. All other motions and requests shall be filed in writing and shall state the reason for the motion or request and shall include an affidavit of service to all other parties. Any response to a motion or request shall be filed within the time frame set by the ALJ at the prehearing conference. The ALJ shall ensure that the time frame set for the filing of motions, requests, and responses does not extend past the twenty-five (25)thirty (30) business day limit as set forth in Section 62 O.S. Section 34.301(C).
260:130-5-13.  Continuances
     A request for continuance shall be filed in writing and shall include the cause for the request and a statement of agreement or disagreement by the other party(s). A prehearing conference or hearing may be continued or adjourned by the Civil Service Division or the ALJ. A continuance shall be granted only in those instances where extraordinary circumstances exist and hashave been shown. If granted, a continuance shall be made to a date certain. A request for continuance that extends the hearing or mediation past the twenty-five (25)thirty (30) business day limit as set forth in 62 O.S. Section 34.301(C) will not be granted.
(1)    If granted on behalf of the Civil Service Division or the responding agency, and the complainant is subsequently sustained in the complaint, back pay and other benefits shall be awarded for the entire judgment as determined appropriate by the ALJ.
(2)    If granted on behalf of the complainant and he or she is subsequently sustained in the complaint, back pay and other benefits shall be awarded only for the period of time that the complainant did not delay the complaint as determined appropriate by the ALJ.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Hearing Process
260:130-7-2.  Furnishing of information, attendance of witnesses and production of books, records, etc. and issuing subpoenas  [REVOKED]
     The Civil Service Division or the ALJ, by and through the Civil Service Division, shall have the power to require the furnishing of such information, the attendance of such witnesses, and the production of such books, records, papers or other objects as may be necessary and proper for purposes of the proceeding as allowed by 75 O.S. Section 315 of the Administrative Procedures Act. The Civil Service Division or the ALJ, by and through the Civil Service Division, shall issue subpoenas for witnesses, issue subpoenas duces tecum, and quash subpoenas or subpoenas duces tecum so issued as allowed by and in accordance with 75 O.S. Section 315 of the Administrative Procedures Act.
260:130-7-3.  Taking of depositions  [REVOKED]
     Either party to the complaint may take depositions of witnesses which shall be admissible at the hearing in accordance with 75 O.S. Section 315 of the Administrative Procedures Act.
260:130-7-4.  Hearing
(a)     Purpose. The hearing provides each party the opportunity to present witnesses and evidence as allowed by these Rules in support of his or her respective case for decision by an ALJ. Hearings shall be conducted in accordance with the Act, the Administrative Procedures Act and the Rules in this chapter.
(b)     Party responsibility. Each party shall be present, on time and prepared. Complainant's failure to do so may result in dismissal of the complaint unless extraordinary circumstances exist and are shown.
(c)     Representation. Each party to the complaint may have a Representative, as defined within these Rules, to speak and act on his or her behalf.
(d)     ALJ responsibility. The ALJ shall rule on questions of admissibility of evidence, competency of witnesses and any other matters or questions of law.
(e)     Process. The hearing shall be formal, structured by the ALJ and open to the public. Parts of a hearing may be ordered closed when evidence of a confidential nature is to be introduced or where to do so would be in the best interests of a party, witness, the public or other affected persons. The ALJ shall record the hearing by digital recording and such recording shall constitute the official recording of the hearing.
(1)     Notice. Each party shall be notified of the date, time and location at least seven (7) calendar days prior to the scheduled hearing.
(2)     Location. The hearing shall be held at the Civil Service Division offices or any other location determined appropriate. At the prehearing conference any party may request the hearing be changed to a more convenient location. The ALJ shall rule on the request and may change the location when to do so is in the best interests of the Civil Service Division and parties.
(3)     Witnesses. The ALJ shall administer an oath or affirmation to each witness.
(4)     Continuance. A request for continuance shall be filed in accordance with OAC 260:130-5-13 no less than three (3) calendar days prior to the scheduled hearing. The ALJ, or in his or her absence, the Civil Service Division, shall rule on the request in accordance with OAC 260:130-5-13.
(f)     Witnesses allowed at the hearing. The witnesses allowed at the hearing shall be limited to
(1)    the Human Resources Director or designee;
(2)    the supervisor;
(3)    the employee bringing the complaint;
(4)    additional witnesses approved by the ALJ;
(g)     Documents allowed at the hearing. The documents allowed at the hearing shall be limited to the documents contained in the disciplinary file.
(h)    The ALJ has the discretion to approve the request to provide additional witnesses and documents as necessary.
(i)     Burden of proof. The following burden of proof shall apply to all hearings under the jurisdiction of the Civil Service Division (termination, involuntary demotion, suspension without pay, or punitive transfer). The burden of proof shall be upon the complainant who must prove his or her case by a preponderance of the evidence. that there was no reasonable basis for the disciplinary action by the state agency.
(1)    Upon a finding that a reasonable basis existed for the action taken, an ALJ shall dismiss the complaint.If the Complainant fails to prove that there was no reasonable basis for the disciplinary action by the state agency, the ALJ shall dismiss the complaint;
(2)    Upon a finding that a reasonable basis did not exist for the action taken, an ALJ may order the reinstatement of the employee, with or without back pay and other benefits.If the Complainant proves that there was no reasonable basis for the disciplinary action by the state agency, an ALJ may order the reinstatement of the employee, with or without back pay and other benefits. An ALJ may also order that documentation of the disciplinary action be expunged from any and all of the employee's personnel records and disciplinary file.
(3)    An ALJ who orders reinstatement with back pay and other benefits under (B)(2) above, may consider the deduction of any income the employee may have received for the period of time the employee was not performing his or her duties.
260:130-7-5.  Methods of testimony
(a)    This section shall not limit the authority of the Civil Service Division to compel any witnesswitnesses allowed by these Rules to appear and offer testimony. Upon written request and approval by the ALJ, an affidavit, video conference, electronic communication, and telephone communication may be used when a witness or party is unable to attend or testify because of good reason.
(b)    The parties to any action before the Civil Service Division are responsible for ensuring that the technology is available to all participants for conducting a video conference.
260:130-7-7.  Decisions
     The ALJ shall file a proposed order with the Civil Service Division within ten (10) calendar days after the record is closed. The proposed order shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, written in clear and concise language.The Civil Service Division delegates the authority to issue the final order to the ALJ. The ALJ shall prepare the final order and submit it to the Civil Service Division within ten (10) calendar days after the record is closed. The final order shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, written in clear and concise language.
(1)    The Civil Service Division shall issue the final decisionorder to each party, by personal service or certified mail and by submission on the online filing system, within fifteen (15)five (5) calendar days after receipt of the proposed orderfrom the ALJ.
(2)    The determination of the ALJ and decision by the Civil Service Division shall be final and conclusive except as provided in the Administrative Procedures Act.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Attorney Fees and Costs
260:130-9-1.  Award
(a)     General. The ALJ of any hearing may order payment of reasonable attorney fees and costs to the prevailing party if the position of the non-prevailing party was without reasonable basis or was frivolous.
(b)     Burden of proof. The prevailing party shall bear the burden of proof that he or she is entitled to an award of attorney fees and costs by a preponderance of the evidence.
(c)     Showing of proof. To be entitled to an award of attorney fees and costs, the prevailing party shall be deemed to have prevailed if he or she received all or a significant part of the relief sought through the complaint. Attorney fees shall not be awardable for non-attorney pro-se representation. There shall be a finding that the non-prevailing party's position was without reasonable basis or was frivolous.
(d)     Standards. The without reasonable basis or frivolous standard includes, but is not limited to:
(1)    where the non-prevailing party's action was clearly without merit or was wholly unfounded;
(2)    where the non-prevailing party initiated an action against the prevailing party in bad faith, including where the action was brought to harass or intimidate the prevailing party; or
(3)    where the non-prevailing party committed a gross procedural error which prolonged the proceeding or severely prejudiced the prevailing party; and.
(e)     Decision. The decision to award attorney fees is solely within the discretion of the ALJ.
260:130-9-5.  Frivolous appealscomplaints
     Any party may be assessed attorney fees and costs if the Civil Service Division or the ALJ determines a complaint is frivolous. A request for attorney fees and costs of processing a complaint shall comply with the provisions of this section.
SUBCHAPTER 21.  Performance Evaluation and Career Enhancement Programs
PART 11.  CERTIFIED PUBLIC MANAGER PROGRAM
260:130-21-111.  Definitions
     In addition to words and terms defined in OAC 260:130-1-2, the following words and terms when used in this Part shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Organizations" means municipalities, counties, Indian Nations, and the federal government.
"Program" means the Certified Public Manager Program®.
"Training section"cohort" means a group of participants who complete the program in the same period of time.
260:130-21-112.  Program description
(a)     Eligibility. Employees of state agencies in all branches of state government who are nominated by the Appointing Authority or designee may apply to participate in the Program. Additionally, employees of organizations who are nominated by the chief administrative officer or designee may participate in the Program.
(b)     Nomination procedure. The nomination process and/or criteria will be determined by each agency. The Certified Public Manager Program® nomination form and information booklet are available from the Human Capital Management Division.Within the process of administration of the program by the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, each agency or organization can determine their nominees. The nomination form solicits information about the nominee and the nominating agency or organization and shall be signedsubmitted by the nominee, the nominee's supervisor, andor the agency's Appointing Authority or designee or the organization's chief administrative officer or designee. The information booklet provides information about the nomination process, a description of the Program, coursescompetencies required to complete the Program, and the role of Higher Education in the Program. The agency or organization may nominate an employee for participation in the Program during designated enrollment periods by forwardingsubmitting a completed nomination form to the Certified Public Manager Program® at the Human Capital Management Division prior to the end of the enrollment period.
(c)     Enrollment in the Program. The Administrator shall enroll an employee in the Certified Public Manager Program®who has been nominated by his or her agency or organization in the first available training sectionwho has successfully completed the enrollment process, outlined in the information booklet.
(d)     Communication with the Human Capital Management Division. Interested persons may direct communications to the attention of the Oklahoma Certified Public Manager Program®.
(e)     Experience credit. Graduation from the Program as a "Certified Public Manager®" shall substitute for one (1) year of professional experience in business or public administration on any job class requiring such experience as part of the minimum qualifications.
260:130-21-113.  Program requirements for candidates
(a)     Graduation requirements. To graduate from the Program as a "Certified Public Manager®", a candidate shall complete all of the following graduation requirements offered during the eighteen (18) month training sectiontwelve (12) month training cohort:
(1)    AttendComplete all scheduled courses, project sessions, and learning events prescribed by the Human Capital Management Division and specified in the information packet.
(2)    The remaining hours shall be in program pre-work requirements and other assignments.
(3)    Attend at least 75 percent of the scheduled class dates. Make-up work will be provided for all in-person classes. Candidates should not consistently be more than twenty-five (25) percent overdue at any time within the program. Even if all makeup work is completed, but the candidate has failed to attend at least seventy-five (75) percent of the required scheduled sessions, they are eligible to be removed from the training sectioncohort.
(4)    Pay the Program fees described in 260:130-21-115 in full before graduation. The Human Capital Management Division will establish the payment schedule for the fees and publish it on the OMES CPM website.
(b)     Removal of a candidateWithdrawal from the Program. The candidate, nominating agency, or organization and the Administrator shall have the right to remove a candidate from the Program. Any candidate who fails to complete a training section will be given the greater of two (2) additional training section cycles or three years to re-enroll in another training section without being charged. Hours earned for sessions attended or work completed in a previous training section are not transferable to another training section.An acknowledgement from the candidate, agency representative, and CPM administrators will be completed for any candidate withdrawal from the program, including removal from the program.
260:130-21-114.  Program requirements for nominating agency or organization
     The nominating agency or organization shall:
(1)    Provide time for the candidate, during his or her work day, to attend training courses, including the Capstone, prepare class assignments, study for examinations, and work on Program projects.
(2)    Allow candidates to use agency or organization issueschallenges for classroom, project, and portfolio assignments; Provide financial support to agency candidates, as required by the Program.
(3)    Review and approve employee absences for scheduled cohort dates prior to sending the nomination to HCM.
(4)    Allow managers to participate in the employee's involvement in the program for activities such as attending project presentations, answering survey questions or providing employee assessments.
SUBCHAPTER 23.  Office of Veterans Placement
260:130-23-1.  Office of Veterans Placement
     The Office of Veterans Placement is created within Human Capital Management of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services. Services of the Office of Veterans Placement shall include employment counseling, assistance in identifying transferable military skills, qualifications and career assessment, assistance in drafting competitive resumes, instruction in developing comprehensive job search strategies and job placement assistance. Veterans who utilize the Office of Veterans Placement shall be guaranteed a reasonable offer of an interview for qualifying state service positions. Questions regarding reasonable interview offers will be reviewed by the Office of Veterans Placement. Such veterans will only be granted an interview for those jobs that the Office of Veterans Placement have determined to be an appropriate match for each veteran. The veteran will be required to present a letter from Oklahoma's Office of Veterans Placement to the hiring agency evidencing this requirement. Program eligible veteran complaints regarding an agency's hiring practices will be reviewed by the Office of Veterans Placement. After attempting to resolve these complaints at the lowest level possible, the complaints will be sent to that agency's human resources director, with a copy sent to the agency director, for review. This section shall not apply to special disabled veterans who are considered for employment under the provisions of Sections 401 through 404 of Title 72 of the Oklahoma Statutes. Provided, said veterans may elect instead to be considered for employment according to the procedures set out in this section.
[OAR Docket #23-606; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 260.  Office of Management and Enterprise Services
CHAPTER 135.  Service Oklahoma
[OAR Docket #23-667]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Chapter 135. Service Oklahoma [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Service Oklahoma, a division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 47 O.S. Section 3-101; The Director of Service Oklahoma; 47 O.S. Section 3-103; The Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services; 62 O.S. §34.3.1; 62 O.S. Section 34.6(8).
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 15, 2022 through January 23, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 24, 2023
ADOPTION:
February 21, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 23, 2023
APPROVED BY LEGISLATURE:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Chapter 135: Service Oklahoma [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
October 4, 2022
Register publication:
40 OK Reg 359
Docket number:
23-802
Superseded rules:
Chapter 135: Service Oklahoma [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
November 1, 2022
Register publication:
40 OK Reg 418
Docket number:
23-879
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
These rules create new rules related to the administrative operations of Service Oklahoma and amend existing rules that were transferred from the Department of Public Safety and the Oklahoma Tax Commission by HB3419. The transferred rules have remaining references to the Department of Public Safety and the Oklahoma Tax Commission that need to be permanently changed to Service Oklahoma. These proposed rules make the reference changes required by the passage of HB3419 to transfer the applicable powers, duties, and responsibilities exercised by the Driver License Services Division of the Department of Public Safety and the Motor Vehicle Services Division of the Oklahoma Tax Commission to Service Oklahoma.
CONTACT PERSON:
April Kelso, Senior Director of Partnerships & Policy, (405) 522-0204

DUE TO THE EXCESSIVE LENGTH OF THESE RULES (AS DEFINED IN OAC 655:10-7-12), THE FULL TEXT OF THESE RULES WILL NOT BE PUBLISHED. THE RULES ARE AVAILABLE FOR PUBLIC INSPECTION AT SERVICE OKLAHOMA, 6015 N. CLASSEN BLVD., BUILDING FOUR, OKLAHOMA CITY, OK 73118 AND AT THE SECRETARY OF STATE’S OFFICE OF ADMINISTRATIVE RULES. THE FOLLOWING SUMMARY HAS BEEN PREPARED PURSUANT TO 75 O.S., SECTION 255(B):

These rules are necessary to comply with deadlines set forth in Service Oklahoma's governing law. Service Oklahoma was created on May 19, 2022 with the enactment of HB3419. The applicable powers, duties, and responsibilities exercised by the Driver License Services Division of the Department of Public Safety shall be fully transferred to Service Oklahoma on November 1, 2022 and the applicable powers, duties, and responsibilities exercised by the Motor Services Division of the Oklahoma Tax Commission shall be fully transferred to Service Oklahoma on January 1, 2023.
[OAR Docket #23-667; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 300.  Grand River Dam Authority
CHAPTER 1.  Operations and Procedures
[OAR Docket #23-583]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Purpose and Definitions
300:1-1-2 [AMENDED]
300:1-1-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Administrative Operations
300:1-3-2 [AMENDED]
300:1-3-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Rulemaking and Declaratory Rulings
300:1-5-2 [AMENDED]
300:1-5-3 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Grand River Dam Authority; 82 O.S. 2019 § 861A(B)(1), 82 O.S. 2019 § 863.2(B)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
December 22, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 18, 2023 through February 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
February 21, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 9, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 15, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Grand River Dam Authority's principal administrative office relocated from Vinita, Oklahoma to Chouteau, Oklahoma and the address has been updated in the rules. The general description of the Authority has been expanded to include the additional responsibility of preservation of designated scenic rivers pursuant to 82 O.S. § 896.5. The defined term of "General Manager" has been replaced with the current title of "Chief Executive Officer" and has been updated throughout the chapter.
CONTACT PERSON:
Tamara Jahnke, Assistant General Counsel, (918) 610-9686, tamara.jahnke@grda.com.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Purpose and Definitions
300:1-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"APA" means and refers to the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act set forth at 75 O.S. §205.1 et seq., as amended.
"Authority" or "GRDA" means the Grand River Dam Authority.
"General Manager""Chief Executive Officer" means the General Manager, who is the Chief Executive Officer of the Authority as defined in 82 O.S. § 864, as amended.
"OAC" means and refers to the Oklahoma Administrative Code prepared by the Secretary of State pursuant to the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act.
"Person" means an individual, firm, corporation, association or partnership and includes agent, employee and principal, and unless otherwise specified shall include governmental agencies, political subdivisions, public trusts and any other legal entity.
300:1-1-3.  General description of the Grand River Dam Authority
(a)    The Grand River Dam Authority is a body corporate and politic and an instrumentality of the State of Oklahoma created pursuant to 82 O.S. § 861 et seq., as amended. The Authority is a conservation and reclamation district and was created, generally, to control, store and preserve, the waters of the Grand River and its tributaries; to develop and generate water power and electric power; and to buy, sell, resell, interchange and distribute electric power and energy. The Authority owns and controls the Oklahoma lakes and dams known as "Grand Lake O'The Cherokees" (Pensacola Dam), Lake Hudson (Robert S. Kerr Dam), and the "W.R. Holway Reservoir" (Chimney Rock Dam, Salina Pumped-Storage Project). Additionally, the Authority is charged with preservation of the following designated scenic rivers for the benefit of the people of Oklahoma pursuant to 82 O.S. § 896.5:
(1)    The Flint Creek in Delaware County;
(2)    The Illinois River in Adair, Delaware and Cherokee Counties above its confluence with the Barren Fork Creek;
(3)    The Barren Fork Creek in Adair and Cherokee Counties from the present alignment of U.S. Highway 59 West to its confluence with the Illinois River;
(4)    The Upper Mountain Fork River above the 600-foot elevation level of Broken Bow Reservoir in McCurtain and LeFlore Counties;
(5)    Big Lee Creek in Sequoyah County, above the 420-foot MSL elevation; and
(6)    Little Lee Creek in Adair and Sequoyah Counties.
(b)    No tax monies are received or spent to operate the Authority. The general administrative offices of the Authority are located at 226 W. Dwain Willis Avenue, Vinita, Oklahoma 74301-04098624 OK-412B, Chouteau, Oklahoma 74337.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Administrative Operations
300:1-3-2.  General course and method of operation
     The following is the general course and method of operation for the Authority.
(1)     Office(s). The principal Administrative OfficeCenter of the Authority is located at 226 W. Dwain Willis Avenue, Vinita, Oklahoma 74301-04098624 OK-412B, Chouteau, Oklahoma 74337. The Post Office Box address is: P.O. Box 409669, VinitaChouteau, Oklahoma 74301-040974337.
(2)     Transaction of business. Members of the public and others desiring to contact or make inquiries and submissions to the Authority may do so in person at the principal Administrative OfficeCenter of the Authority, during normal and usual business hours, 8:00 a.m. to 4:45 p.m. Monday through Friday, or by mail addressed to: The Grand River Dam Authority, P.O. Box 409669, VinitaChouteau, Oklahoma 74301-040974337.
(3)     Copies of rules.
(A)    Copies of all rules adopted by the Authority, other written statements of policy or interpretations of general applicability, declaratory rules, orders or other documents as may be required by law, may be inspected, unless otherwise provided for by law, for proper purposes and in a proper manner, at the principal Administrative OfficeCenter of the Authority during its normal business hours. Copies of rules adopted by the Authority are also on file and available for public inspection at the Oklahoma Administrative Rules Office, a division of the Office of the Secretary of State.
(B)    Fees and charges may be collected for copies, searches and other activities relating to records as allowed by law.
(4)     Meetings. Meetings of the Board of Directors of the Authority are conducted in compliance with the Oklahoma Open Meeting Act and other applicable law. All meetings of the Authority are open to the public except as otherwise provided for by law.
(A)    Members of the public may request that a matter be placed on the agenda, but the final determination as to matters placed on the agenda shall be made by the General ManagerChief Executive Officer or Chair of the Authority.
(B)    Individuals desiring to appear before and be heard by the Board of Directors on agenda items must make written requests for same. Such requests must be in the office of the General ManagerChief Executive Officer at least three (3) working days prior to the date of the Board meeting at which they desire to be heard. Requests to appear and be heard shall be made in writing to the General ManagerChief Executive Officer at the Administrative officesCenter in VinitaChouteau, Oklahoma.
(C)    Individuals who have not made a written request in accordance with the above provisions shall not be heard at the meeting except with the approval of a majority of the Board of Directors present at the meeting provided that an item which is not on the agenda shall not be discussed except as may be allowed for new business under the Open Meeting Act.
300:1-3-3.  Reproduction of records and copies
(a)    The Authority will furnish copies of records as promptly as practicable upon receipt of a sufficiently specific request and payment of advance applicable costs.
(b)    The General ManagerChief Executive Officer will appoint one or more persons of the Authority staff to act as the Open Records contact person(s). All requests for the public records will be made upon this person(s) who will be charged with making the public records available for inspection by or copying to the requesting party during normal office hours. The contact person(s) will determine whether the request is for a record not otherwise made confidential under Oklahoma law.
(c)    The expense of a document search and copying shall be borne by the party requesting same in accordance with the fee schedule established by the Authority or by statute.
(d)    All public records of the Authority shall be made available for public inspection at the administrative offices of the Authority during regular business hours.
(e)    Such records shall not be removed from the Authority's office or the Authority's custody and control for the purpose of inspection. Any person inspecting records of the Authority may be accompanied and supervised by an Authority employee.
(f)    The following are fees for reproduction of records:The Authority will assess fees for the reproduction of records pursuant to its fee schedule, which is available on the Authority's website and in the office of the County Clerk of Mayes County.
(1)    Paper Records
(A)    Regular copy - $0.25 per page
(B)    Certified copy - $1.00 per page
(C)    Copy sent by fax - $0.35 per page
(D)    Copy of pages larger that 8-1/2 x 11 - $0.50 per page
(2)    Audio Tapes
(A)    With tape provided - $5.00 per tape
(B)    Without tape provided - $10.00 per tape.
(3)    Electronic Records - Requester is required to furnish blank tape(s) if reproduction is not in a printout format.
(A)    $50.00 per hour programming time
(B)    $1,850.00 per CPU hour
(C)    $50.00 per hour for other computer time.
(4)    Search Fees - $25.00 per hour
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Rulemaking and Declaratory Rulings
300:1-5-2.  Policies and procedures for rulemaking
(a)     General policies. In proposing, considering, adopting, amending or repealing rules and taking other actions of general applicability, the Authority shall act in full compliance with the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act and other applicable provisions of law.
(b)     Cumulative effect of rules. The contents of this Chapter shall be cumulative to other rules of the Authority and shall not nullify, replace or supersede other currently effective rules and regulations adopted by the Authority.
(c)     Severability of rules. The provisions of the various sections of this Chapter and of every other currently effective rules adopted by the Authority are severable. If any parts or provisions of any such rule shall be held void, the decision of the court so holding shall not affect or impair any of the remaining parts or provisions of such rule.
(d)     Lake rules. Pursuant to 82 O.S. § 861A(B)(1), as amended, rules relating to the waters of the Grand River and its tributaries do not have to be promulgated pursuant to the APA. The Authority, on its own initiative, may, from time to time, repeal, amend or adopt Lake Rules. Public input may be solicited.
(e)     Hearings. The Authority may hold a public hearing in connection with the promulgation of rules as required by the APA.
(f)     Request for promulgation, amendment or repeal of rules. An interested person may request the Authority to promulgate, amend, or repeal a rule. Such request must be in writing and must state the reasons supporting the proposed rule, amendment or repeal. The request must also state whether the proposal conflicts with any existing rule. Further, the request must state what statutory provisions, if any, authorize the proposed rule, amendment or repeal. The request must be signed by the requester. Such requests must be submitted to the Authority's Legal Department at its Administrative Office in Vinita,9933 East 16th Street, Tulsa, Oklahoma 74128.
300:1-5-3.  Requests for declaratory rulings
(a)    Any interested person or entity may petition the Authority for a declaratory ruling as to the applicability of any rule of the Authority. The petition shall be addressed to the Legal Department of the Authority at the administrative office in Vinita,9933 East 16th Street, Tulsa, Oklahoma 74128.
(b)    The petition must identify the rule questioned, the date on which such rule became effective, and shall summarize the contents of the rule. The petition shall contain a brief statement of the issue or issues raised by the rule which cause such a request to be made, and a statement of the petitioner's personal interest in the ruling of the Authority and how a ruling of the Authority would affect those interests.
(c)    Upon receipt of the petition for declaratory ruling, the Authority shall consider the petition and within a reasonable time following receipt thereof, either deny the petition in writing with the reasons for denial, submit the petition to the Board of Directors for consideration and decision, or issue a declaratory ruling on the matter(s) contained in the petition.
[OAR Docket #23-583; filed 6-22-23]

TITLE 300.  Grand River Dam Authority
CHAPTER 20.  Acquisition Policy
[OAR Docket #23-584]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
300:20-1-1 [AMENDED]
300:20-1-4 [AMENDED]
300:20-1-9 [AMENDED]
300:20-1-12 [AMENDED]
300:20-1-13 [AMENDED]
300:20-1-15 [AMENDED]
300:20-1-17 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Grand River Dam Authority; 82 O.S. 2019 § 861A(B)(1), 82 O.S. 2019 § 863.2(B)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
December 22, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 18, 2023 through February 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
February 21, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 9, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 15, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The $100.00 limit per fiscal year is proposed to be removed from memorials to individuals and entities whose activities have contributed to the mission of Grand River Dam Authority. The term "General Manager" has been replaced with the updated title of "Chief Executive Officer."
CONTACT PERSON:
Tamara Jahnke, Assistant General Counsel, (918) 610-9686, tamara.jahnke@grda.com.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
300:20-1-1.  Introduction to acquisition rules
(a)     General. These rules explain and facilitate understanding of the Authority's functions related to acquisitions.
(b)     Application of the rules. These rules are expressly designed to implement the Board's policy and state law. Procedures will conform to changes in rule or law and when necessary, procedures will be modified to refine the acquisition process. These rules shall apply to all GRDA acquisitions except where noted otherwise herein. These rules do not apply to repairs, construction, or improvements to GRDA facilities or land that are governed by Title 61 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
(c)     Repairs, construction, or improvements to GRDA facilities and land. For purchases for repair, construction or improvements to GRDA facilities or land that are governed by the provisions of Title 61 of the Oklahoma Statutes, GRDA will utilize forms and processes comparable to those prescribed by the Office of Management and Enterprise Services ("OMES") Construction and Properties Division. Where the provisions of Title 61 and the rules promulgated thereunder refer to the "Construction and Properties Division" the GRDA Central Purchasing Unit shall perform the duties of the OMES Construction and Properties Division for GRDA purchases when GRDA is allowed under Title 61 to perform such processes or assume such responsibilities. Where the provisions of Title 61 or related administrative rules applicable thereto refer to the "Construction and Properties Division Administrator" or "Administrator" the employee designated by the GRDA Chief Financial Officer shall assume such responsibilities, in instances where the Construction and Properties Division has delegated such authority to state agencies or GRDA.
(d)     Exempt from competitive bidding processes. Acquisitions of professional services as defined in Section 803 of Title 18 or acquisitions pursuant to the Oklahoma State Interlocal Cooperation Act, as well as power capacity, energy, transmission and ancillary services, insurance, banking, consulting services, government relations or business expense acquisitions described in Section 300:20-1-15(c), employee training, conference registration, employment services, or utility acquisitions (including services, equipment, and materials related to the supply or provision of electrical power and energy) are exempt from the competitive bidding processes described herein. Similarly, the acquisition of coal, natural gas, or other energy resources may be confidential or may require special acquisition processes. Therefore the selection of vendors for these products or services may deviate from the guidelines set forth herein. Acquisitions for financial services, underwriting, or other bond issuance services may require special acquisition processes that will be coordinated with the State Bond Advisor's office or the Board of Director's Audit, Finance, Budget and Policy Committee.
(e)     Definitions.
(1)     Acquisition. The process of obtaining items, products, materials, supplies, services (including construction), and equipment by purchase, lease-purchase, lease with option to purchase or rental pursuant to the GRDA Acquisition Policy and Procedures and applicable State laws and directives.
(2)     Acquisition approval or signature authority. The approval delegated by the Board of Directors or General ManagerChief Executive Officer for a GRDA employee to approve a purchase order or resulting payment thereof.
(3)     Bid. The cost proposal submitted by a vendor in response to a request or solicitation from the GRDA for a project described in plans and/or specifications provided by GRDA.
(4)     Board of directors. The rule-making authority and governing body of the Grand River Dam Authority as defined by 82 O.S. § 863.2.
(5)     Central purchasing unit. The specialist unit within the GRDA Finance Department that is responsible for supervising and managing the acquisitions of materials, supplies, and services that are used by the Authority and for administering acquisition policies, rules, and procedures.
(6)     Emergency acquisition. An acquisition made without following normal acquisition procedures in order to obtain goods or services to meet an urgent and unexpected requirement. An "Emergency" shall be identified as: an event that consists of one or more of the following:
(A)    Correction of an immediate hazardous condition which affects the safety of personnel or the public health;
(B)    Prevention of immediate damage to property or the reduction in reliability of electric generating equipment;
(C)    Avoidance of purchase of alternative power to replace otherwise generated power;
(D)    Maintenance of the efficient and orderly completion of work-in-progress;
(E)    Correction of an immediate regulatory compliance deficiency;
(F)    To obtain needed items when market conditions (e.g. natural disaster, terrorist act, etc.) limit the product or service availability, or when vendors may not be able to quote firm prices as would be possible under normal market conditions;
(G)    To prevent or minimize the serious disruption of services to customers;
(H)    To keep facilities operating, to ensure continuous transmission service, or when a Board meeting has been cancelled and thus it is necessary to avoid disruption of the acquisition process when a bid may expire prior to the next regularly scheduled Board meeting;
(I)    Emergency acquisitions made pursuant to Title 61 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
(7)     General manager or chiefChief executive officer. The GRDA employee who has oversight and managerial responsibility over all GRDA functions and is selected by the Board of Directors of the Grand River Dam Authority as authorized by 82 O.S. § 864.A.2.
(8)     GRDA or authority. The Grand River Dam Authority, a governmental agency of the State of Oklahoma, as defined by 82 § 816, et seq.
(9)     Low Dollar Acquisition. An acquisition for goods or services that does not exceed the competitive bid dollar threshold as determined by the General ManagerChief Executive Officer.
(10)     Procedures. Procedures are the prescribed means of complying with the applicable statutes and rules. Procedures provide GRDA personnel with the guidelines and, where appropriate, specific action sequences to ensure uniformity, compliance and control of all policy-related activities.
(11)     Solicitation. An invitation for bids, a request for proposal, telephone calls, or any document or method used to obtain bids or proposals for the purpose of entering into a contract.
300:20-1-4.  Responsibilities
(a)    The Board of Directors is responsible for promulgating comprehensive Acquisition Rules, and for approving or delegating approval of acquisitions.
(b)    The General ManagerChief Executive Officer shall have authority to approve acquisitions as may be delegated by the Board of Directors.
(c)    Subject to the approval of the Board of Directors, the General ManagerChief Executive Officer may delegate acquisition approval to other employees of the Authority and determine the dollar threshold for acquisitions that must be competitively bid.
(d)    The Central Purchasing Unit has the responsibility for obligating the Authority and for making the final determination of source of supply, ultimate quantities acquired, delivery schedule, price, and commercial terms. These decisions will be made in conjunction with other departments as appropriate.
(e)    The Central Purchasing Unit is to serve as the exclusive channel through which all requests regarding prices and products are handled. This Unit and no other shall conduct all communications with suppliers involving prices or quotations. Close communication and coordination between the Central Purchasing Unit and the department requesting supplies must occur. The General ManagerChief Executive Officer is responsible for determining the dollar threshold for those acquisitions that may be competitively bid by departments or units of the Authority outside of the Central Purchasing Unit. Subsections (d) and (e) do not apply to emergency acquisitions and low-dollar acquisitions or acquisitions competitively bid by departments, units, or employees other than the Central Purchasing Unit.
(f)    The Authority shall maintain a uniform set of procedures and forms to service the competitive bid process in accordance with the dollar thresholds determined by the General ManagerChief Executive Officer, the process for non-competitive acquisitions (sole source, sole brand, State Use, etc.), and other acquisition matters, including, but not limited to, evaluation, award, change orders, contract administration, or disputes. Central Purchasing Unit personnel and any other designated department, unit, or personnel are responsible for obtaining bids on all material or services covered under these rules as described herein or the internal uniform procedures.
(g)    The Central Purchasing Unit with the approval of the General ManagerChief Executive Officer may develop, test, utilize, or implement new or alternative acquisition procedures and practices that hold potential for making the Authority's acquisition process more effective and efficient or to be consistent with industry practices. Examples of such acquisition procedures and practices may include, but not be limited to, contract negotiations, reverse auctioning, electronic commerce for online solicitations, notifications, and award. If such practices substantially vary with any procedures herein, the General ManagerChief Executive Officer will notify the Board of such variances on the monthly Acquisition report provided to the Board.
300:20-1-9.  Purchases for employees
     It shall be the duty of the Central Purchasing Unit to make acquisitions for the Authority and not attempt to invest Authority time in acquisitions for the personal gain of its employees. This policy does not include the Authority's program for supplying safety equipment for the employee at discounted rates, to acquisitions made for employee recognition purposes as may be allowed by state statutes, or such other acquisitions that may be approved by the General ManagerChief Executive Officer.
300:20-1-12.  Change orders
     All change orders shall be approved by the General ManagerChief Executive Officer or designee, unless otherwise required by statute to be approved by the Board of Directors.
300:20-1-13.  Emergency acquisition orders
     In the event the General ManagerChief Executive Officer or designee determines that an emergency exists requiring acquisition of an item or service or a series of related items or services, to ensure continued operation of transmission and generation capabilities, or as otherwise defined in Rule 300:20-1-1(e)(6), and the total cost exceeds the dollar threshold delegated to the General ManagerChief Executive Officer by the Board of Directors, the General ManagerChief Executive Officer may declare an emergency situation and immediately authorize the acquisition of necessary materials or services. Such emergency acquisitions shall be presented to the GRDA Board for formal approval at the next regularly scheduled Board meeting. Regardless of dollar amount, GRDA may utilize mutual aid agreements with government and non-government owned utilities for the acquisition of items and services during an emergency.
300:20-1-15.  Business expenses
(a)    The Legislature has recognized that GRDA is a unique agency, whose mission requires the district to function in competition with private industry within the competitive power market.
(b)    The Legislature has further recognized and stated that GRDA shall document its business expenses which are necessary to carry out the business of the district and that such expenses shall meet current State of Oklahoma and Internal Revenue Service guidelines for business expense deductibility.
(c)    Upon approval by the Board of Directors, the General ManagerChief Executive Officer of GRDA may designate the individuals and the extent of their authority to expend monies for business expenses. Such business expenses may include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1)    Meals for GRDA personnel, Directors, or State Officials, when dining with customers or prospective customers or otherwise conducting GRDA business;
(2)    Memorials to individuals and entities whose activities have contributed to the mission of GRDA, not to exceed $100.00 in any one fiscal year;
(3)    Marketing tools, including clothes, hats, or other items which may bear the GRDA logo or State of Oklahoma emblem;
(4)    Assessments from regulatory agencies, trade association memberships, or training for GRDA personnel, GRDA Directors and GRDA customers;
(5)    Lodging expenses for GRDA personnel, Directors, state officials, customers and prospective customers when conducting and in furtherance of GRDA business;
(6)    Miscellaneous business expenses which meet current State of Oklahoma and Internal Revenue Service guidelines for business expense deductibility.
(d)    Reimbursement for such business expenses shall not exceed the amount of the expense incurred.
(e)    To the extent practicable, the General ManagerChief Executive Officer or his designee shall authorize the expense prior to it being incurred. All such expenses shall be approved by the General ManagerChief Executive Officer or his designee prior to reimbursement and a summary provided monthly to the Board of Directors.
(f)    Each and every request for reimbursement shall include a justification for the expense for which reimbursement is requested and be supported by specific receipts and/or invoices, or other appropriate documentation to support the expense incurred, which shall be maintained in accordance with Internal Revenue Service guidelines.
300:20-1-17.  Advanced payments
     GRDA generally shall not make advanced payment unless such is reviewed by legal counsel or approved by the General ManagerChief Executive Officer, or designee. This review and approval shall include guidance included in the OMES Procedures Manual, applicable laws, or experience with the applicable vendor.
[OAR Docket #23-584; filed 6-22-23]

TITLE 300.  Grand River Dam Authority
CHAPTER 35.  Lake Rules
[OAR Docket #23-585]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. General Provisions
300:35-3-4 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Sanctioned Events
300:35-9-1 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 15. Commercial Use of the Lakes and Lands of GRDA
300:35-15-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Grand River Dam Authority; 82 O.S. 2019 § 861A(B)(1), 82 O.S. 2019 § 863.2(B)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
December 22, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 18, 2023 through February 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
February 21, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 9, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 15, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
A clarification is proposed that permit fees will not be prorated. The sanctioned event definition has been modified to include off-road events. Language has been added to allow for usage of GRDA public ramps to launch new or refurbished docks if the action does not interfere with the public's access to the water and prohibits the building of docks on GRDA's public ramps. Applications for a dock installer's permit may be denied.
CONTACT PERSON:
Tamara Jahnke, Assistant General Counsel, (918) 610-9686, tamara.jahnke@grda.com.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  General Provisions
300:35-3-4.  Payment of fees
     No permit or license, private or commercial, shall be issued until the appropriate fee has been paid. Permit fees will not be prorated.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Sanctioned Events
300:35-9-1.  Sanctioned event definition
     A sanctioned event is any organized event which has been permitted by GRDA that occurs on the waters and lands of GRDA, including, but not limited to, regattas, motorboat or other boat races, marine parades, tournaments, fishing tournaments, "poker" runs, motorized rock-climbing or off-road events, fireworks displays, concerts and other exhibitions.
SUBCHAPTER 15.  Commercial Use of the Lakes and Lands of GRDA
300:35-15-2.  Dock installer's permit
(a)    Any person, firm, partnership, corporation, or any other entity operating for pecuniary gain or profit or any business that, directly or indirectly, is engaged in the building, placing, transfer, demolition or removal, of piers, wharves, landings, anchorages, floating boat houses, docks, barges or other floating structures of a stationary or semi-stationary nature upon the waters of GRDA shall obtain an annual permit. Such person or entity shall not build, place, transfer, demolish or remove a pier, wharf, landing, anchorage, floating boat house, dock, barge or other floating structure of a stationary or semi-stationary nature upon the waters of GRDA until a Dock Installer's permit has been issued by GRDA.
(b)    At the time a new or significantly modified dock is installed, a sign shall be prominently displayed stating the installer's name and permit number.
(c)    A dock installer shall build, construct, place, transfer, demolish and remove docks in strict compliance with the plans and specifications approved by GRDA and in accordance with all applicable laws, regulations, rules and building codes. All Styrofoam, trash and construction materials shall be disposed in an environmentally appropriate fashion and shall not be allowed to remain or float in the waters of GRDA. All Styrofoam, trash and construction materials shall be stored off GRDA property and above the flowage easement. No dock shall be stored on GRDA property for longer than six (6) months. GRDA property shall not be used without prior written permission. GRDA public ramps may be used for the launch of new or refurbished docks if the action does not interfere with the public's access to the water. The building of docks is prohibited on GRDA's public ramps.
(d)    A dock installer's permit may be revoked at any time during the permit period for the following reasons:
(1)    Nonpayment of permit fee.
(2)    Failure to comply with current dock standards.
(3)    Installation of a dock not permitted by GRDA.
(4)    Upon three sustained complaints of the public regarding the dock installer's business practices.
(5)    Upon conviction of a felony or fraud misdemeanor crime by a court of competent jurisdiction of the owner of the dock installer business or dock installer related to the dock installer's business.
(6)    Failure to maintain insurance required by GRDA and to provide GRDA with a certificate of insurance.
(7)    Improper disposal or storage of waste and other dock materials upon GRDA property or within the flowage easement.
(e)    An application for a dock installer permit may be denied for the below reasons, including but not limited to:
(1)    if applicant is a previously permitted dock installer who was issued a notice of violation where the violation was not remedied, and the permit was canceled by GRDA or forfeited by the dock installer.
(2)    conviction of a felony or fraud misdemeanor crime by a court of competent jurisdiction within the past 10 years.
[OAR Docket #23-585; filed 6-22-23]

TITLE 300.  Grand River Dam Authority
CHAPTER 40.  Scenic Rivers Rules
[OAR Docket #23-586]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Licensing and Use Permits
300:40-1-1 [AMENDED]
300:40-1-3 [AMENDED]
300:40-1-4 [AMENDED]
300:40-1-5 [AMENDED]
300:40-1-6 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 2. Public Access Areas
300:40-2-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Boater Safety
300:40-3-1 [AMENDED]
300:40-3-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 4. Protection of Natural Resources
300:40-4-5 [AMENDED]
300:40-4-6 [AMENDED]
300:40-4-7 [AMENDED]
Appendix A.. Vessel Limitations for Commercial Operators at Designated Heights [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Grand River Dam Authority; 82 O.S. 2019 § 861A(B)(1), 82 O.S. 2019 § 863.2(B)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
December 22, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 18, 2023 through February 17, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
February 21, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 9, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 15, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The defined term "Scenic Rivers" has been expanded to better identify the pertinent areas. The proposed amendments allow for non-commercial float permits to be sold by a person, business, or entity who operates as a pass-through entity. The term "Vessels" has replaced "Flotation Devices." Commercial Float Operators must ensure all Vessels and rental equipment are in a safe, serviceable condition prior to rental by the public and may not exceed the manufacturer's carrying capacity for any rental Vessel. No person, business, group, or other entity may offer Vessels or related services for use by the general public on the Scenic Rivers with the intent to profit without obtaining a commercial flotation license. The usage times for the daily camping fee has changed from 5:00 p.m. on the day of payment to 3:00 p.m. and ending the following day at 1:00 p.m. instead of 5:00 p.m. A table of river heights and age restrictions has been included for prohibited Commercial Operations due to safety measures. Ice chests and coolers must seal sufficiently to prevent leakage in the Scenic Rivers.
CONTACT PERSON:
Tamara Jahnke, Assistant General Counsel, (918) 610-9686, tamara.jahnke@grda.com.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Licensing and Use Permits
300:40-1-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of this Chapter is to establish a system of rules and licensing of Commercial Float Operations and commercial Flotation DevicesVessels and the collection of commercial and private fees to preserve the Scenic Rivers, meaning those portions of the Illinois River and Flint Creek within Adair, Cherokee and Delaware Counties, and those portions of Barren Fork Creek within Cherokee County, in their natural statethe six rivers and streams including the Illinois River in Adair, Delaware, and Cherokee Counties above its confluence with the Barren Fork Creek; the Flint Creek in Adair County; the Barren Fork Creek in Adair and Cherokee Counties from the present alignment of U.S. Highway 59 West to its confluence with the Illinois River; The Upper Mountain Fork River above the 600-foot elevation of Broken Bow Reservoir in McCurtain and LeFlore Counties; Big Lee Creek in Sequoyah County, about the 420-foot MSL elevation; and the Little Lee Creek in Adair and Sequoyah Counties and to preserve the health and safety of the patrons.
300:40-1-3.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Camping" means any method used for remaining overnight in a Public Access Area which includes, but is not limited to tents, vehicles, cots, trailers, recreational vehicles, and sleeping bags.
"Campsites" means a single site located within a Public Access Area which has been designated as open to Camping by the CEO.
"CEO" means the Chief Executive Officer of the Grand River Dam Authority and/or his designee.
"Collector" means a person, business, or entity who operates as a pass-through entity, with the permission of the GRDA, to sell non-commercial float permits to the floating public.
"Commercial Float Operators" or "Operations" means any person or business, other than the GRDA or its contractors, that rents, sells or leases Flotation DevicesVessels commercially to the public for use upon Scenic Rivers within the jurisdiction of the GRDA and has received a commercial flotation license to do so from the GRDA.
"Flotation Device" means a canoe, boat, kayak, raft, inner tube, or other similar device, other than those belonging to the GRDA or its contractors, designed to transport one or more individuals on a Scenic River and not intended to solely transport food or drink.
"Floating Public" means any person who is floating upon the Scenic Rivers privately or by use of a licensed commercial Flotation DeviceVessel.
"New Business" means a person or business that is not (1) a Commercial Float Operator or (2) affiliated with a Commercial Float Operator by sharing a business location, employees, vessel inventory, equipment inventory, insurance coverage, banking accounts, and/or general business operations. This definition is intended to prevent Commercial Float Operators from submitting multiple applications for new commercial Vessel licenses pursuant to Okla. Admin. Code 300:40-1-4 to give them a larger allocation of the licenses that are available after the annual renewal period.
"Non-Commercial Float Permit" means a permit issued by the GRDA, or a Collector, allowing the Floating Public to use the Scenic Rivers without renting from a Commercial Float Operator.
"Public Access Areas" means an area within the jurisdiction of the GRDA which has been designated by the CEO as open for use by the public for Camping and day use activities under the terms and conditions of this subchapter.
"Scenic Rivers" means thesix rivers and streams including the Illinois River and Flint Creek within Adair, Cherokee and Delaware Counties, and those portions of Barren Fork Creek within Cherokee County in Adair, Delaware, and Cherokee Counties above its confluence with the Barren Fork Creek; the Flint Creek in Adair County; the Barren Fork Creek in Adair and Cherokee Counties from the present alignment of U.S. Highway 59 West to its confluence with the Illinois River; The Upper Mountain Fork River above the 600-foot elevation of Broken Bow Reservoir in McCurtain and LeFlore Counties; Big Lee Creek in Sequoyah County, about the 420-foot MSL elevation; and the Little Lee Creek in Adair and Sequoyah Counties, which are within the jurisdiction of the GRDA pursuant to 82 O.S. § 896.5.
"Temporary Licenses" means those commercial flotation licenses available after the January new commercial vessel license application deadline under the 3,900 license limit.
"Vessel" means a canoe, boat, kayak, raft, inner tube, or other similar device, other than those belonging to the GRDA or its contractors, designed to transport one or more individuals on a Scenic River and not intended to solely transport food or drink.
300:40-1-4.  Commercial licensing procedures, requirements, and annual use fees
(a)    TheFor newly issued licenses, the statutory annual river use license fee per commercially owned and operated Flotation DeviceVessel shall be paid at the time of licensing.
(b)    The license required for Commercial Float Operations shall be an annual license covering a calendar year. Licenses shall be properly displayed on each Flotation DeviceVessel prior to its use on the river.
(c)    Applications for new float licenses may be filed with the GRDA in January of each year. Commercial Float Operators shall file applications to renew their existing licenses during the month of September each year.
(1)    Any Commercial Float Operator that fails to submit a renewal application in September shall only be eligible to renew 85% of the previous number of licenses, and the other 15% shall be released in January of the following year as new licenses. No renewal application shall be accepted after November.
(2)    Any Commercial Float Operator that applies to renew his licenses must pay the statutory annual use fees, and pay or complete any outstanding GRDA obligations, by the last working day of November, or the application shall be denied and the number of licenses released as new licenses in January.
(3)    In addition, any Commercial Float Operator, applying for license renewal, must be able to demonstrate a history of compliance with all applicable statutes and administrative rules regarding operation of their business. If such a showing cannot be made, the CEO has the discretion to deny issuance of licenses for the upcoming year. In addition to a failure of compliance, a Commercial Float Operator may be denied a license or licenses due to environmental and/or safety reasons. In determining whether to issue licenses for the upcoming year, the CEO may consider the following factors:
(A)    Whether the Operator has engaged in a pattern of willful violation of GRDA rules and regulations;
(B)    Whether the ecosystem of the river section within which the particular Flotation DeviceVessel is authorized to float is, or is in danger of being, harmed by the number of Flotation DevicesVessels authorized, and it is necessary for the protection of that section of the river to limit the number of licenses;
(C)    The health and safety of individuals floating on the river is threatened by the number of Flotation DevicesVessels currently licensed to float on a particular section of the river; or
(D)    The Commercial Float Operator has failed to comply with licensing requirements of rule 300:40-1-5 in previous float seasons.
(4)    Any personExisting Commercial Float Operators and New Businesses may apply in January for new commercial Flotation DeviceVessel licenses which may be available, up to the number provided in 300-40-1-5. The GRDA may then process the applications, evenly divide the numbers of licenses among the proper applications and issue them in February. If there are remaining licenses that are unable to be issued equally among applicants, the CEO may implement a random draw lottery process for the remaining licenses.
(5)    Except for temporary licenses, new licenses shall not be issued unless the number of licenses renewed in the previous year was below the number authorized in 300:40-1-5.
(6)    Use of Public Access Areas owned or controlled by the GRDA may be denied by the CEO based on expected adverse impacts to the Public Access Areas, on historical usage and regulatory compliance considerations and on the user's cooperation with other users.
(d)    Application for such licenses shall be made on the form prescribed by the GRDA which shall include:
(1)    The name and address of the Commercial Float Operation;
(2)    The name and address of the owner or owners thereof;
(3)    A description of lands owned or leased, and/or intended for use in the operation, including the launch and retrieval points;
(4)    An inventory of usable Flotation DevicesVessels containing the following information: vessel type, manufacturer and model, color, serial number, and inventory number;
(5)    A description of how the requirements of paragraph (h) of this section will be met; and
(6)    An agreement to abide by all State laws and all GRDA rules and regulations.
(e)    Licenses shall be issued in such form as is prescribed by the CEO, and shall be displayed on the right front (starboard bow) of Flotation DevicesVessels that have bows or conspicuously on the outside surface area above the water line of Flotation DevicesVessels without a discernable bow. If licenses are lost, the CEO may collect the reasonable replacement value of the licenses from the Commercial Operator needing replacement licenses.
(f)    Licenses granted by this Chapter shall not be transferable between Commercial Float Operations or Operators. Prior to a transfer being made, notice must be given to and approval must be received from the CEO.
(g)    The number of Flotation DevicesVessels to be licensed for commercial use shall be limited as provided in 300:40-1-5.
(h)    All Commercial Float Operators must maintain clean and sanitary facilities, maintain in good working order their Flotation Devices offered for use, and also:
(1)    Provide access to toilet facilities to the Floating PublicMaintain clean and sanitary facilities.
(2)    Provide trash bags and disposal information to all customersEnsure that all Vessels and rental equipment are in a safe, serviceable condition prior to renting to the Floating Public.
(3)    Conspicuously post signage on business premises and at launch points warning the Floating Public regarding:Provide access to toilet facilities to the Floating Public.
(A)    Flotation Devices may not be tied together;
(B)    No trespassing;
(C)    Water safety;
(D)    Properly discard trash in trash bags or cans;
(E)    Flotation Devices and ice chests are subject to random inspection by GRDA Police;
(F)    Alcoholic spirits are prohibited on the Scenic Rivers and in public access areas;
(G)    Drunk and disorderly conduct is cause for arrest.
(4)    All signs placed along the river corridor shall be informational in nature and shall comply to standards established by the GRDA.Provide trash bags and disposal information to all customers.
(5)    Display on each Flotation Device the name of the Commercial Float Operation and an identification number at least three (3) inches high and two (2) inches wide on both the right and left sides (port and starboard sides), or once if it has no sides.Conspicuously post signage on business premises and at launch points warning the Floating Public regarding:
(A)    Vessels may not be tied together;
(B)    No trespassing;
(C)    Water safety;
(D)    Properly discard trash in trash bags or cans;
(E)    Alcoholic spirits are prohibited on the Scenic Rivers and in public access areas;
(F)    Drunk and disorderly conduct is cause for arrest.
(6)    Assist in river and bank clean-up in their float area at least once each week during all weeks their Flotation Devices are operated on the river. Operators must also immediately notify GRDA of any navigational hazards on the river and provide assistance to GRDA as needed.All signs placed along the river corridor shall be informational in nature and shall comply to standards established by the GRDA.
(7)    Provide, in each Flotation Device used, at least one U.S. Coast Guard approved wearable personal flotation device (life jacket) in good and serviceable condition for each person on board so placed as to be readily accessible and of a size suitable to the person who is or will be wearing it.Display on each Vessel the name of the Commercial Float Operation and an identification number at least three (3) inches high and two (2) inches wide on both the right and left sides (port and starboard sides), or once if it has no sides.
(8)    The GRDA can better protect the river and deploy its resources with knowledge of how many people are floating the river during various times. Accordingly, each Operator shall track and report monthly to the CEO the number of their customers per commercial float area from May through September.Assist in river and bank clean-up in their float area at least once each week during all weeks their Vessels are operated on the river. Operators must also immediately notify GRDA of any navigational hazards on the river and provide assistance to GRDA as needed.
(9)    All vehicular equipment owned or operated by a Commercial Float Operator or Operation, including trailers, must be properly registered, licensed, insured, and operated in accordance with all federal and state law and regulations. All vehicular equipment used must be in sound mechanical condition and trailer lights must light up when vehicle brakes are applied. In the event a school bus is put into service for the use of transporting (shuttling) visitors, the words "School Bus", the extension arm "Stop" sign, and all flashing lights must be removed, as required by applicable laws. Shuttle drivers must have the appropriate class of license for the vehicle being driven.Provide, in each Vessel used, at least one U.S. Coast Guard approved wearable personal flotation device (life jacket) in good and serviceable condition for each person on board so placed as to be readily accessible and of a size suitable to the person who is or will be wearing it.
(10)    The GRDA can better protect the river and deploy its resources with knowledge of how many people are floating the river during various times. Accordingly, each Operator shall track and report monthly to the CEO the number of their customers per commercial float area from May through September.
(11)    All vehicular equipment owned or operated by a Commercial Float Operator or Operation, including trailers, must be properly registered, licensed, insured, and operated in accordance with all federal and state law and regulations. All vehicular equipment used must be in sound mechanical condition and trailer lights must light up when vehicle brakes are applied. In the event a school bus is put into service for the use of transporting (shuttling) visitors, the words "School Bus", the extension arm "Stop" sign, and all flashing lights must be removed, as required by applicable laws. Shuttle drivers must have the appropriate class of license for the vehicle being driven.
(i)    Non-profit organizations may elect to obtain temporary licenses for their Flotation DevicesVessels as commercial Flotation DevicesVessels provided they do not exceed the float area restrictions of the Scenic Rivers as described in 300:40-1-5.
300:40-1-5.  Limitation on licensing of Flotation Devices
(a)    It is the intent of the GRDA in issuing commercial flotation licenses to protect the ecosystem and environment and the aesthetic, scenic, historic, archaeologic, and scientific features of the Scenic River areas as well as the public health and safety of individuals using the Scenic River areas.
(b)    It is the determination of the GRDA that at this time the Scenic Rivers cannot assimilate the damages to their ecosystems, environments, and aesthetic, scenic, historic, archaeologic, and scientific features if more than 3,900 licenses are issued. Further, the protection of public health and safety requires that the GRDA not grant additional licenses.
(c)    The GRDA recognizes the current interests and property rights of persons with respect to Flotation DevicesVessels presently available for hire within its jurisdiction subject to the GRDA Commercial Float Area limitations. The number of such devices shall be set at a maximum of 3,900 for the combined Scenic River areas.
(d)    Any licensing of Flotation DevicesVessels in excess of said 3,900 shall be subject to approval of the GRDA. In order to receive an excess license, an applicant must reasonably demonstrate there will not be an adverse impact on the waterways within the jurisdiction of the GRDA. Such additional licensing shall be determined on the basis of density of current usage, number of licenses requested, and other considerations necessary for river protection.
(e)    In the event the GRDA determines that the requested licenses may harm the ecosystem, environment, or aesthetic, scenic, historic, archaeologic or scientific features of the section of the river for which the licenses are sought, the GRDA shall deny the issuance of any licenses irrespective of the number of licenses currently issued. The GRDA shall also deny the issuance of any licenses irrespective of the number of licenses currently issued in circumstances when, in the opinion of the CEO, the health and safety of individuals floating on the river may be threatened by the addition of new Flotation DevicesVessels. Any license issued above 3,900 in any calendar year shall be temporary, for a stated period of time, and shall not be renewed during the annual licensing process.
(f)    The Illinois River Scenic River area is divided into the following sections for Commercial Flotation Operation and licensing purposes:
(1)    From the Arkansas-Oklahoma state boundary (Illinois River mile 0) southward to Round Hollow Public Access Area (Illinois River mile 27.7) shall be known as GRDA Commercial Float Area One (GRDA CFA One).
(2)    From Chewey Bridge (Illinois River Mile 23.6) southward to the No Head Hollow Public Access Area (Illinois River Mile 41.5) shall be known as GRDA Commercial Float Area Two (GRDA CFA Two).
(3)    From Comb's Bridge (Illinois River mile 36.1) southward to and including the confluence of the Barren Fork Creek with the Illinois River shall be known as GRDA Commercial Float Area Three (GRDA CFA Three). No person, business, group, or other entity may offer Vessels or related services for use by the general public on the Scenic Rivers with the intent to profit without obtaining a commercial flotation license.
(g)    Commercial Flotation Devices may only be floated in the commercial float area where they are licensed. Non-profit groups and persons wishing to engage in extended overnight float trips for the purposes of camping and/or fishing along the Scenic Rivers may float in areas outside of their licensed areas so long as a float plan is filed with the CEO and his approval is received.The Illinois River Scenic River area is divided into the following sections for Commercial Flotation Operation and licensing purposes:
(1)    From the Arkansas-Oklahoma state boundary (Illinois River mile 0) southward to Round Hollow Public Access Area (Illinois River mile 27.7) shall be known as GRDA Commercial Float Area One (GRDA CFA One).
(2)    From Chewey Bridge (Illinois River Mile 23.6) southward to the No Head Hollow Public Access Area (Illinois River Mile 41.5) shall be known as GRDA Commercial Float Area Two (GRDA CFA Two).
(3)    From Comb's Bridge (Illinois River mile 36.1) southward to and including the confluence of the Barren Fork Creek with the Illinois River shall be known as GRDA Commercial Float Area Three (GRDA CFA Three).
(h)    The operation of a commercial Flotation Device within a GRDA Commercial Flotation Area in violation of 300:40-1-5, shall subject that Commercial Float Operation to a fine not to exceed One Hundred Dollars ($100.00).Commercial Vessels may only be floated in the commercial float area where they are licensed. Non-profit groups and persons wishing to engage in extended overnight float trips for the purposes of camping and/or fishing along the Scenic Rivers may float in areas outside of their licensed areas so long as a float plan is filed with the CEO and his approval is received.
(i)    The operation of a commercial Vessel within a GRDA Commercial Flotation Area in violation of 300:40-1-5, shall subject that Commercial Float Operation to a fine not to exceed One Hundred Dollars ($100.00).
300:40-1-6.  Non-commercial fee procedures
(a)    Private, non-commercial Flotation DevicesVessels and persons who use them are subject to such statutory fees that are in effect while they are floating on state-designated Scenic Rivers.
(b)    The CEO shall develop forms and procedures for the collection and administration of non-commercial fees.
(c)    Businesses and commercial Commercial float Float operations Operations ( "collectors" "Collectors") may, on behalf of the GRDA, collect non-commercial fees and issue receiptspermits or usage indicators when they are approved by the CEO and use the current forms and procedures of the GRDA. Collectors shall remit the non-commercial fees they collect to the GRDA using the current forms and procedures. Collectors may retain a percentage of statutory non-commercial fees for administering the non-commercial fee process in the amount that is currently designated by the GRDA but not more than 10%.
(d)    GRDA Police and the CEO may require anyone using a non-commercial Flotation DeviceVessel on or leaving the waters of a scenicScenicriverRiver, who does not establish that they are exempt from statutory fees, to either show a receipt for or pay the statutory annual non-commercial fee.
SUBCHAPTER 2.  Public Access Areas
300:40-2-3.  Use of public access areas
(a)    No person shall camp in a Campsite under the jurisdiction of the GRDA without paying the fee established by this section.
(b)    Camping fee receipts shall be retained by campers for the duration of their stay and shall be available for review upon request of the CEO, a Camp Host or the GRDA Police.
(c)    Camping fees receipts entitle the named holder to use a Campsite for the duration indicated on the receipt under the conditions set forth in this section. All camping fee receipts are non-transferable.
(d)    The daily camping fee covers use of Campsites from 5:003:00 p.m. on the day of payment until 5:001:00 p.m. on the following day. Occupants shall vacate the Campsite by removing their personal property from the Campsite prior to 5:00 p.m. on the day they are scheduled to leave.
(e)    The following activities are prohibited in all Public Access Areas:
(1)    Excavation or leveling of the ground.
(2)    Hanging a propane or gas operated lantern on any tree or plant.
(3)    Leaving refuse or human waste at a campsite after departure.
(4)    Camping within 25 feet of a water hydrant or within 100 feet of a stream, river or body of water, except where otherwise designated.
(5)    Creating or sustaining unreasonable noise at a campsite as determined by the CEO or GRDA Police considering the nature and purpose of the actor's conduct, the impact on other users, and other factors which would govern the conduct of a reasonably prudent person under the circumstances.
(6)    Constructing permanent Camping facilities or dwellings.
(7)    Camping or parking vehicles outside of Campsites and parking areas designated by the CEO.
(8)    Parking a vehicle in, blocking access to, or occupying any designated Campsites without having first paid camping fees for that Campsite.
(9)    Using the utility services in a Campsite or Public Access Area without having first paid Campsite or utility fees.
(10)    Connecting more than one water, electrical or sanitary connection per Campsite or connecting to a utility which exceeds its manufactured design or capacity.
(11)    There may not be more than two vehicles per campsite.
(12)    Camping longer than duration of stay noted on the Camping receipt or exceeding the time limits set forth in this subchapter without prior written approval from the CEO.
(13)    Entering or remaining in a Public Access Area for any purpose other than camping or authorized day use activities, except fishing.
(14)    Possession or use of fireworks in Public Access Areas. The CEO may authorize fireworks on the 4th of July.
(15)    Fires may only be built in fire pits or cookers established by the GRDA.
(16)    Cutting or defacing trees, destroying vegetation, breaking limbs and branches from live trees for firewood in Public Access Areas.
(17)    Pets must be leashed at all times when outside tents or recreational vehicles.
(f)    Day use of Public Access Areas for general recreational activities, such as swimming, picnicking, fishing, and boat launching is permissible without charge only during open hours as defined and posted by the CEO.
(g)    Entering or remaining in a day use area during closed hours is prohibited for any purpose, except for lawful fishing.
(h)    Possession of an open container, or consumption, of alcohol (including Spirits, wine, beer and light or 3.2 beer) is prohibited in seven Public Access Areas: Todd, US 62 Bridge Access on the Illinois River, US 412 Bridge Access on Flint Creek, Lake Frances Dam Public Access Site, US 59 Illinois River Bridge Crossing Access Area, and Carnes Ford Area.
(i)    Commercial Operators who use a Public Access Area to launch and retrieve Flotation Devices shall not block or discourage private use and shall police the area and its gravel bars for litter after each use. Commercial operators may not remain parked on gravel bars, block signage, trash receptacles, roads, access points, or life jacket loaner stations.
(j)    Violations of GRDA regulations or state law may result in the suspension or revocation of Camping authorization or day use privileges. Other penalties prescribed by law may also apply.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Boater Safety
300:40-3-1.  Life jackets
     All persons in a Flotation DeviceVessel on a Scenic River must possess a U.S. Coast Guard-approved personal flotation device that is appropriately-sized and in good working order. All children 12 years of age and younger must wear their personal flotation device at all times while floating on a Scenic River.
300:40-3-3.  River Hazards and Closures
     In emergency circumstances, GRDA may close the Scenic Rivers, or sections of the Scenic Rivers, to private and commercial use. In order to help ensure the safety of the Floating Public, Commercial Float Operators must remain cognizant of changing river levels and conditions in their commercial float areas. River levels are determined by the USGS gage at Chewey Bridge when operating upstream of River Mile 40 and the USGS gage at Tahlequah when operating below River Mile 40.
(1)    Commercial Operations are prohibited when river levels are determined to be at flood stage or the river is still rising and approaching flood stage as determined by the USGS gages. Commercial Operators shall follow the vessel limitations at the heights listed in Appendix A.
(2)    When river levels are higher than 6' foot at the USGS Chewey Bridge gage or 6'6" at the USGS Tahlequah gage, Commercial Float Operators will practice due diligence in informing clients regarding the inherent dangers of floating at high river levels.
(3)    Commercial Float Operators will use discretion in providing service to people who appear to be incapacitated to the point of being harmful to themselves or others.
SUBCHAPTER 4.  Protection of Natural Resources
300:40-4-5.  Ice chest restrictions
     To prevent littering, any ice chest or cooler contained within ano Flotation DeviceVessel shall contain an ice chest that does not have a secured lid to prevent spilling its contents orseal or lock in such a way as to prevent its contents from spilling into the Scenic Rivers. No ice chest in use upon the Scenic Rivers may have a capacity is larger than 52-quart capacity on a Scenic River.
300:40-4-6.  Tying Flotation DevicesVessels prohibited
     To minimize environmental damage to the stream and river banks and increase public safety, no person shall tie or otherwise connect two or more Flotation DevicesVessels together on Scenic Rivers except during rescue and retrieval. Drink coolers must be so closely tied to Flotation DevicesVessels as to be within arms-reach of the occupant of the Flotation DeviceVessel to which it is attached.
300:40-4-7.  Vessel restrictions
     Except for GRDA and law enforcement personnel, and during GRDA authorized search and rescue training and operations, no person shall:
(1)    operate a commercial Flotation DeviceVessel on Flint Creek in Delaware County or on those portions of Barren Fork Creek in Cherokee County;
(2)    operate a jet ski, airboat, hovercraft or similar water craft on a Scenic River; or
(3)    operate a vesselVessel with a motor of more than 10 horsepower on a Scenic River. Provided, however, that vesselsVessels with up to 25 horsepower may be used by anyone gigging during gigging season defined by the Oklahoma Department of Wildlife Conservation, and by Commercial Float Operators to rescue floaters; and
(4)    All vesselsVessels must meet U.S. Coast Guard and State of Oklahoma requirements. Commercial Float Operators shall notify GRDA Police when searching for floaters.
(5)    Commercial Float Operators may not exceed the manufacturer's carrying capacity for any Vessel when renting such Vessels to the floating public.

APPENDIX A.  Vessel Limitations for Commercial Operators at Designated Heights  [NEW]
300_40A1R.tif
[OAR Docket #23-586; filed 6-22-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 25.  Soonercare Choice
[OAR Docket #23-639]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 7. SoonerCare
Part 1. General Provisions
317:25-7-5 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-15)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 7. SoonerCare
Part 1. General Provisions
317:25-7-5 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
November 4, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 359
Docket number:
22-864
(Reference APA WF # 22-15)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions will remove member caps for Physicians, Advanced Practice Registered Nurses (APRN), and Physician Assistants (PA) participating in SoonerCare Choice Patient Centered Medical Home. Currently, policy only allows 2,500 members for each physician, 1,250 members for each APRN, and 1,250 members for each PA. The proposed revisions will remove the member caps, which will increase members' access to care. The aforementioned changes will align policy with the redesign of the PCMH model.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Soonercare
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS
317:25-7-5.  Primary care providers (PCPs)
     For provision of health care services, the OHCA contracts with qualified PCPs. All providers serving as PCPs must have a valid SoonerCare Fee-for-Service contract as well as an exercised SoonerCare Choice addendum. Additionally, all PCPs, excluding provider or physician groups must agree to accept a minimum capacity of fifty (50) patients; provided, however, this does not guarantee PCPs a minimum patient volume. PCPs are limited to:
(1)     Physicians. Any physician licensed to practice medicine in the state in which he or she practices who is engaged in a general practice or in family medicine, general internal medicine or general pediatrics may serve as a PCP. Out-of-state PCPs are required to comply with all access standards imposed on Oklahoma physicians, as well as Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-3-89 through 317:30-3-92.
(A)    For physicians serving as SoonerCare Choice PCPs, the State caps the number of members per physician at two thousand, five hundred (2,500). If a physician practices at multiple sites, the capacity at each site is determined based on the number of hours per week the physician holds office hours, not to exceed one (1) FTE. Thus, the physician cannot exceed a maximum total capacity of two thousand, five hundred (2,500) members.
(B)    In areas of the state where cross-state utilization patterns have developed because of limited provider capacity in the state the OHCA may authorize contracts with out-of-state providers for PCP services. Out-of-state PCPs are required to comply with all access standards imposed on Oklahoma physicians, as well as Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-3-89 through 317:30-3-92.
(2)     Advanced Practice Registered Nurses (APRNs). APRNs who have prescriptive authority may serve as PCPs for the Primary Care Case Management delivery system if licensed to practice in the state in which he or she practices. APRNs who have prescriptive authority may serve as PCPs for a maximum number of one thousand, two hundred and fifty (1,250) members.
(3)     Physician Assistants (PAs). PAs may serve as PCPs if licensed to practice in the state in which he or she practices. PAs may serve as PCPs for a maximum number of one thousand, two hundred and fifty (1,250) members.
(4)     Indian Health Service (IHS) Facilities and Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) provider groups and Rural Health Clinics (RHC).
(A)    IHS facilities whose professional staff meet the general requirements in paragraphs (1) through (3) of this Section and the provider participation requirements at OAC 317:30-5-1088 may serve as PCPs.
(B)    FQHCs whose professional staff meet the general requirements in paragraphs (1) through (3) of this Section and the provider participation requirements in OAC 317:30- 5-660.2 may serve as PCPs.
(C)    RHCs whose professional staff meet the general requirements in paragraphs (1) through (3) of this Section and the provider participation requirements in OAC 317:30- 5-355 may serve as PCPs.
(5)     Provider or physician group capacity and enrollment.
(A)    Provider or physician groups must agree to accept a minimum enrollment capacity and may not exceed two thousand, five hundred (2,500) members per physician participating in the provider group of fifty (50) members.
(B)    If licensed PAs or APRNs are members of a group, the capacity may be increased by one thousand, two hundred and fifty (1,250) members if the provider is available full-time.
(CB)    Provider or physician groups must designate a medical director to serve as the primary contact with OHCA.
[OAR Docket #23-639; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-660]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. General Provider Policies
Part 1. General Scope and Administration
317:30-3-3.1 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 5. Pharmacies
317:30-5-70.4 [REVOKED]
317:30-5-80 [REVOKED]
317:30-5-86.2 [REVOKED]
Part 6. Inpatient Psychiatric and Substance Use Disorder Services
317:30-5-95.43 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.50 [AMENDED]
Part 33. Transportation by Ambulance
317:30-5-336.3 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-336.4 [REVOKED]
Part 61. Home Health Agencies
317:30-5-547 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-548 [REVOKED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-30)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; Oklahoma Executive Order 2020-03
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule changes will amend language to remove or update obsolete references. Additional revisions will combine sections of policy to remove the overabundant number of sections that are currently in Title 317. These changes are necessary to comply with Oklahoma Executive Order 2020-03.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  General Provider Policies
PART 1.  GENERAL SCOPE AND ADMINISTRATION
317:30-3-3.1.  Medicaid Income Deferral Program  [REVOKED]
(a)    The Medicaid Income Deferral Program is a program that enables physician corporations, as defined in Title 59 of the Oklahoma Statutes, to voluntarily defer income that is paid to the corporation by the Single State Medicaid Agency.
(b)    The voluntary income deferral by physician corporations (medical doctors, osteopathic physicians, dentists, surgeons, podiatrists, chiropractors, optometrists, and ophthalmologists) shall be subject to any federal provisions imposed by the Internal Revenue Code, Title 26 of the United States Code. The Health Care Authority may adopt a Plan which provides for the investment of deferral amounts in life insurance or annuity contracts which offer a choice of underlying investment options. The Plan shall provide that each physician corporation exercise those options independently from among choices offered by such contracts. Contract issuing companies shall be limited to companies which are licensed to do business in the state of Oklahoma.
(c)    To be eligible for this program a physician corporation must have an existing contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority and the corporation must perform that contract for the term of the agreement. If a physician corporation fails to fulfill its service obligations under the contract, all deferral amount assets held for the benefit of that corporation shall be forfeited.
(d)    No physician corporation shall be permitted to participate in the Plan without having prior independent tax and legal advice to do so.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 5.  PHARMACIES
317:30-5-70.4.  Federal/State cost share-optional program  [REVOKED]
     The Medicaid prescription drug program is an optional program under Title XIX of the Social Security Act. The program is administered through a partnership between federal and state agencies. Program costs are shared between the federal and state government at variable rates depending on the economic status of the State.
317:30-5-80.  National drug code  [REVOKED]
     All products billed must have a valid National Drug Code. Products which do not have an NDC code are not compensable.
317:30-5-86.2.  Case management  [REVOKED]
     OHCA contracts with a designated agent to evaluate and manage the medication therapies of the individuals who comprise the top percentage of drug utilization. Clinical pharmacists will do case management based on the clinical needs of each patient.
PART 6.  INPATIENT PSYCHIATRIC AND SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER SERVICES
317:30-5-95.43.  Residential substance use disorder treatment
(a)     Purpose. The purpose of sections OAC 317:30-5-95.43 - 317:30-5-95.49 is to establish the procedures and requirements for residential treatment facilities providing SUD treatment services.
(b)     Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in the aforementioned sections, shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
(1)    "ASAM" means the American Society of Addiction Medicine.
(2)    "ASAM criteria" means the most recent edition of the American Society of Addiction Medicine's published criteria for admission to treatment, continued services, and discharge.
(3)    "ASAM levels of care" means the different options for treatment as described below and in the current edition of the ASAM criteria that vary according to the intensity of the services offered. Each treatment option is a level of care.
(A)    "ASAM level 3" means residential and inpatient services and encompasses ASAM levels 3.1, 3.3, 3.5 and 3.7.
(B)     "ASAM level 3.1" means clinically managed low-intensity residential services for adolescents and adults. This level of care typically provides at least five (5) hours of clinical services a week and provides a twenty-four (24) hour living support and structure with trained personnel. The corresponding service description for this level of care is halfway house services.
(C)     "ASAM level 3.3" means clinically managed population-specific high-intensity residential services. This level of care is for adults only and typically offers twenty-four (24) hour care with trained personnel and is designed to accommodate individuals with cognitive or other impairments. The corresponding service description for this level of care is residential treatment for adults with co-occurring disorders.
(D)     "ASAM level 3.5" means clinically managed medium-intensity residential services for adolescents and clinically managed high-intensity residential services for adults. This level of care provides twenty-four (24) hour care and offers a wide range of therapeutic services. The corresponding service descriptions for this level of care are residential treatment and intensive residential treatment.
(E)     "ASAM level 3.7" means medically monitored high-intensity inpatient services for adolescents and medically monitored intensive inpatient withdrawal management for adults. This level of care provides twenty-four (24) hour nursing care with physician supervision and medication availability. This level of care is appropriate for individuals withdrawing from alcohol or other drugs with subacute biomedical and emotional, behavioral, or cognitive problems severe enough to require inpatient treatment but for whom hospitalization is not necessary. The corresponding service description for this level of care is medically supervised withdrawal management.
(4)    "Care management services" means an assessment of a member, development of a care plan, and referral and linkage to SUD community supports and community-based or lower level of care services to promote continued recovery after the individual discharges from the treatment facility.
(5)    "Co-occurring disorder (COD)" means any combination of mental health symptoms and SUD symptoms or diagnoses that affect a member and are typically determined by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM).
(6)    "DSM" means the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) published by the American Psychiatric Association.
(7)    "ODMHSAS" means the Oklahoma Department of Mental Health and Substance Abuse Services (ODMHSAS).
(8)    "Per diem" means an all-inclusive rate for covered SUD treatment services provided each day during a facility stay.
(89)    "Rehabilitation services" means face-to-face individual or group services provided by qualified staff to develop skills necessary to perform activities of daily living and successful integration into community life. Rehabilitation services for substance use disorders are also referred to as skill development services.
(910)    "Service plan" means the document used during the process by which an LBHP or a licensure candidate and the member together and jointly identify and rank problems, establish agreed-upon immediate short-term and long-term goals, and decide on the treatment process and resources to be utilized.
(1011)    "Substance use disorder (SUD)" means alcohol or drug dependence, or psychoactive SUD as defined by the most recent DSM criteria.
(1112)    "Therapeutic services" means professional services during which members engage in identifying, addressing and/or resolving issues identified in the member's service plan.
(1213)    "Treatment hours B residential" means the structured hours in which a member is involved in receiving professional services to assist in achieving recovery.
317:30-5-95.50.  Residential substance use disorder (SUD) - Reimbursement
(a)    In order to be eligible for payment, residential treatment providers of SUD treatment services must have an approved provider agreement on file with the OHCA. Through this agreement, the residential provider assures that they are in compliance with all applicable federal and State Medicaid law and regulations, including, but not limited to, OHCA administrative rules, ODMHSAS administrative rules, and the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
(b)    Covered SUD treatment services for adolescents and adults in SUD residential treatment shall be reimbursed utilizing the per diem rates for each level of care. All SUD residential treatment services must be prior authorized by the OHCA or its designated agent before the service is rendered by an eligible provider. Without prior authorization, payment is not authorized.
(c)    Covered SUD treatment services for adolescents and adults in SUD residential treatment shall be reimbursed utilizing the per diem rates for each level of care. Separate payment may be made for medications, physician services, and treatment services provided to dependent children in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan. Separate payment for such services will follow existing prior authorization requirements, if applicable.
(d)    Treatment services for dependent children accompanying a parent to treatment shall be reimbursed on a fee-for-service basis in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan. Outpatient services rendered to dependent children may be provided by the residential facility if appropriately certified or a separate outpatient provider. Such services shall not duplicate any services provided by the residential provider that are reimbursed through the residential per dime rate.
(e)    The following services are excluded from coverage/reimbursement:
(1)    Room and board;
(2)    Services or components that are not provided to or exclusively for the treatment of the member;
(3)    Services or components of services of which the basic nature is to supplant housekeeping or basic services for the convenience of a member receiving covered services;
(4)    Physician directed services and medications (these services are reimbursed outside of the residential SUD per diem);
(5)    Telephone calls or other electronic contacts (not inclusive of telehealth); and
(6)    Field trips, social, or physical exercise activity groups.
PART 33.  TRANSPORTATION BY AMBULANCE
317:30-5-336.3.  Destination and transport outside of locality
(a)    Transportation is covered from the point of origin to the Hospital, Critical Access Hospital or Nursing Facility that is capable of providing the required level and type of care for the member.
(b)    Ambulance transportation from a hospital with a higher level of care to a hospital with a lower level of care in the locality is covered, provided all other criteria are met and approved by the OHCA.
(c)    Non-emergency transportation to the outpatient facilities of a Hospital, free-standing Ambulatory Surgery Center (ASC), Independent Diagnostic Testing Facility (IDTF), Physician's office or other outpatient facility is compensable if the member's condition necessitates ambulance or stretcher transportation and all other conditions are met.
(d)    Ambulance Transportation to a Veteran's Administration (VA) Hospital is covered when the trip has not been authorized by the VA.
(e)    If ambulance transportation is provided out of the transport locality, the claim must be documented with the reason for the transport outside of the service area.
(f)    If it is determined the member was transported out of locality and the closest facility could have cared for the member, payment will be made only for the distance to the nearest medical institution with the appropriate facilities.
(g)    Any transportation which begins or ends outside of the Oklahoma geographic border requires prior authorization. The exception to this rule is if transportation begins or ends within one hundred (100) miles of Oklahoma's geographic border, no prior authorization is required.
317:30-5-336.4.  Transport outside of locality  [REVOKED]
(a)    If ambulance transportation is provided out of the transport locality, the claim must be documented with the reason for the transport outside of the service area.
(b)    If it is determined the member was transported out of locality and the closest facility could have cared for the member, payment will be made only for the distance to the nearest medical institution with the appropriate facilities.
(c)    Any transportation which begins or ends outside of the Oklahoma geographic border requires prior authorization. The exception to this rule is if transportation begins or ends within 100 miles of Oklahoma's geographic border, no prior authorization is required.
PART 61.  HOME HEALTH AGENCIES
317:30-5-547.  Reimbursement and procedure codes
(a)    Nursing services and home health aide services are covered services on a per visit basis. Thirty-six (36) visits per calendar year of nursing and/or home health aide services for any member do not require prior authorization; however, any visit surpassing the thirty-sixth (36) visit will require prior authorization and medical review.
(b)    Reimbursement for durable medical equipment and supplies will be made using the amount derived from the lesser of the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) fee schedule or the provider's usual and customary charge. When a procedure code is not assigned a maximum allowable fee for a unit of service, a fee will be established. Once the service has been provided, the supplier is required to include a copy of the invoice documenting the supplier's cost of the item with the claim.
(c)    Reimbursement for oxygen and oxygen supplies is as follows:
(1)    Payment for oxygen systems (stationary, liquid and oxygen concentrators) is based on continuous rental, i.e., a continuous monthly payment is made as long as it is medically necessary. The rental payment includes all contents and supplies, i.e., regulators, tubing, masks, etc. Portable oxygen systems are also considered continuous rental. Ownership of the equipment remains with the supplier.
(2)    Separate payment will not be made for maintenance, servicing, delivery, or for the supplier to pick up the equipment when it is no longer medically necessary.
(3)    Payment for oxygen and oxygen equipment and supplies will not exceed the Medicare fee for the same procedure code. The fee schedule will be reviewed annually and adjustments to the fee schedule may be made at any time based on efficiency, budget considerations, and quality of care as determined by the OHCA.
(4)    Physical therapy, occupational therapy, and/or speech pathology and audiology services, are not covered when provided by a home health agency.
(d)    All home health services are billed using Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) codes.
317:30-5-548.  Procedure codes  [REVOKED]
     All home health services are billed using Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) codes.
[OAR Docket #23-660; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-652]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. General Provider Policies
Part 3. General Medical Program Information
317:30-3-57 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 16. Maternal and Infant Health Licensed Clinical Social Workers
317:30-5-208 [AMENDED]
Part 18. Genetic Counselors
317:30-5-221 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-222 [AMENDED]
Part 20. Lactation Consultants
317:30-5-232 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-21A)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; 42 CFR § 435.116; and Public Law 117-2 (the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 3. General Provider Policies
Part 3. General Medical Program Information
317:30-3-57 [AMENDED]
Part 16. Maternal and Infant Health Licensed Clinical Social Workers
317:30-5-208 [AMENDED]
Part 18. Genetic Counselors
317:30-5-221 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-222 [AMENDED]
Part 20. Lactation Consultants
317:30-5-232 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
February 21, 2023
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 652
Docket number:
23-187
(Reference APA WF # 22-21A)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed policy revisions will expand Medicaid eligibility for pregnant women by increasing the federal poverty level (FPL) percentage income standard from 133% to 185%, or 210% FPL once converted to MAGI and applying the applicable MAGI disregards. Additionally, the proposed revisions will extend Medicaid postpartum coverage from sixty (60) days to twelve (12) months.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  General Provider Policies
PART 3.  GENERAL MEDICAL PROGRAM INFORMATION
317:30-3-57.  General SoonerCare coverage - categorically needy
     The following are general SoonerCare coverage guidelines for the categorically needy:
(1)    Inpatient hospital services.
(A)    Adult coverage for inpatient hospital stays as described at Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-41.
(B)    Coverage for members under twenty-one (21) years of age is not limited. All admissions must be medically necessary. All psychiatric admissions require prior authorization for an approved length of stay.
(2)    Emergency department services.
(3)    Dialysis in an outpatient hospital or freestanding dialysis facility.
(4)    Outpatient therapeutic radiology or chemotherapy for proven malignancies or opportunistic infections.
(5)    Outpatient surgical services - facility payment for selected outpatient surgical procedures to hospitals which have a contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA).
(6)    Outpatient mental health services for medical and remedial care including services provided on an outpatient basis by certified hospital-based facilities that are also qualified mental health clinics.
(7)    Rural health clinic services and other ambulatory services furnished by rural health clinic.
(8)    Optometrists' services - only as listed in Subchapter 5, Part 45, Optometrist specific rules of this Chapter.
(9)    Maternity clinic services.
(10)    Outpatient diagnostic x-rays and lab services. Other outpatient services provided to adults, not specifically addressed, are covered only when prior authorized by the Agency's Medical Authorization Unit.
(11)    Medically necessary screening mammography. Additional follow-up mammograms are covered when medically necessary.
(12)    Long-term care facility services (other than services in an institution for tuberculosis or mental diseases).
(13)    Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic and Treatment Services (EPSDT) are available for members under twenty-one (21) years of age to provide access to regularly scheduled examinations and evaluations of the general physical and mental health, growth, development, and nutritional status of infants, children, and youth. Federal regulations also require that diagnosis and treatment be provided for conditions identified during a screening whether or not they are covered under the State Plan, as long as federal funds are available for these services. These services must be necessary to ameliorate or correct defects and physical or mental illnesses or conditions and require prior authorization. EPSDT/OHCA child-health services are outlined in OAC 317:30-3-65.2 through 317:30-3-65.12.
(A)    EPSDT screening examinations for eligible children by a medical or osteopathic physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse practitioner.
(B)    Diagnostic x-rays, lab, and/or injections when prescribed by a provider.
(C)    Immunizations.
(D)    Outpatient care.
(E)    Dental services as outlined in OAC 317:30-3-65.8.
(F)    Optometrists' services. The EPSDT periodicity schedule provides for at least one (1) visual screening and glasses each twelve (12) months. In addition, payment is made for glasses for children with congenital aphakia or following cataract removal. Interperiodic screenings and glasses at intervals outside the periodicity schedule for optometrists are allowed when a visual condition is suspected. Payment is limited to two (2) glasses per year. Any glasses beyond this limit must be prior authorized and determined to be medically necessary.
(G)    Hearing services as outlined in OAC 317:30-3-65.9.
(H)    Prescribed drugs.
(I)    Outpatient psychological services as outlined in OAC 317:30-5-275 through 317:30-5-278.
(J)    Inpatient psychiatric services as outlined in OAC 317:30-5-94 through 317:30-5-97.
(K)    Transportation. Provided when necessary in connection with examination or treatment when not otherwise available.
(L)    Inpatient hospital services.
(M)    Medical supplies, equipment, appliances, orthotics and prosthetics.
(N)    EPSDT services furnished in a qualified child health center.
(14)    Family planning services and supplies for members of child-bearing age, including counseling, insertion of intrauterine device, implantation of subdermal contraceptive device, and sterilization for members twenty-one (21) years of age and older who are legally competent, not institutionalized and have signed the "Consent Form" at least thirty (30) days prior to procedure. Reversal of sterilization procedures for the purposes of conception is not covered. Reversal of sterilization procedures are covered when medically indicated and substantiating documentation is attached to the claim.
(15)    Physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the member's home, a hospital, a long-term care facility, intermediate care facilities for individuals with intellectual disabilities (ICF/IID), or elsewhere. For adults, payment is made for compensable hospital days described at OAC 317:30-5-41. Office visits for adults are limited to four (4) per month except when in connection with conditions as specified in OAC 317:30-5-9(b).
(16)    Medical care and any other type of remedial care recognized under state law, furnished by licensed practitioners within the scope of their practice as defined by state law. See applicable provider section for limitations to covered services for:
(A)    Podiatrists' services;
(B)    Optometrists' services;
(C)    Psychologists' services;
(D)    Certified registered nurse anesthetists;
(E)    Certified nurse midwives;
(F)    Advanced practice registered nurses; and
(G)    Anesthesiologist assistants.
(17)    Freestanding ambulatory surgery centers.
(18)    Prescribed drugs not to exceed a total of six (6) prescriptions with a limit of two (2) brand name prescriptions per month. Exceptions to the six (6) prescription limit are:
(A)    Unlimited medically necessary monthly prescriptions for:
(i)    Members under the age of twenty-one (21) years; and
(ii)    Residents of long-term care facilities or ICF/IID.
(B)    Seven (7) medically necessary generic prescriptions per month in addition to the six (6) covered under the State Plan (including three (3) brand name prescriptions) are allowed for adults receiving services under the 1915(c) home and community-based services (HCBS) waivers. These additional medically necessary prescriptions beyond the three (3) brand name or thirteen (13) total prescriptions are covered with prior authorization.
(19)    Rental and/or purchase of medical supplies, equipment, and appliances.
(20)    Adaptive equipment, when prior authorized, for members residing in private ICF/IID's.
(21)    Dental services for members residing in private ICF/IID's in accordance with the scope of dental services for members under age twenty-one (21).
(22)    For non-expansion adults, prosthetic devices are limited to catheters and catheter accessories, colostomy and urostomy bags and accessories, tracheostomy accessories, nerve stimulators, hyperalimentation and accessories, home dialysis equipment and supplies, external breast prostheses and support accessories, oxygen/oxygen concentrator equipment and supplies, respirator or ventilator equipment and supplies, and those devices inserted during the course of a surgical procedure. There is no coverage for orthotic devices for adults.
(23)    Orthotics and prosthetics are covered for expansion adult members, above the limitations within (22) of this Section, when prescribed by the treating provider (physician, physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse) and medical necessity is documented in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-211.13.
(24)    Standard medical supplies.
(25)    Eyeglasses under EPSDT for members under age twenty-one (21). Payment is also made for glasses for children with congenital aphakia or following cataract removal. Payment is limited to two (2) glasses per year. Any glasses beyond this limit must be prior authorized and determined to be medically necessary.
(26)    Blood and blood fractions for members when administered on an outpatient basis.
(27)    Inpatient services for members age sixty-five (65) or older in institutions for mental diseases, limited to those members whose Medicare, Part A benefits are exhausted for this particular service and/or those members who are not eligible for Medicare services.
(28)    Long-term care facility services, limited to members preauthorized and approved by OHCA for such care.
(29)    Inpatient psychiatric facility admissions for members are limited to an approved length of stay with provision for requests for extensions.
(30)    Transportation and subsistence (room and board) to and from providers of medical services to meet member's needs (ambulance or bus, etc.), to obtain medical treatment.
(31)    Extended services for pregnant women including all pregnancy-related and postpartum services to continue to be provided, as though the women were pregnant, for sixty (60) daystwelve (12) months after the pregnancy ends regardless of the reason, beginning on the last date of pregnancy.
(32)    Long-term care facility services for members under twenty-one (21) years of age.
(33)    Personal care in a member's home, prescribed in accordance with a plan of treatment and rendered by a qualified person under supervision of a registered nurse (RN).
(34)    Medicare Part A, Part B, and Part C deductibles, coinsurance, and copays.
(35)    HCBS for the intellectually disabled.
(36)    Home health services can be provided without a PA for the first thirty-six (36) visits. A PA will be required beyond the 36th visit. The visits are limited to any combination of RN and nurse aide visits.
(37)    Medically necessary solid organ and bone marrow/stem cell transplantation services for children and adults are covered services based upon the conditions listed in (A)-(D) of this paragraph:
(A)    All transplantation services, except kidney and cornea, must be prior authorized;
(B)    All transplant procedures are reviewed and prior authorization is based upon appropriate medical criteria;
(C)    All organ transplants must be performed at a Medicare approved transplantation center;
(D)    Procedures considered experimental or investigational are not covered. For more information regarding experimental or investigational including clinical trials, see OAC 317:30-3-57.1; and
(E)    Donor search and procurement services are covered for transplants consistent with the methods used by the Medicare program for organ acquisition costs.
(38)    HCBS for intellectually disabled members who were determined to be inappropriately placed in a long-term care facility (Alternative Disposition Plan - ADP).
(39)    Case management services for the chronically and/or seriously mentally ill.
(40)    Emergency medical services, including emergency labor and delivery for undocumented or ineligible aliens.
(41)    Services delivered in Federally Qualified Health Centers (FQHCs). Payment is made on an encounter basis.
(42)    Early intervention services for children ages zero (0) to three (3).
(43)    Residential behavior management in therapeutic foster care setting.
(44)    Case management services through the Oklahoma Department of Mental Health and Substance Abuse Services (ODMHSAS).
(45)    HCBS for aged or physically disabled members.
(46)    Outpatient ambulatory services for members infected with tuberculosis.
(47)    Smoking and tobacco use cessation counseling for children and adults.
(48)    Services delivered to American Indians/Alaskan Natives (AI/AN) in Indian Health Services, Tribal Programs, and Urban Indian Clinics (I/T/Us). Payment is made on an encounter basis.
(49)    OHCA contracts with designated agents to provide disease state management for individuals diagnosed with certain chronic conditions. Disease state management treatments are based on protocols developed using evidence-based guidelines.
(50)    Residential substance use disorder (SUD) services.
(51)    Medication-assisted treatment (MAT) services.
(52)    Diabetes self-management education and support (DSMES).
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 16.  MATERNAL AND INFANT HEALTH LICENSED CLINICAL SOCIAL WORKERS
317:30-5-208.  Reimbursement
(a)    Maternal and infant health social work services must be billed using appropriate CPT codes and guidelines.
(b)    SoonerCare does not allow more than 32thirty-two (32) units (15 minutes = 1 unit)[fifteen (15) minutes = one (1) unit] during the pregnancy which includes 60 daystwelve (12) months postpartum.
(c)    LCSWs that are employed by or remunerated by another provider may not bill the SoonerCare program directly for services if that billing would result in duplicate payment for the same service.
(d)    Only the LCSW directly performing the care or a county health department may bill the SoonerCare Program.
(e)    The time indicated on the claim form must be the time actually spent with the member.
PART 18.  GENETIC COUNSELORS
317:30-5-221.  Coverage
(a)    Genetic counseling services are covered for SoonerCare members who meet the criteria for receiving medically necessary genetic testing as set forth in 317:30-5-2 (a)(1)(FF) and for pregnant/postpartum SoonerCare members as set forth in this section. Services for pregnant/postpartum SoonerCare members must be referred by a provider involved in the provision of obstetric or pediatric care. Members are eligible for genetic counseling during pregnancy which includes sixty (60) daystwelve (12) months postpartum. Reasons for genetic counseling include but are not limited to the following:
(1)    Advanced maternal age;
(2)    Abnormal maternal serum first or second screening;
(3)    Previous child or current fetus/infant with an abnormality;
(4)    Consanguinity/incest;
(5)    Parent is a known carrier or has a family history of a genetic condition;
(6)    Parent was exposed to a known or suspected reproductive hazard;
(7)    Previous fetal demise, stillbirth, or neonatal death involving known/suspected abnormalities;
(8)    History of recurrent pregnancy loss; or
(9)    Parent(s) are in an ethnic or racial group associated with an increased risk for specific genetic conditions.
(b)    These services may be provided in an office or outpatient setting.
317:30-5-222.  Reimbursement
(a)    Counseling services must be billed using appropriate CPT codes and guidelines and must be medically necessary. SoonerCare does not allow more than six units (30 minutes = 1 unit)[thirty (30) minutes = one (1) unit] per pregnancy including 60 daystwelve (12) months postpartum care.
(b)    Genetic Counselors who are employed by or remunerated by another provider may not bill the SoonerCare program directly for services if that billing would result in duplicate payment for the same service.
PART 20.  LACTATION CONSULTANTS
317:30-5-232.  Coverage
     Lactation Consultant services are covered for pregnant women and women up to 60 daystwelve (12) months postpartum. SoonerCare members may self-refer or be referred by any provider. Reasons for lactation services include but are not limited to the following:
(1)    prenatalPrenatal education/training for first timefirst-time mothers;
(2)    womenWomen who have not previously breastfed, have a history of breastfeeding difficulty, have identified risk factors for breastfeeding difficulty or lactation insufficiency (e.g., history of breast surgery, infertility, hormonal imbalance, diabetes, obesity);
(3)    womenWomen expecting an infant with risk factors for ineffective breastfeeding (e.g., preterm, multiples, congenital birth defects);
(4)    latch-onLatch-on difficulties;
(5)    lowLow milk supply;
(6)    breastfeedingBreastfeeding a premature baby (36thirty-six (36) weeks or less gestation);
(7)    breastfeedingBreastfeeding multiples; and
(8)    aA baby with special needs (e.g., Down Syndrome, cleft lip/or palate).
[OAR Docket #23-652; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-642]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. General Provider Policies
Part 3. General Medical Program Information
317:30-3-57.1 [AMENDED]
Part 6. Out-of-State Services
317:30-3-90 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-03)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; The Social Security Act § 1905(a)(30) and 1905(gg) (3); 42 C.F.R. § 431.52; The Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 3. General Provider Policies
Part 3. General Medical Program Information
317:30-3-57.1 [AMENDED]
Part 6. Out-of-State Services
317:30-3-90 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
August 2, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 763
Docket number:
22-697
(Reference APA WF # 22-03)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule revisions will add language to the clinical trials policy in section OAC 317:30-3-57.1 that states that the Oklahoma Health Care Authority will provide a coverage determination within 72 hours on whether the study is appropriate and meets the members' medical necessity needs. Additional revisions to the out-of-state services policy, at OAC 317:30-3-90, will add language to assure that clinical trials will be provided in accordance with all federal regulations and that OHCA's out-of-state policy does not apply to certain cases that involve clinical trials. Furthermore, language will be added to allow for the override of prior authorizations that are related to lodging and meals services when they are provided in accordance with an approved clinical trial. Finally, revisions will add language that allows for a SoonerCare member to travel up to one hundred miles (100) from the Oklahoma border to receive dental services.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  General Provider Policies
PART 3.  GENERAL MEDICAL PROGRAM INFORMATION
317:30-3-57.1.  Clinical trialsCoverage of routine services in relation to clinical trials
(a)     Definition. A clinical trial is a federally funded study that is either being conducted under an Investigational New Drug (IND) application or is exempt from having an IND application and helps to prevent, detect, or treat cancer or a life-threatening illness, injury, or disease.
(b)     Medical necessity. Clinical trials must be determined to be medically necessary for the individual affected member. Documentation in the member's plan of care should support the medical necessity of the clinical trial for the affected individual member and that the clinical trial is for the medical purposes only. Requests for clinical trials in and of itself shall not constitute medical necessity. The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) shall serve as the final authority pertaining to all determinations of medical necessity. Refer to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-3-1(f) for policy on medical necessity.
(c)     Documentation/requirements. All documentation submitted to request services must demonstrate, through adequate objective medical records, evidence sufficient to justify the member's need for the service, in accordance with OAC 317:30-3-1(f)(2). An OHCA approved clinical trial must include the following:
(1)    The clinical trial does one (1) of the following for the treatment of cancer or a life-threatening illness, injury, or disease:
(A)    Tests how to administer a health care service;
(B)    Tests responses to a health care service;
(C)    Compares effectiveness of a health care service; or
(D)    Studies new uses of a health care service.
(2)    The clinical trial is approved and funded by one (1) of the following:
(A)    Research facilities that have an established peer review program that has been approved by the National Institutes of Health Center (NIH);
(B)    The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention;
(C)    The Agency for Health Care Research and Quality (AHRQ);
(D)    The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS);
(E)    The United State Department of Veterans Affairs (VA);
(F)    The United States Department of Defense (DOD);
(G)    The Food and Drug Administration;
(H)    The United States Department of Energy; or
(I)    Research entities that meet the eligibility criteria for a support grant from a NIH center.
(3)    Is conducted in a facility where the personnel have training and expertise needed to provide the type of care required and there is written protocol for the approved clinical trial;
(4)    Complies with appropriate federal regulations regarding the protection of human subjects; and
(5)    For full guidelines, please refer to www.okhca.org/mau.
(d)     Routine care costs.
(1)    The following are included in routine care costs for approved clinical trials and by a SoonerCare contracted provider:
(A)    Costs that are required for the administration of the investigational item or service and are not a covered benefit of the clinical trial;
(B)    Costs regarding the appropriate monitoring of the effects from the item or service; and
(C)    Costs that are necessary for the prevention, diagnosis or treatment of medical complications for a non-covered item or service that was provided in the clinical trial.
(2)    The following are excluded from routine care costs in approved clinical trials:
(A)    The investigational item or service;
(B)    Items or services that the study gives for free;
(C)    Items or services that are only utilized when determining if the individual is eligible for the clinical trial;
(D)    Items or services that are used only for data collection or analysis;
(E)    Evaluations that are designed to only test toxicity or disease pathology;
(F)    Experimental, investigational, and unproven treatments or procedures and all related services provided outside of an approved clinical trial; and
(G)    Any non-FDA approved drugs that were provided or made available to the member during the approved clinical trial will not be covered after the trial ends.
(3)    Applicable plan limitations for coverage for out-of-network and out-of-state providers will apply to routine care costs in an approved clinical trial.
(4)    Applicable utilization management guidelines will apply to routine care costs in an approval clinical trial.
(e)     Experimental and investigational. SoonerCare does not cover for medical, surgical, or other health care procedures, which are considered experimental or investigational in nature.
(a)     Coverage. The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) will cover routine patient costs provided under a qualifying clinical trial to an eligible member. The OHCA does not:
(1)    Determine eligibility for participation in any research study; or
(2)    Reimburse for any costs associated in the research study, other than for routine patient costs for clinical studies, as defined in this Section and in the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
(b)     Qualifying clinical trials criteria.
(1)    Clinical trial, as adopted from the National Institute of Health (NIH) definition, means a research study in which one (1) or more human subjects are prospectively assigned to one (1) or more interventions, which may include placebo or other control, to evaluate the effects of those interventions on health-related biomedical or behavioral outcomes.
(2)    Pursuant to Section 1905(a)(30) and 1905(gg) of the Act, as amended and added by Division CC, Title II, Section 210 of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (Public Law 116-260, Section 210), qualifying clinical trial means a clinical trial, in any clinical phase of development, that is conducted in relation to the prevention, detection, or treatment of any serious or life-threatening disease or condition and is described in any of the following clauses:
(A)    The clinical trial is approved, conducted, or supported (which may include funding through in-kind contributions) by one (1) or more of the following:
(i)    The National Institutes of Health (NIH);
(ii)    The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC);
(iii)    The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRC);
(iv)    The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS);
(v)    A cooperative group or center of any of the entities described above or of the Department of Defense or the Department of Veteran Affairs;
(vi)    A qualified non-governmental research entity identified in guidelines issued by the National Institutes of Health for center support grants, including guidelines issued after the date of these rules; or
(vii)    Any of the following if the clinical trial has been reviewed and approved through a system of peer review that the Secretary determines to be comparable to the system of peer review of studies and investigations used by the National Institutes of Health and assures unbiased review of the highest scientific standards by qualified individuals with no interest in the outcome of the review:
(I)    The Department of Veterans Affairs;
(II)    The Department of Defense; or
(III)    The Department of Energy.
(B)    The clinical trial is conducted pursuant to an investigational new drug exemption under section 505(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act or an exemption for a biological product undergoing investigation under section 351(a)(3) of the Public Health Service Act.
(C)    The clinical trial is a drug trial that is exempt from being required to have an investigational new drug exemption or an exemption for a biological product undergoing investigation.
(3)    Serious disease or condition, as adopted from 21 C.F.R. § 312.300, means a disease or condition associated with morbidity that has substantial impact on day-to-day functioning. Short-lived and self-limiting morbidity will usually not be sufficient, but the morbidity need not be irreversible, provided it is persistent or recurrent. Whether a disease or condition is serious is a matter of clinical judgment, based on its impact on such factors as survival, day-to-day functioning, or the likelihood that the disease, if left untreated, will progress from a less severe condition to a more serious one.
(4)    Life-threatening disease or condition, as adopted from 21 C.F.R. § 312.300, means a stage of disease in which there is reasonable likelihood that death will occur within a matter of months or in which premature death is likely without early treatment.
(c)     Clinical trials determination standards. Pursuant to Section 1905(a)(30) and 1905(gg) of the Act, as amended and added by Division CC, Title II, Section 210 of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (Public Law 116-260, Section 210, the OHCA will expedite and complete a coverage determination for routine services under this Section within seventy-two (72) hours of receiving the required attestation as described below. The OHCA will maintain the following standards in any coverage determination under this section:
(1)     Attestation. The health care provider and principal investigator for the qualifying clinical trial must submit a standardized form attestation to the OHCA regarding the appropriateness of the qualifying clinical trial for the individual member.
(2)     Expedited determination. Upon receiving the completed required attestation, the OHCA will expedite and complete a coverage determination under this Section within seventy-two (72) hours. All documentation submitted to request services must demonstrate, through adequate objective medical records, evidence sufficient to meet at least one (1) definition in subsection (b)(3)-(4) above for the terms "serious disease or condition" or "life-threatening disease or condition".
(3)     Geographic and network allowance. The OHCA will determine coverage under this Section without limitation on the geographic location or network affiliation of the health care provider treating the individual member or the principal investigator of the qualifying clinical trial.
(4)     Protocols and proprietary documentation. The OHCA will determine coverage under this Section without requiring the submission of the protocols of the qualifying clinical trial or any other documentation that may be proprietary or determined by the Secretary to be burdensome to provide.
(5)     Documentation of serious or life-threatening disease or condition. In determining coverage under this Section, the OHCA will consider existing or newly offered documentation that the individual member has been diagnosed with or is suffering from one (1) or more serious or life-threatening diseases or conditions that are the subject of the qualifying clinical trial as shown in the attestation.
(d)     Routine patient costs.
(1)     Included items and services. Routine patient costs include any item or service provided to Medicaid-eligible members under the qualifying clinical trial, including:
(A)    Any item or service provided to prevent, diagnose, monitor, or treat complications resulting from participation in the qualifying clinical trial, to the extent that the provision of such items or services to the member would otherwise be covered outside the course of participation in the qualifying clinical trial under the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan or waiver, including a demonstration project under section 1115 of the Act; and
(B)    Any item or service required solely for the provision of the investigational item or services that is the subject of the qualifying clinical trial, including the administration of the investigational item or service.
(2)     Excluded items and services. The following items and services are excluded from routine patient costs in qualifying clinical trials:
(A)    Any investigational item or service that is:
(i)    The subject of the qualifying clinical trial; and
(ii)    Not otherwise covered outside of the clinical trial under the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan or waiver, including a demonstration project under section 1115 of the Act; and
(B)    Any item or service that is:
(i)    Provided to the member solely to satisfy data collection and analysis for the qualifying clinical trial and is not used in the direct clinical management of the member; and
(ii)    Not otherwise covered under the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan or waiver, including a demonstration project under section 1115 of the Act.
PART 6.  OUT-OF-STATE SERVICES
317:30-3-90.  Out-of-state services
(a)    Consistent with Section 431.52 of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.), an eligible SoonerCare member who is a resident of Oklahoma but who is temporarily out of state, may receive services from an out-of-state provider to the same extent that he or she would receive such services in Oklahoma, if:
(1)    Medical services are needed for a medical emergency, as determined by the attending physician or other provider (M.D., D.O., P.A., or A.P.R.N), or a dentist [Doctor of Dental Surgery (DDS), or Doctor of Medicine in Dentistry (DMD)]. For any provider, who is not contracted at the time the services are provided, documentation as requested from the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) of the emergency must be submitted, including, but not limited to, emergency room reports, medical histories, discharge summaries, and all other relevant medical reports.
(2)    Medical services are needed and the member's health would be endangered if he or she were required to return to Oklahoma for medical care and treatment, as determined by the attending physician or other provider (M.D., D.O., P.A., or A.P.R.N), or a dentist [Doctor of Dental Surgery (DDS), or Doctor of Medicine in Dentistry (DMD)]. For any provider, who is not contracted at the time the services are provided, documentation of the nature and possible extent of the endangerment must be submitted as requested from the OHCA.
(3)    The Oklahoma Health Care Authority's (OHCA) Chief Medical Officer (CMO), or his or her designee, determines, on the basis of medical advice, that the needed medical services, or necessary supplemental resources, are more readily available in the state where the member is located at the time of needing medical treatment. Prior authorization must be obtained from the OHCA's CMO, or his or her designee, before the services are rendered; or.
(4)    The customary or general practice for members residing in a particular locality within Oklahoma is to use medical resources in another state, and the member is using a provider that is contracted with the OHCA.
(b)    Per 42 C.F.R. § 431.52, if it is the customary or general practice for SoonerCare members who are residing in a particular locality within Oklahoma to use medical or dental resources in another state, reimbursement is available for services furnished in another State to the same extent that reimbursement for services is furnished within Oklahoma boundaries. The services being rendered must be provided by a provider who is contracted with the OHCA and must be appropriately licensed and in good standing with the state in which they practice.
(1A)    Except for out-of-state inpatient psychiatric services, no prior authorization is necessary for services provided in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(b), above, if the member obtains them from an out-of-state provider that is:
(Ai)    Located in a border state (Arkansas, Colorado, Kansas, Missouri, New Mexico, or Texas) within fifty (50) miles of the Oklahoma border, with exceptions for dental services. The OHCA will allow the member to travel up to one hundred (100) miles of the Oklahoma border to receive dental services; and
(ii)    Contracted with the OHCA;
(Biii)    Provided, however, that nothing in this paragraph shall be interpreted to eliminate or otherwise affect a prior authorization requirement established by any other OHCA rule, including, but not limited to, Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-3-31, that would have to be met if the health care-related good and/or service were provided in Oklahoma.
(2B)    In all other instances, prior authorization must be obtained from the OHCA's CMO, or his or her designee, before the services are rendered.
(c)    Clinical trials, either in-state or out-of-state, will need to adhere to any federal regulations which provides for certain exceptions to OHCA's out-of-state policy. For the full clinical trials policy, please refer to OAC 317:30-3-57.1.
(bd)    Except as provided in subsections (a)(1),(a)(2) and (a)(4)(A),(b)(1) and (c), above, SoonerCare will not pay for any services furnished by an out-of-state provider unless prior authorization has been obtained from the OHCA's CMO, or his or her designee, before the services are rendered. Prior authorization for out of state services must be obtained in all instances in which the member is located in Oklahoma at the time the services are determined to be medically necessary.
(1)    As part of this authorization process, the following documents must be submitted to the OHCA's CMO, or his or her designee:
(A)    Documents sufficient to establish the "medical necessity" of the services requested, as that term is defined by OAC 317:30-3-1(f). See also OAC 317:30-3-31, Prior authorization for health care-related goods and services. Examples of such documents may include, but are not limited to, Histories of Present Illnesses (HPIs), physical exams, laboratory reports, imaging reports, progress notes, hospital charts, and/or other relevant medical records; and
(B)    Documents sufficient to establish that the health care needs of the member cannot be met in Oklahoma. Such documents shall include, but not be limited to, a letter from the referring provider that contains:
(i)    A clear presentation of the member's medical condition and diagnosis for which out-of-state treatment is requested, including a summary of treatment to date that is supported by the documents in paragraph (b)(c)(1)(A), above;
(ii)    Names of physicians and/or facilities in Oklahoma that the member has previously been referred to for diagnosis and/or treatment;
(iii)    Physicians consulted by the attending physician relative to diagnosis and/or availability of recommended treatment in Oklahoma;
(iv)    Recommended treatment or further diagnostic work; and
(v)    Reasons why medical care cannot be provided in Oklahoma or the next closest location outside Oklahoma.
(C)    Except for emergency medical, behavioral health cases, and as provided in subsections (a)(1),(a)(2) and (b)(1), above, prior authorization requests for out-of-state services must be made in writing with all the necessary documents that show medical necessity and details of the services provided, including but not limited to, relevant medical history, description of services and procedures to be performed, Histories of Present Illnesses (HPIs), physical exams, laboratory reports, imaging reports, and received by the OHCA at least ten (10) calendar days prior to the date services are to be provided in another state or at the discretion of the CMO or his/her designee.
(i)    Emergency medical, or behavioral health, and dental cases must be identified as such by the physician or provider in the prior authorization request.
(ii)    Any telephone request for prior authorization of out-of-state services will only be accepted in emergency situations, and must be promptly followed by a written request.
(2)    Prior authorization requirements for medically necessary lodging, transportation, and/or meals assistance associated with out-of-state services are established in other OHCA rules, including, but not limited to, OAC 317:30-3-92 and 317:30-5-327.1. In accordance with federal regulations, exceptions to prior authorization requirements will be made for members who are participating in a clinical trial that require out-of-state medically necessary services. For the full clinical trials policy, please refer to OAC 317:30-3-57.1.
(ce)    The restrictionslimitations established in subsections (a) through (b)(c), above, shall not apply to children who reside outside of Oklahoma and for whom the Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) makes Title IV-E adoption assistance payments or Title IV-E foster care maintenance payments.
(df)    Denials of requests for prior authorization may be appealed in accordance with OAC 317:2-1-2(d)(1)(C).
(eg)    Out-of-state providers shall, upon request by authorized OHCA representatives, make available fiscal and medical records as required by applicable federal regulations, OHCA rules, and the Provider Agreement. Such records shall be made available for review by authorized OHCA representatives at the OHCA's address in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma.
[OAR Docket #23-642; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-647]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. General Provider Policies
Part 4. Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic and Treatment (EPSDT) Program/Child-Health Services
317:30-3-65 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-11)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 3. General Provider Policies
Part 4. Early And Periodic Screening, Diagnostic and Treatment (EPSDT) Program/Child-Health Services
317:30-3-65 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
February 21, 2023
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 655
Docket number:
23-186
(Reference APA WF # 22-11)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule changes will update policy to allow payment for both an Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic and Treatment (EPSDT) visit and a sick visit on the same date of service when it is deemed medically appropriate. The revisions will outline the requirements that must be met including, but not limited to, if the issue is significant enough to require additional work, the visit has appropriate documentation to justify the additional condition and is documented on a separate note, and that Modifier 25 is added to the appropriate code and is properly utilized. Further revisions will state that the provider may only claim the additional time that is required above and beyond the completion of the EPSDT screening. Finally, revisions will clarify that any problem that is encountered in the EPSDT screening and does not require significant additional work will be included in the EPSDT visit and should not be billed separately.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  General Provider Policies
PART 4.  EARLY AND PERIODIC SCREENING, DIAGNOSTIC AND TREATMENT (EPSDT) PROGRAM/CHILD-HEALTH SERVICES
317:30-3-65.  Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic and Treatment (EPSDT) Program/Child-health Services
     Payment is made to eligible providers for Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic and Treatment (EPSDT) services on behalf of eligible individuals under the age of twenty-one (21).
(1)    The EPSDT program is a comprehensive child-health program, designed to ensure the availability of, and access to, required health care resources and help parents and guardians of Medicaid-eligible children and adolescents use these resources. An effective EPSDT program assures that health problems are diagnosed and treated early before they become more complex and their treatment more costly. The physician plays a significant role in educating parents and guardians about all services available through the EPSDT program. The receipt of an identified EPSDT screening makes the member eligible for all necessary follow-up care that is within the scope of the SoonerCare program. Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic and Treatment (EPSDT) covers services, supplies, or equipment that are determined to be medically necessary for a child or adolescent, and which are included within the categories of mandatory and optional services in Section 1905(a) of Title XIX, regardless of whether such services, supplies, or equipment are listed as covered in Oklahoma's Medicaid State Plan.
(2)    Federal regulations also require that the State set standards and protocols for each component of EPSDT services. The standards must provide for services at intervals which meet reasonable standards of medical and dental practice. The standards must also provide for EPSDT services at other intervals as medically necessary to determine the existence of certain physical or behavioral health illnesses or conditions.
(3)    SoonerCare providers who perform EPSDT screenings must assure that the screenings they provide meet the minimum standards established by the Oklahoma Health Care Authority in order to be reimbursed at the level established for EPSDT services.
(4)    An EPSDT screening is considered a comprehensive examination. A provider billing SoonerCare for an EPSDT screen may not bill any other Evaluation and Management Current Procedure Terminology (CPT) code for that patient on that same day. It is expected that the screening provider will perform necessary treatment as part of the screening charge. However, there may be other additional diagnostic procedures or treatments not normally considered part of a comprehensive examination, including diagnostic tests and administration of immunizations, required at the time of screening. Additional diagnostic procedures or treatments may be billed independently from the screening. Some services as set out in this section may require prior authorization.
(A)    If a member is receiving an EPSDT screening and an additional focused complaint arises that requires evaluation and management to address the complaint, the provider may deliver all medically necessary care and submit a claim for both the EPSDT screening and the appropriate level of focused service if the following requirements are met:
(i)    The medical issue is significant enough to require additional work to address the issue;
(ii)    The visit is documented on a separate note;
(iii)    Appropriate documentation that clearly lists the condition being managed at the time of the encounter and supports the billing of both services; and
(iv)    Modifier 25 is added to the appropriate code that indicates that a separate evaluation and management service was provided by the same physician on the same day as the EPSDT screening. All claims submitted with Modifier 25 will be reviewed prior to payment, per Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-3-33. The following items will be reviewed prior to any payment:
(I)    Medical necessity;
(II)    Appropriate utilization of Modifier 25; and
(III)    All documentation to support both the EPSDT screening and the additional evaluation and management for a focused complaint must be submitted for review.
(v)    All claims are subject to a post payment review by the OHCA's Program Integrity Unit.
(B)    When providing evaluation and management of a focused complaint, during an EPSDT screening, the provider may claim only the additional time that is required above and beyond the completion of the EPSDT screening.
(C)    An insignificant or trivial problem that is encountered in the process of performing the preventive evaluation and management service and does not require additional work is included in the EPSDT visit and should not be billed/reported.
(5)    There may be other additional diagnostic procedures or treatments not normally considered part of a comprehensive examination, including diagnostic tests and administration of immunizations, required at the time of screening. Additional diagnostic procedures or treatments may be billed independently from the screening. Some services as set out in this section may require prior authorization.
(56)    For an EPSDT screening to be considered a completed reimbursable service, providers must perform, and document, all required components of the screening examination. Documentation of screening services performed must be retained for future review.
(67)    All comprehensive screenings provided to individuals under age twenty-one (21) must be filed on HCFA-1500 using the appropriate preventive medicine procedure code or an appropriate Evaluation and Management code from the Current Procedural Terminology Manual (CPT) accompanied by the appropriate "V"well-child exam diagnosis code.
(78)    For EPSDT services in a school-based setting that are provided pursuant to an IEP, please refer to Part 103, Qualified Schools As Providers Of Health-Related Services, in Oklahoma Administrative CodeOAC 317:30-5-1020 through 317:30-5-1028.
[OAR Docket #23-647; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-641]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 25. Psychologist
317:30-5-275 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-276 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-02)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions update policy to reflect that adults, covered by Medicaid, can access services provided by licensed clinical psychologists who bill independently and are practicing within state scope of practice. Services provided by independently contracted clinical psychologists were previously a State Plan benefit only available to children.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 25.  PSYCHOLOGISTS
317:30-5-275.  Eligible providers
(a)    Licensed Psychologist must be licensed to practice in the state in which services are provided. Payment is made for compensable services to psychologists licensed in the state in which face to faceface-to-face services are delivered.
(b)    Psychologists employed in State and Federal Agenciesagencies, who are not permitted to engage in private practice, cannot be reimbursed for services as an individually contracted provider.
(c)    Services provided by practitioners, who have completed education requirements to begin an internship or a post-doctoral fellowship in an accredited clinical psychology academic training program and are under current board approved supervision toward licensure, are eligible for reimbursement. Each supervising psychologist must have a current contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA).
(d)    For those licensure candidates who are actively and regularly receiving board approved supervision, or extended supervision by a fully licensed clinician and if the board's supervision requirement is met but the individual is not yet licensed, each supervising psychologist must have a current contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA).
(e)    In order for services provided by clinical psychology interns completing required internships, post-doctoral fellows completing required supervision for licensure to be reimbursed, the following conditions must be met:
(1)    The licensed practitioner billing SoonerCare must have a letter on file covering the dates of services of the internship or post doctoralpost-doctoral fellowship;
(2)    The psychology intern or post-doctoral fellow must be under the direct supervision of the licensed psychologist who is responsible for the member's care;
(3)    The licensed psychologist responsible for the member's care must:
(A)    staffStaff the member's case with the intern or fellow,
(B)    activelyActively direct the services,;
(C)    beBe available to the intern or fellow for in-person consultation while they are providing services,;
(D)    agreeAgree with the current plan for the member,; and
(E)    confirmConfirm that the service provided by the intern or fellow was appropriate; and.
(4)    The member's medical record must show that the requirements for reimbursement were met and the licensed psychologist responsible for the member's care has reviewed, countersigned, and dated the notes in the medical record at least every week so that it is documented that the licensed psychologist is responsible for the member's care.
317:30-5-276.  Coverage by category
(a)     Outpatient Behavioral Health Services. Outpatient behavioral health services are covered as set forth in this Section, when provided in accordance with a documented individualized service plan medical record, developed to treat the identified behavioral health and/or substance use disorder(s), unless specified otherwise.
(1)    All services are to be for the goal of improvement of functioning, independence, or wellbeing of the member. The services and treatment plans are to be recovery focused, trauma and co-occurring specific. The member must be able to actively participate in the treatment. Active participation means that the member must have sufficient cognitive abilities, communication skills, and short-term memory to derive a reasonable benefit from the treatment.
(2)    In order to be reimbursed for services, providers must submit a completed Customer Data Core (CDC) to OHCA or its designated agent. The CDC must be reviewed, updated and resubmitted by the provider every six months. Reimbursement is made only for services provided while a current CDC is on file with OHCA or its designated agent. For further information and instructions regarding the CDC, refer to the Prior Authorization Manual.
(3)    Some outpatient behavioral health services may require authorization. For information regarding services requiring authorization and the process for obtaining them, refer to the Prior Authorization Manual. Authorization of services is not a guarantee of payment. The provider is responsible for ensuring that the eligibility, medical necessity, procedural, coding, claims submission, and all other state and federal requirements are met. OHCA does retain the final administrative review over both authorization and review of services as required by 42 CFRCode of Federal Regulations 431.10.
(b)     Adults. Coverage for adults by a psychologist is limited to Bio-Psycho-Social Assessments when required by OHCA as part of a preoperative prior authorization protocol for organ transplant or bariatric surgical procedures.
(1)    The interview and assessment is defined as a face-to-face interaction with the member. Assessment includes a history, mental status, full bio-psycho-social evaluation, a disposition, communications with family or other sources, review of laboratory or other pertinent medical information, and medical/clinical consultations as necessary. The pre-op evaluation should aim to assess the member's psychological well-being, ability to make informed decisions, and willingness to participate actively in postoperative treatment.
(2)    For bariatric preoperative assessments, issues to address include, but are not limited to: Depression, self-esteem, stress management, coping skills, binge eating, change in eating habits, other eating disorders, change in social roles, changes associated with return to work/school, body image, sexual function, lifestyle issues, personality factors that may affect treatment and recovery, alcohol or substance use disorders, ability to make lasting behavior changes, and need for further support and counseling.
(cb)     Children. Coverage for children includes the following services:
(1)    Bio-Psycho-Social Assessments. Psychiatric Diagnostic Interview Examination (PDIE) initial assessment or Level of Care Assessment. The interview and assessment is defined as a face-to-face interaction with the member. Psychiatric diagnostic interview examination includes a history, mental status, and a disposition, and may include communication with family or other sources, ordering and medical interpretation of laboratory or other medical diagnostic studies. Only one (1) PDIE is allowable per provider per member. If there has been a break in service over a six (6) month period, then an additional unit of PDIE can be prior authorized by OHCA, or their designated agent.
(2)    Psychotherapy in an outpatient setting including an office, clinic, or other confidential setting. The services may be performed at the residence of the member if it is demonstrated that it is clinically beneficial, or if the member is unable to go to a clinic or office. Psychotherapy is defined as a one to one treatment using a widely accepted modality or treatment framework suited to the individual's age, developmental abilities and diagnosis. It may include specialized techniques such as biofeedback or hypnosis. Psychotherapy is considered to involve "interactive complexity" when there are communication factors during a visit that complicate delivery of the psychotherapy by the psychologist. Sessions typically involve members who have other individuals legally responsible for their care (i.e. minors or adults with guardians); members who request others to be involved in their care during the session (i.e. adults accompanied by one or more participating family members or interpreter or language translator); or members that require involvement of other third parties (i.e. child welfare, juvenile justice, parole/probation officers, schools, etc.). Psychotherapy should only be reported as involving interactive complexity when at least one (1) of the following communication factors is present:
(A)    The need to manage maladaptive communication (i.e. related to high anxiety, high reactivity, repeated questions, or disagreement) among participants that complicate delivery of care.
(B)    Caregiver emotions/behavior that interfere with implementation of the treatment plan.
(C)    Evidence/disclosure of a sentinel event and mandated report to a third party (i.e. abuse or neglect with report to state agency) with initiation of discussion of the sentinel event and/or report with patient and other visit participants.
(D)    Use of play equipment, physical devices, interpreter or translator to overcome barriers to therapeutic interaction with a patient who is not fluent in the same language or who has not developed or lost expressive or receptive language skills to use or understand typical language.
(3)    Family Psychotherapy is performed in an outpatient setting limited to an office, clinic, or other confidential setting. Family therapy is a face-to-face interaction between a therapist and the patient/family to facilitate emotional, psychological or behavioral changes and promote communication and understanding. Family therapy must be provided for the benefit of a SoonerCare eligible childthe member as a specifically identified component of an individual treatment plan.
(4)    Group and/or Interactive Group psychotherapy in an outpatient setting must be performed in the psychologist's office, clinic, or other confidential setting. Group therapy is a face to face interaction between a therapist and two or more unrelated patients (though there may be siblings in the same group, just not siblings only) to facilitate emotional, psychological, or behavioral changes. All group therapy records must indicate group size. Maximum total group size is six (6) patients for children four years of age up to the age of 18. Groups 18-20 year olds can include up to eight (8) individuals for members 18-20 years of age. Group therapy must be provided for the benefit of a SoonerCare eligible childthe member four years of age or older as a specifically identified component of an individual treatment plan. Multi-family group therapy size is limited to eight family units.
(5)    Assessment/Evaluation and testing is provided by a psychological technician of a psychologist or a LBHP utilizing tests selected from currently accepted assessment test batteries. For assessments conducted in a school setting, the Oklahoma State Department of Education requires that a licensed supervisor sign the assessment. Eight hours/units of testing per patient (over the age of three), per provider is allowed every 12 months. There may be instances when further testing is appropriate based on established medical necessity criteria found in the Prior Authorization Manual. Test results must be reflected in the service plan or medical record. The service must clearly document the need for the testing and what the testing is expected to achieve. Testing for a child younger than three must be medically necessary and meet established criteria as set forth in the Prior Authorization Manual. Justification for additional testing beyond allowed amount as specified in this section must be clearly explained and documented in the medical record. Testing units must be billed on the date the testing, interpretation, scoring, and/or reporting was performed and supported by documentation.
(6)    Health and Behavior codes - behavioral health services are available only to chronically and severely medically ill childrenmembers.
(7)    Crisis intervention services for the purpose of stabilization and hospital diversion as clinically appropriate.
(8)    Payment for therapy services provided by a psychologist to any one member is limited to eight sessions/units per month. A maximum of twelve (12)12 sessions/units of therapy and testing services per day per provider are allowed. A maximum of 35thirty five (35) hours of therapy per week per provider are allowed. The weekly service hour limitation will be calculated using a rolling four (4) week average. Case Management services are considered an integral component of the behavioral health services listed above.
(9)    A child who is being treated in an acute psychiatric inpatient setting can receive separate Psychological services as the inpatient per diem is for "non-physician" services only.
(9)    A child may receive psychological testing and evaluation services as separately reimbursable services.
(10)    A child receiving Residential Behavioral Management in a foster home, also known as therapeutic foster care, or a child receiving Residential Behavioral Management in a group home, also known as therapeutic group home, may not receive individual, group or family counseling or psychological testing unless allowed by the OHCA or its designated agent.
(c)     Adults. Coverage for adults is the same as for children. For group therapy, groups can include up to eight individuals for adult members 18 years of age and older.
(d)     Home and Community Based Waiver Services for the Intellectually Disabled. All providers participating in the Home and Community Based Waiver Services for the intellectually disabled programprogram for people with intellectual and developmental disabilities must have a separate contract with this Authority to provide services under this program. All services are specified in the individual's plan of care.
(e)     Individuals eligible for Part B of Medicare. Payment is made utilizing the Medicaid allowable for comparable services.
(f)     Nursing Facilities. Services provided to members residing in nursing facilities may not be billed to SoonerCare.
[OAR Docket #23-641; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-640]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 32. SoonerRide Non-Emergency Transportation (NEMT)
317:30-5-326 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-01)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; 42 C.F.R. Section 431.53; Section 1902(a)(87) of the Social Security Act
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 32. SoonerRide Non-Emergency Transportation (NEMT)
317:30-5-326 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
May 16, 2022
Register publication:
39 Ok Reg 718
Docket number:
22-382
(Reference APA WF # 22-01)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rules will add language to the Agency's non-emergency transportation (NEMT) policy that ensures compliance with federal and state regulations, as well as the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan. The revisions are needed to comply with recent changes made to federal regulation which requires the State Plan to provide the Agency's assurance that any NEMT provider or individual driver will meet certain minimum requirements.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 32.  SOONERRIDE NON-EMERGENCY TRANSPORTATION (NEMT)
317:30-5-326.  Provider eligibility
     The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) is responsible for assuring that necessary transportation is available to all eligible SoonerCare members who are in need of SoonerCare medical services in accordance with Section 431.53 of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The agency contracts with a broker to provide the most appropriate, and least costly mode of transportation necessary to meet the individual needs of SoonerCare members statewide. Payment for covered services to the broker is made pursuant to the methodology described in the Oklahoma Title XIX State Plan.The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) is responsible for assuring that necessary transportation is available to all eligible SoonerCare members who are in need of SoonerCare medical services in accordance with Section 431.53 of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(1)    The agency contracts with a broker to provide the most appropriate, and least costly mode of transportation necessary to meet the individual needs of SoonerCare members statewide.
(2)    All SoonerRide contracted providers must meet the standards and requirements outlined in the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan, the SoonerRide provider manual and contract, as well as all applicable federal and state laws/regulations.
(3)    Payment for covered services to the broker is made pursuant to the methodology described in the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
[OAR Docket #23-640; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-643]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 33. Transportation by Ambulance
317:30-5-345 [NEW]
(Reference APA WF # 22-05)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; 42 CFR 433.50; 42 CFR 433.55; 42 CFR 433.56; 42 CFR 433.57; 42 CFR 433.68; 42 CFR 433.72; 63 O.S. 3241.1 - 3242.6; and Oklahoma House Bill (HB) 2950
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 33. Transportation by Ambulance
317:30-5-345 [NEW]
Gubernatorial approval:
November 4, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 367
Docket number:
22-870
(Reference APA WF # 22-05)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions establish an Ambulance Service Provider Access Payment Program whose aim is to assure access to quality emergency and non-emergency transports for state Medicaid members, by assessing a fee to privately owned ambulance service providers licensed in Oklahoma, to be used to supplement appropriations to support ambulance service provider reimbursement.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 33.  TRANSPORTATION BY AMBULANCE
317:30-5-345.  Ambulance Service Provider Access Payment Program (ASPAPP)
(a)     Purpose. The Ambulance Service Provider Access Payment Program (ASPAPP) is an ambulance service provider (ASP) assessment fee that is eligible for federal matching funds when used to reimburse SoonerCare services in accordance with Section 3242.1 through 3242.6 of Title 63 of the Oklahoma Statutes (O.S.).
(b)     Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this Section shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
(1)    "Air ambulance" means ambulance services provided by fixed or rotor wing ambulance services.
(2)    "Alliance" means the Oklahoma Ambulance Alliance or its successor association.
(3)    "Ambulance" means a motor vehicle that is primarily used or designated as available to provide transportation and basic life support or advanced life support.
(4)    "Ambulance service" or "ambulance service provider (ASP)" means any private firm or governmental agency licensed by the Oklahoma State Department of Health (OSDH) to provide levels of medical care based on certification rules or standards promulgated by the Oklahoma state Commissioner of Health.
(5)    "Emergency" or "emergent" means a serious situation or occurrence that happens unexpectedly and demands immediate action, such as a medical condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity including severe pain such that the absence of immediate medical attention could reasonably be expected, by a reasonable and prudent layperson, to result in placing the patient's health in serious jeopardy, serious impairment to bodily function or serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.
(6)    "Emergency transport" means the movement of an acutely ill or injured patient from the scene to a health care facility or the movement of an acutely ill or injured patient from one health care facility to another health care facility.
(7)    "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program established in Title XIX of the Social Security Act and administered in Oklahoma by the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA).
(8)    "Net operating revenue" means the gross revenues earned for providing emergency transports in Oklahoma excluding revenues earned for providing air ambulance services, non-emergency transports, and amounts refunded to or recouped, offset, or otherwise deducted by a patient or payer for ground medical transportation.
(9)    "Non-emergency transport" means the movement of any patient in an ambulance other than an emergency transport as defined in Part 33, 317:30-5-335.1.
(10)    "Upper payment limit" means the lesser of the customary charges of the ASP or the prevailing charges in the locality of the ASP for comparable services under comparable circumstances, calculated according to methodology in an approved state plan amendment for the state Medicaid program.
(11)    "Upper payment limit gap" means the difference between the upper payment limit of the ASP and the Medicaid payments not financed using the ASP assessments made to all ASPs, provided that the upper payment limit gap shall not include air ambulance services.
(c)     ASPAPP exemptions.
(1)    Pursuant to 63 O.S. §§ 3242.1 through 3242.6 the OHCA is mandated to assess ASPs licensed in Oklahoma pursuant to rules and standards promulgated by the Oklahoma state Commissioner of Health, unless exempted under (c) (2) of this Section, an ASP access payment program fee.
(2)    The following ASPs are exempt from the ASPAPP fee:
(A)    Owned or operated by the state or a state agency, the federal government, a federally recognized Indian tribe, or the Indian Health Service.
(B)    Eligible for Supplemental Hospital Offset Payment Program (SHOPP) Medicaid reimbursement;
(C)    Provides air ambulance services only; or
(D)    Provides non-emergency transports only.
(d)     The ASPAPP assessment.
(1)    The ASPAPP assessment is imposed on each ambulance service provider, except those exempted under (c)(2) of this Section, for each calendar year in an amount calculated as a percentage of each ambulance service provider's net operating revenue.
(2)    The assessment rate shall be determined annually based upon the percentage of net operating revenue needed to generate an amount up to the non-federal portion of the upper payment limit gap, plus the annual fee paid to OHCA for administrative expenses incurred in performing the activities, not to exceed $200,000 each year, plus the state share of ASP access payments for ASPs that participate in the assessment. At no time will the assessment rate exceed the maximum rate allowed by federal law or regulation.
(3)    OHCA will review and determine the amount of annual assessment in December of each year in consultation with the Oklahoma Ambulance Alliance.
(4)    The annual assessment is due and payable quarterly. However, a payment of the assessment will not be due and payable until:
(A)    OHCA issues written notice stating that the payment methodologies to the ASPs under 63 O.S. §§ 3242.1 through 3242.6 have been approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and the waiver under 42. C.F.R. § 433.68 for the assessment, if necessary, has been granted by CMS.
(B)    OHCA has made all quarterly installments of the ASP access payments that were otherwise due, consistent with the effective date of the approved state plan.
(5)    The method of collection of net operating revenue is as follows:
(A)    Annually, no later than January 31, OHCA will send all licensed ASPs the net operating revenue form. ASPs shall complete the forms and deliver them to OHCA or its contractor no later than March 31 of that year. ASPs that fail to return the net operating revenue form will have their assessment calculated based on the state per capita average assessment for that year. OHCA will send a notice of assessment to each ASP informing the provider of the assessment rate and the estimated annual amount owed by the ASP for the applicable calendar year.
(B)    The first notice of assessment will be sent within forty-five (45) days of receipt by OHCA of notice from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services that the payments under 63 O.S. §§ 3242.1 through 3242.6, and if necessary, the waiver granted under 42 C.F.R. § 433.68 have been approved.
(C)    Annual notices of assessment will be sent at least forty-five (45) days before the due date for the first quarterly assessment payment of each calendar year. The ASP shall have thirty (30) days from the date of its receipt of a notice of assessment to review and verify the assessment rate and the estimated assessment amount.
(D)    If an ASP operates, conducts, or maintains more than one (1) ASP in the state, the ASP will pay the assessment for each ASP separately. However, if the ASP operates more than one (1) ASP under one (1) Medicaid provider number, the ASP provider may pay the assessment for all such ASPs in the aggregate.
(6)    The method of collection of the assessment fee is as follows:
(A)    After the initial installment has been paid, each subsequent quarterly payment of an assessment will be due and payable by the 15th day on the first month of the applicable quarter (i.e., January 15th, April 15th, etc.).
(B)    Failure to pay the amount by the 15th or failure to have the payment mailing postmarked by the 13th will result in a debt to the State of Oklahoma and is subject to penalties of five percent (5%) of the amount and interest of one and one-quarter percent (1.25%) per month.
(e)     Penalties and adjustments.
(1)    If an ASP fails to timely pay the full amount of a quarterly assessment, OHCA will add to the assessment:
(A)    A penalty equal to five percent (5%) of the quarterly amount not paid on or before the due date, and
(B)    An additional five percent (5%) penalty on any unpaid quarterly and unpaid penalty amounts on the last day of each quarter after the due date until the assessed amount and the penalty imposed under subpart (A) of this paragraph are paid in full.
(2)    The quarterly assessment including applicable penalties and interest must be paid regardless of any appeals action requested by the facility. If an ASP fails to pay the OHCA the assessment within the timeframes noted on the invoice to the provider, the assessment, applicable penalty, and interest will be deducted from the ASP's payment.
(3)    Any change in payment amount resulting from an appeals decision will be adjusted in future payments.
(4)    If Medicaid reimbursement rates are adjusted, ASP rates may not be adjusted less favorably than the average percentage-rate reduction or increase applicable to the majority of other provider groups.
(f)     Closure, merger, and new Ambulance Service Providers (ASPs).
(1)    If an ASP ceases to operate as an ASP for any reason or ceases to be subject to the fee, the assessment for the year in which the cessation occurs is adjusted by multiplying the annual assessment by a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of days in the year during which the ASP is subject to the assessment and the denominator of which is three hundred sixty-five (365). Within thirty (30) days of ceasing to operate as an ASP, or otherwise ceasing to be subject to the assessment, the ASP will pay the assessment for the year as so adjusted, to the extent not previously paid.
(2)    The ASP also shall receive payments under 63 O.S. §§ 3242.1 through 3242.6, for the calendar year in which the cessation occurs, which will be adjusted by the same fraction as its annual assessment.
(3)    For new ASPs, the OHCA will calculate revenue to be assessed based on the population of the county for which the ASP is licensed. The per capita amount will be assigned and calculated based on the average net operating revenue per capita for all other ASPs in the state that are currently being assessed. Average revenue per capita will be used in this way through the end of the second calendar year.
(4)    Any assessment paid by a provider on revenue subject to another health care related tax as defined in 42 CFR § 433.68 shall be a credit against any assessment due under these rules.
(g)     Disbursement of payment to ASPs.
(1)    To preserve and improve access to ambulance services, for ambulance services rendered on or after the approval of the ASPAPP by CMS, OHCA shall make ASP payments as set forth in this section. These payments are considered supplemental payments and do not replace any currently authorized Medicaid payments for ambulance services.
(2)    OHCA shall pay all quarterly ASP access payments within ten (10) calendar days of the due date for the quarterly assessment payments established in subsection (d) of this section.
(3)    OHCA shall calculate the ASP access payment amount as the balance of the ASPAPP Fund plus any federal matching funds earned on the balance up to but not to exceed the upper payment limit gap for all ASPs.
(4)    All ASPs shall be eligible for ASP access payments each year as set forth in this subsection except ambulance services excluded or exempted in subsection (c)(2) of this section.
(5)    Access payments shall be made on a quarterly basis.
(6)    ASPs eligible to receive ASP access payments are those providers:
(A)    Subject to this assessment; and
(B)    That apply to receive the ASP access payment as provided in Section 317:30-5-345.
(7)    An application by the ASP shall be submitted to OHCA to be eligible to receive payments.
(A)    Not less than one-hundred eighty (180) days prior to the beginning of each state fiscal year, OHCA will send all qualified licensed ASPs an application for ASP access payments.
(B)    The application will:
(i)    Allow the ASP to submit all information needed to calculate that ASP's average commercial rate;
(ii)    Provide that the application must be received by OHCA on a date which will be no less than one- hundred twenty (120) days prior to the beginning of the calendar year;
(iii)    Explain that unless exempt from payment by law, the ASP will be required to pay the ASP assessment even if the provider fails to apply for the ASP access payments;
(iv)    Explain that if the ASP fails to supply the Net Operating Revenue Survey, the assessment will be calculated based on the state per capita average assessment for that year; and
(v)    Explain that the ASP will not be eligible to receive ASP access payments in the next calendar year if the application is not timely filed but will still be assessed based on the average assessment.
(C)    An ASP that has previously received ASP access payments is required to make an application for such payments and provide the revenue survey no less than every three (3) years.
(8)    The Average Commercial Rate will be calculated as follows:
(A)    The ASP access payment shall be determined in a manner to bring the payments for these services up to the average commercial rate level as described in Section 317:30-5-345. The average commercial rate level is defined as the average amount payable by the commercial payers for the same service.
(B)    OHCA shall align the paid Medicaid claims with the Medicare fees for each healthcare common procedure coding system (HCPCS) or current procedure terminology (CPT) code for the ASP and calculate the Medicare payment for those claims.
(C)    OHCA shall calculate an overall Medicare to commercial conversion factor for each qualifying ASP that submits an ASP access payment application by dividing the total amount of the average commercial payments for the claims by the total Medicare payments for the claims.
(D)    The commercial to Medicare ratio for each provider will be redetermined every three (3) years.
[OAR Docket #23-643; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-645]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 58. Non-Hospital-Based Hospice
317:30-5-530 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-531 [AMENDED]
Part 110. Indian Health Services, Tribal Programs, and Urban Indian Clinics (I/T/Us)
317:30-5-1096 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 23-08)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 435.119
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 58. Non-Hospital-Based Hospice
317:30-5-530 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-531 [AMENDED]
Part 110. Indian Health Services, Tribal Programs, and Urban Indian Clinics (I/T/Us)
317:30-5-1096 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
August 2, 2022
Register publication:
39 Ok Reg 768
Docket number:
22-699
(Reference APA WF # 22-08)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule will add hospice services as a covered benefit for the adult expansion population as described per the Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.) Title 42 Section 435.119. The proposed rule changes will outline hospice coverage, eligibility criteria, reimbursement, provider qualifications/requirements, and prior authorization requirements.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 58.  NON-HOSPITAL BASED HOSPICE
317:30-5-530.  Eligible providers
     Non-Hospital Affiliated Hospice entities must be appropriately licensed and have a contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority to provide Hospice services.
(a)    Providers of hospice services will meet applicable state and federal licensing requirements and meet Medicare certification requirements to provide hospice services.
(b)    Providers of hospice services will enter into a contractual agreement with the State Medicaid Agency, Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA).
317:30-5-531.  Coverage for adults
     There is no coverage for hospice services provided Medicaid eligible adults except for the hospice provision provided through the ADvantage Waiver.
(a)     Definition. "Hospice care" means a comprehensive, holistic program of palliative and/or comfort care and support provided to the member and his/her family when a physician certifies that the member has a terminal illness and has a life expectancy of six (6) months or less.
(b)     Requirements.
(1)    Hospice services must be related to the palliation and management of the member's illness, symptom control, or to enable the individual to maintain activities of daily living and basic functional skills.
(2)    Hospice care is performed under the direction of a physician as per the member's plan of care in an approved hospital hospice facility, in-home hospice program, or nursing facility.
(c)     Eligibility. Coverage for hospice services is provided to Medicaid eligible expansion adults only.
(1)    Expansion adults defined by 42 Code of Federal Regulations § 435.119 who are age nineteen (19) or older and under sixty-five (65), at or below one hundred thirty-three percent (133%) of the federal poverty level (FPL), and who are not categorically related to the aged, blind, or disabled eligibility group are eligible for hospice services.
(2)    Hospice care eligibility requires physician certification that the member is terminally ill and includes a medical prognosis with a life expectancy of six (6) months or less if the illness runs its normal course. The terminal prognosis also must be supported by clinical documentation in the medical record.
(3)    For information regarding hospice provision provided through waivers, refer to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-763, 317:30-5-1200, and 317:30-5-1202.
(d)     Covered services. Hospice care services can include but are not limited to:
(1)    Nursing care;
(2)    Physician services (e.g., physicians employed or working under arrangements made with the hospice);
(3)    Medical equipment and supplies;
(4)    Drugs for symptom control and pain relief;
(5)    Home health aide services;
(6)    Personal care services;
(7)    Physical, occupational and/or speech therapy;
(8)    Medical social services;
(9)    Dietary counseling; and
(10)    Grief and bereavement counseling to the member and/or family are required but are not reimbursable.
(e)     Prior authorization. All services must be prior authorized, and a written plan of care must be established before services are rendered. For medical review purposes, all hospice services will be authenticated in accordance with OAC 317:30-3-30.
(f)     Service election.
(1)    The member or member's legal guardian or authorized representative must sign an election statement, choosing hospice care instead of routine medical care with the objective to treat and cure the member's terminal illness, and by doing so waives his or her right to other Medicaid benefits, except for care not related to the terminal illness and care provided by the attending physician.
(2)    Once the member, legal guardian, or member's authorized representative has elected hospice care, the hospice medical team assumes responsibility for the member's medical care for the terminal illness.
(g)     Service revocation.
(1)    Hospice care services may be revoked by the member, legal guardian, or authorized representative at any time.
(2)    Upon revoking the election of Medicaid coverage of hospice care for a particular election period, the member resumes Medicaid coverage of the benefits waived when hospice care was elected.
(3)    The member may at any time elect to receive hospice coverage for any other hospice election periods for which he or she is eligible.
(h)     Service frequency. Hospice care services:
(1)    Are available for an initial two (2) ninety-day (90-day) certification periods. After the two (2) initial ninety-day (90-day) periods, a member is allowed an unlimited number of sixty-day (60-day) certification periods during the remainder of the member's lifetime. Each certification period requires a new prior authorization.
(2)    Require a hospice physician or nurse practitioner to have a face-to-face encounter with the member to determine if the member's terminal illness necessitates continuing hospice care services. The encounter should take place prior to the one hundred eightieth (180th) day recertification and each subsequent recertification thereafter; and attest that such visit took place.
(i)     Documentation. Initial documentation requirements for requesting services, documentation requirements for continuation of services, and the full hospice guidelines can be found at OHCA's website, https://oklahoma.gov/ohca.
(j)     Reimbursement.
(1)    SoonerCare shall provide hospice care reimbursement:
(A)    For each day that an individual is under the care of a hospice, the hospice will be reimbursed an amount applicable to the level, type and intensity of the services furnished to the individual for that day in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
(B)    For independent physician direct services in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
(2)    Through the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan, the OHCA established payment amounts for the following categories:
(A)     Routine hospice care. Member is at home and not receiving hospice continuous care.
(B)     Continuous home care. Member is not in an inpatient facility and receives hospice on a continuous basis at home; primarily consisting of nursing care to achieve palliation and management of acute medical symptoms during a brief period of crisis only as necessary to maintain the terminally ill patient at home. If less skilled care is needed on a continuous basis to enable the person to remain at home, this is covered as routine hospice care.
(C)     Inpatient respite care. Member receives care in an approved inpatient facility on a short-term basis for respite.
(D)     General inpatient care. Member receives general inpatient care in an inpatient facility for pain control or acute or chronic symptom management that cannot be managed at home.
(E)     Nursing facility (NF)/intermediate care facilities for individuals with intellectual disabilities (ICF/IID) care. Member receives hospice care in a NF or ICF/IID. Hospice nursing facility or ICF/IID room and board per diem rates are reimbursed to the in-home hospice provider at a rate equal to 95% of the skilled nursing facility rate. The hospice provider is responsible for passing the room and board payment through to the NF or ICF/IID. If Medicare is the primary payer of hospice benefits, OHCA will only reimburse the hospice provider for coinsurance and deductible amounts per the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and will continue to pay the room and board to the nursing facility.
(F)     Service intensity add-on. Member receives care by a registered nurse (RN) or social worker when provided in the last seven (7) days of his/her life.
(G)     Other general reimbursement items.
(i)     Date of discharge. For the day of discharge from an inpatient unit, the appropriate home care rate is to be paid unless the patient dies as an inpatient. When the patient is discharged as deceased, the inpatient rate, either general or respite, is to be paid for the discharge date.
(ii)     Inpatient day cap. Payments to a hospice for inpatient care must be limited according to the number of days of inpatient care furnished to Medicaid patients. During the twelve-month (12-month) period beginning October 1 of each year and ending September 30, the aggregate number of inpatient days (both for general inpatient care and inpatient respite care) may not exceed twenty percent (20%) of the aggregate total number of days of hospice care provided to all Medicaid recipients during that same period. This limitation is applied once each year, at the end of the hospices' cap period.
(iii)     Obligation of continuing care. After the member's Medicare hospice benefit expires, the patient's Medicaid hospice benefits do not expire. The hospice must continue to provide the recipient's care until the patient expires or until the member revokes the election of hospice care.
PART 110.  INDIAN HEALTH SERVICES, TRIBAL PROGRAMS, AND URBAN INDIAN CLINICS (I/T/Us)
317:30-5-1096.  Off-site services
     I/T/U covered services provided off-site or outside of the I/T/U setting, including but not limited to hospice services, mobile clinics, or places of residence, are compensable at the OMB rate when billed by an I/T/U that has been designated as a Federally Qualified Health Center. The I/T/U must meet provider participation requirements listed in OAC 317:30-5-1088. I/T/U off-site services may be covered if the services rendered were within the provider's scope of practice and are of the same integrity of services rendered at the I/T/U facility.
[OAR Docket #23-645; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-644]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 110. Indian Health Services, Tribal Programs, and Urban Indian Clinics (I/T/Us)
317:30-5-1094 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-07)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; 42 CFR 440.130(d); Section 1115 of the Social Security Act
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 110. Indian Health Services, Tribal Programs, and Urban Indian Clinics (I/T/Us)
317:30-5-1094 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
August 2, 2022
Register publication:
39 Ok Reg 770
Docket number:
22-700
(Reference APA WF # 22-07)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions will update policy to reflect that Indian Health Services, Tribal Programs, and Urban Indian Clinics (I/T/U) providers will be reimbursed the outpatient Office of Management and Budget (OMB) rate for rendered residential substance use disorder (SUD) services. This policy change aligns with the authority in the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and with current business practices.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 110.  INDIAN HEALTH SERVICES, TRIBAL PROGRAMS, AND URBAN INDIAN CLINICS (I/T/Us)
317:30-5-1094.  Behavioral health services provided at I/T/Us
(a)     Inpatient behavioral health. Services are covered when provided in accordance with a documented individualized service plan developed to treat the identified behavioral health needs. Inpatient psychiatric service providers must meet the requirements and applicable limitations, restrictions, or prior authorization requirements set forth in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-95 through 317:30-5-97.
(1)    The provision of inpatient psychiatric services by Indian Health Services (IHS) facilities are reimbursed at the OMB inpatient encounter rate. Inpatient psychiatric services provided by non-IHS facilities are reimbursed at the established per diem or DRG rate.
(2)    For the provision of residential substance use disorder (SUD) treatment services, I/T/U facilities must be contracted as residential SUD service providers and meet the requirements found at OAC 317:30-5-95.43 through 317:30-5-95.49. Residential SUD treatment services will be reimbursed at the OMB outpatient encounter rate.
(1)    Inpatient psychiatric service providers must meet the requirements and applicable limitations, restrictions, or prior authorization requirements set forth in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-95 through 317:30-5-97.
(2)    The provision of inpatient psychiatric services by Indian Health Services (IHS) facilities are reimbursed at the OMB inpatient encounter rate. Inpatient psychiatric services provided by non-IHS facilities are reimbursed at the established per diem or DRG rate.
(b)     Outpatient behavioral health. Services are covered when provided in accordance with a documented individualized service plan developed to treat the identified mental health needs and/or SUD. Outpatient behavioral health services are reimbursed at the I/T/U outpatient encounter rate unless otherwise noted in the section.
(1)    A full description of services may be found at OAC 317:30-5-241 and 317:30-5-241.5(d), 317:30-5-241.7. Services may include, but are not limited to:
(A)    Mental health and/or substance use assessment/evaluation and testing;
(B)    Service plan development;
(C)    Crisis intervention services;
(D)    Medication training and support;
(F)    Individual/interactive psychotherapy;
(G)    Group psychotherapy;
(H)    Family psychotherapy;
(I)    Medication-assisted treatment (MAT) services and/or medication; and
(J)    Peer recovery support specialist (PRSS) services.
(2)    In order to support access to behavioral health services, these services may be provided in settings outside of the I/T/U. Offsite services must take place in a confidential setting.
(3)    For the provision of behavioral health related case management services, I/T/U facilities must be fully contracted with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) as an outpatient behavioral health agency. The provision of these services is considered to be outside of the I/T/U encounter and will be paid at the current FFS rate. Contracted behavioral health case management providers must comply with the requirements found at OAC 317:30-5-241.6 and are responsible for obtaining all necessary prior authorizations, if needed.
(4)    For the provision of psychosocial rehabilitation services, I/T/U facilities must be fully contracted with the OHCA as an outpatient behavioral health agency. The provision of these services is considered to be outside of the I/T/U encounter and will be paid at the current FFS rate. Contracted psychosocial rehabilitation service providers must comply with the requirements found at OAC 317:30-5-241.3 and are responsible for obtaining all necessary prior authorizations, if needed.
(5)    Services provided by behavioral health practitioners, such as, licensed clinical social workers (LCSW), licensed marital and family therapists (LMFT), licensed professional counselors (LPC), licensed behavioral health practitioners (LBHP), licensed alcohol and drug counselors (LADC), and licensure candidates are not eligible for direct reimbursement as practitioners. Services provided by the aforementioned practitioners are compensable only when billed by their OHCA-contracted employer and when provided in those clinical settings in which they are currently approved to render services. Licensure candidates must meet the requirements contained in OAC 317:30-5-240.3.
(6)    Behavioral health services must be billed on an appropriate claim form using the appropriate procedure code and guidelines. The time indicated on the claim form must be the time actually spent with the member.
(c)     Residential substance use disorder (SUD). For the provision of residential SUD treatment services, I/T/U facilities must be contracted as SoonerCare providers and meet the requirements found at OAC 317:30-5-95.43 through 317:30-5-95.49. Residential SUD treatment services will be reimbursed at the OMB outpatient encounter rate.
[OAR Docket #23-644; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-646]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 9. Long-Term Care Facilities
317:30-5-136.1 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-10)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; The Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 9. Long-Term Care Facilities
317:30-5-136.1 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
August 2, 2022
Register publication:
39 Ok Reg 767
Docket number:
22-698
(Reference APA WF # 22-10)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Proposed rule revisions will remove outdated language and add new language to the PFP program payment criteria section. These revisions will align the most recent quality metrics modified by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS). The overall purpose of the proposed rule revisions will be to maintain compliance with federal requirements and continuity of processes.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 9.  LONG-TERM CARE FACILITIES
317:30-5-136.1.  Pay-for-Performance (PFP) program
(a)     Purpose. The PFP program was established through Oklahoma State Statute, Title 56, Section 56-1011.5 as amended. PFP's mission is to enhance the quality of life for target citizens by delivering effective programs and facilitating partnerships with providers and the community they serve. The program has a full commitment to the very best in quality, service and value which will lead to measurably improved quality outcomes, healthier lifestyles, greater satisfaction and confidence for our members.
(b)     Eligible providers. Any Oklahoma long-term care nursing facility that is licensed and certified by the Oklahoma State Department of Health (OSDH) as defined in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-120.
(c)     Quality measure care criteria. To maintain status in the PFP program, each nursing facility shall submit documentation as it relates to program metrics quarterly or upon the request of the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA). The program metrics can be found on the OHCA's PFP website or on PFP/Quality of Care (QOC) data collection portal. If any quality metric, listed below, is substituted or removed by Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), an alternative quality metric may be chosen with the support of participating partners. For the period beginning October 1, 2019 and until changed by amendment, qualifying facilities participating in the PFP program have the potential to earn an average of the five dollars ($5.00) quality incentive per Medicaid patient per day. Facility(s) baseline is calculated annually and will remain the same for the twelve (12) month period. Facility(s) will meet or exceed five-percent (5%) relative improvement or the CMS' national average each quarter for the following metrics:
(1)    Decrease percent of high risk/unstageable pressure ulcers for long-stay residents.
(2)    Decrease percent of unnecessary weight loss for long-stay residents.
(3)    Decrease percent of use of anti-psychotic medications for long-stay residents.
(4)    Decrease percent of urinary tract infection for long-stay residents.
(d)     Payment. Payment to long-term care facilities for meeting the metrics will be awarded quarterly. A facility may earn a minimum of one dollar and twenty-five cents ($1.25) per Medicaid patient per day for each qualifying metric. A facility receiving a scope and severity tag deficiency of "I" or greater related to a targeted quality measure in the program is disqualified from receiving an award related to that measure for that quarter.from the Oklahoma State Department of Health will forfeit the PFP incentive for the quarter out of compliance.
(1)     Distribution of payment. OHCA will notify the PFP facility of the quality reimbursement amount on a quarterly basis.
(2)     Penalties. Facilities shall have performance review(s) and provide documentation upon request from OHCA to maintain program compliance. Program payments will be withheld from facilities that fail to submit the requested documentation within fifteen (15) business days of the request.
(3)     Timeframe. To qualify for program reimbursement by meeting a specific quality measure, facilities are required to provide metric documentation within thirty (30) days after the end of each quarter to the OHCA.
(e)     Appeals. Facilities can file an appeal with the Quality Review Committee and in accordance, with the grievance procedures found at OAC 317:2-1-2(c) and 317:2-1-17.
[OAR Docket #23-646; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-659]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 1. Physicians
317:30-5-20 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-20.1 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-20.2 [AMENDED]
Part 3. Hospitals
317:30-5-42.10 [AMENDED]
Part 7. Certified LaboratoriesLaboratories (Independent, Physician, and Hospital)
317:30-5-100 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-101 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-102 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-103 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-104 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-105 [REVOKED]
317:30-5-106 [REVOKED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-29)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; Oklahoma Executive Order 2020-03
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions will reorganize the existing laboratory policies and combine them into one centralized location. This will allow for better access to the policies and an easier understanding of services covered under the laboratory benefit. Furthermore, language will be put into policy that will clarify coverage of reference (outside) laboratories when an independent or hospital laboratory refers a service to another laboratory.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 1.  PHYSICIANS
317:30-5-20.  Laboratory services
     This Section covers the guidelines for payment of laboratory services by a provider in his/her office, a certified laboratory and for a pathologist's interpretation of laboratory procedures.
(1)     Compensable services. Providers may be reimbursed for compensable clinical diagnostic laboratory services only when they personally perform or supervise the performance of the test. If a provider refers specimen to a certified laboratory or a hospital laboratory serving outpatients, the certified laboratory or the hospital must bill for performing the test.
(A)    Reimbursement for lab services is made in accordance with the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment of 1988 (CLIA). These regulations provide that payment may be made only for services furnished by a laboratory that meets CLIA conditions, including those furnished in physicians' offices. Eligible providers must be certified under the CLIA program and have obtained a CLIA ID number from Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and have a current contract on file with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA). Providers performing laboratory services must have the appropriate CLIA certification specific to the level of testing performed.
(B)    Only medically necessary laboratory services are compensable.
(i)    Testing must be medically indicated as evidenced by patient-specific indications in the medical record.
(ii)    Testing is only compensable if the results will affect patient care and are performed to diagnose conditions and illnesses with specific symptoms.
(iii)    Testing is only compensable if the services are performed in furtherance of the diagnosis and/or treatment of conditions that are covered under SoonerCare.
(C)    Laboratory testing must be ordered by the physician or non-physician provider, and must be individualized to the patient and the patient's medical history or assessment indicators as evidenced in the medical documentation.
(D)    Laboratory testing for routine diagnostic or screening tests following clinical guidelines such as those found in the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) Bright Futures' periodicity schedule, the United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) A and B recommendations, the American Academy of Family Practitioners (AAFP), or other nationally recognized medical professional academy or society standards of care, is compensable. Additionally, such sources as named in this subdivision should meet medical necessity criteria as outlined in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-3-1(f).
(2)     Non-compensable laboratory services.
(A)    Laboratory testing for routine diagnostic or screening tests not supported by the clinical guidelines of a nationally recognized medical professional academy or society standard of care, and/or testing that is performed without apparent relationship to treatment or diagnosis of a specific illness, symptom, complaint or injury is not covered.
(B)    Non-specific, blanket panel or standing orders for laboratory testing, or lab panels which have no impact on the patient's plan of care are not covered.
(C)    Split billing, or dividing the billed services for the same patient for the same date of service by the same rendering laboratory into two (2) or more claims is not allowed.
(D)    Separate payment is not made for blood specimens obtained by, arterial puncture, or urine specimens collected by a provider who is also performing the laboratory testing as these services are considered part of the laboratory analysis. These services are considered part of the laboratory analysis.
(E)    Claims for inpatient full service laboratory procedures are not covered since this is considered a part of the hospital rate.
(F)    Billing multiple units of nucleic acid detection for individual infectious organisms when testing for more than one (1) infectious organism in a specimen is not permissible. Instead, OHCA considers it appropriate to bill a single unit of a procedure code indicated for multiple organism testing.
(G)    Billing multiple Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes or units for molecular pathology tests that examine multiple genes or incorporate multiple types of genetic analysis in a single run or report is not permissible. Instead, OHCA considers it appropriate to bill a single CPT code for such test. If an appropriate code does not exist, then one (1) unit for an unlisted molecular pathology procedure may be billed.
(3)     Covered services by a pathologist.
(A)    A pathologist may be paid for the interpretation of inpatient surgical pathology specimen when the appropriate CPT procedure code and modifier is used.
(B)    Full service or interpretation of surgical pathology for outpatient surgery performed in an outpatient hospital or ambulatory surgery center setting.
(4)     Non-compensable services by a pathologist. The following are non-compensable pathologist services:
(A)    Experimental or investigational procedures. For more information regarding experimental or investigational including clinical trials, see OAC 317:30-3-57.1.
(B)    Interpretation of clinical laboratory procedures.
     For laboratory policies please refer to Part 7, Laboratories (Independent, Physician, And Hospital), of this Chapter.
317:30-5-20.1.  Drug screening and testing
(a)     Purpose. Drug Testing is performed for undisclosed drug use and/or abuse, and to verify compliance with treatment. Testing for drugs of abuse to monitor treatment compliance should be included in the treatment plan for pain management when chronic opioid therapy is involved.
(1)    Qualitative (presumptive) drug testing may be used to determine the presence or absence of a drug or drug metabolite in the sample and is expressed as a positive or negative result. Qualitative testing can be performed by a CLIA waived or moderate complexity test, or by a high complexity testing method.
(2)    Quantitative (definitive) drug testing is specific to the drug or metabolite being tested and is expressed as a numeric result or numeric level which verifies concentration.
(3)    Specimen validity testing is used to determine if a specimen has been diluted, adulterated or substituted. Specimen validity tests include, but are not limited to, creatinine, oxidants, specific gravity, urine pH, nitrates and alkaloids.
(b)     Eligible providers. Providers performing drug testing should have CLIA certification specific to the level of testing performed as described in 317:30-5-20(1)(A).
(c)     Compensable services. Drug testing must be ordered by the physician or non-physician provider and must be individualized to the patient and the patient's medical history or assessment indicators as evidenced in the medical documentation.
(1)    Compensable testing must be medically indicated as evidenced by patient specific indications in the medical record.
(A)    Testing is only compensable if the results will affect patient care.
(B)    Drugs or drug classes being tested should reflect only those likely to be present.
(2)    The frequency of drug screening and/or testing is determined by the patient's history, patient's physical assessment, behavioral assessment, risk assessment, treatment plan and medication history.
(3)    Quantitative (definitive) drug testing may be indicated for the following:
(A)    To identify a specific substance or metabolite that is inadequately detected or undetectable by a qualitative (presumptive) test; or
(B)    To definitively identify specific drugs in a large family of drugs; or
(C)    To identify drugs when a definitive concentration of a drug is needed to guide management; or
(D)    To identify a negative, or confirm a positive, qualitative (presumptive) result that is inconsistent with a patient's self-report, presentation, medical history or current prescribed medication plan; or
(E)    To identify a non-prescribed medication or illicit use for ongoing safe prescribing of controlled substances.
(d)     Non-compensable services. The following tests are not medically necessary and therefore not covered by the OHCA:
(1)    Specimen validity testing is considered a quality control measure and is not separately compensable;
(2)    Drug testing for patient sample sources of saliva, oral fluids, or hair;
(3)    Testing of two different specimen types (urine and blood) from the same patient on the same date of service;
(4)    Drug testing for medico-legal purposes (court ordered drug screening) or for employment purposes;
(5)    Non-specific, blanket panel or standing orders for drug testing, routine testing of therapeutic drug levels, or drug panels which have no impact to the member's plan of care;
(6)    Scheduled and routine drug testing (i.e. testing should be random);
(7)    Reflex testing for any drug is not medically indicated without specific documented indications;
(8)    Confirmatory testing exceeding three specific drug classes at an interval of greater than every thirty (30) days will require specific documentation in the medical record to justify the medical necessity of testing; and
(9)    Quantitative (definitive) testing of multiple drug levels that are not specific to the patient's medical history and presentation are not allowed. Justification for testing for each individual drug or drug class level must be medically indicated as reflected in the medical record documentation.
(e)     Documentation requirements. The medical record must contain documents to support the medical necessity of drug screening and/or testing. Medical records must be furnished on request and may include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1)    A current treatment plan;
(2)    Patient history and physical;
(3)    Review of previous medical records if treated by a different physician for pain management;
(4)    Review of all radiographs and/or laboratory studies pertinent to the patient's condition;
(5)    Opioid agreement and informed consent of drug testing, as applicable;
(6)    List of prescribed medications;
(7)    Risk assessment, as identified by use of a validated risk assessment tool/questionnaire, with appropriate risk stratification noted and utilized;
(8)    Office/provider monitoring protocols, such as random pill counts; and
(9)    Review of prescription drug monitoring data or pharmacy profile as warranted.
     For policy regarding drug screening and testing, please refer to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-101.
317:30-5-20.2.  Molecular diagnostic testing utilizing polymerase chain reaction for infectious diseases
(a)     Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this Section, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
(1)    "Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)" means a biochemical laboratory technique used to make thousands or even millions of copies of a segment of DNA. It is commonly used to amplify a small amount of specifically targeted DNA from among a mixture of DNA samples. It is also known as Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT).
(2)    "Direct Probe Technique" means detection methods where nucleic acids are detected without initial amplification processing.
(3)    "Amplified Probe Technique" means technique without quantification, a detection method in which the sensitivity of the assay is improved over direct probe techniques.
(4)    "Probe with Quantification Technique" means methods used to report absolute or relative amounts of nucleic acid sequences in the original sample.
(b)     Medical necessity.
(1)    PCR testing for infectious diseases, following clinical guidelines such as those set forth by the Infectious Disease Society of America's (IDSA) or other nationally recognized medical professional academy or society standards of care, may be compensable.
(2)    For the full PCR guideline which includes medically necessity and prior authorization criteria, and a list of codes that require authorization, please refer to www.okhca.org.
(c)     Documentation.
(1)    The medical record must contain documentation that the testing is expected to influence treatment of the condition towards which the testing is directed.
(2)    The laboratory or billing provider must have on file the physician requisition which sets forth the diagnosis or condition that warrants the test(s).
(3)    Examples of documentation requirements for the ordering provider include, but are not limited to, history and physical exam findings that support the decision making, problems/diagnoses, relevant data (e.g., lab testing results).
(4)    Documentation requirements for the performing laboratory include, but are not limited to, lab accreditation, test requisition, test records, preliminary and final report, and quality control record.
(5)    Documentation requirements for lab developed tests/protocols include diagnostic test/assay, lab manufacturer, names of comparable assays/services (if relevant), descriptions of assay, analytical validity evidence, clinical validity evidence, and clinical utility.
(6)    Billing providers are required to code specificity; however, if an unlisted or not otherwise specified Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code is used, the documentation must clearly identify the unique procedure performed. When multiple procedure codes are submitted (unique, unlisted, and/or not otherwise specified), the documentation supporting each code should be easily identifiable. If on review the billed code cannot be linked to the documentation, this service may be denied.
(7)    When the documentation does not meet the criteria for the service rendered/requested or the documentation does not establish the medical necessity for the service, the service may be denied as not reasonable and necessary.
     For policy regarding molecular diagnostic testing utilizing polymerase chain reaction for infectious diseases, please refer to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-102.
PART 3.  HOSPITALS
317:30-5-42.10.  Laboratory
     To be eligible for payment as a laboratory/pathology service, the service must be:
(1)    Ordered and provided by or under the direction of a physician or other licensed practitioner within the scope of practice as defined by state law;
(2)    Provided in a hospital or independent laboratory;
(3)    Directly related to the diagnosis and treatment of a medical condition;
(4)    Authorized under the laboratory's CLIA certification; and
(5)    Considered medically necessary as defined in OAC 317:30-3-1(f) and 317:30-5-20.
     For laboratory policies please refer to Part 7, Laboratories (Independent, Physician, And Hospital), of this Chapter.
PART 7.  CERTIFIED LABORATORIESLABORATORIES (INDEPENDENT, PHYSICIAN, AND HOSPITAL)
317:30-5-100.  Eligible providersLaboratory services
     Reimbursement for lab services is made in accordance with the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment of 1988 (CLIA). These regulations provide that payment may be made only for services furnished by a laboratory that meets CLIA conditions, including those furnished in physicians' offices. Regulations specify that any and every facility which tests human specimens for the purpose of providing information for the diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of any disease, or impairment of, or the assessment of the health of human beings is subject to CLIA. All facilities which perform these tasks must make application for certification by CMS. Eligible SoonerCare providers must be certified under the CLIA program and have obtained a CLIA ID number from CMS and have a current contract on file with the OHCA.This Part covers the guidelines for payment of laboratory services by a provider in his/her office, a certified hospital or independent laboratory, and for a pathologist's interpretation of laboratory procedures.
(1)     Physician and clinic provider laboratories. Physician and clinic providers may be reimbursed for compensable clinical diagnostic laboratory services only when they personally perform or supervise the performance of the test. If a physician or clinic provider refers specimen to a certified laboratory or a hospital laboratory serving outpatients, the certified laboratory or the hospital must bill for performing the test.
(2)     Independent and hospital laboratories. Independent and hospital laboratories will be required to submit a letter to OHCA Provider Enrollment along with their other required contracting documents. The reference laboratory must be identified on the claim as well as the following information for any and all reference laboratories:
(A)    Name;
(B)    Address; and
(C)    Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment of 1988 (CLIA) ID.
(3)     Compensable services for independent, physician and hospital laboratories.
(A)    Reimbursement for lab services is made in accordance with CLIA. These regulations provide that payment may be made only for services furnished by a laboratory that meets CLIA conditions, including those furnished in physicians' offices. Regulations specify that any and every facility which tests human specimens for the purpose of providing information for the diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of any disease, or impairment of, or the assessment of the health of human beings is subject to CLIA. All facilities which perform these tasks must make application for certification by CMS. Eligible SoonerCare providers must be certified under the CLIA program and have obtained a CLIA ID number from CMS and have a current contract on file with the OHCA. Providers performing laboratory services must have the appropriate CLIA certification specific to the level of testing performed.
(B)    Only medically necessary laboratory services are compensable.
(i)    Testing must be medically indicated as evidenced by member-specific indications in the medical record.
(ii)    Testing is only compensable if the results will affect member care and are performed to diagnose conditions and illnesses with specific symptoms.
(iii)    Testing is only compensable if the services are performed in furtherance of the diagnosis and/or treatment of conditions that are covered under SoonerCare.
(C)    Laboratory testing must be ordered by the physician or non-physician provider and must be individualized to the member and the member's medical history, or assessment indicators as evidenced in the medical documentation.
(D)    Laboratory testing for routine diagnostic or screening tests following clinical guidelines such as those found in the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) Bright Futures' periodicity schedule, the United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) A and B recommendations, the American Academy of Family Practitioners (AAFP), or other nationally recognized medical professional academy or society standards of care, is compensable. Additionally, such sources as named in this subdivision should meet medical necessity criteria as outlined in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-3-1(f).
(4)     Non-compensable laboratory services.
(A)    Laboratory testing for routine diagnostic or screening tests not supported by the clinical guidelines of a nationally recognized medical professional academy or society standard of care, and/or testing that is performed without apparent relationship to treatment or diagnosis of a specific illness, symptom, complaint or injury is not covered.
(B)    Non-specific, blanket panel or standing orders for laboratory testing or lab panels which have no impact on the member's plan of care are not covered.
(C)    Split billing or dividing the billed services for the same member for the same date of service by the same rendering laboratory into two (2) or more claims is not allowed.
(D)    Separate payment is not made for blood specimens obtained by venipuncture or urine specimens collected by a provider who is also performing the laboratory testing as these services are considered part of the laboratory analysis.
(E)    Claims for inpatient full-service laboratory procedures are not covered since this is considered a part of the hospital rate.
(F)    Billing multiple units of nucleic acid detection for individual infectious organisms when testing for more than one (1) infectious organism in a specimen is not permissible. Instead, OHCA considers it appropriate to bill a single unit of a procedure code indicated for multiple organism testing.
(G)    Billing multiple Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes or units for molecular pathology tests that examine multiple genes or incorporate multiple types of genetic analysis in a single run or report is not permissible. Instead, OHCA considers it appropriate to bill a single CPT code for such test. If an appropriate code does not exist, then one (1) unit for an unlisted molecular pathology procedure may be billed.
(5)     Covered services by a pathologist.
(A)    A pathologist may be paid for the interpretation of inpatient surgical pathology specimen when the appropriate CPT procedure code and modifier is used.
(B)    Full service or interpretation of surgical pathology for outpatient surgery performed in an outpatient hospital or ambulatory surgery center setting.
(6)     Non-compensable services by a pathologist. The following are non-compensable pathologist services:
(A)    Experimental or investigational procedures. For more information regarding experimental or investigational including clinical trials, see OAC 317:30-3-57.1.
(B)    Interpretation of clinical laboratory procedures.
317:30-5-101.  Coverage for adultsDrug screening and testing
     Payment is made to certified laboratories for medically necessary services to adults as set forth in this Section.
(1)     Inpatient services.
(A)    Claims for inpatient anatomical pathology must be billed by the individual pathologist performing the examination.
(B)    Inpatient consultations by Pathologists are compensable. Claim form must include referring physician, diagnosis, and test(s) for which the consultation was requested.
(2)     Outpatient services. Payment is made for medically necessary outpatient services.
(a)     Purpose. Drug testing is performed for undisclosed drug use and/or abuse, and to verify compliance with treatment. Testing for drugs of abuse to monitor treatment compliance should be included in the treatment plan for pain management when chronic opioid therapy is involved.
(1)    Qualitative (presumptive) drug testing may be used to determine the presence or absence of a drug or drug metabolite in the sample and is expressed as a positive or negative result. Qualitative testing can be performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment of 1988 (CLIA) waived or moderate complexity test, or by a high complexity testing method.
(2)    Quantitative (definitive) drug testing is specific to the drug or metabolite being tested and is expressed as a numeric result or numeric level which verifies concentration.
(3)    Specimen validity testing is used to determine if a specimen has been diluted, adulterated, or substituted. Specimen validity tests include, but are not limited to, creatinine, oxidants, specific gravity, urine pH, nitrates, and alkaloids.
(b)     Eligible providers. Providers performing drug testing should have CLIA certification specific to the level of testing performed as described in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-100(1)(A).
(c)     Compensable services. Drug testing must be ordered by the physician or non-physician provider and must be individualized to the member and the member's medical history and/or assessment indicators as evidenced in the medical documentation.
(1)    Compensable testing must be medically indicated as evidenced by member specific indications in the medical record.
(A)    Testing is only compensable if the results will affect member care.
(B)    Drugs or drug classes being tested should reflect only those likely to be present.
(2)    The frequency of drug screening and/or testing is determined by the member's history, member's physical assessment, behavioral assessment, risk assessment, treatment plan and medication history.
(3)    Quantitative (definitive) drug testing may be indicated for the following:
(A)    To identify a specific substance or metabolite that is inadequately detected or undetectable by a qualitative (presumptive) test; or
(B)    To definitively identify specific drugs in a large family of drugs; or
(C)    To identify drugs when a definitive concentration of a drug is needed to guide management; or
(D)    To identify a negative, or confirm a positive, qualitative (presumptive) result that is inconsistent with a member's self-report, presentation, medical history or current prescribed medication plan; or
(E)    To identify a non-prescribed medication or illicit use for ongoing safe prescribing of controlled substances.
(d)     Non-compensable services. The following tests are not medically necessary and therefore not covered by the OHCA:
(1)    Specimen validity testing is considered a quality control measure and is not separately compensable;
(2)    Drug testing for member sample sources of saliva, oral fluids, or hair;
(3)    Testing of two (2) different specimen types (urine and blood) from the same member on the same date of service;
(4)    Drug testing for medico-legal purposes (court-ordered drug screening) or for employment purposes;
(5)    Non-specific, blanket panel or standing orders for drug testing, routine testing of therapeutic drug levels, or drug panels which have no impact to the member's plan of care;
(6)    Scheduled and routine drug testing (i.e., testing should be random);
(7)    Reflex testing for any drug is not medically indicated without specific documented indications;
(8)    Confirmatory testing exceeding three specific drug classes at an interval of greater than every thirty (30) days will require specific documentation in the medical record to justify the medical necessity of testing; and
(9)    Quantitative (definitive) testing of multiple drug levels that are not specific to the member's medical history and presentation are not allowed. Justification for testing for each individual drug or drug class level must be medically indicated as reflected in the medical record documentation.
(e)     Documentation requirements. The medical record must contain documents to support the medical necessity of drug screening and/or testing. Medical records must be furnished on request and may include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1)    A current treatment plan;
(2)    Member history and physical;
(3)    Review of previous medical records if treated by a different physician for pain management;
(4)    Review of all radiographs and/or laboratory studies pertinent to the member's condition;
(5)    Opioid agreement and informed consent of drug testing, as applicable;
(6)    List of prescribed medications;
(7)    Risk assessment, as identified by use of a validated risk assessment tool/questionnaire, with appropriate risk stratification noted and utilized;
(8)    Office/provider monitoring protocols, such as random pill counts; and
(9)    Review of prescription drug monitoring data or pharmacy profile as warranted.
317:30-5-102.  Coverage for childrenMolecular diagnostic testing utilizing polymerase chain reaction for infectious diseases
     Coverage of laboratory services for children is as follows:
(1)     Inpatient services.
(A)    Claims for inpatient anatomical pathology must be billed by the individual pathologist performing the examination.
(B)    Inpatient pathology consultations are compensable. Claim form must include referring physician, diagnosis and test(s) for which the consultation was requested.
(2)     Outpatient services.
(A)    Outpatient clinical laboratory services are covered when performed in conjunction with an Early and Periodic Screening Diagnosis and Treatment EPSDT) examination. The claim must be documented with name of attending physician.
(B)    Medically necessary outpatient clinical laboratory services provided in conjunction with physician office visits are compensable under EPSDT.
(a)     Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this Section, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
(1)    "Amplified probe technique" means technique without quantification, a detection method in which the sensitivity of the assay is improved over direct probe techniques.
(2)    "Direct probe technique" means detection methods where nucleic acids are detected without initial amplification processing.
(3)    "Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)" means a biochemical laboratory technique used to make thousands or even millions of copies of a segment of DNA. It is commonly used to amplify a small amount of specifically targeted DNA from among a mixture of DNA samples. It is also known as Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT).
(4)    "Probe with quantification technique" means methods used to report absolute or relative amounts of nucleic acid sequences in the original sample.
(b)     Medical necessity.
(1)    PCR testing for infectious diseases, following clinical guidelines such as those set forth by the Infectious Disease Society of America's (IDSA) or other nationally recognized medical professional academy or society standards of care, may be compensable.
(2)    For the full PCR guideline which includes medical necessity and prior authorization criteria, and a list of codes that require authorization, please refer to https://oklahoma.gov/ohca/mau.
(c)     Documentation.
(1)    The medical record must contain documentation that the testing is expected to influence treatment of the condition towards which the testing is directed.
(2)    The laboratory or billing provider must have on file the physician requisition which sets forth the diagnosis or condition that warrants the test(s).
(3)    Examples of documentation requirements for the ordering provider include, but are not limited to, history and physical exam findings that support the decision making, problems/diagnoses, relevant data (e.g., lab testing results).
(4)    Documentation requirements for the performing laboratory include, but are not limited to, lab accreditation, test requisition, test records, preliminary and final report, and quality control record.
(5)    Documentation requirements for lab developed tests/protocols include diagnostic test/assay, lab manufacturer, names of comparable assays/services (if relevant), descriptions of assay, analytical validity evidence, clinical validity evidence, and clinical utility.
(6)    Billing providers are required to code specificity; however, if an unlisted or not otherwise specified Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code is used, the documentation must clearly identify the unique procedure performed. When multiple procedure codes are submitted (unique, unlisted, and/or not otherwise specified), the documentation supporting each code should be easily identifiable. If the billed code cannot be linked to the documentation during review, the service may be denied.
(7)    When the documentation does not meet the criteria for the service rendered/requested or the documentation does not establish the medical necessity for the service, the service may be denied as not reasonable and necessary.
317:30-5-103.  Vocational rehabilitationCoverage and payment
     Payment is made for those vocational rehabilitation services which are preauthorized by the patient's counselor.
(a)     Payment eligibility. To be eligible for payment as a laboratory/pathology service, the service must be:
(1)    Ordered and provided by or under the direction of a physician or other licensed practitioner within the scope of practice as defined by state law;
(2)    Provided in a hospital, physician, or independent laboratory;
(3)    Directly related to the diagnosis and treatment of a medical condition;
(4)    Authorized under the laboratory's Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment of 1988 (CLIA) certification; and
(5)    Considered medically necessary as defined in Oklahoma Administrative Code 317:30-3-1(f) and 317:30-5-100.
(b)     Payment for inpatient/outpatient services. Payment is made to laboratories for medically necessary services to children and adults as follows:
(1)     Inpatient services.
(A)    Claims for inpatient anatomical pathology must be billed by the individual pathologist performing the examination.
(B)    Inpatient consultations by pathologists are compensable. Claim form must include referring physician, diagnosis, and test(s) for which the consultation was requested.
(2)     Outpatient services.
(A)    For children, payment is made for medically necessary outpatient clinical laboratory services which are provided in conjunction with physician office visits that are compensable under EPSDT.
(B)    For adults, payment is made for medically necessary outpatient services.
(c)     Payment rates. Payment will be made for covered laboratory services in accordance with methodology approved under the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
(d)     Vocational rehabilitation. Payment for laboratory services is made for those vocational rehabilitation services which are preauthorized by the member's counselor.
(e)     Individuals eligible for Part B of Medicare. Payment is made utilizing the Medicaid allowable for comparable services.
317:30-5-104.  Individuals eligible for Part B of MedicareNon-covered procedures
     Payment is made utilizing the Medicaid allowable for comparable services.The following procedures by laboratories are not covered:
(1)    Tissue examinations of teeth and foreign objects.
(2)    Tissue examination of lens after cataract surgery except when the member is under twenty-one (21) years of age.
(3)    Charges for autopsy.
(4)    Hair analysis for trace metal analysis.
(5)    Procedures deemed experimental or investigational. For more information regarding experimental or investigational including clinical trials, see Oklahoma Administrative Code 317:30-3-57.1.
(6)    Professional component charges for inpatient clinical laboratory services.
(7)    Inpatient clinical laboratory services.
317:30-5-105.  Non-covered procedures  [REVOKED]
     The following procedures by certified laboratories are not covered:
(1)    Tissue examinations of teeth and foreign objects.
(2)    Tissue examination of lens after cataract surgery except when the patient is under 21 years of age.
(3)    Charges for autopsy.
(4)    Hair analysis for trace metal analysis.
(5)    Procedures deemed experimental or investigational. For more information regarding experimental or investigational including clinical trials, see Oklahoma Administrative Code 317:30-3-57.1.
(6)    Professional component charges for inpatient clinical laboratory services.
(7)    Inpatient clinical laboratory services.
317:30-5-106.  Payment rates  [REVOKED]
     Payment will be made for covered clinical laboratory services in accordance with methodology approved under the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
[OAR Docket #23-659; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-648]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 6. Inpatient Psychiatric and Substance Use Disorder Services
317:30-5-95 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.24 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.40 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-12)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 6. Inpatient Psychiatric and Substance Use Disorder Services
317:30-5-95 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.24 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.40 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
November 4, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 362
Docket number:
22-867
(Reference APA WF # 22-12)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule changes will allow out-of-state inpatient psychiatric providers to utilize the staffing ratios and staff licensing requirements of the state in which the facility/provider is located.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 6.  INPATIENT PSYCHIATRIC AND SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER SERVICES
317:30-5-95.  General provisions and eligible providers
(a)     Eligible settings for inpatient psychiatric services. The following individuals may receive SoonerCare-reimbursable inpatient psychiatric services in the following eligible settings:
(1)    Individuals under twenty-one (21) years of age, in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-95.23, may receive SoonerCare-reimbursable inpatient psychiatric services in a psychiatric unit of a general hospital, a psychiatric hospital, or a PRTF; and may receive chemical dependency detoxification/withdrawal management services in a psychiatric unit of a general hospital or in a psychiatric hospital.
(2)    Individuals ages twenty-one (21) and older may receive SoonerCare-reimbursable inpatient psychiatric and/or chemical dependency detoxification/withdrawal management services in a psychiatric unit of a general hospital or in a psychiatric hospital.
(b)     Psychiatric hospitals and psychiatric units of general hospitals. To be eligible for payment under this Part, inpatient psychiatric programs must be provided to eligible SoonerCare members in a hospital that:
(1)    Is a psychiatric hospital that:
(A)    Successfully underwent a State survey to determine whether the hospital meets the requirements for participation in Medicare as a psychiatric hospital per 42 C.F.R. § 482.60; or
(B)    Is accredited by a national organization whose psychiatric accrediting program has been approved by CMS; or
(2)    Is a general hospital with a psychiatric unit that:
(A)    Successfully underwent a State survey to determine whether the hospital meets the requirements for participation in Medicare as a hospital as specified in 42 C.F.R. Part 482; or
(B)    Is accredited by a national accrediting organization whose accrediting program has been approved by CMS; and
(3)    Meets all applicable federal regulations, including, but not limited to:
(A)    Medicare Conditions of Participation for Hospitals (42 C.F.R. Part 482), including special provisions applying to psychiatric hospitals (42 C.F.R. § 482.60-.62);
(B)    Medicaid for Individuals Age 65 or over in Institutions for Mental Diseases (42 C.F.R. Part 441, Subpart C);
(C)    Inpatient Psychiatric Services for Individuals under Age 21 in Psychiatric Facilities or Programs (42 C.F.R. Part 441, Subpart D); and/or
(D)    Utilization Control [42 C.F.R. Part 456, Subpart C (Utilization Control: Hospitals) or Subpart D (Utilization Control: Mental Hospitals)]; and
(4)    Is contracted with the OHCA; and
(5)    If located within Oklahoma and serving members under eighteen (18) years of age, is appropriately licensed by the Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) as a residential child care facility (10 O.S. §§ 401 to 402) that is providing services as a residential treatment facility in accordance with OAC 340:110-3-168.
(6)    If located out of state, services must be provided within the licensure for each facility and scope of practice for each provider and supervising or rendering practitioner for the state in which the facility/provider is located. Services must be in compliance with the state-specific statutes, rules and regulations of the applicable practice act.
(c)     PRTF. Every PRTF must:
(1)    Be individually contracted with OHCA as a PRTF;
(2)    Meet all of the state and federal participation requirements for SoonerCare reimbursement, including, but not limited to, 42 C.F.R. § 483.354, as well as all requirements in 42 C.F.R. 483 Subpart G governing the use of restraint and seclusion;
(3)    Be appropriately licensed by OKDHS as a residential child care facility (10 O.S. § 401 to 402) that is providing services as a residential treatment facility in accordance with OAC 340:110-3-168;
(3)    Be appropriately licensed and/or certified:
(A)    If an in-state facility, by OKDHS as a residential child care facility (10 O.S. § 401 to 402) that is providing services as a residential treatment facility in accordance with OAC 340:110-3-168; or
(B)    If an out-of-state facility, by the licensing or certifying authority of the state in which the facility does business and must provide an attestation to OHCA that the PRTF is in compliance with the condition of participation for restraint and seclusion, as is required by federal law.
(4)    Be appropriately certified by the State Survey Agency, the Oklahoma State Department of Health (OSDH) as meeting Medicare Conditions of Participation; and
(5)    Be accredited by TJC, the Council on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF), or the Council on Accreditation (COA).
(d)     Out-of-state PRTF. Any out-of-state PRTF must be appropriately licensed and/or certified in the state in which it does business, and must provide an attestation to OHCA that the PRTF is in compliance with the condition of participation for restraint and seclusion, as is required by federal law. Any out-of-state PRTF must also be accredited in conformance with OAC 317:30-5-95(c)(5).
(ed)     Required documents. The required documents for enrollment for each participating provider can be downloaded from the OHCA's website.
317:30-5-95.24.  Prior authorization of inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under twenty-one (21)
(a)    All inpatient psychiatric services for members under twenty-one (21) years of age must be prior authorized by the OHCA or its designated agent. All inpatient Acute, Acute II, and PRTF services will be prior authorized for an approved length of stay. Admission requirements for services must be provided in accordance with 42 C.F.R. Part 441 and 456. Additional information will be required for SoonerCare-compensable approval on enhanced treatment units or in special population programs.
(b)    Unit staffing ratios shall always meet the requirements in OAC 317:30-5-95.24 (c), (d), (h) and (i). Out-of-state facilities may adhere to the staffing requirements of the state in which the services are provided if the staff ratio is sufficient to ensure patient safety and that patients have reasonable and prompt access to services. The facility cannot use staff that is also on duty in other units of the facility in order to meet the unit staffing ratios. Patients shall be grouped for accommodation by gender, age, and treatment needs. At a minimum, children, adolescent, and adult treatment programs shall be separate with distinct units for each population. A unit is determined by separate and distinct sleeping, living, and treatment areas often separated by walls and/or doors. A unit that does not allow clear line of sight due to the presence of walls or doors is considered a separate unit. Each individual unit shall have assigned staff to allow for appropriate and safe monitoring of patients and to provide active treatment.
(c)    In Acute and Acute II settings, at least one (1) registered nurse (RN) must be on duty per unit at all times, with additional RNs to meet program needs. RNs must adhere to Oklahoma State Department of Health (OSDH) policy at OAC 310:667-15-3 and 310:667-33-2(a)(3).
(d)    Acute, non-specialty Acute II, and non-specialty PRTF programs require a staffing ratio of one (1) staff: six (6) patients during routine waking hours and one (1) staff: eight (8) patients during time residents are asleep with twenty-four (24) hour nursing care supervised by an RN for management of behaviors and medical complications. For PRTF programs, at a minimum, a supervising RN must be available by phone and on-site within one (1) hour. If the supervising RN is off-site, then an RN or licensed practical nurse (LPN) must be on-site to adhere to a twenty-four (24) hour nursing care coverage ratio of one (1) staff: thirty (30) patients during routine waking hours and one (1) staff: forty (40) patients during time residents are asleep.
(e)    Specialty treatment at Acute II or PRTF is a longer-term treatment that requires a higher staff-to-member ratio because of the need for constant, intense, and immediate reinforcement of new behaviors to develop an understanding of the behaviors. The environment of specialized residential treatment centers requires special structure and configuration (e.g., sensory centers for autistic members) and specialized training for the staff in the area of the identified specialty. The physician, Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) with psychiatric certification or Physician Assistant (PA) will see the child at least one (1) time a week.
(f)    An Acute II or PRTF will not be considered a specialty treatment program for SoonerCare without prior approval of the OHCA behavioral health unit.
(g)    A treatment program that has been approved as a specialized treatment program must maintain medical records that document the degree and intensity of the psychiatric care delivered to the members and must meet active treatment requirements found at OAC 317:30-5-95.34.
(h)    Criteria for classification as a specialty Acute II will require a staffing ratio of one (1) staff: four (4) patients at a minimum during routine waking hours and one (1) staff: six (6) patients during time residents are asleep with twenty-four (24) hour nursing care supervised by a RN for management of behaviors and medical complications. The specialty Acute II will be a secure unit, due to the complexity of needs and safety considerations. Admissions and authorization for continued stay for a specialty Acute II will be restricted to members who meet the medical necessity criteria at OAC 317:30-5-95.29 and OAC 317:30-5-95.30 for the respective level of care and meet the additional criteria found in the Behavioral Health Services Medical Necessity Criteria Manual, available on OHCA's website, www.okhca.org.www.oklahoma.gov/ohca.
(i)    Criteria for classification as a specialty PRTF will require a staffing ratio of one (1) staff: four (4) patients at a minimum during routine waking hours and one (1) staff: six (6) patients during time residents are asleep with twenty-four (24) hour nursing care supervised by a RN for management of behaviors and medical complications. The specialty PRTF will be a secure unit, due to the complexity of needs and safety considerations. Admissions and authorization for continued stay in a specialty PRTF will be restricted to members who meet the medical necessity criteria at OAC 317:30-5-95.29 and OAC 317:30-5-95.30 for the respective level of care and meet the additional criteria found in the Behavioral Health Services Medical Necessity Criteria Manual, available on OHCA's website, www.okhca.org.www.oklahoma.gov/ohca.
(j)    Non-authorized inpatient psychiatric services will not be SoonerCare compensable.
(k)    For out-of-state placement policy, refer to OAC 317:30-3-89 through 317:30-3-92. A prime consideration for placements will be proximity to the family or guardian in order to involve the family or guardian in active treatment, including discharge and reintegration planning. Out-of-state facilities are responsible for insuring appropriate medical care, as needed under SoonerCare provisions, as part of the per-diem rate.
(l)    Reimbursement for inpatient psychiatric services in all psychiatric units of general hospitals, psychiatric hospitals, and PRTFs are limited to the approved length of stay. OHCA, or its designated agent, will approve lengths of stay using the current OHCA Behavioral Health medical necessity criteria as described in OAC 317:30-5-95.25 through OAC 317:30-5-95.30. The approved length of stay applies to both facility and physician services.
317:30-5-95.40.  Other required standards
     The provider is required to maintain all programs and services according to applicable C.F.R. requirements, the Joint Commission' (TJC) and American Osteopathic Association' (AOA) standards for behavioral health care, Oklahoma State Department of Health's (OSDH) hospital standards for psychiatric care, and Oklahoma Department of Human Services' (OKDHS) licensing standards for residential treatment facilities. PRTFs may substitute the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF) accreditation in lieu of TJC or AOA accreditation. In addition to federal requirements, out-of-state inpatient psychiatric facilities must adhere to OAC 317:30-5-95 and 317:30-5-95.24.
[OAR Docket #23-648; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-650]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 17. Medical Suppliers
317:30-5-210 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-211.20 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-211.29 [NEW]
(Reference APA WF # 22-14)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 17. Medical Suppliers
317:30-5-210 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-211.20 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-211.29 [NEW]
Gubernatorial approval:
November 4, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 365
Docket number:
22-869
(Reference APA WF # 22-14)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The purpose of this rule will be to add the benefit of Coverage for Donor Human Breastmilk as a new service. The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) will provide Medicaid coverage for pasteurize donor human milk and donor human milk-derived products in an inpatient or home setting for infants, when deemed medically necessary by a qualified provider. The policy additions will outline criteria for this new service under the Medical Suppliers section of policy. Further policy will outline medical necessity, provider qualifications, coverage, and reimbursement for donor human breast milk. Finally proposed revisions to the Enteral Nutrition section of policy will remove human breast milk as a non-covered item.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 17.  MEDICAL SUPPLIERS
317:30-5-210.  Eligible providers
     All eligible medical suppliers must have a current contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA). The supplier must comply with all applicable state and federal laws. All suppliers of medical supplies, equipment, and appliances must be accredited by a Medicare deemed accreditation organization for quality standards for durable medical equipment (DME) suppliers in order to bill the SoonerCare program. OHCA may make exceptions to this standard based on the exemptions provided by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) for Medicare accreditation, if the provider is a government-owned entity, or at a provider's request and at the discretion of OHCA based on access issues and/or agency needs for SoonerCare members. Additionally, unless an exception is granted from the OHCA, all DME providers must meet the following criteria:
(1)    DME providers are required to have a physical location in the State of Oklahoma, or within a designated range of the Oklahoma State border, as determined by the OHCA. The OHCA may make exceptions to this requirement if a DME provider provides a specialty item, product, or service, which is not otherwise available to SoonerCare members within the State of Oklahoma. Provider contracts for out-of-state DME providers will be reviewed on a case-by-case basis for specialty items only. The OHCA has discretion and the final authority to approve or deny any provider contract.
(2)    DME providers are required to comply with Medicare DME Supplier Standards for medical supplies, equipment, and appliances provided to SoonerCare members, except the requirement to meet surety bond requirements, as specified in 42 Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.) 424.57(c).
(3)    Complex rehabilitation technology (CRT) suppliers are considered DME providers. Only CRT suppliers may bill CRT procedure codes. A CRT supplier means a company or entity that:
(A)    Is accredited by a recognized accrediting organization as a supplier of CRT;
(B)    Is an enrolled Medicare supplier and meets the supplier and quality standards established for DME suppliers, including those for CRT, under the Medicare program;
(C)    Employs as a W-2 employee at least one (1) qualified CRT professional, also known as assistive technology professional, for each location to:
(i)    Analyze the needs and capacities of complex-needs patients in consultation with qualified health care professionals;
(ii)    Participate in selecting appropriate CRT items for such needs and capacities; and
(iii)    Provide the complex-needs patient technology related training in the proper use and maintenance of the CRT items.
(D)    Requires a qualified CRT professional be physically present for the evaluation and determination of the appropriate CRT;
(E)    Has the capability to provide service and repair by qualified technicians for all CRT items it sells; and
(F)    Provides written information to the complex-needs patient prior to ordering CRT as to how to access service and repair.
(4)    For additional requirements regarding DME providers of donor human breast milk, please refer to OAC 317:30-5-211.29.
317:30-5-211.20.  Enteral nutrition
(a)     Enteral nutrition. Enteral nutrition is the delivery of nutrients directly into the stomach, duodenum, or jejunum.
(b)     Medical necessity. Enteral nutrition supplies must be determined by a provider to be medically necessary and documented in the member's plan of care as medically necessary and used for medical purposes. Requests by qualified providers for enteral nutrition supplies in and of itself shall not constitute medical necessity. The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) shall serve as the final authority pertaining to all determinations of medical necessity. Refer to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-211.2 and 317:30-3-1(f) for policy on medical necessity.
(c)     Documentation. All documentation submitted to request services must demonstrate, through adequate objective medical records, evidence sufficient to justify the member's need for the service, in accordance with OAC 317:30-3-1(f)(2). Documentation must include:
(1)    Diagnosis;
(2)    Certificate of medical necessity (CMN);
(3)    Ratio data;
(4)    Route;
(5)    Caloric intake; and
(6)    Prescription.
(7)    For full guidelines, please refer to www.okhca.org/mau.
(d)     Reimbursement.
(1)    Extension sets and Farrell bags are not covered when requested separately from the supply kits;
(2)    Enteral nutrition for individuals in long-term care facilities is not separately reimbursed as this is included in the per diem rate.
(e)     Non-covered items. The following are non-covered items:
(1)    Orally administered enteral products and/or related supplies;
(2)    Formulas that do not require a prescription unless administered by tube;
(3)    Food thickeners, human breast milk, and infant formula;
(4)    Pudding and food bars; and
(5)    Nursing services to administer or monitor the feedings of enteral nutrition.
317:30-5-211.29.  Donor human breast milk
(a)     Donor human breast milk. Donor human breast milk is pasteurized donor human milk which has been donated to a Human Milk Banking Association of North America (HMBANA) milk bank. Upon donation, it is screened, pooled, and tested so that it can be dispensed. All donor mothers require screening and approval by a HMBANA milk bank, and additionally, all donor milk is logged, pasteurized, and monitored.
(b)     Provider qualifications. Donor human breast milk must be obtained from a milk bank accredited by, and in good standing with, the HMBANA and be contracted with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) as a Durable Medical Equipment (DME) provider.
(c)     Medical necessity criteria. To qualify to receive donor human breast milk the infant must meet medically necessary criteria, which can include but not limited to the following conditions:
(1)    Other feeding options have been exhausted or are contraindicated; and
(2)    Baby's biological mother's milk is contraindicated, unavailable due to medical or psychosocial condition, or mother's milk is available but is insufficient in quantity or quality to meet the infant's dietary needs, as reflected in medical records or by a physician (MD or DO), physician's assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and
(3)    Donor human breast milk must be procured through a HMBANA entity and delivered through a contracted provider, facility, or the supplier (HMBANA-accredited milk bank); and
(A)    Requests for coverage over thirty-five (35) ounces per day, per infant, shall require review and approval by an OHCA Medical Director; and
(B)    Coverage shall be extended for as long as medically necessary, but not to exceed an infant's twelve (12) months of age; and
(C)    A new prior authorization will be required every ninety (90) days.
(4)    The infant has one (1) or more of the following conditions:
(A)    Infant born at Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW) (less than 1,500 grams) or lower; or
(B)    Gastrointestinal anomaly, metabolic/digestive disorder, or recovery from intestinal surgery where digestive needs require additional support; or
(C)    Diagnosed failure to thrive; or
(D)    Formula intolerance with either documented feeding difficulty or weight loss; or
(E)    Infant hypoglycemia; or
(F)    Congenital heart disease; or
(G)    Pre or post organ transplant; or
(H)    Other serious health conditions where the use of donor human breast milk has been deemed medically necessary and will support the treatment and recovery of the infant as reflected in the medical records or by a physician (MD or DO), physician's assistant, or advanced practice nurse.
(5)    For full guidelines, including the medically necessary criteria, please refer to www.okhca.org/mau.
(d)     Documentation. All documentation submitted to request services must demonstrate, through adequate objective medical records, evidence sufficient to justify the member's need for the service, in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-211.20(c). Documentation must include:
(1)    A prescription from a contracted provider [a physician (MD or DO), physician's assistant, or advanced practice nurse]. The prescription must include but not limited to:
(A)    Name of infant, address and diagnoses;
(B)    Parent name and phone number or email;
(C)    Donor human breast milk request form;
(D)    Number of ounces per day, week, or month needed; and
(E)    Prescriptions must be written on a prescription notepad and signed off by an authorized provider.
(F)    For full guidelines, please refer to www.okhca.org/mau.
(2)    Donor human breast milk is excluded from requiring a CMN.
(e)     Reimbursement. Donor human breast milk is reimbursed as follows:
(1)    When donor human breast milk is provided in the inpatient setting, it will be reimbursed within the prospective Diagnosis Related Group (DRG) payment methodology for hospitals as authorized under the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
(2)    When donor human breast milk is provided in an outpatient setting as a medical supply benefit, it will be reimbursed as a durable medical equipment, supplies, and appliances (DME) item in accordance the OHCA fee schedule.
[OAR Docket #23-650; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-661]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 17. Medical Suppliers
317:30-5-211.10 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-211.11 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-211.22 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-31)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions update rules regarding the prior authorization (PA) of most medical supplies, equipment, and appliances, by eliminating the requirement to include a Certificate of Medical Necessity (CMN) form when requesting the PA. The exception will be enteral and parenteral nutrition which will still require a CMN. All the other required documentation which is listed in the PA guidelines for that item will still be required to be submitted by the provider.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 17.  MEDICAL SUPPLIERS
317:30-5-211.10.  Medical supplies, equipment, and appliances
(a)     Medical supplies, equipment, and appliances. See the definition for medical supplies, equipment, and appliances at Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-211.1.
(b)     Certificate of medical necessity (CMN). Certain items of medical supplies, equipment, and appliances require a CMN/OHCA CMN which should be submitted with the request for prior authorization. These items include, but are not limited to:
(1)    External infusion pumps;Enteral and parenteral nutrition; and
(2)    Hospital beds;Support surfaces.
(3)    Oxygen and oxygen related products;
(4)    Pneumatic compression devices;
(5)    Support surfaces;
(6)    Enteral and parenteral nutrition; and
(7)    Osteogenesis stimulator.
(c)     Rental. Several medical supplies, equipment, and appliance products are classified as either a capped rental or a continuous rental. Payment for a capped rental is capped at thirteen (13) months and a continuous rental is paid monthly for as long as it is medically necessary. Both require documentation showing that the product is medically necessary.
(d)     Purchase. Medical supplies, equipment, and appliances may be purchased when a member requires the product for an extended period of time. During the prior authorization review, the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) may change the authorization from a rental to a purchase or a purchase to a rental based on the documentation submitted.
(e)     Backup equipment. Backup equipment is considered part of the rental cost and is not a covered service without prior authorization.
(f)     Home modification. Home modifications that require permanent installation are not covered services as they are not removable and therefore do not meet the definition of medical supplies, equipment, and appliances per 42 Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.) § 440.70. Refer to Title 317, Chapters 40 and 50 for home modifications covered under Home and Community Based Services Waivers, including the ADvantage Waiver.
317:30-5-211.11.  Oxygen and oxygen equipment
(a)     Medical necessity. Oxygen and oxygen supplies are covered when medically necessary. Medical necessity is determined from results of arterial blood gas analysis (ABG) or pulse oximetry (SaO2) tests. ABG data are not required for children, but may be used if otherwise available. The test results to document Medical Necessity must be within 30thirty (30) days of the date of the qualified medical practitioner's Certificate of Medical Necessityorder. Prior authorization is required after the initial three (3) months of billing whether qualifying tests were done at rest, during sleep, or during exercise. Appropriate documentation of ABG or SaO2 data from the member's chart should be attached to the prior authorization request (PAR).
(1)    The ABG or oximetry test used to determine medical necessity must be performed by a medical professional qualified to conduct such testing. The test may not be performed or paid for by a DMEPOS supplier, or a related corporation. A referring qualified medical practitioner may perform the test in his/her office as part of routine member care.
(2)    In addition to ABG data, the following three (3) tests are acceptable for determining medical necessity for oxygen prescription:
(A)    At rest and awake "spot oximetry."
(B)    During sleep:
(i)    Overnight Sleep Oximetry done inpatient or at home.
(ii)    Polysomnogram, which may be used only if medically necessary for concurrent evaluation of another condition while in a chronic stable state.
(C)    During exercise with all three (3) of the following performed in the same testing session.
(i)    At rest, off oxygen showing a non-qualifying result.
(ii)    During exercise, off oxygen showing a qualifying event.
(iii)    During exercise, on oxygen showing improvement over test (C) ii above.
(3)    Certification criteria:
(A)    All qualifying testing must meet the following criteria:
(B)    Adults. Initial requests for oxygen must include ABG or resting oximetry results. At rest and on room air, the arterial blood saturation (SaO2) cannot exceed 89%eighty-nine percent (89%) or the pO2 cannot exceed 59mm Hg.
(C)    Children. Members 20twenty (20) years of age or less must meet the following requirements:
(i)    birth through three (3) years, SaO2 equal to or less than 94%ninety-four percent (94%); or
(ii)    ages four (4) and above, SaO2 level equal to or less than 90%ninety percent (90%).
(iii)    Requests from the qualified medical practitioner for oxygen for children who do not meet these requirements should include documentation of the medical necessity based on the child's clinical condition. These requests are considered on a case-by-case basis.
(b)     Certificate of medical necessity.
(1)    The DMEPOS supplier must have a fully completed current CMN(CMS-484 or HCA-32 must be used for members 20 years of age and younger) on file to support the claims for oxygen or oxygen supplies, and to establish whether coverage criteria are met and to ensure that the oxygen services provided are consistent with the physician's prescription (refer to instructions from Palmetto Government Benefits Administration, the Oklahoma Medicare Carrier, for further requirements for completion of the CMN).
(2)    The CMN must be signed by the qualified medical practitioner prior to submitting the initial claim. If a verbal order containing qualifying data is received by the DME provider, oxygen and supplies may be dispensed using the verbal order date as the billing date. The CMN initial date, the verbal order date, and the date of delivery should be the same date. It is acceptable to have a cover letter containing the same information as the CMN, stating the qualified medical practitioner's orders. The CMN signed by the qualified medical practitioner must be attached to the PAR.
(3)    The medical and prescription information on the CMN may be completed by a non-physician clinician, or an employee, for the qualified medical practitioner's review and signature.
(4)    When a Certificate of Medical Necessity for oxygen is recertified, a prior authorization request will be required.
(5)    Re-certification and related retesting will be required every 12 months.
(6)    CMN for oxygen services must be updated at least annually and at any time a change in prescription occurs during the year. All DMEPOS suppliers are responsible for maintaining the prescription(s) for oxygen services and CMN in each member's file.
(7)    The OHCA or its designated agent will conduct ongoing monitoring of prescriptions for oxygen services to ensure guidelines are followed. Payment adjustments will be made on claims not meeting these requirements.
(b)     Guidelines. For full guidelines, please refer to www.okhca.org/mau.
317:30-5-211.22.  Pulse oximeter
(a)     Pulse oximeter. Pulse oximeter is a device used for measuring blood oxygen levels in a non-invasive manner.
(b)     Medical necessity. Pulse oximeters must be determined by a provider to be medically necessary and documented in the member's plan of care as medically necessary and used for medical purposes. A request by a qualified provider for pulse oximeters in and of itself shall not constitute medical necessity. The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) shall serve as the final authority pertaining to all determinations of medical necessity. Refer to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-211.2 and OAC 317:30-3-1(f) for policy on medical necessity.
(c)     Documentation. All documentation submitted to request services must demonstrate, through adequate objective medical records, evidence sufficient to justify the member's need for the service, in accordance with OAC 317:30-3-1(f)(2). Documentation must include:
(1)    A current oxygen order signed and dated by an OHCA-contracted provider, along with a certificate of medical necessity (CMN);
(2)    Pertinent information relating to the member's underlying diagnosis and condition which results in the need for the oximeter and supplies, including documentation of unstable airway events and documentation of current monitor readings if available; and
(3)    Documentation of an available trained caregiver in the home who is able to intervene and address changes in the member's oxygen saturation levels in a medically safe and appropriate manner.
(4)    For full guidelines, please refer to www.okhca.org/mau.
(d)     Reimbursement.
(1)    Temporary probe covers are not reimbursed separately for rented oximeters as they are included in the price of the rental.
(2)    Pulse oximeters are not reimbursed in conjunction with apnea monitors.
[OAR Docket #23-661; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-656]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 21. Outpatient Behavioral Health Agency Services
317:30-5-241.4 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-26)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; 42 C.F.R 440.130(d)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions seek to clarify crisis intervention services (CIS) as the provision of these services is expanding in the State. The proposed rule changes will clearly define mobile versus on-site CIS and make other grammatical and formatting changes as needed.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 21.  OUTPATIENT BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AGENCY SERVICES
317:30-5-241.4.  Crisis Intervention
(a)     Onsite and Mobile Crisis Intervention Services (CIS).
(1)     Definition. Crisis Intervention ServicesCIS are face-to-face services for the purpose of responding to acute behavioral or emotional dysfunction as evidenced by psychotic, suicidal, homicidal severe psychiatric distress, and/or danger of AOD relapse. The crisis situation including the symptoms exhibited and the resulting intervention or recommendations must be clearly documented.
(A)    Onsite CIS is the provision of CIS to the member at the treatment facility, either in-person or via telehealth.
(B)    Mobile CIS is the provision of CIS by at least one (1) professional at the location of a member who is not at the treatment facility (e.g., services provided at the member's home).
(2)     Limitations. Crisis Intervention ServicesCIS are not compensable for SoonerCare members who reside in ICF/IID facilities, or who receive RBMS in a group home or Therapeutic Foster Hometherapeutic foster home. CIS is also not compensable for members who experience acute behavioral or emotional dysfunction while in attendance for other behavioral health services, unless there is a documented attempt of placement in a higher level of care. The maximum is eight (8) units per month; established mobile crisis response teams can bill a maximum of four (4) hours per month, and ten (10) hours each 12twelve (12) months per member.
(3)     Qualified professionals. Services must be provided by an LBHP or Licensure Candidatelicensure candidate.
(b)     Facility Based Crisis Stabilization (FBCS). FBCS services are emergency psychiatric and substance abuse services aimed at resolving crisis situations. The services provided are emergency stabilization, which includes a protected environment, chemotherapy, detoxification, individual and group treatment, and medical assessment.
(1)     Qualified practitioners. FBCS services are provided under the supervision of a physician aided by a licensed nurse, and also include LBHPs and Licensure Candidateslicensure candidates for the provision of group and individual treatments. A physician must be available. This service is limited to providers who contract with or are operated by the ODMHSAS to provide this service within the overall behavioral health service delivery system.
(2)     Limitations. The unit of service is per hour. Providers of this service must meet the requirements delineated in the OAC 450:23. Documentation of records must comply with OAC 317:30-5-248.
[OAR Docket #23-656; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-658]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 21. Outpatient Behavioral Health Agency Services
317:30-5-241.7 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-28)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; Section 1006(b) of the Substance Use-Disorder Prevention that Promotes Opioid Recovery and Treatment (SUPPORT) for Patients and Communities Act, HR 6, and Section 1905(a) (29) of the Social Security Act
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions seek to revise opioid treatment program (OTP) rules to update the phase requirements to align with federal regulations. Revisions will also update service plan signature requirements according to the member's age.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 21.  OUTPATIENT BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AGENCY SERVICES
317:30-5-241.7.  Medication-assisted treatment (MAT) services for eligible individuals with opioid use disorder (OUD)
(a)     Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this section, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
(1)    "Medication-assisted treatment (MAT)" means an evidence-based practice approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to treat opioid use disorder, including methadone and all biological products licensed under federal law for such purpose. MAT also includes the provision of counseling and behavioral therapy.
(2)    "Office-based opioid treatment (OBOT)" means a fully contracted SoonerCare provider that renders MAT services in OBOT settings. OBOT providers must have capacity to provide all drugs approved by the FDA for the treatment of opioid use disorder, directly or by referral, including for maintenance, detoxification, overdose reversal, and relapse prevention, and appropriate counseling and other appropriate ancillary services.
(3)    "Opioid treatment program (OTP)" means a program or provider:
(A)    Registered under federal law;
(B)    Certified by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA);
(C)    Certified by ODMHSAS, unless deemed an exempted entity as defined by federal law;
(D)    Registered by the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA);
(E)    Registered by the Oklahoma Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs (OBNDD); and
(F)    Engaged in opioid treatment of individuals by use of an opioid agonist treatment medication, including methadone.
(4)    "Opioid use disorder (OUD)" means a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms in which the individual continues use of opioids despite significant opioid-induced problems.
(5)    "Phase I" means a minimum ninety (90) day period in which the member attends the opioid treatment program for observation of medication assisted treatment daily or at least six (6) days a weekthe first ninety (90) days of treatment.
(6)    "Phase II" means the phase of treatment for members who have been admitted for more than ninety (90) days and who have successfully completed Phase Isecond ninety (90) days of treatment.
(7)    "Phase III" means the phase of treatment for members who have been admitted for more than six (6) months and who have successfully completed Phase IIthird ninety (90) days of treatment.
(8)    "Phase IV" means the phase of treatment for members who have been admitted for more than nine (9) months and who have successfully completed Phase IIIlast ninety (90) days of the first year of treatment.
(9)    "Phase V" means the phase of treatment for members who have been admittedreceiving continuous treatment for more than one (1) year.
(10)    "Phase VI" means the phase of treatment for members who voluntarily seek medically supervised withdrawal and abstinence from all drugs, including methadone as prescribed. A member may enter this phase at any time in the treatment and rehabilitation processhave been receiving continuous treatment for more than two (2) years.
(b)     Coverage. The SoonerCare program provides coverage of medically necessary MAT services in OTPs, including but not limited to, methadone treatment, to eligible individuals with OUD. An OTP must have the capacity to provide the full range of services included in the definition of MAT and must document both medication dosing and supporting behavioral health services, including but not limited to, individual, family and group therapy and rehabilitation services. MAT services and/or medications may also be provided in OBOT settings per OAC 317:30-5-9(b)(17)(16).
(c)     OTP requirements. Every OTP provider shall:
(1)    Have a current contract with the OHCA as an OTP provider;
(2)    Hold a certification as an OTP from ODMHSAS, unless deemed an exempted entity as defined by federal law;
(3)    Hold a certification from the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA);
(4)    Be appropriately accredited by a SAMHSA-approved accreditation organization;
(5)    Be registered with the DEA and the OBNDD; and
(6)    Meet all state and federal opioid treatment standards, including all requirements within OAC 450:70.
(d)     Individual OTP providers. OTP providers include a:
(1)    MAT provider who is a physician, physician's assistant (PA), or advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) who may prescribe, dispense, and administer medications in accordance with state and federal law and the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
(2)    OTP behavioral health services practitioner who is a practitioner that meets the qualifications in OAC 317:30-5-240.3, except for family support and training providers, qualified behavioral therapy aide providers, multi-systemic therapy providers, and case manager I providers, for the provision of outpatient behavioral health services.
(e)     Intake and assessment. OTPs shall conduct intake and assessment procedures in accordance with OAC 450:70-3-5 through OAC 450:70-3-7.
(f)     Service phases. In accordance with OAC 450:70-6-17.2 through OAC 450:70-6-17.8, the OTP shall have structured phases of treatment and rehabilitation to support member progress and to establish requirements regarding member attendance and service participation. The OTP shall utilize ASAM criteria to determine the appropriate level of care during each phase of treatment. Treatment requirements for each phase shall include, but not limited to, the following:
(1)    During phase I, the member shall participate in a minimum of four (4) treatment sessions per month, including, but not exclusive to,. Available services shall include, but not be limited to, therapy, rehabilitation, case management, and peer recovery support services.
(2)    During phase II, the member shall participate in at least two (2) treatment sessions per month during the first ninety (90) days, including, but not exclusive to,. Available services shall include, but not be limited to, therapy, rehabilitation, case management, and peer recovery support services. After the initial ninety (90) days in Phase II, the member shall participate in at least one (1) treatment session per month.
(3)    During phase III, phase IV and phase V, the member shall participate in at least one (1) treatment session per month, including, but not exclusive to,. Available services shall include, but not be limited to, therapy, rehabilitation, case management, and peer recovery support services.
(4)    During phase VI, the LBHP, licensure candidate or certified alcohol and drug counselor (CADC) determines the frequency of therapy or rehabilitation service sessions with input from the member.
(5)    If an OTP is providing MAT medications to members receiving residential substance use disorder services, the required minimum services for the OTP may be delivered by the residential substance use disorder provider. The OTP provider shall document the provision of these services and the provider delivering such services in the member's service plan.
(g)     Service plans. In accordance with OAC 450:70-3-8, a service plan shall be completed for each member upon completion of the admission evaluation. The service plan shall be based on the patient's presenting problems or diagnosis, intake assessment, biopsychosocial assessment, and expectations of their recovery.
(1)     Service plan development. Service plans shall be completed by an LBHP or licensure candidate. Service plans completed by a licensure candidate must be co-signed and dated by a fully-licensed LBHP. Service plans, including updates, must include dated signatures of the person served [if age fourteen (14) or older], the parent/guardian (if required by law), and the LBHP or licensure candidate. If a minor is eligible to self-consent to treatment pursuant to state law, a parent/guardian signature is not required. Service plans completed by a licensure candidate must be co-signed and dated by a fully-licensed LBHP. Signatures must be obtained after the service plan is completed.
(2)     Service plan content. Service plans shall address, but not limited to, the following:
(A)    Presenting problems or diagnosis;
(B)    Strengths, needs, abilities, and preferences of the member;
(C)    Goals for treatment with specific, measurable, attainable, realistic and time-limited;
(D)    Type and frequency of services to be provided;
(E)    Dated signature of primary service provider;
(F)    Description of member's involvement in, and responses to, the service plan and his or her signature and date;
(G)    Individualized discharge criteria or maintenance;
(H)    Projected length of treatment;
(I)    Measurable long and short term treatment goals;
(J)    Primary and supportive services to be utilized with the patient;
(K)    Type and frequency of therapeutic activities in which patient will participate;
(L)    Documentation of the member's participation in the development of the plan; and
(M)    Staff who will be responsible for the member's treatment.
(3)     Service plan updates. Service plan updates shall be completed by an LBHP or licensure candidate. Service updates completed by a licensure candidate must be co-signed and dated by a fully-licensed LBHP. Service plan review and updates shall occur no less than every six (6) months and shall occur more frequently if required based upon the service phase or certain circumstances:
(A)    Change in goals and objectives based upon member's documented progress, or identification of any new problem(s);
(B)    Change in primary therapist or rehabilitation service provider assignment;
(C)    Change in frequency and types of services provided;
(D)    Critical incident reports; and/or
(E)    Sentinel events.
(4)     Service plan timeframes. Service plans shall be completed by the fourth visit after admission.
(h)     Progress notes. Progress notes shall be completed in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-248(3).
(i)     Discharge planning. All members shall be assessed for biopsychosocial appropriateness of discharge from each level of care using ASAM criteria that includes a list of symptoms for all six (6) dimensions and each of the levels of care, to determine a clinically appropriate placement in the least restrictive level of care. This organized process involves a professional determination by an LBHP or licensure candidate for appropriate placement to a specific level of care based on the following symptoms and situations:
(1)    Acute intoxication and/or withdrawal potential;
(2)    Biomedical conditions and complications;
(3)    Emotional, behavioral or cognitive conditions and complications;
(4)    Readiness to change;
(5)    Relapse, continued use or continued problem potential; and
(6)    Recovery/living environment.
(j)     Service exclusions. The following services are excluded from coverage:
(1)    Components that are not provided to or exclusively for the treatment of the eligible individual;
(2)    Services or components of services of which the basic nature is to supplant housekeeping or basic services for the convenience of a person receiving covered services;
(3)    Telephone calls or other electronic contacts (not inclusive of telehealth);
(4)    Field trips, social, or physical exercise activity groups;
(k)     Reimbursement. To be eligible for payment, OTPs shall:
(1)    Have an approved provider agreement on file with the OHCA. Through this agreement, the OTP assures that they are in compliance with all applicable federal and Statestate Medicaid law and regulations, including, but not limited to, OHCA administrative rules, ODMHSAS administrative rules, and the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
(2)    Obtain prior authorization for applicable drugs and services by the OHCA or its designated agent before the service is rendered by an eligible provider. Without prior authorization for applicable drugs and services, payment is not authorized.
(3)    Record the National Drug Code (NDC) number for each drug used in every encounter at the time of billing.
(4)    Be reimbursed pursuant to the methodology described in the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
[OAR Docket #23-658; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-657]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 2. Physician Assistants
317:30-5-30 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-31 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-32 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-33 [REVOKED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-27)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; State of Oklahoma Physician Assistant Act, 59 O.S. 519-524
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions seek to review Physician Assistant rule sections to ensure previous amendments to the Physician Assistant Practice Act made by the Legislature in 2020 are reflected in the rules. The proposed revisions will update the term "supervising" physician to "delegating" physician; remove the application to practice requirements and replace it with the practice agreement requirement; and provide a timeframe of ten (10) business days for providers to submit any updated copy of the practice agreement due to changes. Other revisions will involve limited rewriting aimed at improving readability and overall flow of policy language.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 2.  PHYSICIAN ASSISTANTS
317:30-5-30.  Eligible providers
     The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) recognizes medical services rendered by a Physician Assistant in accordance with the rules and regulations covering the Authority's medical care program.
(1)    The application for a Medicaid Provider agreement must be accompanied by copies of the physician assistant's current written authorization to practice from the Oklahoma State Board of Medical Licensure and Supervision. The Application to Practice must be jointly filed by the supervising physician and physician assistant and include a description of the physician's practice, methods of supervision and utilization of the physician assistant, and the name of alternate supervising physician(s) who will supervise the physician assistant in the absence of the primary supervising physician. At any time that the supervising physician(s) change, an updated copy of the certification must be submitted to OHCA, Provider Enrollment.
(2)    All services provided by a Physician Assistant must be within the current practice guidelines for the State of Oklahoma.
     Eligible providers shall:
(1)    Have and maintain current license by the Oklahoma State Board of Medical Licensure and Supervision as specified in Section 519.6 of Title 59 of the Oklahoma Statutes;
(2)    Have a current contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA); and
(3)    Have a practice agreement with a SoonerCare contracted delegating physician(s) (who is licensed and in good standing with the State Board of Medical Licensure and Supervision or the State Board of Osteopathic Examiners) concerning the scope of practice of the physician assistant (PA). If at any time the delegating physician(s) change, an updated copy of the practice agreement must be submitted within ten (10) business days to OHCA, Provider Enrollment.
317:30-5-31.  General coverage by categoryCoverage
     Physician Assistant services are subject to all rules and guidelines which apply to Physician services as specified at OAC 317:30-5, Part 1, Physicians.The OHCA covers medical services (as described in OAC 317:30-5, Part 1, Physicians) by a physician assistant (PA) when rendered within the licensure and scope of practice of the PA. Services must be in compliance with the state-specific statutes including Title 59 O.S. § 519.2, rules and regulations of the applicable practice act.
317:30-5-32.  UtilizationReimbursement
     Physician Assistant services are included in the Medicaid program in the same way as Physician services and are included in all utilization parameters (refer to OAC 317:30-5, Part 1). An office, nursing home, or hospital visit is considered as one of the allowed visits for a given period. Payment is not made to the Physician Assistant and supervising physician for the same service on the same day.
(a)    Payment for services within the physician assistant's scope of practice shall be made when ordered or performed by the eligible physician assistant if the same service would have been covered if ordered or performed by a physician.
(b)    Payment is not made to physician assistant when a service(s) is (are) performed simultaneously with the delegating physician and billed by the physician on the same day.
(c)    Payment is made per the methodology established in the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan.
317:30-5-33.  Post payment utilization review  [REVOKED]
     All inpatient services are subject to post payment utilization review by the OHCA or its designated agent. Post payment utilization reviews are subject to all rules and guidelines which apply to Physician services as specified at OAC 317:30-5, Part 1, Physicians.
[OAR Docket #23-657; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-654]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 41. Family Support Services
317:30-5-412 [AMENDED]
Part 59. Homemaker Services
317:30-5-535 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-536 [REVOKED]
317:30-5-537 [REVOKED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-24A)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions to the Oklahoma Human Services Developmental Disability Services will update coverage limitations for individual family training from $5,500 to $6,500 and group family training from $5,500 to $6,500 and revoke outdated documentation requirements language for Family Support services. Other revisions will add new language to outline criteria for respite care providers and homemaker services providers. Additional, revisions will update and remove outdated language and definitions, remove obsolete references, revoke/combine sections to comply with Executive Order 2020-03, which requires state agencies to reduce unnecessary and outdated rules. Final revisions will correct formatting and grammatical errors, as well as align policy with current business practices.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 41.  FAMILY SUPPORT SERVICES
317:30-5-412.  Description of services
     Family support services include services identified in (1) through (6) of this section. Providers of any family support service must have an applicable SoonerCare Provider Agreement for Home and Community BasedCommunity-Based Services (HCBS) Waiver Providers for persons with developmental disabilities.
(1)     Transportation services. Transportation services are provided per Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:40-5-103.
(2)     Assistive technology (AT) devices and services. AT devices and services are provided per OAC 317:40-5-100.
(3)     Architectural modification. Architectural modification services are provided per OAC 317:40-5-101.
(4)     Family training.
(A)     Minimum qualifications.
(i)    Individual providers must have a Developmental Disabilities Services (DDS) Family Training application and training curriculum approved by DDS staff. Individual providers must hold a current licensure, certification, or a Bachelor's Degreebachelor's degree in a human service field related to the approved training curriculum, or other Bachelor's Degreebachelor's degree combined with a minimum of five 5 years' experience in the intellectual disabilities field. Only individuals named on the SoonerCare Provider Agreement to provide Family Training services may provide service to members.
(ii)    Agency or business providers must have a (DDS) Family Training application and training curriculum approved by DDS staff. Agency or business provider training staff must hold a current licensure, certification, or a Bachelor's Degreebachelor's degree in a human service field related to the approved training curriculum or other Bachelor's Degreebachelor's degree combined with a minimum of five (5) years experience in the intellectual disabilities field. The credentials of new training staff hired by an approved DDS HCBS Family Training agency or business provider must be submitted to and approved by the DDS programs manager for Family Training prior to new staff training members or members' families.
(B)     Description of services. Family Training services include instruction in skills and knowledge pertaining to the support and assistance of members. Services are:
(i)    intendedIntended to allow families to become more proficient in meeting the needs of members who are eligible;
(ii)    providedProvided in any community setting;
(iii)    providedProvided in either group, consisting of two (2) to 15fifteen (15) persons, or individual formats; and
(iv)    forFor members served through DDS HCBS Waivers and their families. For the purpose of this service, family is defined as any person who lives with, or provides care to a member served on the Waiver;
(v)    includedIncluded in the member's Individual Plan (Plan) and arranged through the member's case manager; and
(vi)    intendedIntended to yield outcomes as defined in the member's Plan.
(C)     Coverage limitations. Coverage limitations for family training are:include (i) through (iv) of this subparagraph.
(i)    The limitation for individual family training; Limitation: $5,500is $6,500 per Plan of Care (POC) year;.
(ii)    The limitation for group family training; Limitation: $5,500is $6,500 per Plan of Care POC year;.
(iii)    sessionSession rates for individual and group sessions do not exceed a range comparable to rates charged by persons with similar credentials providing similar services; and.
(iv)    ratesRates must be justified based on costs incurred to deliver the service and are evaluated to determine if costs are reasonable.
(D)     Documentation requirements. Providers must maintain documentation fully disclosing the extent of services furnished that specifies: (i) through (ix) of this subparagraph. Progress reports for each member served must be submitted to the DDS case manager per OAC 340:100-5-52.
(i)    theThe service date;.
(ii)    theThe start and stop time for each session;.
(iii)    theThe signature of the trainer;.
(iv)    theThe credentials of the trainer;.
(v)    theThe specific issues addressed;.
(vi)    theThe methods used to address issues;.
(vii)    theThe progress made toward outcomes;.
(viii)    theThe member's response to the session or intervention; and.
(ix)    anyAny new issues identified during the session.
(x)    progress reports for each member served must be submitted to the DDS case manager per OAC 340:100-5-52; and
(xi)    an annual report of the provider's overall Family Training program, including statistical information about members served, their satisfaction with services, trends observed, changes made in the program and program, recommendations must be submitted to the DDS programs manager for Family Training on an annual basis.
(5)     Family counseling.
(A)     Minimum qualifications. Counseling providers must hold current licensure as clinical social workers, psychologists, licensed professional counselors (LPC), or licensed marriage and family therapists (LMFT).
(B)     Description of services. Family counseling offered to members and his or her natural, adoptive, or foster family members, helps to develop and maintain healthy, stable relationships among all family members.
(i)    Emphasis is placed on the acquisition of coping skills by building upon family strengths.
(ii)    Knowledge and skills gained through family counseling services increase the likelihood the member remains in or returns to his or her own home.
(iii)    All family counseling needs are documented in the member's Plan.
(iv)    Services are rendered in any confidential setting where the member/familymember or family resides or the provider conducts business.
(C)     Coverage limitations. Coverage limitations for family counseling are:outlined in (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph.
(i)    individual family counseling; unit: 15 minutes; limitation: 400 units per Plan of Care year; and
(ii)    group, six person maximum, family counseling; unit: 30 minutes; limitation: 225 units per Plan of Care year.
(i)    Individual counseling is accounted for in units of 15 minutes with a limitation of 400 units per POC year.
(ii)    Group counseling, with a six (6) person maximum, is accounted for in units of 30 minutes with a limitation of 225 units per POC year.
(D)     Documentation requirements. Providers must maintain documentation fully disclosing the extent of services furnished that specifies:
(i)    theThe service date;
(ii)    theThe start and stop time for each session;
(iii)    theThe signature of the therapist;
(iv)    theThe credentials of the therapist;
(v)    theThe specific issues addressed;
(vi)    theThe methods used to address issues;
(vii)    theThe progress made toward resolving issues and meeting outcomes;
(viii)    theThe member's response to the session or intervention; and
(ix)    anyAny new issue identified during the session.
(E)     Reporting requirements. Progress reports for each member served must be submitted to the DDS case manager per OAC 340:100-5-52.
(6)     Specialized medical supplies. Specialized medical supplies are provided per OAC 317:40-5-104.
PART 59.  HOMEMAKER SERVICES
317:30-5-535.  Homemaker Service in Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) Waiver for persons with an intellectual disability or certain persons with related conditions
(a)     Introduction to waiver services. The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) administers Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) Waivers for persons with an intellectual disability or certain persons with related conditions that are operated by the Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) Developmental Disabilities Services (DDS)Division. Each waiver allows payment for homemaker or homemaker respite servicesservice as defined in the waiver approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
(b)     Eligible providers. All homemakerHomemaker services providers must enter into contractual agreements with the OHCA to provide HCBS for persons with an intellectual disability or related conditions.
(1)    Providers must complete the OKDHS DDS sanctioned training per Oklahoma Administrative Code 340:100-3-38.
(2)    Homemaker service is included in the member's Individual Plan (Plan). Arrangements for this service must be made through the member's DDS case manager.
(3)    Homemaker service includes general household activities, such as meal preparation and routine household care when the regular caregiver responsible for these activities is temporarily absent or unable to manage the home and care for others in the home.
(4)    Limits are specified in the member's Plan.
317:30-5-536.  Coverage  [REVOKED]
     All homemaker or homemaker respite services must be included in the member's Individual Plan (IP). Arrangements for care under this program must be made with the member's case manager.
317:30-5-537.  Description of services  [REVOKED]
     Homemaker services include:
(1)     Minimum qualifications. Providers must complete the Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) Developmental Disabilities Services Division (DDSD) sanctioned training curriculum in accordance with the schedule authorized by DDSD per OAC 340:100-3-38.
(2)     Description of services.
(A)    Homemaker services include general household activities, such as meal preparation and routine household care provided by a homemaker who is trained, when the regular caregiver responsible for these activities is temporarily absent or unable to manage the home and care for others in the home. Homemakers can help members with activities of daily living when needed.
(B)    Homemaker respite services may include respite services provided to members on a short-term basis due to the need for relief of the caregiver. Services may be provided in any community setting as specified per the member's Individual Plan (IP).
(3)     Coverage limitations. Limits are specified in member's IP. Members who are in the custody of OKDHS and in out-of-home placement funded by OKDHS Children and Family Services Division are not eligible for respite care.
[OAR Docket #23-654; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-651]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 80. Mobile and/or Portal Dental Treatment FacilitiesMobile and Portable Dental Services
317:30-5-706 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-707 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-708 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-709 [REVOKED]
317:30-5-710 [REVOKED]
317:30-5-711 [REVOKED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-18)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2022 through March 3, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 80. Mobile and/or Portal Dental Treatment FacilitiesMobile and Portable Dental Services
317:30-5-706 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-707 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-708 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-709 [REVOKED]
317:30-5-710 [REVOKED]
317:30-5-711 [REVOKED]
Gubernatorial approval:
November 4, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 370
Docket number:
22-871
(Reference APA WF # 22-18)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions will expand the services that mobile dental providers render; and allow the mobile dental services to be authorized for both children and adults. Due to a dental provider shortage in numerous areas of Oklahoma, many SoonerCare members are unable to access dental care so these changes will help with that barrier.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 80.  MOBILE AND/OR PORTAL DENTAL TREATMENT FACILITIESMOBILE AND PORTABLE DENTAL SERVICES
317:30-5-706.  DefinitionsMobile dental units
     The following words and terms, when used in this Part, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Individual provider" means a dentist, dental hygienist, or dental assistant who provides dental services at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility.
"Mobile and/or portable dental treatment facilities" means the following, limited places of treatment, as authorized by the Oklahoma State Dental Act: group homes for juveniles; public and private schools; and mobile dental clinics. The rules in this Part expressly shall not apply to SoonerCare reimbursement of dental services provided at any other authorized place of service, including, but not limited to: "dental offices," as defined by 59 O.S. § 328.3; federal, tribal, state, or local public health facilities; federally qualified health centers; and hospitals or dental ambulatory surgery centers.
(a)     Definition. "Mobile dental unit" means a motor vehicle or trailer that contains dental equipment and is used to provide dental services to eligible SoonerCare members on-site in accordance with Title 59 of Oklahoma Statutes (O.S.), Section 328.3 (59 O.S. §328.3).
(b)     Eligible providers. For dental services provided at a mobile dental unit to be eligible for SoonerCare reimbursement, a dental group shall meet all applicable requirements set forth in the Oklahoma Board of Dentistry rules, the Oklahoma State Dental Act (59 O.S., Ch. 7), and the requirements in this Section, including but not limited to, all licensing and permitting requirements.
(1)    All dentists working at a mobile dental unit shall be currently licensed in good standing with the Oklahoma Board of Dentistry. All other contracted providers of the dental group, working at a mobile dental unit, shall meet all credentialing/certification requirements, as per their specialty. In addition, all members of the dental group working at a mobile dental unit shall comply with the requirements at Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-695.
(2)    The license, certification, accreditation, and/or permit (or a photocopy of these documents) of every individual provider in the dental group shall be prominently displayed at the mobile dental unit, pursuant to 59 O.S., Section (§) 328.21.
(3)    For services provided in a mobile dental unit, the permit to operate the mobile dental unit shall be prominently displayed in the mobile dental unit vehicle, pursuant to 59 O.S. §328.40a.
(4)    In accordance with OAC 317:30-5-695.1, every dental group providing services at a mobile dental unit must be fully contracted with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) as a dental group provider and must also be fully contracted with OHCA as a mobile dental unit.
(5)    Every individual dentist practicing at a mobile dental unit must be fully contracted with the OHCA as a dentist.
(6)    Dental groups and individual providers providing dental services at a mobile dental unit shall comply with all applicable state and federal Medicaid laws, including, but not limited to, OHCA administrative rules, the Code of Federal Regulations, and the Oklahoma State Medicaid Plan.
(c)     Coverage. Refer to OAC 317:30-5-696 for dental coverage descriptions for children and adults.
(d)     Description of services. Mobile dental units must treat both children and adults and provide urgent, preventive, and restorative dental services that are appropriate to provide in this setting.
(1)    All current dental rules at OAC 317, Part 79, still apply to all mobile dental services including, but not limited to, prior authorizations, medically necessity criteria, documentation, and limitations.
(2)    Endodontics, orthodontics, prosthodontics, periodontics, and permanent crowns will not be covered in mobile clinic.
(3)    Mobile dental units will be required to refer a member to a SoonerCare contracted dental provider for any follow-up care when needed or to access services that cannot be provided in the mobile unit.
(e)     Limited provider service area. Mobile dental units should serve members in SoonerCare dental provider shortage areas. Dental provider shortage areas mean Oklahoma counties that have less than ten (10) Medicaid general dental providers.
(f)     Billing and reimbursement. Billing and reimbursement policies in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-704 through 317:30-5-705 apply to mobile dental services.
(g)     Post Care. Each member receiving dental care at a mobile dental unit must receive an information sheet at the end of the visit. The information sheet must contain:
(1)    The name of the dentist, dental hygienist, and/or dental assistant who provided the dental services at the mobile dental unit;
(2)    Valid contact information which can include a business telephone number, email address and/or other emergency contact number for the dental group and/or dentist that provided the dental services at the mobile dental unit;
(3)    A listing of the treatment rendered, including, when applicable, billing codes, fees, and tooth numbers;
(4)    A description of any follow-up treatment that is needed or recommended; and
(5)    Referrals to specialists or other dentists if the mobile dental unit providers were unable to provide the necessary treatment and/or additional care is needed.
(6)    All dental records including radiographs from that visit should be provided to the member and/or forwarded to the dental provider providing follow-up care. Electronic and/or printed forms of records are acceptable.
317:30-5-707.  Eligible providersPortable dental units
(a)    In order for dental services provided at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility to be eligible for SoonerCare reimbursement, a dental group shall meet all applicable requirements set forth in the Oklahoma Board of Dentistry rules and the Oklahoma State Dental Act, including, but not limited to, all licensing and permitting requirements.
(1)    All dentists and dental hygienists working at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility shall be currently licensed in good standing with the Oklahoma Board of Dentistry. All dental assistants working at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility shall be currently permitted by the Oklahoma Board of Dentistry.
(2)    The license or permit (or a photocopy of the license or permit) of every individual provider shall be prominently displayed at the mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility, pursuant to 59 O.S. § 328.21.
(3)    For services provided in a mobile dental clinic, the permit to operate the mobile dental clinic shall be prominently displayed in the mobile dental clinic vehicle, pursuant to 59 O.S. § 328.40a.
(b)    In accordance with OAC 317:30-5-695.1, every dental group providing services at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility must be fully contracted with the OHCA as a dental group provider and must be fully contracted with OHCA as a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility.
(c)    Every individual dentist practicing at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility must be fully contracted with the OHCA as a dentist.
(d)    Dental groups and individual providers providing dental services at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility shall comply with all state and federal Medicaid law, including, but not limited to, OHCA administrative rules, the Code of Federal Regulations, and the Oklahoma State Medicaid Plan.
(a)     Definition. Portable dental unit means a non-facility in which dental equipment used in the practice of dentistry is transported to and used on a temporary basis at an out-of-office location at either group homes for juveniles or public and private schools.
(b)     Eligible providers. For dental services provided at a portable dental unit to be eligible for SoonerCare reimbursement, a dental group shall meet all applicable requirements set forth in the Oklahoma Board of Dentistry rules, the Oklahoma State Dental Act (59 O.S., Ch. 7), and the requirements in this Section, including but not limited to, all licensing and permitting requirements.
(1)    All dentists working at a portable dental unit shall be currently licensed in good standing with the Oklahoma Board of Dentistry. All other contracted providers of the dental group, working at a portable dental unit, shall meet all credentialing/certification requirements, as per their specialty. In addition, all members of the dental group working at a portable dental unit shall comply with the requirements at Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-695.
(2)    The license or permit (or a photocopy of the license or permit) of every individual provider shall be prominently displayed at the portable dental unit site, pursuant to Title of 59 O.S. § 328.21.
(3)    In accordance with OAC 317:30-5-695.1, every dental group providing services at a portable dental unit must be fully contracted with the OHCA as a dental group provider.
(4)    Every individual dentist practicing at a portable dental unit must be fully contracted with the OHCA as a dentist.
(5)    Dental groups and individual providers providing dental services at a portable dental unit shall comply with all state and federal Medicaid laws, including, but not limited to, OHCA administrative rules, the Code of Federal Regulations, and the Oklahoma State Medicaid Plan.
(c)     Coverage. Portable dental unit services are only available for SoonerCare-eligible individuals under the age of twenty-one (21) and limited to the services noted in (1) through (3) of this Subsection. All portable dental units must have a SoonerCare-contracted, Oklahoma-licensed dentist onsite to supervise all other portable dental unit staff. Coverage for dental services provided to children/adolescents at a portable dental unit is limited to:
(1)    One (1) fluoride application per member per twelve (12) months;
(2)    One (1) dental screening annually that is performed by a SoonerCare-contracted, Oklahoma-licensed dentist; and
(3)    Dental sealants on tooth numbers 2, 3, 14, 15, 18, 19, 30, and 31. The OHCA will not reimburse the application of dental sealants for a given OHCA member more than once every thirty-six (36) months, regardless of whether the services are provided at a portable dental unit, or at some other authorized place of service.
(d)     Post Care. Each member receiving dental care at a portable dental unit must receive an information sheet at the end of the visit. The information sheet must contain:
(1)    The name of the dentist, dental hygienist, and/or dental assistant who provided the dental services at the portable dental unit;
(2)    A valid business telephone number and/or other emergency contact number for the dental group and/or dentist that provided the dental services at the portable dental unit;
(3)    A listing of the treatment rendered, including, when applicable, billing codes, fees, and tooth numbers;
(4)    A description of any follow-up treatment that is needed or recommended; and
(5)    Referrals to specialists or other dentists if the portable dental unit providers were unable to provide the necessary treatment and/or additional care is needed.
(e)     Billing. Refer to OAC 317:30-5-704 through 317:30-5-705 for billing instructions and guidelines. Please note that for any dental service provided through a portable dental unit that is billed to SoonerCare, the appropriate place of service must be identified on the claim to receive reimbursement.
317:30-5-708.  Parental consent requirements
     Individual providers at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facilitymobile or portable dental unit shall not perform any service on a minor without having obtained, prior to the provision of services, a signed, written consent from the minor's parent or legal guardian, that includes, at a minimum, the:
(1)    Name of the dental group and/or dentist providing the dental services at the mobile and/or portable dental treatment facilityunit;
(2)    Permanent business mailing address of the dental group and/or dentist providing the dental services at the mobile and/or portable dental treatment facilityunit;
(3)    Business telephone number of the dental group and/or dentist providing the dental services at the mobile and/or portable dental treatment facilityunit. This telephone number must be available for emergency calls;
(4)    Full printed name of the child to receive services;
(5)    Child's SoonerCare Member ID number; and
(6)    An inquiry of whether the child has had dental care in the past twelve (12) months and if the child has a dental appointment scheduled with his/her regular dentist. If applicable, parent should list the name and address of the dentist and/or dental office where the care is provided.
317:30-5-709.  Coverage  [REVOKED]
     Payment is made only to contracted dental groups for Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT) services provided to SoonerCare-eligible individuals under the age of twenty-one (21). All mobile and/or portable dental treatment facilities must have a SoonerCare-contracted, Oklahoma-licensed dentist onsite to supervise staff and provide certain services. Coverage for dental services provided to children/adolescents at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility is limited to:
(1)    One (1) fluoride application per member per twelve (12) months;
(2)    One (1) dental assessment annually that is performed by a SoonerCare-contracted, Oklahoma-licensed dentist; and
(3)    Dental sealants on tooth numbers 2, 3, 14, 15, 18, 19, 30, and 31. The Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) will not reimburse the application of dental sealants for a given OHCA member more than once every thirty-six (36) months, regardless of whether the services are provided at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility, or at some other authorized place of service.
317:30-5-710.  Post-care  [REVOKED]
     Each member receiving dental care at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility must receive an information sheet at the end of the visit. The information sheet must contain:
(1)    The name of the dentist, dental hygienist, and/or dental assistant who provided the dental services at the mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility;
(2)    A valid business telephone number and/or other emergency contact number for the dental group and/or dentist that provided the dental services at the mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility;
(3)    A listing of the treatment rendered, including, when applicable, billing codes, fees, and tooth numbers;
(4)    A description of any follow-up treatment that is needed or recommended; and
(5)    Referrals to specialists or other dentists if the individual providers were unable to provide the necessary treatment, and additional care is needed.
317:30-5-711.  Billing  [REVOKED]
     Refer to Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-704 through 317:30-5-705 for billing instructions and guidelines. Please note that for any dental service provided at a mobile and/or portable dental treatment facility that is billed to SoonerCare, the appropriate place of service must be identified on the claim.
[OAR Docket #23-651; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-653]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 85. Advantage Program Waiver Services
317:30-5-763 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-23A)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board, 1915c Advantage Waiver
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions will align policy with the recently approved 1915(c) ADvantage waiver amendment, which added Assistive Technology and Remote Support services.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 85.  ADVANTAGE PROGRAM WAIVER SERVICES
317:30-5-763.  Description of services
     Services included in the ADvantage program are:
(1)     Case management.
(A)    Case management services, regardless of payment source, assist a member to gain access to medical, social, educational, or other services that may benefit him or her to maintain health and safety. Case managers:
(i)    Initiate and oversee necessary assessments and reassessments to establish or reestablish waiver program eligibility;
(ii)    Develop the member's comprehensive person-centered service plan, listing only the services necessary to prevent institutionalization of the member, as determined through the assessments;
(iii)    Initiate the addition of necessary services or deletion of unnecessary services, as dictated by the member's condition and available support; and
(iv)    Monitor the member's condition to ensure delivery and appropriateness of services and initiate person-centered service plan reviews. Case managers submit an individualized Form 02CB014, Services Backup Plan, on all initial service plans, annually at reassessment, and on updates as appropriate throughout the year, reflecting risk factors and measures in place to minimize risks. When a member requires hospital or nursing facility (NF) services, the case manager:
(I)    Assists the member in accessing institutional care and, as appropriate, periodically monitors the member's progress during the institutional stay;
(II)    Helps the member transition from institution to home by updating the person-centered service plan;
(III)    Prepares services to start on the date the member is discharged from the institution; and
(IV)    Must meet ADvantage program minimum requirements for qualification and training prior to providing services to ADvantage members.
(B)    Providers of ADvantage services for the member or for those who have an interest in or are employed by an ADvantage provider for the member must not provide case management or develop the person-centered service plan, except when the ADvantage Administration (AA) demonstrates the only willing and qualified entity to provide case management and/or develop person-centered service plans in a geographic area, also provides other ADvantage services. Prior to providing services to members receiving Consumer-DirectedConsumer Directed Personal Assistance Services and Supports (CD-PASS), case manager supervisors, and case managers are required to receive training and demonstrate knowledge regarding the CD-PASS service delivery model, "Independent Living Philosophy," and demonstrate competency in person-centered planning.
(C)    Providers may only claim time for billable case management activities, described as:
(i)    Any task or function, per Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-763(1)(A) that only an ADvantage case manager can perform on behalf of the member, because of skill, training, or authority, can perform on behalf of a member; and
(ii)    Ancillary activities, such as clerical tasks, including, but not limited to, mailing, copying, filing, faxing, driving time, or supervisory and administrative activities are not billable case management activities. The administrative cost of these activities and other normal and customary business overhead costs are included in the reimbursement rate for billable activities.
(D)    Case management services are prior authorized and billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service using the rate associated with the location of residence of the member served.
(i)    Case management services are billed using a standard rate for reimbursement for billable service activities provided to a member who resides in a county with a population density greater than twenty-five (25) persons per square mile.
(ii)    Case management services are billed using a very rural/outside providers' service area rate for billable service activities provided to a member who resides in a county with a population density equal to, or less than twenty-five (25) persons per square mile. Exceptions are services to members who reside in Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) Community Living, Aging and Protective Services identified zip codes in Osage County adjacent to the metropolitan areas of Tulsa and Washington counties. Services to these members are prior authorized and billed using the standard rate.
(iii)    The latest United States Census, Oklahoma counties population data is the source for determination of whether a member resides in a county with a population density equal to, or less than twenty-five (25) persons per square mile, or resides in a county with a population density greater than twenty-five (25) persons per square mile.
(2)     Respite.
(A)    Respite services are provided to members who are unable to care for themselves. Services are provided on a short-term basis due to the primary caregiver's absence or need for relief. Payment for respite care does not include room and board costs unless more than seven (7) hours are provided in a NF. Respite care is only utilized when other sources of care and support are exhausted. Respite care is only listed on the service plan when it is necessary to prevent institutionalization of the member. Units of services are limited to the number of units approved on the service plan.
(B)    In-home respite services are billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service. Within any one (1) day period, a minimum of eight (8) units [two (2) hours] must be provided with a maximum of twenty-eight (28) units [seven (7) hours] provided. The service is provided in the member's home.
(C)    Facility-based extended respite is filed for a per diem rate when provided in a NF. Extended respite must be at least eight (8) hours in duration.
(D)    In-home extended respite is filed for a per diem rate. A minimum of eight (8) hours must be provided in the member's home.
(3)     Adult day health (ADH) care.
(A)    ADH is furnished on a regularly-scheduledregularly scheduled basis for one (1) or more days per week in an outpatient setting. It provides both health and social services necessary to ensure the member's optimal functioning. Most assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs), such as eating, mobility, toileting, and nail care are integral services to the ADH care service and are covered by the ADH care basic reimbursement rate.
(B)    ADH care is a fifteen (15) minute unit of service. No more than eight (8) hours, [thirty-two (32) units] are authorized per day. The number of units of service a member may receive is limited to the number of units approved on the member's approved service plan.
(C)    Physical, occupational, and speech therapies are only provided as an enhancement to the basic ADH care service when authorized by the service plan and are billed as a separate procedure. ADH care therapy enhancement is a maximum of one (1) session unit per day of service.
(D)    Meals provided as part of this service do not constitute a full nutritional regimen. One (1) meal, that contains at least one-third (1/3) of the current daily dietary recommended intake (DRI), as established by the Food and Nutrition Board of the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine, is provided to those participants who are in the center for four (4) or more hours per day, and does not constitute a full nutritional regimen. Member's access to food at any time must also be available in addition to the required meal and is consistent with an individual not receiving Medicaid-funded services and supports.
(E)    Personal-carePersonal care service enhancement in ADH is assistance in bathing, hair care, or laundry service, authorized by the person-centered service plan and billed as separate procedures. This service is authorized when an ADvantage waiver member who uses ADH requires assistance with bathing, hair care, or laundry to maintain health and safety. Assistance with bathing, hair care, or laundry service is not a usual and customary ADH care service. ADH personal care enhancement is a maximum of one (1) unit per day of bathing, hair care, or laundry service.
(F)    OKDHS Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) waiver settings have qualities defined in Home and Community-Based Services: Waiver Requirements, 42 Code of Federal Regulations, Section (§) 441.301 (c)(4) based on the individual's needs, defined in the member's authorized service plan.
(i)    The ADH center is integrated and supports full access of ADvantage members to the greater community, including opportunities to:
(I)    Seek employment and work in competitive integrated ADH Center, not a requirement for persons that are retirement age;
(II)    Engage in community life;
(III)    Control personal resources; and
(IV)    Receive services in the community, to the same degree as individuals not receiving ADvantage Program or other Medicaid HBCS waiver services.
(ii)    The ADH is selected by the member from all available service options and given the opportunity to visit and understand the options.
(iii)    The ADH ensures the member's rights of privacy, dignity, respect, and freedom from coercion and restraint.
(iv)    The ADH optimizes the member's initiative, autonomy, and independence in making life choices including, but not limited to:
(I)    Daily activities;
(II)    The physical environment; and
(III)    Social interactions.
(v)    The ADH facilitates the member's choice regarding services and supports including the provider.
(vi)    Each member has the freedom and support to control his or her own schedules, activities, and access to food at any time.
(vii)    Each member may have visitors whenever he or she chooses.
(viii)    The ADH center is physically accessible to the member.
(G)    ADH centers that are presumed not to be HCBS settings per 42 C.F.R. § 441.301(c)(5)(v) include, ADH centers:
(i)    inIn a publicly- or privately-owned facility providing inpatient treatment;
(ii)    onOn the grounds of or adjacent to a public institution; and
(iii)    withWith the effect of isolating individuals from the broader community of individuals not receiving ADvantage program or another Medicaid HCBS;
(H)    When the ADH is presumed not HCBS, according to 42 C.F.R. § 441.301(c)(5)(v), it may be subject to heightened scrutiny by AA, the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA), and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). The ADH must provide evidence that the ADH portion of the facility has clear administrative, financial, programmatic, and environmental distinctions from the institution and comply with additional monitoring by the AA.
(4)     Environmental modifications.
(A)    Environmental modifications are physical adaptations to the home, required by the member's person-centered service plan that are necessary to ensure the member's health, welfare, and safety or enable the member to function with greater independence in the home, and that without such, the member would require institutionalization. Adaptations or improvements to the home but not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the waiver member are excluded.
(B)    All services require prior authorization.
(5)     Specialized medical equipment and supplies.
(A)    Specialized medical equipment and supplies are devices, controls, or appliances specified in the person-centered service plan that enable members to increase their abilities to perform ADLs, or to perceive, control, or communicate with the environment in which they live. Necessary items for life support, ancillary supplies, and equipment necessary for the proper functioning of such items, and durable and non-durable medical equipment not available under the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan are also included. This service excludes any equipment and/oror supply items not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the waiver member and necessary to prevent institutionalization.
(B)    Specialized medical equipment and supplies are billed using the appropriate HealthCare Common Procedure Code (HCPC). Reoccurring supplies shipped and delivered to the member are compensable only when the member remains eligible for waiver services, continues to reside in the home, and is not institutionalized in a hospital, skilled nursing facility, or nursing home. It is the provider's responsibility to verify the member's status prior to shipping and delivering these items. Payment for medical supplies is limited to the SoonerCare (Medicaid) rate when established, to the Medicare rate, or to actual acquisition cost, plus thirty percent (30%). All services must have prior authorization.
(6)     Advanced supportive/restorative assistance.
(A)    Advanced supportive/restorative assistance services are maintenance services used to assist a member who has a chronic, yet stable condition. These services assist with ADLs that require devices and procedures related to altered body functions. These services are for maintenance only and are not utilized as treatment services.
(B)    Advanced supportive/restorative assistance service is billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service. The number of units of service a member may receive is limited to the number of units approved on the person-centered service plan.
(7)     Nursing.
(A)    Nursing services are services listed in the person-centered service plan that are within the scope of the state's Nurse Practice Act. These services are provided by a registered nurse (RN), a licensed practical nurse (LPN), or a licensed vocational nurse (LVN) under the supervision of an RN licensed to practice and in good standing in the state in which services are provided. Nursing services may be provided on an intermittent or part-time basis or may be comprised of continuous care. The provision of the nursing service works to prevent or postpone the institutionalization of the member.
(B)    Nursing services are services of a maintenance or preventative nature provided to members with stable, chronic conditions. These services are not intended to treat an acute health condition and may not include services reimbursable under either the Medicaid or Medicare home health program. This service primarily provides nurse supervision to the personal care assistant or to the advanced supportive/restorative assistance aide and assesses the member's health and prescribed medical services to ensure they meet the member's needs as specified in the person-centered service plan. A nursing assessment/evaluation, on-site visit is made to each member, with additional visits for members with advanced supportive/restorative assistance services authorized to evaluate the condition of the member and medical appropriateness of services. An assessment/evaluation report is forwarded to the ADvantage program case manager and the skilled nurse in accordance with review schedule determined between the case manager and the skilled nurse and outlined in the member's person-centered service plan, to report the member's condition or other significant information concerning each ADvantage member.
(i)    The ADvantage program case manager may recommend authorization of nursing services as part of the interdisciplinary team planning for the member's person-centered service plan and/or assessment/evaluation of the:
(I)    Member's general health, functional ability, and needs; and/or
(II)    Adequacy of personal care and/or advanced supportive/restorative assistance services to meet the member's needs, including providing on-the-job training and competency testing for personal care or advanced supportive/restorative care aides per rules and regulations for the delegation of nursing tasks established by the board of nursingBoard of Nursing in the state in which services are provided.
(ii)    In addition to assessment/evaluation, the ADvantage program case manager may recommend authorization of nursing services to:
(I)    Prepare a one (1) week supply of insulin syringes for a person who is blind and has diabetes and can safely self-inject the medication but cannot fill his or her own syringe. This service includes monitoring the member's continued ability to self-administer the insulin;
(II)    Prepare oral medications in divided daily compartments for a member who self-administers prescribed medications but needs assistance and monitoring due to a minimal level of disorientation or confusion;
(III)    Monitor a member's skin condition when a member is at risk for skin breakdown due to immobility or incontinence or the member has a chronic stage II decubitus ulcer requiring maintenance care and monitoring;
(IV)    Provide nail care for thea member with diabetes or member who has circulatory or neurological compromise; and
(V)    Provide consultation and education to the member, member's family, or other informal caregivers identified in the person-centered service plan, regarding the nature of the member's chronic condition. Skills training, including return skills demonstration to establish competency, to the member, family, or other informal caregivers as specified in the person-centered service plan for preventive and rehabilitative care procedures are also provided.
(C)    Nursing service includes interdisciplinary team planning and recommendations for the member's person-centered service plan development and/or assessment/evaluation or for other services within the scope of the nurse's license, including private duty nursing. Nursing services are billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service. A specific procedure code is used to bill for interdisciplinary team planning and recommendations for the member's person-centered service plan, but other procedure codes may be used to bill for all other authorized nursing services. A maximum of eight (8) units [two (2) hours], per day of nursing for service plan development and assessment evaluation are allowed. An agreement by a provider to perform a nurse evaluation is also an agreement to provide the Medicaid in-home care services for which the provider is certified and contracted. Reimbursement for a nurse evaluation is denied when the provider that produced the nurse evaluation fails to provide the nurse assessment identified in the Medicaid in-home care services for which the provider is certified and contracted.
(8)     Skilled nursing services.
(A)    Skilled nursing services are listed in the person-centered service plan,that are within the state's Nurse Practice Act scope,of the state's Nurse Practice Act and are ordered by a licensed physician, osteopathic physician, physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse, and are provided by ana RN, LPN, or LVN under the supervision of ana RN, licensed to practice and in good standing in the state in whichwhere services are provided. Skilled nursing services provided in the member's home or other community setting are services requiring the specialized skills of a licensed nurse. The scope and nature of these services are intended for treatment of a disease or a medical condition and are beyond the scope of ADvantage nursing services. These intermittent nursing services are targeted toward a prescribed treatment or procedure that must be performed at a specific time or other predictable rate of occurrence. The RN contacts the member's physician to obtain necessary information or orders pertaining to the member's care. When the member has an ongoing need for service activities requiring more or less units than authorized, the RN must recommend, in writing, that the service plan be revised.
(B)    Skilled nursing services are provided on an intermittent or part-time basis, and billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service. Skilled nursing services are provided when nursing services are not available through Medicare or other sources or when SoonerCare plan nursing services limits are exhausted. Amount, frequency, and duration of services are prior-authorized in accordance with the member's person-centered service plan.
(9)     Home-delivered meals.
(A)    Home-delivered meals provide one (1) meal per day. A home-delivered meal is a meal prepared in advance and brought to the member's home. Each meal must have a nutritional content equal to at least one-third (1/3) of the dietary reference intakes as established by the Food and Nutrition Board of the National Academies of Sciences, Engineering and Medicine. Home-delivered meals are only provided to members who are unable to prepare meals and lack an informal provider to do meal preparation.
(B)    Home-delivered meals are billed per meal, with one (1) meal equaling one (1) unit of service. The limit of the number of units a member is allowed to receive is in accordance with the member's person-centered service plan. The provider must obtain a signature from the member or the member's representative at the time the meal is delivered. In the event the member is temporarily unavailable, such as at a doctor's appointment, and the meal is left at the member's home, the provider must document the reason a signature was not obtained. The signature logs must be available for review.
(10)     Occupational therapy services.
(A)    Occupational therapy services are services that increase functional independence by enhancing the development of adaptive skills and performance capacities of members with physical disabilities and related psychological and cognitive impairments. Services are provided in the member's home and are intended to help the member achieve greater independence, enabling him or her to reside and participate in the community. Treatment involves the therapeutic use of self-care, work, and play activities, and may include modification of the tasks or environment to enable the member to achieve maximum independence, prevent further disability, and maintain health. Under a physician's order, a licensed occupational therapist evaluates the member's rehabilitation potential and develops an appropriate written, therapeutic regimen. The regimen utilizes paraprofessional, occupational therapy assistant services, within the limitations of his or her practice, working under the supervision of a licensed occupational therapist. The regimen includes education and training for informal caregivers to assist with and/oror maintain services when appropriate. The occupational therapist ensures monitoring and documentation of the member's rehabilitative progress and reports to the member's case manager and physician to coordinate the necessary addition or deletion of services, based on the member's condition and ongoing rehabilitation potential.
(B)    Occupational therapy services are billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service. Payment is not allowed solely for written reports or record documentation.
(11)     Physical therapy services.
(A)    Physical therapy services are those services that maintain or improve physical disability through the evaluation and rehabilitation of members disabled by pain, disease, or injury. Services are provided in the member's home and are intended to help the member achieve greater independence to reside and participate in the community. Treatment involves the use of physical therapeutic means, such as massage, manipulation, therapeutic exercise, cold and/or heat therapy, hydrotherapy, electrical stimulation, and light therapy. Under a physician's order, a licensed physical therapist evaluates the member's rehabilitation potential and develops an appropriate, written, therapeutic regimen. Under the Oklahoma Physical Therapy Practice Act, a physical therapist may evaluate a member's rehabilitation potential and develop and implement an appropriate, written, therapeutic regimen without a referral from a licensed health care practitioner for a period not to exceed thirty (30) calendar days. Any treatment required after the thirty (30) calendar day period requires a prescription from a physician or the physician's assistant of the licensee. The regimen utilizes paraprofessional physical therapy assistant services, within the limitations of his or her practice, working under the licensed physical therapist's supervision of the licensed physical therapist. The regimen includes education and training for informal caregivers to assist with and/or maintain services when appropriate. The licensed physical therapist ensures monitoring and documentation of the member's rehabilitative progress and reports to the member's case manager and physician to coordinate the necessary addition or deletion of services, based on the member's condition and ongoing rehabilitation potential.
(B)    Physical therapy services are may be authorized as ADH care therapy enhancement and are a maximum of one (1) session unit per day of service. Payment is not allowed solely for written reports or record documentation.
(12)     Speech and language therapy services.
(A)    Speech and language therapy services are those that maintain or improve speech and language communication and swallowing disorders/disability through the evaluation and rehabilitation of members disabled by pain, disease, or injury. Services are provided in the member's homean ADH service setting and are intended to help the member achieve greater independence to reside and participate in the community. Services involve the use of therapeutic means, such as evaluation, specialized treatment, or development and oversight of a therapeutic maintenance program. Under a physician's order, a licensed speech and language pathologist evaluates the member's rehabilitation potential and develops an appropriate, written, therapeutic regimen. The regimen utilizes speech language pathology assistant services within the limitations of his or her practice, working under the supervision of the licensed speech and language pathologist. The regimen includes education and training for informal caregivers to assist with, and/or maintain services when appropriate. The speech and language pathologist ensures monitoring and documentation of the member's rehabilitative progress and reports to the member's case manager and physician to coordinate the necessary addition and/or deletion of services, based on the member's condition and ongoing rehabilitation potential.
(B)    Speech and language therapy services are authorized as ADH care-therapy enhancement and are a maximum of one (1) session unit per day of service. Payment is not allowed solely for written reports or record documentation.
(13)     Hospice services.
(A)    Hospice services are palliative and comfort care provided to the member and his or her family when a physician certifies the member has a terminal illness, with a life expectancy of six (6) months or less, and orders hospice care. ADvantage hospice care is authorized for a six (6) month period and requires physician certification of a terminal illness and orders of hospice care. When the member requires more than six (6) months of hospice care, a physician or nurse practitioner must have a face-to-face visit with the member thirty (30) calendar days prior to the initial hospice authorization end-date, and re-certify that the member has a terminal illness, has six (6) months or less to live, and orders additional hospice care. After the initial authorization period, additional periods of ADvantage hospice may be authorized for a maximum of sixty (60) calendar day increments with physician certification that the member has a terminal illness and six (6) months or less to live. A member's person-centered service plan that includes hospice care must comply with Waiver requirements to be within total person-centered service plan cost limits.
(B)    A hospice program offers palliative and supportive care to meet the special needs arising out of the physical, emotional, and spiritual stresses experienced during the final stages of illness, through the end of life, and bereavement. The member signs a statement choosing hospice care instead of routine medical care with the objective to treat and cure the member's illness. Once the member has elected hospice care, the hospice medical team assumes responsibility for the member's medical care for the illness in the home environment. Hospice care services include nursing care, physician services, medical equipment and supplies, drugs for symptom and pain relief, home health aide and personal care services, physical, occupational and speech therapies, medical social services, dietary counseling, and grief and bereavement counseling to the member and/or the member's family.
(C)    A hospice person-centered service plan must be developed by the hospice team in conjunction with the member's ADvantage case manager before hospice services are provided. The hospice services must be related to the palliation or management of the member's terminal illness, symptom control, or to enable the member to maintain ADL and basic functional skills. A member who is eligible for Medicare hospice provided as a Medicare Part A benefit, is not eligible to receive ADvantage hospice services.
(D)    Hospice services are billed per diem of service for days covered by a hospice person-centered service plan and while the hospice provider is responsible for providing hospice services as needed by the member or member's family. The maximum total annual reimbursement for a member's hospice care within a twelve (12) month period is limited to an amount equivalent to eighty-five percent (85%) of the Medicare hospice cap payment, and must be authorized on the member's person-centered service plan.
(14)     ADvantage personal care.
(A)    ADvantage personal care is assistance to a member in carrying out ADLs, such as bathing, grooming, and toileting or in carrying out instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs), such as preparing meals and laundry service, to ensure the member's personal health and safety, or to prevent or minimize physical health regression or deterioration. Personal care services do not include service provision of a technical nature, such as tracheal suctioning, bladder catheterization, colostomy irrigation, or the operation and maintenance of equipment of a technical nature.
(B)    ADvantage home care agency skilled nursing staff working in coordination with an ADvantage case manager is responsible for the development and monitoring of the member's personal care services.
(C)    ADvantage personal care services are prior-authorized and billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service, with units of service limited to the number of units on the ADvantage approved person-centered service plan.
(15)     Personal emergency response system (PERS).
(A)    PERS is an electronic device that enables members at high risk of institutionalization, to secure help in an emergency. Members may also wear a portable "help" button to allow for mobility. PERS is connected to the person's phone and programmed to signal, per member preference, a friend, relative, or a response center, once the "help" button is activated. For an ADvantage member to be eligible for PERS service, the member must meet all of the service criteria in (i) through (vi). The member:
(i)    Has a recent history of falls as a result of an existing medical condition that prevents the member from getting up unassisted from a fall;
(ii)    Lives alone and without a regular caregiver, paid or unpaid, and therefore is left alone for long periods of time;
(iii)    Demonstrates the capability to comprehend the purpose of and activate the PERS;
(iv)    Has a health and safety plan detailing the interventions beyond the PERS to ensure the member's health and safety in his or her home;
(v)    Has has a disease management plan to implement medical and health interventions that reduce the possibility of falls by managing the member's underlying medical condition causing the falls; and
(vi)    Will likely avoid premature or unnecessary institutionalization as a result of PERS.
(B)    PERS services are billed using the appropriate HCPC procedure code for installation, monthly service, or PERS purchase. All services are prior authorized per the ADvantage approved service plan.
(16)     CD-PASS.
(A)    CD-PASS are personal services assistance (PSA) and advanced personal services assistance (APSA) that enables a member in need of assistance to reside in his or her home and community of choice, rather than in an institution; and to carry out functions of daily living, self-care, and mobility. CD-PASS services are delivered as authorized on the person-centered service plan. The member becomes the employer of record and employs the PSA and the APSA. The member is responsible, with assistance from ADvantage program administrative Financial Management Services (FMS), for ensuring the employment complies with state and federal labor law requirements. The member/employer may designate an adult family member or friend, who is not a PSA or APSA to the member, as an "authorized representative" to assist in executing the employer functions. The member/employer:
(i)    Recruits, hires, and, as necessary, discharges the PSA or APSA;
(ii)    Ensures that the PSA or APSA has received sufficient instruction and training. If needed, the member/employer will work with the consumer-directed agent/case manager (CDA) to obtain training assistance from ADvantage skilled nurses. Prior to performing an APSA task for the first time, the APSA must demonstrate competency in the tasks in an on-the-job training session conducted by the member, and the member must document the attendant's competency in performing each task in the APSA's personnel file;
(iii)    Determines where and how the PSA or APSA works, hours of work, what is to be accomplished and, within individual budget allocation limits, wages to be paid for the work;
(iv)    Supervises and documents employee work time; and
(v)    Provides tools and materials for work to be accomplished.
(B)    The services the PSA may provide include:
(i)    Assistance with mobility and transferring in and out of bed, wheelchair, or motor vehicle, or all;
(ii)    Assistance with routine bodily functions, such as:
(I)    Bathing and personal hygiene;
(II)    Dressing and grooming; and
(III)    Eating, including meal preparation and cleanup;
(iii)    Assistance with home services, such as shopping, laundry, cleaning, and seasonal chores;
(iv)    Companion assistance, such as letter writing, reading mail, and providing escort or transportation to participate in approved activities or events. "Approved activities or events," means community, civic participation guaranteed to all citizens including, but not limited to, exercise of religion, voting or participation in daily life activities in which exercise of choice and decision making is important to the member, and may include shopping for food, clothing, or other necessities, or for participation in other activities or events specifically approved on the person-centered service plan.
(C)    An APSA provides assistance with ADLs to a member with a stable, chronic condition, when such assistance requires devices and procedures related to altered body function if such activities, in the opinion of the attending physician or licensed nurse, may be performed if the member were physically capable, and the procedure may be safely performed in the home. Services provided by the APSA are maintenance services and are never used as therapeutic treatment. Members who develop medical complications requiring skilled nursing services while receiving APSA services are referred to his or her attending physician, who may order home health services, as appropriate. APSA includes assistance with health maintenance activities that may include:
(i)    Routine personal care for persons with ostomies, including tracheotomies, gastrostomies, and colostomies with well-healed stoma, external, indwelling, and suprapubic catheters that include changing bags and soap and water hygiene around the ostomy or catheter site;
(ii)    Removing external catheters, inspecting skin, and reapplication of same;
(iii)    Administering prescribed bowel program, including use of suppositories and sphincter stimulation, and enemas pre-packaged only without contraindicating rectal or intestinal conditions;
(iv)    Applying medicated prescription lotions or ointments and dry, non-sterile dressings to unbroken skin;
(v)    Using a lift for transfers;
(vi)    Manually assisting with oral medications;
(vii)    Providing passive range of motion (non-resistive flexion of joint) therapy, delivered in accordance with the person-centered service plan unless contraindicated by underlying joint pathology;
(viii)    Applying non-sterile dressings to superficial skin breaks or abrasions; and
(ix)    Using universal precautions as defined by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
(D)    FMS are program administrative services provided to participating CD-PASS members/employers by AA. FMS are employer-related assistance that provides Internal Revenue Service (IRS) fiscal reporting agent and other financial management tasks and functions, including, but not limited to:
(i)    Processing employer payroll, after the member/employer has verified and approved the employee timesheet, at a minimum of semi-monthly, and associated withholding for taxes, or for other payroll withholdings performed on behalf of the member as employer of the PSA or APSA;
(ii)    Other employer-related payment disbursements as agreed to with the member/employer and in accordance with the member/employer's individual budget allocation;
(iii)    Responsibility for obtaining criminal and abuse registry background checks on prospective hires for PSA or APSA on the member/employer's behalf;
(iv)    Providing orientation and training regarding employer responsibilities, as well as employer information and management guidelines, materials, tools, and staff consultant expertise to support and assist the member to successfully perform employer-related functions; and
(v)    Making Hepatitis B vaccine and vaccination series available to PSA and APSA employees in compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards.
(E)    The PSA service is billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service. The number of units of PSA a member may receive is limited to the number of units approved on the person-centered service plan.
(F)    The APSA service is billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service. The number of units of APSA a member may receive is limited to the number of units approved on the person-centered service plan.
(17)     InstitutionalInstitution transition services.
(A)    InstitutionalInstitution transition services are those services necessary to enable a member to leave the institution and receive necessary support through ADvantage waiver services in his or her home and community.
(B)    Transitional case management services are services per OAC 317:30-5-763(1) required by the member and included on the member's person-centered service plan that are necessary to ensure the member's health, welfare, and safety, or to enable the member to function with greater independence in the home, and without which, the member would continue to require institutionalization. ADvantage transitional case management services assist institutionalized members who are eligible to receive ADvantage services in gaining access to needed waiver and other State Plan services, as well as needed medical, social, educational, and other services to assist in the transition, regardless of the funding source for the services to which access is gained. Transitional case management services may be authorized for periodic monitoring of an ADvantage member's progress during an institutional stay and for assisting the member to transition from institution to home by updating the person-centered service plan, including necessary institutionalinstitution transition services to prepare services and supports to be in place or to start on the date the member is discharged from the institution. Transitional case management services may be authorized to assist individuals that have not previously received ADvantage services, but were referred by OKDHS ASCAP to the case management provider for assistance in transitioning from the institution to the community with ADvantage services support.
(i)    InstitutionalInstitution transition case management services are prior authorized and billed per fifteen (15) minute unit of service using the appropriate HCPC procedure code and modifier associated with the location of residence of the member served, per OAC 317:30-5-763(1)(C).(D).
(ii)    A unique modifier code is used to distinguish institution transitional case management services from regular case management services.
(C)    InstitutionalInstitution transition services may be authorized and reimbursed, per the conditions in (i) through (iv).
(i)    The service is necessary to enable the member to move from the institution to his or her home.
(ii)    The member is eligible to receive ADvantage services outside of the institutional setting.
(iii)    InstitutionalInstitution transition services are provided to the member within one-hundred and eighty (180) calendar-days of discharge from the institution.
(iv)    Services provided while the member is in the institution are claimed as delivered on the day of discharge from the institution.
(D)    When the member receives institutionalinstitution transition services but fails to enter the waiver, any institutionalinstitution transition services provided are not reimbursable.
(18)     Assisted living services (ALS).
(A)    ALS are personal care and supportive services furnished to waiver members who reside in a homelike, non-institutional setting that includes twenty-four (24) hour on-site response capability to meet scheduled or unpredictable member needs and to provide supervision, safety, and security. Services also include social and recreational programming and medication assistance, to the extent permitted under State law. The ALS provider is responsible for coordinating services provided by third parties to ADvantage members in the assisted living center (ALC). Nursing services are incidental rather than integral to the provision of ALS. ADvantage reimbursement for ALS includes services of personal care, housekeeping, laundry, meal preparation, periodic nursing evaluations, nursing supervision during nursing intervention, intermittent or unscheduled nursing care, medication administration, assistance with cognitive orientation, assistance with transfer and ambulation, planned programs for socialization, activities, and exercise, and for arranging or coordinating transportation to and from medical appointments. Services, except for planned programs for socialization, activities, and exercise, are to meet the member's specific needs as determined through the individualized assessment and documented on the member's person-centered service plan.
(B)    The ADvantage ALS philosophy of service delivery promotes member choice, and to the greatest extent possible, member control. A member has control over his or her living space and his or her choice of personal amenities, furnishings, and activities in the residence. The ADvantage member must have the freedom to control his or her schedule and activities. The ALS provider's documented operating philosophy, including policies and procedures, must reflect and support the principles and values associated with the ADvantage assisted living philosophy and approach to service delivery emphasizing member dignity, privacy, individuality, and independence.
(C)    ADvantage ALS required policies for admission and termination of services and definitions.
(i)    ADvantage-certified assisted living centers (ALC) are required to accept all eligible ADvantage members who choose to receive services through the ALC, subject only to issues relating to, one (1) or more of the following:
(I)    Rental unit availability;
(II)    The member's compatibility with other residents;
(III)    The center's ability to accommodate residents who have behavior problems, wander, or have needs that exceed the services the center provides; or
(IV)    Restrictions initiated by statutory limitations.
(ii)    The ALC may specify the number of units the provider is making available to service ADvantage members. At minimum, the ALC must designate ten (10) residential units for ADvantage members. Residential units designated for ADvantage may be used for other residents at the ALC when there are no pending ADvantage members for those units. Exceptions may be requested in writing subject to the approval of AA.
(iii)    Mild or moderate cognitive impairment of the applicant is not a justifiable reason to deny ALC admission. Centers are required to specify whether they are able to accommodate members who have behavior problems or wander. Denial of admission due to a determination of incompatibility must be approved by the case manager and the AA. Appropriateness of placement is not a unilateral determination by the ALC. The ADvantage case manager, the member, or member's designated representative, and the ALC in consultation determine the appropriateness of placement.
(iv)    The ALC is responsible for meeting the member's needs for privacy, dignity, respect, and freedom from coercion and restraint. The ALC must optimize the member's initiative, autonomy, and independence in making life choices. The ALC must facilitate member choices regarding services and supports, and who provides them. Inability to meet those needs is not recognized as a reason for determining an ADvantage member's placement is inappropriate. The ALC agrees to provide or arrange and coordinate all of the services listed in the Oklahoma State Department of Health (OSDH) regulations, per OAC 310:663-3-3, except for specialized services.
(v)    In addition, the ADvantage participating ALC agrees to provide or coordinate the services listed in (I) through (III).
(I)    Provide an emergency call system for each participating ADvantage member.
(II)    Provide up to three (3) meals per day plus snacks sufficient to meet nutritional requirements, including modified special diets, appropriate to the member's needs and choices; and provide members with twenty-four (24) hour access to food by giving members control in the selection of the foods they eat, by allowing the member to store personal food in his or her room, by allowing the member to prepare and eat food in his or her room, and allowing him or her to decide when to eat.
(III)    Arrange or coordinate transportation to and from medical appointments. The ALC must assist the member with accessing transportation for integration into the community, including opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated settings, engage in community life, and control his or her personal resources and receive services in the community to the same degree of access as residents not receiving ADvantage services.
(vi)    The provider may offer any specialized service or rental unit for members with Alzheimer's disease and related dementias, physical disabilities, or other special needs the facility intends to market. Heightened scrutiny, through additional monitoring of the ALC by AA, is utilized for those ALC's that also provide inpatient treatment; settings on the grounds of or adjacent to a public institution and/or other settings that tend to isolate individuals from the community. The ALC must include evidence that the ALC portion of the facility has clear administrative, financial, programmatic and environmental distinctions from the institution.
(vii)    When the provider arranges and coordinates services for members, the provider is obligated to ensure the provision of those services.
(viii)    Per OAC 310:663-1-2, "personal care" is defined as "assistance with meals, dressing, movement, bathing or other personal needs or maintenance, or general supervision of the physical and mental well-being of a person [Title 63 of the Oklahoma Statutes (O.S.), Section (§) 1-1902.17] and includes assistance with toileting." For ADvantage ALS, assistance with "other personal needs" in this definition includes assistance with grooming and transferring. The term "assistance" is clarified to mean hands-on help, in addition to supervision.
(ix)    The specific ALS assistance provided along with amount and duration of each type of assistance is based upon the member's assessed need for service assistance and is specified in the ALC's service plan that is incorporated as supplemental detail into the ADvantage comprehensive person-centered service plan. The ADvantage case manager in cooperation with ALC professional staff, develops the person-centered service plan to meet member needs. As member needs change, the person-centered service plan is amended consistent with the assessed, documented need for change in services.
(x)    Placement, or continued placement of an ADvantage member in an ALC, is inappropriate when any one (1) or more of the conditions in I through IV exist.
(I)    The member's needs exceed the level of services the center provides. Documentation must support ALC efforts to provide or arrange for the required services to accommodate participant needs.
(II)    The member exhibits behaviors or actions that repeatedly and substantially interfere with the rights or well-being of other residents, and the ALC documented efforts to resolve behavior problems including medical, behavioral, and increased staffing interventions. Documentation must support the ALC's attempted interventions to resolve behavior problems.
(III)    The member has a complex, unstable, or unpredictable medical condition and treatment cannot be developed and implemented appropriately in the assisted living environment. Documentation must support the ALC's attempts to obtain appropriate member care.
(IV)    The member fails to pay room and board charges and/oror OKDHS determined vendor payment obligation.
(xi)    Termination of residence ensues when inappropriately placed. Once a determination is made that a member is inappropriately placed, the ALC must inform the member, the member's representative, if applicable, the AA, and the member's ADvantage case manager. The ALC must develop a discharge plan in consultation with the member, the member's representative, the ADvantage case manager, and the AA. The ALC and case manager must ensure the discharge plan includes strategies for providing increased services, when appropriate, to minimize risk and meet the higher care needs of members transitioning out of the ALC, when the reason for discharge is inability to meet member needs. When voluntary termination of residency is not arranged, the ALC must provide written notice to the member and to the member's representative, with a copy to the member's ADvantage case manager and the AA. The written notice provides intent to terminate the residency agreement and move the member to an appropriate care provider. The thirty (30) calendar-day requirement must not apply when emergency termination of the residency agreement is mandated by the member's immediate health needs or when the termination of the residency agreement is necessary for the physical safety of the member or other ALC residents. The written involuntary termination of residency notice for reasons of inappropriate placement must include:
(I)    A full explanation of the reasons for the termination of residency;
(II)    The notice date;
(III)    The date notice was given to the member and the member's representative, the ADvantage case manager, and the AA;
(IV)    The date the member must leave ALC; and
(V)    Notification of appeal rights and the process for submitting appeal of termination of Medicaid ALS to OHCA.
(D)    ADvantage ALS provider standards in addition to licensure standards.
(i)     Physical environment.
(I)    The ALC must provide lockable doors on the entry door of each rental unit and an attached, lockable compartment within each member unit for valuables. Members must have exclusive rights to his or her unit with lockable doors at the entrance of the individual or shared rental unit. Keys to rooms may be held by only appropriate ALC staff as designated by the member's choice. Rental units may be shared only when a request to do so is initiated by the member. Members must be given the right to choose his or her roommate.
(II)    The member has a legally enforceable agreement, or lease, with the ALC. The member must have the same responsibilities and protections from eviction as all tenants under the landlord-tenant law of the state, county, city, or other designated entity.
(III)    The ALC must provide each rental unit with a means for each member to control the temperature in the residential unit through the use of a damper, register, thermostat, or other reasonable means under the control of the member and that preserves privacy, independence, and safety, provided that the OSDH may approve an alternate means based on documentation that the design of the temperature control is appropriate to the special needs of each member who has an alternate temperature control.
(IV)    For ALCs built prior to January 1, 2008, each ALC individual residential unit must have a minimum total living space, including closets and storage areas, of two-hundred and fifty (250) square feet; for ALCs built after December 31, 2007, each ALC individual residential unit must have a minimum total living space, including closets and storage areas, of three-hundred and sixty (360) square feet.
(V)    The ALC must provide a private bathroom for each living unit that must be equipped with one (1) lavatory, one (1) toilet, and one (1) bathtub or shower stall.
(VI)    The ALC must provide at a minimum; a kitchenette, defined as a space containing a refrigerator, adequate storage space for utensils, and a cooking appliance. A microwave is an acceptable cooking appliance.
(VII)    The member is responsible for furnishing the rental unit. When a member is unable to supply basic furnishings defined as a bed, dresser, nightstand, chairs, table, trash can, and lamp, or if furnishings pose a health or safety risk, the member's ADvantage case manager in coordination with the ALC, must assist the member in obtaining basic furnishings for the rental unit. The member must have the freedom to furnish and decorate the rental unit within the scope of the lease or residency agreement.
(VIII)    The ALC must meet the requirements of all applicable federal and state laws and regulations including, but not limited to, state and local sanitary codes, state building and fire safety codes, and laws and regulations governing use and access by persons with disabilities.
(IX)    The ALC must ensure the design of common areas accommodates the special needs of the resident population and that the rental unit accommodates the special needs of the member in compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act accessibility guidelines per Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Disability By Public Accommodations and in in Commercial Facilities, 28 Code of Federal Regulations, Appendix A, at no additional cost to the member.
(X)    The ALC must provide adequate and appropriate social and recreational space for residents and the common space must be proportionate to the number of residents and appropriate for the resident population.
(XI)    The ALC must provide appropriately monitored outdoor space for resident use.
(XII)    The ALC must provide the member with the right to have visitors of his or her choosing at any time. Overnight visitation is allowed as permissible by the Landlord/Tenant Agreement.
(XIII)    The ALC must be physically accessible to members.
(ii)     Sanitation.
(I)    The ALC must maintain the facility, including its individual rental units in a clean, safe, and sanitary manner, ensuring that they are insect and rodent free, odorless, and in good repair at all times.
(II)    The ALC must maintain buildings and grounds in a good state of repair, in a safe and sanitary condition, and in compliance with the requirements of applicable regulations, bylaws, and codes.
(III)    The ALC stores clean laundry in a manner that prevents contamination and changes linens at time intervals necessary to avoid health issues.
(IV)    The ALC must provide housekeeping in member rental units to maintain a safe, clean, and sanitary environment.
(V)    The ALC must have policies and procedures for members' pets.
(iii)     Health and safety.
(I)    The ALC must provide building security that protects members from intruders with security measures appropriate to building design, environmental risk factors, and the resident population.
(II)    The ALC must respond immediately and appropriately to missing members, accidents, medical emergencies, or deaths.
(III)    The ALC must have a plan in place to prevent, contain, and report any diseases considered to be infectious or are listed as diseases that must be reported to the OSDH.
(IV)    The ALC must adopt policies for the prevention of abuse, neglect, and exploitation that include screening, training, prevention, investigation, protection during investigation, and reporting.
(V)    The ALC must provide services and facilities that accommodate the needs of members to safely evacuate in the event of fires or other emergencies.
(VI)    The ALC must ensure staff is trained to respond appropriately to emergencies.
(VII)    The ALC must ensure that fire safety requirements are met.
(VIII)    The ALC must offer meals that provide balanced and adequate nutrition for members.
(IX)    The ALC must adopt safe practices for themeal preparation and delivery of meals.
(X)    The ALC must provide a twenty-four (24) hour response to personal emergencies appropriate to the needs of the resident population.
(XI)    The ALC must provide safe transportation to and from ALC sponsored social or recreational outings.
(iv)     Staff to resident ratios.
(I)    The ALC must ensure a sufficient number of trained staff are on duty, awake, and present at all times, twenty-four (24) hours a day, and seven (7) days a week, to meet theresidents' needs of residents and to carry out all of the processes listed in the ALC's written emergency and disaster preparedness plan for fires and other disasters.
(II)    The ALC must ensure staffing is sufficient to meet ADvantage program members' needs in accordance with each member's ADvantage person-centered service plan.
(III)    The ALC must have plans in place to address situations where there is a disruption to the ALC's regular work force.
(v)     Staff training and qualifications.
(I)    The ALC must ensure staff has qualifications consistent with their job responsibilities.
(II)    All staff assisting in, or responsible for, food service must have attended a food service training program offered or approved by OSDH.
(III)    The ALC must provide staff orientation and ongoing training to develop and maintain staff knowledge and skills. All direct care and activity staff receive at least eight (8) hours of orientation and initial training within the first month of employment and at least four (4) hours annually thereafter. Staff providing direct care on a dementia unit must receive four (4) additional hours of dementia specific training. Annual first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) certification do not count toward the four (4) hours of annual training.
(vi)     Staff supervision.
(I)    The ALC must ensure delegation of tasks to non-licensed staff is consistent and in compliance with all applicable state regulations including, but not limited to, the state's Nurse Practice Act and OSDH Nurse Aide Certification rules.
(II)    The ALC must ensure that, where the monitoring of food intake or therapeutic diets is provided at the prescribed services level, a registered dietitian monitors member health and nutritional status.
(vii)     Resident rights.
(I)    The ALC must provide to each member and each member's representative, at the time of admission, a copy of the resident statutory rights listed in 63 O.S. § 1-1918 amended to include additional rights and the clarification of rights as listed in the ADvantage member assurances. A copy of resident rights must be posted in an easily accessible, conspicuous place in the facility. The facility must ensure that staff is familiar with and observes, the resident rights.
(II)    The ALC must conspicuously post for display in an area accessible to residents, employees, and visitors, the ALC's complaint procedures and the name, address, and phone number of a person authorized to receive complaints. A copy of the complaint procedure must also be given to each member, the member's representative, or the legal guardian. The ALC must ensure all employees comply with the ALC's complaint procedure.
(III)    The ALC must provide to each member and member's representative, at the time of admission, information about Medicaid grievance and appeal rights, including a description of the process for submitting a grievance or appeal of any decision that decreases Medicaid services to the member.
(viii)     Incident reporting.
(I)    The ALC must maintain a record of incidents that occur and report incidents to the member's ADvantage case manager and to the AA, utilizing the AA Critical Incident Reporting form. Incident reports are also made to Adult Protective Services (APS) and to the OSDH, as appropriate, per ALC licensure rules, utilizing the specific reporting forms required.
(II)    Incidents requiring report by licensed ALC's are those defined by OSDH, per OAC 310:663-19-1 and listed on the AA Critical Incident Reporting form.
(III)    Reports of incidents must be made to the member's ADvantage case manager and to the AA via electronic submission within one (1) business day of the reportable incident's discovery utilizing the AA Critical Incident Reporting form. When required, a follow-up report of the incident must be submitted via electronic submission to the member's ADvantage case manager and to the AA. The follow-up report must be submitted within five (5) business days of the incident. The final report must be filed with the member's ADvantage case manager and the AA when the investigation is complete, not to exceed ten (10) business days after the incident.
(IV)    Each ALC having reasonable cause to believe that a member is suffering from abuse, neglect, exploitation, or misappropriation of member property must make a report to APS as soon as the person is aware of the situation per 43A O.S. § 10-104.A. Reports are also made to OSDH, as appropriate, per ALC licensure rules.
(V)    The preliminary incident report must at the minimum, include who, what, when, where, and the measures taken to protect the member and resident(s) during the investigation. The follow-up report must, at the minimum, include preliminary information, the extent of the injury or damage, if any, and preliminary investigation findings. The final report, at a minimum, includes preliminary and follow-up information, a summary of investigative actions representing a thorough investigation, investigative findings and conclusions, and corrective measures to prevent future occurrences. When it is necessary to omit items, the final report must include why such items were omitted and when they will be provided.
(ix)    Provision of, or arrangement for, necessary health services. The ALC must:
(I)    Arrange or coordinate transportation for members to and from medical appointments; and
(II)    Provide or coordinate with the member and the member's ADvantage case manager for delivery of necessary health services. The ADvantage case manager is responsible for monitoring that all health-related services required by the member as identified through assessment and documented on the person-centered service plan, are provided in an appropriate and timely manner. The member has the freedom to choose any available provider qualified by licensure or certification to provide necessary health services in the ALC.
(E)    ALCs are billed per diem of service for days covered by the ADvantage member's person-centered service plan and during which the ALS provider is responsible for providing ALS for the member. The per diem rate for ADvantage ALS for a member is one (1) of three (3) per diem rate levels based on a member's need for type of, intensity of, and frequency of service to address member ADLs, instrumental activities of the daily living (IADLs), and health care needs. The rate level is based on the Uniform Comprehensive Assessment Tool (UCAT) assessment by the member's ADvantage case manager employed by a case management agency independent of the ALS provider. The determination of the appropriate per diem rate is made by the AA clinical review staff.
(F)    The ALC must notify AA ninety (90) calendar days before terminating or not renewing the ALC's ADvantage contract.
(i)    The ALC must give notice in writing to the member, the member's representative(s), the AA, and the member's ADvantage case manager ninety (90) calendar days before:
(I)    Voluntary cessation of the ALC's ADvantage contract; or
(II)    Closure of all or part of the ALC.
(ii)    The notice of closure must include:
(I)    The proposed ADvantage contract termination date;
(II)    The termination reason;
(III)    An offer to assist the member secure an alternative placement; and
(IV)    Available housing alternatives.
(iii)    The facility must comply with all applicable laws and regulations until the closing date, including those related to resident transfer or discharge.
(iv)    Following the last move to the last ADvantage member, the ALC must provide in writing to the AA:
(I)    The effective date of closure based on the discharge date of the last resident;
(II)    A list of members transferred or discharged and where they are relocated; and
(III)    The plan for storage of resident records per OAC 310:663-19-3(g), relating to preservation of resident records and the name, address, and phone numbers of the person responsible for the records.
(19)     Remote Support (RS) services.
(A)     Purpose and scope. RS services are intended to promote a member's independence and self-direction. RS services are provided in the member's home to reduce reliance on in person support while ensuring the member's health and safety. RS services are included in the member's person-centered service plan and coordination of these services are made through the case manager.
(i)    RS services are:
(I)    Based on the member's needs as documented and supported by the member's person-centered service plan and person-centered assessments;
(II)    Only authorized when submitted on the member's person-centered service plan with the consent of the member, involved household members, and guardian, as applicable;
(III)    The least restrictive option and the member's preferred method to meet an assessed need; and
(IV)    Provided when the member and the member's Interdisciplinary Team (IDT) agree to the provision of RS services.
(ii)    RS services are not a system of surveillance or for provider convenience.
(B)     Service description. RS services monitor a member by allowing for live, two-way communication between the member and monitoring staff using one (1) or more of the following systems:
(i)    Live video feed;
(ii)    Live audio feed;
(iii)    Motion-sensor monitoring;
(iv)    Radio frequency identification;
(v)    Web-based monitoring; or
(vi)    Global positioning system (GPS) monitoring devices.
(C)     General provider requirements. RS service providers must have a valid OHCA SoonerCare (Medicaid) provider agreement to provide provider-based RS services to ADvantage HCBS waiver members and be certified by the AA. Requests for applications to provide RS services are made to AA.
(D)     Risk assessment. Teams will complete a risk assessment to ensure remote supports can help meet the member's needs in a way that protects the right to privacy, dignity, respect, and freedom from coercion. The risk assessment is reviewed, and any issues are addressed prior to the implementation of remote supports general provider requirements.
(i)    Remote support providers ensure the member's health and safety by contacting a member's informal support or activating the member's back-up plan when a health or safety issue becomes evident during monitoring.
(ii)    The risk assessment and service plan require the team to develop a specific back-up plan to address health, safety and behavioral needs while remote supports are utilized so appropriate assistance can be provided. The RS back-up plan includes how assistance is provided to the member when equipment or technology fails.
(E)     RS guidelines. Devices or monitors are placed at locations based on the member's individual needs as documented on the member's person-centered service plan and approved by the member and involved family members and guardian, as applicable.
(i)    The use of camera or video equipment in the member's bedroom, bathroom, or other private area is prohibited.
(ii)    When RS involves the use of audio or video equipment that permits RS staff to view activities or listen to conversations in the residence, the member who receives the service and each person who lives with the member is fully informed of what RS entails. The member's case manager documents consent in the member's person-centered service plan.
(iii)    Waiver members have the ability to turn off the remote monitoring device or equipment if they choose to do so. The RS provider educates the member regarding how to turn RS devices off and on at the start of services and as desired thereafter.
(F)     Emergency response staff.
(i)    Emergency response staff are employed by a certified ADvantage Provider with a valid OHCA SoonerCare (Medicaid) contract to provide HCBS to OKDHS HCBS waiver members.
(ii)    Informal emergency response persons are unpaid family members or other interested parties who agree to become, and are approved as, an emergency response person by the member and the member's IDT.
(G)     Service limitations. RS services are limited to twenty-four (24) hours per day. RS services are not provided simultaneously with any other in-home direct care services. However, services may be provided through a combination of remote and in-home services dependent on the member's needs.
(H)     RS service discontinuation. The member and the member's IDT determine when it is appropriate to discontinue RS services. When RS services are terminated, the RS provider coordinates service termination with the member's case manager to ensure a safe transition.
(20)     Assistive Technology (AT) services.
(A)    AT services include devices, controls, and appliances, specified in the member's person-centered service plan, which enable members to increase their abilities to perform activities of daily living or to perceive, control, or communicate with the environment in which they live.
(B)    Devices may include communication technology, such as smart phones and tablets, that allow members to communicate with their providers using video chat to ensure ongoing maintenance of health and welfare.
(C)    Only devices that are not covered under the SoonerCare (Medicaid) or Specialized Medical Equipment services are included in this service definition.
(D)    Service codes and rates vary based on the nature of the AT device;
(E)    AT services may include:
(i)    Assessment for the need of AT or auxiliary aids;
(ii)    Training the member or provider regarding use and maintenance of equipment or auxiliary aids; and
(iii)    Repair of adaptive devices; and
(iv)    Equipment provided may include:
(I)    Video communication technology that allows members to communicate with providers through video communication. Video communication allows providers to assess and evaluate their members' health and welfare or other needs by enabling visualization of members and their environments. Examples include smart phones, tablets, audiovisual or virtual assistant technology, or sensors; and
(II)    The cost of internet services may be augmented through the Emergency Broadband Benefit which is available to waiver members.
[OAR Docket #23-653; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-655]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 6. Inpatient Psychiatric and Substance Use Disorder Services
317:30-5-95.4 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.42 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.45 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.46 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.47 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.51 [NEW]
317:30-5-95.52 [NEW]
(Reference APA WF # 22-25)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions seek to revise inpatient behavioral health and residential substance use rules to clarify timely completion of the placement tool for SUD admission or extension request. The proposed revisions will also update service plan, documentation, and signature requirements. Furthermore, the proposed revisions will require providers to report to DHS instances of child abuse/neglect in residential settings in accordance with state law. Other revisions will make grammatical and formatting changes as needed.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 6.  INPATIENT PSYCHIATRIC AND SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER SERVICES
317:30-5-95.4.  Individual plan of care for adults aged twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64)
(a)    Before admission to a psychiatric unit of a general hospital or immediately after admissionBefore or immediately after admission to a psychiatric unit of a general hospital or psychiatric hospital, the attending physician or staff physician must establish a written plan of care for each member aged twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64). The plan of care must include:
(1)    Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications indicating the need for admission;
(2)    A description of the functional level of the individual;
(3)    Objectives;
(4)    Any order for medication, treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the member;
(5)    Plans for continuing care, including review and modification to the plan of care; and
(6)    Plans for discharge.
(b)    The attending or staff physician and other treatment team personnel involved in the member's care must review each plan of care at least every seven (7) days.
(c)    All plans of care and plan of care reviews must be clearly identified as such in the member's medical records. All must be signed and dated by the physician, RN, LBHP or licensure candidate, member, and other treatment team members that provide individual, family, and group therapy in the required review interval. Licensure candidate signatures must be co-signed. All plans of care and plan of care reviews must be signed by the member upon completion, except when a member is too physically ill or his or her acuity level precludes him or her from signing. If the member has designated an advocate, the advocate's signature is also required on all plans of care and plan of care reviews. If the member was too physically ill or his or her acuity level precluded him or her from signing the plan of care and/or the plan of care review at the time of completion, the member must sign the plan when his or her condition improves, but before discharge.
(d)    The plan of care must document appropriate member participation in the development and implementation of the treatment plan.
317:30-5-95.42.  Service quality review (SQR) of psychiatric facilities and residential substance use disorder (SUD) facilities
(a)    The SQR conducted by the OHCA or its designated agent meets the utilization control requirements as set forth in 42 C.F.R. Part 456.
(b)    There will be an SQR of each in-state psychiatric facility and residential SUD facility that provides services to SoonerCare members which will be performed by the OHCA or its designated agent. Out-of-state facilities that provide services to SoonerCare members will be reviewed according to the procedures outlined in the Medical Necessity Manual. Ad hoc reviews may be conducted at the discretion of the agency.
(c)    The OHCA will designate the members of the SQR team. The SQR team will consist of one (1) to three (3) team members and will be comprised of LBHPs or registered nurses (RNs).
(d)    The SQR will include, but not be limited to, review of facility and clinical record documentation and may include observation and contact with members. The clinical record review will consist of records of members currently at the facility as well as records of members for which claims have been filed with OHCA for acute, PRTF, or residential SUD levels of care. The SQR includes validation of compliance with policy, which must be met for the services to be compensable.
(e)    Following the SQR, the SQR team will report its findings in writing to the facility. A copy of the final report will be sent to the facility's accrediting agency, as well as the State Survey Agency, if applicable, and any licensing agencies.
(f)    Deficiencies identified during the SQR may result in full or partial recoupment of paid claims. The determination of whether to assess full or partial recoupment shall be at the discretion of the OHCA based on the severity of the deficiencies.
(g)    Any days during which the facility is determined to be out of compliance with Federal Conditions of Participation, excluding residential SUD facilities, or in which a member does not meet medical necessity criteria may result in full recoupment. Full recoupment may also result from a facility's failure to provide requested documentation within the timeframes indicated on requests for such documents or if the SQR team is denied timely admittance to a facility and/or access to facility records during any on-site portion of the SQR.
(h)    Items which may result in full or partial recoupment of paid claims shall include, but not be limited to:
(1)     Assessments and evaluations. Assessments and evaluations must be completed, with dated signature(s), by qualified staff within the timeframes outlined in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:30-5-95.6, 317:30-5-95.37, and 317:30-5-95.47(1).
(2)     Plan of care. Plans of care must be completed, with all required dated signatures within the timeframes described in OAC 317:30-5-95.4, 317:30-5-96.33, and 317:30-5-95.47(2).
(3)     Certification of need (CON). CONs for psychiatric facilities must be completed by the appropriate team and in the chart within the timeframes outlined in 42 C.F.R. §§ 441.152, 456.160, and 456.481.
(4)     Active treatment. Treatment must be documented in the chart at the required frequency by appropriately qualified staff as described in OAC 317:30-5-95.5, 317:30-5-95.7, 317:30-5-95.8, 317:30-5-95.9, 317:30-5-95.10, 317:30-5-95.34, and 317:30-5-95.46(b).
(5)     Documentation of services. Services must be documented in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-95.4, 317:30-5-95.5, 317:30-5-95.8, 317:30-5-95.10, 317:30-5-95.41, 317:30-5-95.52 and 317:30-5-95.47 and 42 C.F.R. §§ 412.27(c)(4) and 482.61. Documentation with missing elements or documentation that does not clearly demonstrate the therapeutic appropriateness and benefit of the service may result in recoupment.
(6)     Staffing. Staffing must meet the ratios described in OAC 317:30-5-95.24(b)-(d) & (h) and OAC 317:30-5-95.38 per unit/per shift; and credentialing requirements as outlined in OAC 317:30-5-95.8, 317:30-5-95.9, 317:30-5-95.35, 317:30-5-95.36, 317:30-5-95.46 (b) and 42 C.F.R. §§ 412.27(d), 441.153, 441.156, and 482.62.
(7)     Restraint/seclusion. Orders for restraint and seclusion must be completely and thoroughly documented with all required elements as described in OAC 317:30-5-95.39 and 42 C.F.R. § 482.13(e) & (f) and 42 C.F.R. Part 483. Documentation must support the appropriateness and necessity for the use of restraint/seclusion. For PRTFs, documentation must include evidence that staff and resident debriefings occurred as required by OAC 317:30-5-95.39 and 42 C.F.R. Part 483. For residential SUD facilities, restraint may only be used when less restrictive interventions, according to facility policy, have been attempted or when an immediate intervention is required to protect the resident, a staff member, or others. A written incident report must be completed within twenty-four (24) hours following each use of physical restraint.
(i)    If the review findings have resulted in a recoupment, the days and/or services involved will be reported in the notification.
(j)    In the event that CMS recoups from OHCA an amount that exceeds the provider's liability for findings described in this Section, the provider will not be held harmless and will be required to reimburse OHCA the total federal amount identified by CMS and/or its designated audit contractor, limited to the amount of the original paid claim less any previously recouped amounts.
(k)    Penalties of non-compensable days which are the result of the facility's failure to appropriately provide and document the services described herein, or adhere to applicable accreditation, certification, and/or state licensing standards, are not compensable or billable to the member or the member's family.
(l)    Facilities that are determined to owe recoupment of paid claims will have the ability to request a reconsideration of the findings. Details and instructions on how to request a reconsideration will be part of the report documentation sent to the facility.
(m)    Facilities that are determined by the SQR process to be out of compliance in significant areas will be required to submit a Corrective Action Plan (CAP) detailing steps being taken to bring performance in line with requirements. Facilities that are required to submit a CAP may be further assessed through a formal, targeted post-CAP review process.
317:30-5-95.45.  Residential substance use disorder (SUD) - Coverage by category
(a)     Adults. Members age twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64) who meet eligibility and clinical criteria may receive medically necessary residential treatment for SUD.
(1)    The member must meet residential level of care as determined through completion of the designated ASAM level of care placement tool no more than seven (7) days prior to a SUD admission and/or extension request and as required in the Oklahoma Department of Mental Health and Substance Abuse Services (ODMHSAS) Prior Authorization Manual.
(2)    Each presenting member for SUD treatment shall be assessed, according to ASAM criteria, which includes a list of symptoms for all six (6) dimensions and each level of care to determine a clinically appropriate placement in the least restrictive level of care.
(b)     Children. Coverage for children is the same as adults.Children are covered according to their age group as described in OAC 317:30-5-95.46 and 317:30-5-95.47 and as specified by ODMHSAS.
(c)     Individuals with dependent children. Coverage for individuals with dependent children is the same as adults and/or children.
317:30-5-95.46.  Residential substance use disorder (SUD) - Covered services and medical necessity criteria
(a)    In order for the services described in this Section to be covered, individuals shall:
(1)    Be diagnosed with an SUD as described in the most recent edition of the DSM; and
(2)    Meet residential level of care in accordance with the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM) criteria, as determined by the ASAM level of care determinationthrough completion of the designated ASAM placement tool asdesignatedrequired by the Oklahoma Department of Mental Health and Substance Abuse Services (ODMHSAS).
(3)    For additional medical necessity criteria, refer to the ODMHSAS Prior Authorization Manual available at www.odmhsas.org/arc.htm.
(b)    Coverage includes the following services:
(1)     Clinically managed low intensity residential services (ASAM Level 3.1).
(A)     Halfway house services - Individuals age thirteen (13) to seventeen (17).
(i)     Service description. This service places a major emphasis on continuing SUD care and community ancillary services in an environment supporting continued abstinence. The facility shall have scheduled services to assess and address the individual needs of each member. Services include individual, family, and/or group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, care management, crisis intervention, and for members age sixteen (16) and older, community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of six (6) individuals. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of eight (8) individuals to one (1) qualified provider.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed physician must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. A minimum of two (2) direct care and/or clinical staff must be on-site and awake twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Staffing ratios shall not exceed those specified in OAC 340:110-3-153.2. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment hours. A minimum of six (6) treatment hours per week shall be provided. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday.
(B)     Halfway house services - Individuals age eighteen (18) to sixty-four (64).
(i)     Service description. This service places a major emphasis on continuing SUD care and community ancillary services in an environment supporting continued abstinence. The facility shall have scheduled services to assess and address the individual needs of each member. Services include individual, family, and/or group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, care management, crisis intervention, and community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of eight (8) individuals. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of fourteen (14) individuals to one (1) qualified provider.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed physician must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Additional clinical and/or direct care staff must be on-site and awake twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment hours. A minimum of six (6) treatment hours per week shall be provided. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday.
(C)     Halfway house services - Individuals with minor dependent children or women who are pregnant.
(i)     Service description. This service provides a planned regimen of twenty-four (24) hours, seven (7) days a week, supervised living arrangements, to include professionally directed evaluation, care, and treatment. The facility shall have scheduled services to assess and address the individual needs of each member. Services include individual, family, and/or group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, care management, crisis intervention, and community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of eight (8) individuals for adults a total of six (6) individuals for children. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of fourteen (14) individuals to one (1) qualified provider for adults and eight (8) individuals to one (1) qualified provider for children.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed physician must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Additional clinical and/or direct care staff must be on-site twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment services for dependent children. Services are available to the child when provided to address the impacts related to the parent's addiction, including, but not limited to, individual and family therapy. Compliance with separate provider qualifications, in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-240.2, is required for other treatment services provided to dependent children by the residential SUD provider. Provision of such treatment services shall be provided in accordance with OAC 317:30-5, Part 21.
(iv)     Treatment hours. A minimum of six (6) treatment hours per week shall be provided to the individual with minor dependent children and women who are pregnant. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday. Dependent children shall be provided treatment services in accordance with the child's service plan if services are provided by the residential SUD provider.
(2)     Clinically managed, population specific, high intensity residential services (ASAM Level 3.3). This service includes residential treatment for adults with co-occurring disorders.
(A)     Service description. This service provides a planned regimen of twenty-four (24) hours, seven / (7) days a week, structured evaluation, care, and treatment. Daily treatment service shall be provided to assess and address individual needs of the member. Services include individual, family, and group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, crisis intervention, care management, and community recovery support services. Psychiatric and/or psychological and/or mental health evaluations shall be completed on all members. In addition to the requirements in OAC 317:30-5-95.47, the service plan shall address the member's mental health needs and medications. The member's medications shall be re-assessed a minimum of once every thirty (30) days and monitoring of medications shall be provided. Group therapy is limited to a total of eight (8) individuals. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of fourteen (14) individuals to one (1) qualified provider. Treatment services must address both mental health and SUD needs as identified in the service plan.
(B)     Staffing requirements. A licensed psychiatrist must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Additional staff must be on-site twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(C)     Treatment hours. A weekly minimum of twenty-four (24) service hours shall be provided, which shall include a minimum of one (1) hour of individual, group, or family therapy and a minimum of seven (7) hours of individual or group rehabilitation services. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday. A maximum of seven (7) hours per week of community (peer) recovery support services may count toward the weekly required treatment hours.
(3)     Clinically managed medium and high intensity (ASAM Level 3.5).
(A)     Residential treatment, medium intensity - individuals age thirteen (13) to seventeen (17).
(i)     Service description. This service provides a planned regimen of twenty-four (24) hours / seven (7) day a week, professionally directed evaluation, care, and treatment. A multidisciplinary team approach shall be utilized in providing daily treatment services to assess and address the individual needs of each member, including individual, family, and/or group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, care management, crisis intervention, and, for members age sixteen (16) or older, community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of six (6) individuals. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of eight (8) individuals to one (1) qualified provider.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed physician must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. A minimum of two (2) direct care and/or clinical staff must be on-site and awake twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Staffing ratios shall not exceed those specified in OAC 340:110-3-153.2. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment hours. A weekly minimum of fifteen (15) treatment hours for members attending academic training and twenty-four (24) treatment hours for members not attending academic training shall be provided. Weekly treatment hours shall include a minimum of one (1) hour of individual, family and/or group therapy and a minimum of seven (7) hours of individual or group rehabilitation services. A maximum of seven (7) hours per week of community (peer) recovery support services may count toward the weekly required treatment hours. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday.
(B)     Residential treatment, high intensity - adults.
(i)     Service description. This service provides a planned regimen of twenty-four (24) hours / seven (7) day a week, professionally directed evaluation, care, and treatment. Daily treatment service shall be provided to assess and address individual needs of each member. Services include individual, family, and/or group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, crisis intervention, care management, and community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of eight (8) individuals. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of fourteen (14) individuals to one (1) qualified provider.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed physician must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Additional clinical and/or direct care staff must be on-site twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment hours. A weekly minimum of twenty-four (24) service hours shall be provided, which shall include a minimum of one (1) hour of individual, family, and/or group therapy and a minimum of seven (7) hours of individual or group rehabilitation services. A maximum of seven (7) hours per week of community (peer) recovery support services may count toward the weekly required treatment hours. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday.
(C)     Intensive residential treatment, high intensity - adults.
(i)     Service description. This service provides a planned regimen of twenty-four (24) hours / seven (7) day a week, professionally directed evaluation, care, and treatment. Daily treatment service shall be provided to assess and address individual needs of each member. Services include individual, family, and/or group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, crisis intervention, care management, and community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of eight (8) individuals. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of fourteen (14) individuals to one (1) qualified provider.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed psychiatrist must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Additional clinical and/or direct care staff must be on-site twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment hours. A weekly minimum of thirty-seven (37) service hours shall be provided, which shall include a minimum of four (4) hours of individual, family, and/or group therapy and a minimum of seven (7) hours of individual or group rehabilitation services. A maximum of eleven (11) hours per week of community (peer) recovery support services may count toward the weekly required treatment hours. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday.
(D)     Intensive residential treatment, high intensity - individuals age thirteen (13) to seventeen (17).
(i)     Service description. This service provides a planned regimen of twenty-four (24) hours / seven (7) day a week, professionally directed evaluation, care, and treatment. Daily treatment service shall be provided to assess and address individual needs of each member. Services include individual, family, and/or therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, crisis intervention, care management, and, for members age sixteen (16) or older, community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of six (6) individuals. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of eight (8) individuals to one (1) qualified provider.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed psychiatrist must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Additional clinical and/or direct care staff must be on-site twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Staffing ratios shall not exceed those specified in OAC 340:110-3-153.2. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment hours. A weekly minimum of thirty-seven (37) service hours shall be provided, which shall include a minimum of four (4) hours of individual, family, or group therapy and a minimum of seven (7) hours of individual or group rehabilitation services. A maximum of eleven (11) hours per week of community (peer) recovery support services may count toward the weekly required treatment hours. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday.
(E)     Residential treatment for individuals with minor dependent children and women who are pregnant.
(i)     Service description. This service provides a planned regimen of twenty-four (24) hours / seven (7) day a week, professionally directed evaluation, care, and treatment. The facility shall provide SUD treatment services to assess and address individual needs of each member. Services include individual, family, and/or group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, crisis intervention, care management, and community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of eight (8) individuals for adults a total of six (6) individuals for children. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of fourteen (14) individuals to one (1) qualified provider for adults and eight (8) individuals to one (1) qualified provider for children.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed physician must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Additional staff must be on-site twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment services for dependent children. Services are available to the child when provided to address the impacts related to the parent's addiction, including but not limited to individual and family therapy. Compliance with separate provider qualifications, in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-240.2, is required for other treatment services provided to dependent children by the residential SUD provider. Provision of such treatment services shall be provided in accordance with OAC 317:30-5, Part 21.
(iv)     Treatment hours. A minimum of twenty-four (24) service hours shall be provided to the individual with minor dependent children and women who are pregnant. Treatment hours shall include a minimum of one (1) hour of individual, family, and/or group therapy and a minimum of seven (7) hours of individual or group rehabilitation services. A maximum of seven (7) hours per week of community (peer) recovery support services may count toward the weekly required treatment hours. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday. Dependent children shall be provided treatment services in accordance with the child's service plan if services are provided by the residential SUD provider.
(F)     Intensive residential treatment for individuals with dependent children and women who are pregnant.
(i)     Service description. This service provides a planned regimen of twenty-four (24) hours / seven (7) day a week, professionally directed evaluation, care, and treatment. The facility shall provide SUD treatment services to assess and address individual needs of each member. Services include individual, family, and/or group therapy, individual and/or group rehabilitation services, crisis intervention, care management, and community recovery support services. Group therapy is limited to a total of eight (8) individuals for adults a total of six (6) individuals for children. Rehabilitation services shall not exceed a staffing ratio of fourteen (14) individuals to one (1) qualified provider for adults and eight (8) individuals to one (1) qualified provider for children.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed psychiatrist must be available by telephone twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Additional clinical and/or direct care staff must be on-site twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. All staff who provide treatment services shall meet qualifications in accordance with the Oklahoma Medicaid State Plan and OAC 450:18.
(iii)     Treatment services for dependent children. Services are available to the child when provided to address the impacts related to the parent's addiction, including but not limited to individual and family therapy. Compliance with separate provider qualifications, in accordance with OAC 317:30-5-240.2, is required for other treatment services provided to dependent children by the residential SUD provider. Provision of such treatment services shall be provided in accordance with OAC 317:30-5, Part 21.
(iv)     Treatment hours. A weekly minimum of thirty-five (35) service hours shall be provided to the individual with minor dependent children and women who are pregnant. Treatment hours shall include a minimum of four (4) hours of individual, family, and/or group therapy and a minimum of seven (7) hours of individual and/or group rehabilitation services. A maximum of eleven (11) hours per week of community (peer) recovery support services may count toward the weekly required treatment hours. A week begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday. Dependent children shall be provided treatment services in accordance with the child's service plan if services are provided by the residential SUD provider.
(4)     Medically monitored high intensity withdrawal management (ASAM Level 3.7).
(A)     Medically supervised withdrawal management - individuals age thirteen (13) to seventeen (17).
(i)     Service description and requirements. This service is provided under the direction of a licensed physician and a licensed registered nurse supervisor, for members who are withdrawing or are intoxicated from alcohol or other drugs. Members shall be assessed as currently experiencing no apparent medical or neurological symptoms that would require hospitalization. Daily SUD withdrawal management treatment services shall be provided, which include, but are not limited to, taking of vital signs (temperature, pulse, respiration rate, blood pressure), documentation of fluid and food intake a minimum of one (1) time every six (6) hours or more often as indicated by the member's condition. Medications shall be prescribed if needed during withdrawal management. The medications are to include those needed for physical health issues and mental impairment if acquired during the withdrawal process.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed physician providing supervision of withdrawal management must be available on site or on call twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. A licensed nurse must provide twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week monitoring and statutorily approved personnel administer medication. A minimum of two (2) medical and/or clinical/direct care staff must be on-site and awake twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. Staffing ratios shall not exceed those specified in OAC 340:110-3-153.2.
(B)     Medically supervised withdrawal management - adults.
(i)     Service description and requirements. This service is provided under the direction of a licensed physician and a licensed registered nurse supervisor, for members who are withdrawing or are intoxicated from alcohol or other drugs. Members shall be assessed as currently experiencing no apparent medical or neurological symptoms that would require hospitalization. Daily SUD withdrawal management treatment services shall be provided, which include, but are not limited to, taking of vital signs (temperature, pulse, respiration rate, blood pressure), documentation of fluid and food intake a minimum of one (1) time every six (6) hours or more often as indicated by the member's condition. Medications prescribed if needed during withdrawal management. The medications are to include those needed for physical health issues and mental impairment if acquired during the withdrawal process.
(ii)     Staffing requirements. A licensed physician providing supervision of withdrawal management must be available on site or on call twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week. A licensed nurse must provide twenty-four (24) hours a day, seven (7) days a week monitoring and statutorily approved personnel administer medication.
317:30-5-95.47.  Residential substance use disorder (SUD) - Individualized service plan requirements
     All SUD services provided in residential treatment facilities are rendered as a result of an individual assessment of the member's needs and documented in the service plan.
(1)     Assessment. A biopsychosocial assessment shall be completed for members receiving ASAM Level 3.1, 3.3, or 3.5 services, including dependent children receiving services from the residential SUD provider, to gather sufficient information to assist the member in developing an individualized service plan. The assessment must also list a diagnosis that corresponds to current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) standards and the member's past and current psychiatric medications. The assessment must be completed by an LBHP or licensure candidate. Licensure candidate signatures must be co-signed by a fully-licensed LBHP in good standing. Assessments for ASAM Level 3.7 services shall be completed in accordance with (E) below.
(A)     Assessments for adolescents. A biopsychosocial assessment using the Teen Addiction Severity Index (T-ASI) shall be completed. A physical examination shall be conducted by a licensed physician to include, at a minimum, a physical assessment, health history, immunization status, and evaluation of motor development and function, speech, hearing, visual, and language functioning.
(B)     Assessments for adults. A biopsychosocial assessment using the Addiction Severity Index (ASI) shall be completed.
(C)     Assessments for dependent children. In accordance with OAC 450:18-7-25, assessmentsAssessment of children (including infants) accompanying their parent into treatment and receiving services from the residential SUD provider shall include the following items:
(i)    Parent-child relationship;
(ii)    Physical and psychological development;
(iii)    Educational needs;
(iv)    Parent related issues; and
(v)    Family issues related to the child.
(D)     Assessments for parents/pregnant women. In accordance with OAC 450:18-7-25, assessmentsAssessment of the parent and/or pregnant women bringing their children into treatment shall include the following items:
(i)    Parenting skills;
(ii)    Knowledge of age appropriate behaviors;
(iii)    Parental coping skills;
(iv)    Personal issues related to parenting; and
(v)    Family issues as related to the child.
(E)     Assessments for medically supervised withdrawal management. In accordance with OAC 450:18-13-61, a medical assessment for the appropriateness of placement shall be completed and documented by a licensed physician during the admission process. The assessment shall provide a diagnosis that corresponds to current DSM standards.
(F)     Assessment timeframes. Biopsychosocial assessments shall be completed within two (2) days of admission or during the admission process for medically supervised withdrawal management.
(2)     Service plan. Pursuant to OAC 450:18-7-81, a service plan shall be completed for each member receiving ASAM Level 3.1, 3.3, or 3.5 services, including dependent children receiving services from the residential SUD provider. The service plan is performed with the active participation of the member and a support person or advocate, if requested by the member. In the case of children under the age of sixteen (16), it is performed with the participation of the parent or guardian, if allowed by law, and the child as age and developmentally appropriate. Service plans for ASAM Level 3.7 services shall be developed in accordance with (D) below.
(A)     Service plan development. The service plan shall:
(i)    Be completed by an LBHP or licensure candidate. Licensure candidate signatures must be co-signed by a fully-licensed LBHP in good standing.
(ii)    Provide the formation of measurable service objectives and reflect ongoing changes in goals and objectives based upon member's progress or preference or the identification of new needs, challenges, and problems.
(iii)    Be developed after and based on information obtained in the assessment and includes the evaluation of the assessment information by the clinician and the member.
(iv)    Have an overall general focus on recovery which, for adults, may include goals like employment, independent living, volunteer work, or training, and for children, may include areas like school and educational concerns and assisting the family in caring for the child in the least restrictive level of care.
(B)     Service plan content. Service plans must include dated signatures for the member [if over fourteen (14)], the parent/guardian [if under sixteen (16) and allowed by law], and the primary service practitioner.[if age fourteen (14) or older], the parent/guardian (if required by law), and the LBHP or licensure candidate. Licensure candidate signatures must be co-signed by a fully-licensed LBHP in good standing. If the member is eligible to self-consent to treatment pursuant to state law, a parent/guardian signature is not required. Signatures must be obtained after the service plan is completed. The contents of a service plan shall address the following:
(i)    Member strengths, needs, abilities, and preferences;
(ii)    Identified presenting challenges, needs, and diagnosis;
(iii)    Goals for treatment with specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and time-limited objectives;
(iv)    Type and frequency of services to be provided;
(v)    Description of member's involvement in, and response to, the service plan;
(vi)    The service provider who will be rendering the services identified in the service plan; and
(vii)    Discharge criteria that are individualized for each member and beyond that which may be stated in the ASAM criteria.
(C)     Service plan updates. Service plan updates shall occur a minimum of once every thirty (30) days while services are provided. Service plan updates must include dated signatures for the member [if over fourteen (14)], the parent/guardian [if under sixteen (16) and allowed by law], and the LBHP and licensure candidate. Licensure candidate signatures must be co-signed by a fully-licensed LBHP in good standing.[if age fourteen (14) or older], the parent/guardian (if required by law), and the LBHP or licensure candidate. Licensure candidate signatures must be co-signed by a fully-licensed LBHP in good standing. If the member is eligible to self-consent to treatment pursuant to state law, a parent/guardian signature is not required. Signatures must be obtained after the service plan is completed. Service plan updates shall address the following:
(i)    Progress on previous service plan goals and/or objectives;
(ii)    A statement documenting a review of the current service plan and an explanation if no changes are to be made to the service plan;
(iii)    Change in goals and/or objectives based upon member's progress or identification of new needs and challenges;
(iv)    Change in frequency and/or type of services provided;
(v)    Change in staff who will be responsible for providing services on the plan; and
(vi)    Change in discharge criteria.
(D)     Service plans for medically supervised withdrawal management. Pursuant to OAC 450:18-7-84, a service plan shall be completed for each member receiving ASAM Level 3.7 services that addresses the medical stabilization treatment and services needs of the member. Service plans shall be completed by a licensed physician or licensed registered nursing staff and must include a dated signature of the member [if age fourteen (14) or older], the parent/guardian (if required by law), and the primary service practitioner. The service plan shall provide a diagnosis that corresponds to current DSM standards.
(E)     Service plan timeframes. Service plans shall be completed within four (4) days of admission, except for service plans for individuals receiving medically supervised withdrawal management services, which must be completed within three (3) hours of admission.
(3)     Progress notes. Progress notes shall chronologically describe the services provided, the member's response to the services provided, and the member's progress in treatment.
(A)     Content. Progress notes shall address the following:
(i)    Date;
(ii)    Member's name;
(iii)    Start and stop time for each timed treatment session or service;
(iv)    SignatureDated signature of the service provider;
(v)    Credentials of the service provider;
(vi)    Specific service plan needs, goals and/or objectives addressed;
(vii)    Services provided to address needs, goals, and/or objectives;
(viii)    Progress or barriers to progress made in treatment as it relates to the goals and/or objectives;
(ix)    Member (and family, when applicable) response to the session or service provided; and
(x)    Any new needs, goals and/or objectives identified during the session or service.
(B)     Frequency. Progress notes shall be completed in accordance with the following timeframes:
(i)    Progress notes for therapy, crisis intervention and care management must be documented in an individual note and reflect the content of each session provided.
(ii)    Documentation for rehabilitation and community recovery support services must include daily member sign-in/sign-out record of member attendance (including date, time, type of service and service focus), and a daily progress note or a summary progress note weekly.
(4)     Transition/discharge planning. All facilities shall assess each member for appropriateness of discharge from a treatment program. Each member shall be assessed using the ASAM criteriaplacement tool to determine a clinically appropriate placementsetting in the least restrictive level of care.
(A)     Transition/discharge plans. Transition/discharge plans shall be developed with the knowledge and cooperation of the member. The transition/discharge plan shall be included in the discharge summary. The discharge plan is to include, at a minimum, recommendations for continued treatment services and other appropriate community resources. Appointments for outpatient therapy and other services, as applicable, should be scheduled prior to discharge from residential care. Development of the transition/discharge plan shall begin no later than two (2) weeks after admission.
(B)     Discharge summary. The discharge summary shall document the member's progress made in treatment and response to services rendered. A completed discharge summary shall be entered in each member's record within fifteen (15) days of the member completing, transferring, or discontinuing services. The summary must be signed and dated by the staff member completing the summary.
317:30-5-95.51.  Residential substance use disorder (SUD) - reporting of suspected child abuse/neglect
     Instances of child abuse and/or neglect are to be reported in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, Section (§) 1-2-101 of Title 10A of the Oklahoma Statutes and 43A O.S. § 10-104. Any person suspecting child abuse or neglect shall immediately report it to the Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) hotline, at 1-800-522-3511; any person suspecting abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult shall immediately report it to the local DHS County Office, municipal or county law enforcement authorities, or, if the report occurs after normal business hours, the OKDHS hotline. Health care professionals who are requested to report incidents of domestic abuse by adult victims with legal capacity shall promptly make a report to the nearest law enforcement agency, per 22 O.S. § 58.
317:30-5-95.52.  Documentation of records for adults receiving inpatient services
(a)    All documentation for services provided under active treatment must be documented in an individual note and reflect the content of each session provided. Services documentation must include, at a minimum, the following:
(1)    Date;
(2)    Start and stop time for each session;
(3)    Dated signature of the therapist and/or staff that provided the service;
(4)    Credentials of the therapist;
(5)    Specific problem(s) addressed (problems must be identified on the plan of care);
(6)    Method(s) used to address problems;
(7)    Progress made towards goals;
(8)    Member's response to the session or intervention; and
(9)    Any new problem(s) identified during the session.
(b)    Signatures of the member, legal guardian (if applicable), physician, LBHP, and registered nurse (RN) are required on the individual plan of care (IPC) and all plan of care reviews. The IPC and plan of care review are not valid until signed and separately dated by the member, legal guardian (if applicable), physician, RN, LBHP, and all other requirements are met. All treatment team staff providing therapy services must sign the IPC and all plan of care reviews. All plans of care and plan of care reviews must be signed by the member upon completion, except when a member is too physically ill, or the member's acuity level precludes him/her from signing. If the member is too physically ill or the member's acuity level precludes him/her from signing the plan of care and/or the plan of care review at the time of completion, the member must sign the plan when his/her condition improves but before discharge. Documentation should indicate the reason the member was unable to sign and when the next review will occur to obtain the signature.
(c)    Candidates for licensure for licensed professional counselor, social work (clinical specialty only), licensed marital and family therapist, licensed behavioral practitioner, licensed alcohol and drug counselor, and psychology (mental health specialty only) can provide assessments, psychosocial evaluations, individual therapy, family therapy, and process group therapy as long as they are involved in supervision that complies with their respective, approved licensing regulations and licensing boards. Additionally, their work must be co-signed and dated by a fully-licensed LBHP in good standing, who is a member on the treatment team. Individuals who have met their supervision requirements and are waiting to be licensed in one (1) of the areas of practice in OAC 317:30-5-240.3(a)(2) must have their work co-signed by a fully-licensed LBHP in good standing, who is a member on the treatment team. All co-signatures by fully-licensed LBHPs in good standing, must be accompanied by the date that the co-signature was made. Documentation of the service is not considered complete until it is signed and dated by a fully-licensed LBHP in good standing.
[OAR Docket #23-655; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 30.  Medical Providers-Fee for Service
[OAR Docket #23-649]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 6. Inpatient Psychiatric and Substance Use Disorder Services
317:30-5-95.6 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.16 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.34 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.37 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-13)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Individual Providers and Specialties
Part 6. Inpatient Psychiatric and Substance Use Disorder Services
317:30-5-95.6 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.16 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.34 [AMENDED]
317:30-5-95.37 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
November 4, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 373
Docket number:
22-868
(Reference APA WF # 22-13)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule changes will allow APRNs with psychiatric certifications and PAs to provide psychiatric services. Presently, psychiatric service provision is only allowed by psychiatrists to members in inpatient settings. The psychiatric services provided by APRNs and PAs will now also include psychiatric evaluations and weekly individual treatment hours.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Individual Providers and Specialties
PART 6.  INPATIENT PSYCHIATRIC AND SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER SERVICES
317:30-5-95.6.  Medical, psychiatric, and social evaluations for adults aged twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64)
     The record for an adult member aged twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64) must contain complete medical, psychiatric, and social evaluations.
(1)    The evaluations must be completed as follows:
(A)    History and Physicalphysical must be completed within twenty-four (24) hours of admission by a licensed independent practitioner [MD, DOAllopathic Doctor, Osteopathic Doctor, Advanced Practice RegisterRegistered Nurse (APRN), or Physician Assistant (PA)].
(B)    Psychiatric Evaluationevaluation must be completed within sixty (60) hours of admission by an Allopathic Oror Osteopathic Physician with a current license and a board certification/eligible in psychiatry, an APRN with a psychiatric certification or a PA.
(C)    Psychosocial Evaluationevaluation must be completed within seventy-two (72) hours of admission by a licensed independent practitioner (MD, DO,Allopathic Doctor, Osteopathic Doctor, APRN, or PA), a licensed behavioral health professionalan LBHP, or a licensure candidate as defined in OAC 317:30-5-240.3.
(2)    The evaluations must be clearly identified as such and must be signed and dated by the evaluator.
317:30-5-95.16.  Medical psychiatric and social evaluations for persons sixty-five (65) years of age or older receiving inpatient acute psychiatric services
     The record of a member sixty-five (65) years of age or older receiving inpatient acute psychiatric services must contain complete medical, psychiatric, and social evaluations.
(1)    The evaluations must be completed as follows:
(A)    History and Physicalphysical must be completed within twenty-four (24) hours of admission by a licensed independent practitioner [MD, DOAllopathic Doctor, Osteopathic Doctor, Advanced Practice RegisterRegistered Nurse (APRN), or Physician Assistant (PA)].
(B)    Psychiatric Evaluationevaluation must be completed within sixty (60) hours of admission by an allopathicAllopathic or osteopathicOsteopathic physician with a current license and a board certification/eligible in psychiatry, an APRN with a psychiatric certification or a PA.
(C)    Psychosocial Evaluationevaluation must be completed within seventy-two (72) hours of admission by a licensed independent practitioner (Allopathic Doctor, Osteopathic Doctor, APRN, or PA), a licensed behavioral health professional (LBHP)an LBHP, or licensure candidate as defined in OAC 317:30-5-240.3.
(2)    The evaluations must be clearly identified as such and must be signed and dated by the evaluator.
317:30-5-95.34.  Active treatment for children
(a)    The following words and terms, when used in this Section, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
(1)    "Active treatment" means implementation of a professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care (IPC) that involves the member and his or her family or guardian from the time of an admission, and through the treatment and discharge process.
(2)    "Discharge/transition planning" means a patient-centered, interdisciplinary process that begins with an initial assessment of the member's needs at the time of admission and continues throughout the member's stay. Active collaboration with the member, family, and all involved outpatient practitioners and agencies should be ongoing throughout treatment so that effective connections remain intact. Needed services may consist of the wraparound process through Systems of Care, counseling, case management, and other supports in the member's community. The linkages with these supports should be made prior to discharge to allow for a smooth transition.
(3)    "Expressive group therapy" means art, music, dance, movement, poetry, drama, psychodrama, structured therapeutic physical activities, and experiential (e.g., ropes course), recreational, or occupational therapies that encourage the member to express themselves emotionally and psychologically.
(4)    "Family therapy" means interaction between an LBHP or licensure candidate, member, and family member(s) to facilitate emotional, psychological, or behavioral changes and promote successful communication and understanding.
(5)    "Group rehabilitative treatment" means behavioral health remedial services, as specified in the individual care plan, which are necessary for the treatment of the existing primary behavioral health disorders and/or any secondary alcohol and other drug (AOD) disorders in order to increase the skills necessary to perform activities of daily living (ADL).
(6)    "Individual rehabilitative treatment" means a face-to-face, one-on-one interaction which is performed to assist a member who is experiencing significant functional impairment due to the existing primary behavioral health disorder and/or any secondary AOD disorder, in order to increase the skills necessary to perform ADL.
(7)    "Individual therapy" means a method of treating existing primary behavioral health disorders and/or any secondary AOD disorders using face-to-face, one-on-one interaction between an LBHP or licensure candidate and a member to promote emotional or psychological change to alleviate disorders.
(8)    "Process group therapy" means a method of treating existing primary behavioral health disorders and/or secondary AOD disorders using the interaction between an LBHP or licensure candidate, and two (2) or more members to promote positive emotional and/or behavioral change.
(b)    Inpatient psychiatric programs must provide "active treatment". Families and/or guardians must be notified of the dates and times of treatment team meetings and be welcomed to attend. Family members must attend family therapy weekly for continued SoonerCare reimbursement. Reasons for exceptions to this requirement must be well-documented in the member's treatment plan. Family therapy attendance by family members is not a requirement for individuals in the age range of eighteen (18) up to twenty-one (21). Active treatment also includes ongoing assessment, diagnosis, intervention, evaluation of care and treatment, and planning for discharge and aftercare under the direction of a physician.
(c)    For individuals ages eighteen (18) up to twenty-one (21), the active treatment program must be appropriate to the needs of the member and be directed toward restoring and maintaining optimal levels of physical and psychiatric-social functioning. The services and the IPC must be recovery-focused, trauma-informed, specific to culture, age, and gender, and provided face to face. Services, including type and frequency, will be specified in the IPC.
(d)    A treatment week consists of seven (7) calendar days. In an Acute setting, the treatment week begins the day of admission. In Acute II and PRTF, the treatment week starts on Sunday and ends on Saturday. Active treatment service components are provided as per item (e) below if the services are provided within a seven (7) day treatment week. A chart outlining active treatment component requirements and timelines may also be found at www.okhca.org. If a member has a length of stay of less than seven (7) days, the treatment week is considered a partial treatment week. Active treatment requirements, when provided during a partial treatment week, are delivered as per item (f) below. An hour of treatment must be sixty (60) minutes. When appropriate to meet the needs of the child, the sixty (60) minute timeframe may be split into sessions of no less than fifteen (15) minutes each, on the condition that the active treatment requirements are fully met by the end of the treatment week.
(e)    For individuals under age eighteen (18), the components of active treatment consist of face-to-face integrated therapies that are provided on a regular basis and will remain consistent with the member's ongoing need for care. The services and IPC must be recovery-focused, trauma-informed, and specific to culture, age, and gender. Individuals receiving services in an Acute setting must receive seventeen (17) hours of documented active treatment services each week, with seven (7) of those hours dedicated to core services as described in (1) below. Individuals in Acute II and PRTFs must receive fourteen (14) hours of documented active treatment services each week, with four and a half (4.5) of those hours dedicated to core services as described in (1) below. Upon fulfilling the core service hours requirement, the member may receive either the elective services listed in (2) below or additional core services to complete the total required hours of active treatment. The following components meet the minimum standards required for active treatment, although an individual child's needs for treatment may exceed this minimum standard:
(1)     Core services.
(A)     Individual treatment provided by the physician, Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN), or Physician Assistant (PA). Individual treatment provided by the physician, APRN with psychiatric certification or PA is required three (3) times per week for Acute and one (1) time a week in Acute II and PRTFs. Individual treatment provided by the physician, APRN with psychiatric certification or PA will never exceed ten (10) calendar days between sessions in Acute II and PRTFs, and never exceed seven (7) calendar days in a specialty Acute II and specialty PRTF. Individual treatment provided by the physician, APRN with psychiatric certification or PA may consist of therapy or medication management intervention for Acute, Acute II, and PRTF programs.
(B)     Individual therapy. LBHPs or licensure candidates performing this service must use and document an approach to treatment such as cognitive behavioral treatment, narrative therapy, solution-focused brief therapy, or another widely accepted theoretical framework for treatment. Ongoing assessment of the member's status and response to treatment, as well as psycho-educational intervention, are appropriate components of individual therapy. Individual therapy must be provided in a confidential setting. The therapy must be goal-directed, utilizing techniques appropriate to the member's plan of care and the member's developmental and cognitive abilities. Individual therapy must be provided two (2) hours per week in Acute and one (1) hour per week in Acute II and PRTFs by an LBHP or licensure candidate. One (1) hour of family therapy may be substituted for one (1) hour of individual therapy at the treatment team's discretion.
(C)     Family therapy. The focus of family therapy must be directly related to the goals and objectives on the individual member's plan of care. Family therapy must be provided one (1) hour per week in Acute, Acute II, and PRTFs. One (1) hour of individual therapy addressing relevant family issues may be substituted for a family session in an instance in which the family is unable to attend a scheduled session by an LBHP or licensure candidate.
(D)     Process group therapy. The focus of process group therapy must be directly related to goals and objectives on the individual member's plan of care. The individual member's behavior and the focus of the group must be included in each member's medical record. This service does not include social skills development or daily living skills activities and must take place in an appropriate confidential setting, limited to the therapist, appropriate hospital staff, and group members. Group therapy must be provided three (3) hours per week in Acute and two (2) hours per week in Acute II and PRTFs by an LBHP or licensure candidate. In lieu of one (1) hour of process group therapy, one (1) hour of expressive group therapy provided by an LBHP, licensure candidate, or licensed therapeutic recreation specialist may be substituted.
(E)     Transition/discharge planning. Transition/discharge planning must be provided one (1) hour per week in Acute and thirty (30) minutes per week in Acute II and PRTFs. Transition/discharge planning can be provided by any level of inpatient staff.
(2)     Elective services.
(A)     Expressive group therapy. Through active expression, inner strengths are discovered that can help the member deal with past experiences and cope with present life situations in more beneficial ways. The focus of the group must be directly related to goals and objectives on the individual member's plan of care. Documentation must include how the member is processing emotions/feelings. Expressive therapy must be a planned therapeutic activity, facilitated by staff with a relevant bachelor's degree and/or staff with relevant training, experience, or certification to facilitate the therapy.
(B)     Group rehabilitative treatment. Examples of educational and supportive services, which may be covered under the definition of group rehabilitative treatment services, are basic living skills, social skills (re)development, interdependent living, self-care, lifestyle changes, and recovery principles. Each service provided under group rehabilitative treatment services must have goals and objectives directly related to the IPC.
(C)     Individual rehabilitative treatment. Services are provided to reduce psychiatric and behavioral impairment and to restore functioning consistent with the requirements of independent living and enhanced self-sufficiency. This service includes educational and supportive services regarding independent living, self-care, social skills (re)development, lifestyle changes, and recovery principles and practices. Each individual rehabilitative treatment service provided must have goals and objectives directly related to the IPC and the member's diagnosis.
(D)     Recreation therapy. Services are provided to reduce psychiatric and behavioral impairment and to restore, remediate, and rehabilitate an individual's level of functioning and independence in life activities. Services are provided to promote health and wellness, as well as reduce or eliminate barriers caused by illness or disabling conditions that limit or restrict a member from participating in life activities. Recreational therapy can be provided in an individual or group setting. If the only activities prescribed for the individual are primarily diversional in nature, (i.e., to provide some social or recreational outlet for the individual), it will not be regarded as active treatment. If provided, recreational therapy must be a planned therapeutic activity, facilitated by a licensed therapeutic recreation specialist.
(E)     Occupational therapy. Services are provided to address developmental and/or functional needs related to the performance of self-help skills, adaptive behavioral, and/or sensory, motor, and postural development. Services include therapeutic goal-directed activities and/or exercises used to improve mobility and ADL functions when such functions have been impaired due to illness or injury. Services must be provided by an occupational therapist appropriately licensed in the state in which he or she practices.
(F)     Wellness resource skills development. Services include providing direction and coordinating support activities that promote physical health. The focus of these activities should include areas such as nutrition, exercise, support to avert and manage physical health concerns like heart disease, diabetes, and cholesterol, and guidance on the effects that medications have on physical health. Services can include individual/group support, exercise groups, and individual physical wellness plan development, implementation, and assistance.
(3)     Modifications to active treatment. When a member is too physically ill, or his or her acuity level precludes him or her from active behavioral health treatment, documentation must demonstrate that alternative clinically-appropriate services were provided.
(f)    Active treatment components, furnished during a partial treatment week, are provided as per item (1) through (4) below. A chart outlining active treatment component requirements and timelines may also be found at www.okhca.org. Assessments/evaluations may serve as the initial individual or family session if completed by an LBHP or licensure candidate. Start and stop time must be documented. Active treatment begins the day of admission. Days noted are calendar days.
(1)     Individual treatment provided by the physician, APRN or PA.
(A)    In Acute, by day two (2), one (1) visit is required. By day four (4), two (2) visits are required. By day seven (7), three (3) visits are required.
(B)    In Acute II and PRTFs, one (1) visit during admission week is required. In PRTFs, one (1) visit during the admission week is required, then once a week thereafter. Individual treatment provided by the physician, APRN with psychiatric certification or PA will never exceed ten (10) days between sessions in Acute II and PRTFs, never exceed seven (7) days in specialty Acute II and specialty PRTFs. The completion of a psychiatric evaluation or a combined psychiatric evaluation and a history and physical (H&P) evaluation may count as the first visit by the physician if the evaluation was personally rendered by the psychiatrist, APRN with psychiatric certification or PA. If the member is admitted on the last day of the admission week, then the member must be seen by a physician, APRN with psychiatric certification or PA within sixty (60) hours of admission time.
(2)     Individual therapy.
(A)    In Acute, by day three (3), thirty (30) minutes of treatment are required. By day five (5), one (1) hour of treatment is required. Beginning on day seven (7), two (2) hours of treatment are required each week. This does not include admission assessments/evaluations or psychosocial evaluations unless personally (face to face) rendered by the LBHP or licensure candidate.
(B)    In Acute II and PRTFs, by day six (6), thirty (30) minutes of treatment must be documented. Beginning on day seven (7), one (1) hour of treatment is required each week. The treatment week is defined as Sunday through Saturday. Individual therapy may not exceed a total of ten (10) days between sessions. This does not include admission assessment/evaluation or psychosocial evaluations unless personally (face to face) rendered by the LBHP or licensure candidate.
(3)     Family therapy.
(A)    In Acute, by day six (6), thirty (30) minutes of treatment must be documented. Beginning on day seven (7), one (1) hour of treatment is required each week. This does not include admission assessments/evaluation or psychosocial evaluations unless personally (face to face) rendered by the LBHP or licensure candidate and the assessments/evaluation or psychosocial evaluation has not been used to substitute the initial individual therapy requirement.
(B)    In Acute II and PRTFs, by day six (6), thirty (30) minutes of treatment must be documented. Beginning on day seven (7), one (1) hour of treatment is required each week. This does not include admissions assessment/evaluation or psychosocial evaluation unless personally (face to face) rendered by the LBHP or licensure candidate and the assessment/evaluation or psychosocial evaluation has not been used to substitute the initial individual therapy requirement. Family therapy provided by the LBHP or licensure candidate should not exceed ten (10) days in between sessions.
(4)     Process group therapy.
(A)    In Acute, by day three (3), one (1) hour of treatment is required. By day five (5), two (2) hours of treatment are required. Beginning on day seven (7), three (3) hours of treatment are required each week.
(B)    In Acute II and PRTFs, by day five (5), one (1) hour of treatment is required. Beginning on day seven (7), two (2) hours of treatment are required each week.
(g)    When an individual is determined to be too ill to participate in treatment, as determined by medical/nursing staff [registered nurse (RN)/licensed practical nurse (LPN)], documentation must be in the record clearly indicating the reason, limitations, and timeframe for those services to be excused without penalty.
317:30-5-95.37.  Medical, psychiatric, and social evaluations for inpatient services for children
     The member's medical record must contain complete medical, psychiatric, and social evaluations.
(1)    These evaluations are considered critical documents to the integrity of care and treatment and must be completed as follows:
(A)    History and physical evaluation must be completed within twenty-four (24) hours of admission by a licensed independent practitioner (M.D., D.O., A.P.N., or P.A.) [Allopathic Doctor, Osteopathic Doctor, Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN), or Physician Assistant (PA)] in Acute, Acute II, and PRTFs.
(B)    Psychiatric evaluation must be completed within sixty (60) hours of admission by an allopathicAllopathic or osteopathicOsteopathic physician with a current license and a board certification/eligible in psychiatry. APRN with a psychiatric certification or PA in Acute, Acute II, and PRTFs.
(C)    Psychosocial evaluation must be completed within seventy-two (72) hours of an Acute admission, and within seven (7) calendar days of admission to Acute II and PRTFs by a licensed independent practitioner (M.D., D.O., A.P.N., or P.A.)(Allopathic Doctor, Osteopathic Doctor, APRN, or PA), LBHP, or licensure candidate.
(2)    Each of the evaluations must be clearly identified as such and must be signed and dated by the evaluators.
(3)    Each of the evaluations must be completed when the member changes levels of care if the existing evaluation is more than thirty (30) calendar days from admission. For continued stays at the same level of care, evaluations remain current for twelve (12) months from the date of admission and must be updated annually within seven (7) calendar days of that anniversary date.
(4)    Existing evaluations of thirty (30) days or less may be used when a member changes provider or level of care. The evaluation(s) must be reviewed, updated as necessary, and signed and dated by the appropriate level of professional as defined by the type of evaluation.
[OAR Docket #23-649; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 35.  Medical Assistance for Adults and Children-Eligibility
[OAR Docket #23-662]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Eligibility and Countable Income
Part 1. Determination of Qualifying Categorical Relationship Income
317:35-5-2 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-17)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; and P.L. 115-271 § 1002 (the SUPPORT Act)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Eligibility And Countable Income
Part 1. Determination Of Qualifying Categorical Relationship
317:35-5-2 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
November 4, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 378
Docket number:
22-866
(Reference APA WF # 22-17)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions will implement changes to comply with federal law by requiring SoonerCare to grant eligibility in the former foster care youth category to individuals who were enrolled in Medicaid when they aged out of foster care in another state on January 1, 2023, or later, and who now reside in Oklahoma.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Eligibility and Countable Income
PART 1.  DETERMINATION OF QUALIFYING CATEGORICAL RELATIONSHIP
317:35-5-2.  Categorically related programs
(a)    In order to be eligible for SoonerCare, an individual must first meet the description of a member eligibility group. For individuals related to the aged, blind, or disabled groups, categorical relationship is established using the same definitions of age, disability and blindness as used by the Social Security Administration (SSA) in determining eligibility for Supplemental Security Income (SSI) or SSA benefits. If the individual is an SSA/SSI recipient in current payment status (including presumptive eligibility), a Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) recipient, an adoption assistance or kinship guardianship assistance recipient, or is under age nineteen (19), categorical relationship is automatically established. For individuals related to expansion adults the categorical relationship is established and defined by 42 Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.) § 435.119. Categorical relationship to the pregnancy group is established when the determination is made by medical evidence that the individual is or has been pregnant. Verification of pregnancy is only required if the individual's declaration that she is pregnant is not reasonably compatible with other information available to the agency. Pregnancy-related services include all medical services provided within the scope of the program during the prenatal, delivery and postpartum periods for women in this pregnancy group; see Subchapter 22 of this Chapter for services for unborn children covered under Title XXI. For an individual age nineteen (19) or over to be related to the parent and caretaker relative group, the individual must have a minor dependent child. For an individual to be related to the former foster care children group, the individual must not be eligible for the Title XIX pregnancy or parent or caretaker relative groups, must be aged nineteen (19) to twenty-six (26), and must have been receiving SoonerCare as a foster care child when he/she aged out of foster care in Oklahoma. There is no income or resource test for the former foster care children group. Categorical relationship to refugee services is established in accordance with OAC 317:35-5-25. Categorical relationship for the Breast and Cervical Cancer (BCC) treatment program is established in accordance with Subchapter 21 of this Chapter. Categorical relationship for the SoonerPlan family planning program is established in accordance with OAC 317:35-5-8. Categorical relationship for pregnancy related benefits covered under Title XXI is established in accordance with Subchapter 22 of the Chapter. Benefits for pregnancies covered under Title XXI medical services are provided within the scope of the program during the prenatal, delivery and postpartum care when included in the global delivery payment. To be eligible for SoonerCare benefits, an individual must be related to one (1) of the following eligibility groups and as defined above in this Section:
(1)    Aged;
(2)    Disabled;
(3)    Blind;
(4)    Pregnancy;
(5)    Children, including newborns deemed eligible;
(6)    Parents and caretaker relatives;
(7)    Refugee;
(8)    BCC treatment program;
(9)    SoonerPlan family planning program;
(10)    Benefits for pregnancies covered under Title XXI;
(11)    Former foster care children; or
(12)    Expansion adults.
(b)    The Authority may provide SoonerCare to reasonable categories of individuals under age twenty-one (21).
(1)    Individuals eligible for SoonerCare benefits include individuals between the ages of nineteen (19) and twenty-one (21):
(A)    For whom a public agency is assuming full or partial financial responsibility who are in custody as reported by OKDHS and in foster homes, private institutions or public facilities; or
(B)    In adoptions subsidized in full or in part by a public agency; or
(C)    Individuals under age twenty-one (21) receiving active treatment as inpatients in public psychiatric facilities or programs if inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age twenty-one (21) are provided under the State Plan and the individuals are supported in full or in part by a public agency; or
(2)    Individuals eligible for SoonerCare benefits include individuals between the ages of eighteen (18) and twenty-one (21) if they are in custody as reported by OKDHS on their eighteenth (18th) birthday and living in an out-of-home placement.
(a)    In order to be eligible for SoonerCare, an individual must first meet the description of a member eligibility group.
(1)    For individuals related to the aged, blind, or disabled groups, categorical relationship is established using the same definitions of age, disability, and blindness as used by the Social Security Administration (SSA) in determining eligibility for Supplemental Security Income (SSI) or SSA benefits.
(2)    If the individual is a SSA/SSI recipient in current payment status (including presumptive eligibility), a Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) recipient, an adoption assistance or kinship guardianship assistance recipient, or is under age nineteen (19), categorical relationship is automatically established.
(3)    For individuals related to expansion adults the categorical relationship is established and defined by 42 Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.) § 435.119.
(4)    Categorical relationship to the pregnancy group is established when the determination is made by medical evidence that the individual is or has been pregnant. Verification of pregnancy is only required if the individual's declaration that she is pregnant is not reasonably compatible with other information available to the agency. Pregnancy-related services include all medical services provided within the scope of the program during the prenatal, delivery and postpartum periods for women in this pregnancy group; see Subchapter 22 of this Chapter for services for unborn children covered under Title XXI.
(5)    For an individual age nineteen (19) or over to be related to the parent and caretaker relative group, the individual must have a minor dependent child.
(6)    For an individual to be related to the former foster care children group, the individual must have been receiving Medicaid benefits as a foster care child in Oklahoma or another state when he/she attained the age of eighteen (18), or aged out of foster care, until he/she reaches the age of twenty-six (26). If the individual aged out of foster care in a state other than Oklahoma, the date of ageing out had to occur on January 1, 2023, or later, and the individual must now be residing in Oklahoma. There is no income or resource test for the former foster care children group.
(7)    Categorical relationship to refugee services is established in accordance with OAC 317:35-5-25.
(8)    Categorical relationship for the Breast and Cervical Cancer (BCC) treatment program is established in accordance with Subchapter 21 of this Chapter.
(9)    Categorical relationship for the SoonerPlan family planning program is established in accordance with OAC 317:35-5-8.
(10)    Categorical relationship for pregnancy related benefits covered under Title XXI is established in accordance with Subchapter 22 of the Chapter. Benefits for pregnancies covered under Title XXI medical services are provided within the scope of the program during the prenatal, delivery and postpartum care when included in the global delivery payment.
(b)    To be eligible for SoonerCare benefits, an individual must be related to one (1) of the following eligibility groups and as defined above in this Section:
(1)    Aged;
(2)    Disabled;
(3)    Blind;
(4)    Pregnancy;
(5)    Children, including newborns deemed eligible;
(6)    Parents and caretaker relatives;
(7)    Refugee;
(8)    BCC treatment program;
(9)    SoonerPlan family planning program;
(10)    Benefits for pregnancies covered under Title XXI;
(11)    Former foster care children; or
(12)    Expansion adults.
(c)    The Authority may provide SoonerCare to reasonable categories of individuals under age twenty-one (21).
(1)    Individuals eligible for SoonerCare benefits include individuals between the ages of nineteen (19) and twenty-one (21):
(A)    For whom a public agency is assuming full or partial financial responsibility who are in custody as reported by Oklahoma Human Services (OKDHS) and in foster homes, private institutions or public facilities; or
(B)    In adoptions subsidized in full or in part by a public agency; or
(C)    Individuals under age twenty-one (21) receiving active treatment as inpatients in public psychiatric facilities or programs if inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age twenty-one (21) are provided under the State Plan and the individuals are supported in full or in part by a public agency; or
(2)    Individuals eligible for SoonerCare benefits include individuals between the ages of eighteen (18) and twenty-one (21) if they are in custody as reported by OKDHS on their eighteenth (18th) birthday and living in an out-of-home placement.
[OAR Docket #23-662; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 35.  Medical Assistance for Adults and Children-Eligibility
[OAR Docket #23-663]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Eligibility and Countable Income
Part 1. Determination of Qualifying Categorical Relationships
317:35-5-6 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 6. SoonerCare for Pregnant Women and Families with Children
Part 7. Certification, Redetermination and Notification
317:35-6-60 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-21B)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; 42 CFR § 435.116; and Public Law 117-2 (the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Eligibility and Countable Income
Part 1. Determination of Qualifying Categorical Relationships
317:35-5-6 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 6. SoonerCare For Pregnant Women and Families with Children
Part 7. Certification, Redetermination and Notification
317:35-6-60 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
February 21, 2023
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 657
Docket number:
23-188
(Reference APA WF # 22-21B)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed policy revisions will expand Medicaid eligibility for pregnant women by increasing the federal poverty level (FPL) percentage income standard from 133% to 185%, or 210% FPL once converted to MAGI and applying the applicable MAGI disregards. Additionally, the proposed revisions will extend Medicaid postpartum coverage from sixty (60) days to twelve (12) months.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Eligibility and Countable Income
PART 1.  DETERMINATION OF QUALIFYING CATEGORICAL RELATIONSHIPS
317:35-5-6.  Determining categorical relationship to pregnancy-related services
(a)    For applications made prior to January 1, 2014, categorical relationship to pregnancy-related services can be established by determining through medical evidence that the individual is currently or has been pregnant. Pregnancy must be verified by providing medical proof of pregnancy within 30thirty (30) days of application submission. OKDHS form 08MA005E, Notification of Needed Medical Services, is not required but will be accepted as medical verification. If proof of pregnancy is not provided within 30thirty (30) days of application submission, SoonerCare benefits will be closed for the pregnant woman at the end of the thirty (30) day period. The expected date of delivery must be established either by information from the applicant's physician or certified nurse midwife or the member's statement.
(b)    Effective January 1, 2014, women who are pregnant, including 60 daystwelve (12) months postpartum, are related to the pregnant women group. Pregnancy does not have to be verified unless the declaration that an applicant or member is pregnant is not reasonably compatible with other information available to the agency. The individual must also provide the expected date of delivery.
SUBCHAPTER 6.  Soonercare for Pregnant Women and Families With Children
PART 7.  CERTIFICATION, REDETERMINATION AND NOTIFICATION
317:35-6-60.  Certification for SoonerCare for pregnant women and families with children
(a)     General rules of certification.
(1)    An individual determined eligible for SoonerCare may be certified for a prospective period of coverage on or after the date of certification.
(2)    In accordance with 42 Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.) § 435.915 and Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:35-6-60.2, an individual may also be determined eligible and certified for a retroactive period of coverage during the three (3) month period directly prior to the date of application. This only applies if the individual received covered medical services at any time during that period, and would have been eligible for SoonerCare at the time he or she received the services, regardless of whether the individual is alive when application for Medicaid is made. An individual may be eligible for the retroactive period even though ineligible for the prospective period.
(3)    The individual who is categorically needy and related to pregnancy-related services retains eligibility for the period covering prenatal, delivery, and postpartum periods without regard to eligibility for other household members in the case. Eligibility during the postpartum period does not apply to women receiving pregnancy-related coverage under Title XXI.
(b)     Certification as a TANF (cash assistance) recipient. A categorically needy individual who is determined eligible for TANF is certified effective the first day of the month of TANF eligibility.
(c)     Certification of non-cash assistance individuals related to the children and parent and caretaker relative groups. The certification period for the individual related to the children or parent and caretaker relative groups is twelve (12) months. The certification period can be less than twelve (12) months if the individual:
(1)    Is certified as eligible in a money payment case during the twelve-month (12-month) period;
(2)    Is certified for long-term care during the twelve-month (12-month) period;
(3)    Becomes ineligible for SoonerCare after the initial month; or
(4)    Becomes financially ineligible.
(A)    If an income change after certification causes the case to exceed the income standard, the case is closed.
(B)    Individuals, however, who are determined pregnant and financially eligible continue to be eligible for pregnancy-related services through the prenatal, delivery and postpartum period, regardless of income changes. A pregnant individual included in a TANF case which closes continues to be eligible for pregnancy-related services through the postpartum period.
(d)     Certification of individuals related to pregnancy-related services. The certification period for the individual related to pregnancy-related services will cover the prenatal, delivery and postpartum periods. The postpartum period is defined as the two (2)twelve (12) months following the month the pregnancy ends. Financial eligibility is based on the income received in the first month of the certification period. No consideration is given to changes in income after certification.
(e)     Certification of newborn child deemed eligible.
(1)    Every newborn child is deemed eligible on the date of birth for SoonerCare when the child is born to a woman who is eligible for and enrolled in pregnancy-related services as categorically needy. The newborn child is deemed eligible through the last day of the month the newborn child attains the age of one (1) year. The newborn child's eligibility is not dependent on the mother's continued eligibility. The mother's coverage may expire at the end of the postpartum period; however, the newborn child is deemed eligible until age one (1). The newborn child's eligibility is based on the original eligibility determination of the mother for pregnancy-related services, and consideration is not given to any income or resource changes that occur during the deemed eligibility period.
(2)    The newborn child is deemed eligible for SoonerCare as long as he/she continues to live in Oklahoma. In accordance with 42 C.F.R. § 435.117, no other conditions of eligibility are applicable, including social security number enumeration, child support referral, and citizenship and identity verification. However, it is recommended that social security number enumeration be completed as soon as possible after the newborn child's birth. It is also recommended that a child support referral be completed, if needed, as soon as possible and sent to the Oklahoma Child Support Services (OCSS) division at DHS. The referral enables child support services to be initiated.
(3)    When a categorically needy newborn child is deemed eligible for SoonerCare, he/she remains eligible through the end of the month that the newborn child reaches age one (1). If the child's eligibility is moved from the case where initial eligibility was established, it is required that the newborn receive the full deeming period. The certification period is shortened only in the event the child:
(A)    losesLoses Oklahoma residence; or
(B)    expiresExpires.
(4)    A newborn child cannot be deemed eligible when the mother's only coverage was presumptive eligibility, and continued eligibility was not established.
[OAR Docket #23-663; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 35.  Medical Assistance for Adults and Children-Eligibility
[OAR Docket #23-664]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Eligibility and Countable Income
Part 3. Non-Medical Eligibility Requirements
317:35-5-25 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-22)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; and Public Law 117-128 (Additional Ukraine Supplemental Appropriations Act - H.R. 7691)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Eligibility And Countable Income
Part 3. Non-Medical Eligibility Requirements
317:35-5-25 [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
February 21, 2023
Register publication:
40 Ok 659
Docket number:
23-189
(Reference APA WF # 22-22)
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions establish rules to update the citizenship/alien status policy to comply with Public Law 117-128, which entitles certain Ukrainian nationals entering the United States during a designated period of time, to receive SoonerCare services, provided all other eligibility factors are met.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Eligibility and Countable Income
PART 3.  NON-MEDICAL ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS
317:35-5-25.  Citizenship/noncitizen status and identity verification requirements
(a)     Citizenship/noncitizen status and identity verification requirements. Verification of citizenship/noncitizen status and identity is required for all adults and children approved for SoonerCare. An exception is individuals who are initially eligible for SoonerCare as deemed newborns; according to Section 1903(x) of the Social Security Act, they will not be required to further document citizenship or identity at any subsequent SoonerCare eligibility redetermination. They are considered to have provided satisfactory documentation of citizenship and identity by virtue of being born in the United States.
(1)    The types of acceptable evidence that verify identity and citizenship include:
(A)    United States (U.S.) passport;
(B)    Certificate of Naturalization issued by U.S. Citizenship & Immigration Services (USCIS)(Form N-550 or N-570);
(C)    Certificate of Citizenship issued by USCIS (Form N-560 or N-561);
(D)    Copy of the Medicare card or printout of a Beneficiary Earnings and Data Exchange (BENDEX) or State Data Exchange (SDX) screen showing receipt of Medicare benefits, Supplemental Security Income or disability benefits from the Social Security Administration; or
(E)    Tribal membership card or Certificate of Degree of Indian Blood (CDIB) card, with a photograph of the individual.
(2)    The types of acceptable evidence that verify citizenship but require additional steps to obtain satisfactory evidence of identity are listed in subparagraphs (A) and (B). Subparagraph (A) lists the most reliable forms of verification and is to be used before using items listed in (B). Subparagraph (B) lists those verifications that are less reliable forms of verification and are used only when the items in (A) are not attainable.
(A)    Most reliable forms of citizenship verification are:
(i)    A U.S. public Birth Certificate showing birth in one (1) of the fifty (50) states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico (on or after 1/13/1941), Guam (on or after 4/10/1899), the U.S. Virgin Islands (on or after 1/17/1917), American Samoa, Swain's Island, or the Northern Mariana Islands after 11/4/1986. For Puerto Ricans whose eligibility is being determined for the first time on or after October 1, 2010 and using a birth certificate to verify citizenship, the birth certificate must be a certified birth certificate issued by Puerto Rico on or after July 1, 2010;
(ii)    A Consular Report of Birth Abroad of a U.S. citizen issued by the Department of Homeland Security or a Certification of Birth issued by the State Department (Form FS-240, FS-545 or DS-1350);
(iii)    A U.S. Citizen Identification Card (Form I-179 or I-197);
(iv)    A Northern Mariana Identification Card (Form I-873) (Issued by the former INS to a collectively naturalized citizen of the U.S. who was born in the Northern Mariana Islands before 11/3/1986);
(v)    An American Indian Card issued by the Department of Homeland Security with the classification code "KIC" (Form I-872);
(vi)    A final adoption decree showing the child's name and U.S. place of birth;
(vii)    Evidence of U.S. Civil Service employment before 6/1/1976;
(viii)    An Official U.S. Military Record of Service showing a U.S. place of birth (for example a DD-214);
(ix)    Tribal membership card or Certificate of Degree of Indian Blood (CDIB) card, without a photograph of the individual, for Native Americans;
(x)    Oklahoma voter registration card;
(xi)    Other acceptable documentation as approved by OHCA; or
(xii)    Other acceptable documentation to the same extent as described and communicated by the United States Citizenship and Immigration Service (USCIS) from time to time.
(B)    Other less reliable forms of citizenship verification are:
(i)    An extract of a hospital record on hospital letterhead established at the time of the person's birth that was created five (5) years before the initial application date and that indicates a U.S. place of birth. For children under sixteen (16) the evidence must have been created near the time of birth or five (5) years before the date of application;
(ii)    Life, health, or other insurance record showing a U.S. place of birth that was created at least five (5) years before the initial application date and that indicates a U.S. place of birth;
(iii)    Federal or state census record showing U.S. citizenship or a U.S. place of birth (generally for persons born 1900 through 1950). The census record must also show the applicant's/member's age; or
(iv)    One (1) of the following items that show a U.S. place of birth and was created at least five (5) years before the application for SoonerCare. This evidence must be one (1) of the following and show a U.S. place of birth:
(I)    Seneca Indian tribal census record;
(II)    Bureau of Indian Affairs tribal census records of the Navajo Indians;
(III)    U.S. State Vital Statistics official notification of birth registration;
(IV)    An amended U.S. public birth record that is amended more than five (5) years after the person's birth; or
(V)    Statement signed by the physician or midwife who was in attendance at the time of birth.
(3)    Acceptable evidence of identity that must accompany citizenship evidence listed in (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of this subsection includes:
(A)    A driver's license issued by a U.S. state or territory with either a photograph of the individual or other identifying information such as name, age, sex, race, height, weight, or eye color;
(B)    A school identification card with a photograph of the individual;
(C)    An identification card issued by federal, state, or local government with the same information included on driver's licenses;
(D)    A U.S. military card or draft record;
(E)    A U.S. military dependent's identification card;
(F)    A Native American Tribal document including Certificate of Degree of Indian Blood, or other U.S. American Indian/Alaska Native Tribal document with a photograph of the individual or other personal identifying information;
(G)    A U.S. Coast Guard Merchant Mariner card;
(H)    A state court order placing a child in custody as reported by the OKDHS;
(I)    For children under sixteen (16), school records may include nursery or daycare records;
(J)    If none of the verification items on the list are available, an affidavit may be used for children under sixteen (16). An affidavit is only acceptable if it is signed under penalty of perjury by a parent or guardian stating the date and place of the birth of the child and cannot be used if an affidavit for citizenship was provided.
(b)     Reasonable opportunity to obtain verification.
(1)    The state provides Medicaid to citizens and nationals of the United States and certain noncitizens, including during a reasonable opportunity period pending verification of citizenship, national status, or immigrations status. The reasonable opportunity period begins on the date the notice of reasonable opportunity is received by the individual and extends at minimum ninety (90) days. Receipt by the individual is deemed to occur five (5) days after the date on the notice, unless the individual shows that the notice was not received in the five-day period. The state provides an extension of the reasonable opportunity period if the individual subject to verification is making a good faith effort to resolve any inconsistencies or obtain any necessary documentation, or the state needs more time to complete the verification process. The state begins to furnish benefits to otherwise eligible individuals on the date of application containing the declaration of citizenship or immigration status and throughout the reasonable opportunity period.
(2)    The following methods of verification are the least reliable forms of verification and should only be used as a last resort:
(A)    Institutional admission papers from a nursing facility, skilled care facility or other institution. Admission papers generally show biographical information for the person including place of birth; the record can be used to establish U.S. citizenship when it shows a U.S. place of birth;
(B)    Medical (clinic, doctor, or hospital) record created at least five (5) years before the initial application date that indicates a U.S. place of birth. For children under the age of sixteen (16), the document must have been created near the time of birth. Medical records generally show biographical information for the person including place of birth; the record can be used to establish U.S. citizenship when it shows a U.S. place of birth. An immunization record is not considered a medical record for purposes of establishing U.S. citizenship;
(C)    Written affidavit. Affidavits are only used in rare circumstances. If the verification requirements need to be met through affidavits, the following rules apply:
(i)    There must be at least two (2) affidavits by two (2) individuals who have personal knowledge of the event(s) establishing the applicant's/member's claim of citizenship;
(ii)    At least one (1) of the individuals making the affidavit cannot be related to the applicant/member;
(iii)    In order for the affidavit to be acceptable, the persons making them must be able to provide proof of their own citizenship and identity;
(iv)    If the individual(s) making the affidavit has information which explains why evidence establishing the applicant's/member's claim of citizenship does not exist or cannot be readily obtained, the affidavit must contain this information as well;
(v)    The State must obtain a separate affidavit from the applicant/member or other knowledgeable individual (guardian or representative) explaining why the evidence does not exist or cannot be obtained; and
(vi)    The affidavits must be signed under penalty of perjury.
(c)     Noncitizen eligibility. SoonerCare services are provided as described to the defined groups as indicated in this subsection if they meet all other factors of eligibility, including but not limited to residency requirements, and if the relevant noncitizen status is verifiable by federally approved means.
(1)     Unauthorized resident noncitizen. An unauthorized resident noncitizen is a foreign-born individual who is not lawfully present in the United States, regardless of having had authorization during a prior period. Unauthorized resident noncitizens have formerly been known as "illegal" or "undocumented" immigrants or "aliens". Per 8 U.S.C. 1611(a) and (b)(1)(A) an unauthorized resident noncitizen is ineligible for Title XIX Medicaid benefits except for emergency Medicaid as defined at subparagraph (e) below. However, an unauthorized resident noncitizen who is pregnant is eligible for benefits under Title XXI separate Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP) for services that benefit the unborn child, if the unborn child meets all eligibility requirements.
(2)     Authorized resident noncitizen, not qualified. An authorized resident noncitizen is a foreign-born individual who is lawfully present in the United States (U.S.) and is lawfully residing in the U.S., but who does not meet the definition of qualified noncitizen, per 8 U.S.C. 1611(a) and (b)(1)(A). The Oklahoma Medicaid program does not exercise the CHIPRA 214 option; therefore, an authorized resident noncitizen is ineligible for Title XIX or Title XXI Medicaid benefits except for emergency Medicaid as defined at subparagraph (e) below. However, an authorized resident noncitizen who is pregnant is eligible for benefits under Title XXI separate CHIP for services that benefit the unborn child, if the unborn child meets all eligibility requirements.
(3)     Qualified noncitizen. A "qualified noncitizen" is an authorized resident noncitizen who, at the time of applying for Medicaid, has a "qualified noncitizen" immigration status as identified at 8 U.S.C. 1641, as may be amended from time to time. Any qualified noncitizen is eligible for full Title XIX Medicaid benefits after a five-year waiting period beginning on the date of the noncitizen's entry into the U.S. with an immigration status identified as "qualified noncitizen" if the noncitizen meets all other eligibility criteria at the end of the waiting period. During the waiting period, as per 8 U.S.C. 1613(a), any qualified noncitizen is eligible to receive emergency Medicaid as described in subparagraph (e) below if the noncitizen meets all other eligibility requirements, including but not limited to residency requirements.
(A)     Qualified noncitizen immigration statuses. Immigration statuses identified by federal law as "qualified noncitizen", as of November 2, 2021, include:
(i)    A noncitizen who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence under the Immigration and Nationality Act [INA], per 8 U.S.C. 1101 et seq.;
(ii)    A noncitizen who is granted asylum under INA section 208, per 8 U.S.C. 1158;
(iii)    A noncitizen who is admitted to the U.S. under INA section 207 refugee, per 8 U.S.C. 1157;
(iv)    A noncitizen who is paroled into the U.S. under INA section 212(d)(5), per 8 U.S.C. 1182(d)(5), for a period of at least one (1) year;
(v)    A noncitizen whose deportation is being withheld under INA section 243(h), per 8 U.S.C. 1253 (as in effect immediately before the effective date of section 307 of division C of Public Law 104B208) or section 241(b)(3) of such Act, per 8 U.S.C. 1231(b)(3) (as amended by section 305(a) of division C of Public Law 104B208);
(vi)    A noncitizen who is granted conditional entry before 1980 pursuant to INA section 203(a)(7), per 8 U.S.C. 1153(a)(7), as in effect prior to April 1, 1980;
(vii)    A noncitizen who is a Cuban and Haitian entrant (as defined in section 501(e) of the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980);
(viii)    A noncitizen who, or whose parent or child, has been battered or subjected to extreme cruelty in the U.S. by a U.S. citizen or lawful permanent resident spouse or parent or by a member of the spouse's or parent's family residing in the same household, except during any period in which the individual responsible for such battery or cruelty resides in the same household or family eligibility unit as the individual subjected to such battery or cruelty and only when the alien meets all of the following requirements:
(I)    The noncitizen, if not the individual subjected to battery or extreme cruelty, had no active participation in the battery or cruelty;
(II)    The noncitizen is a credible victim; and
(III)    The noncitizen is able to show a substantial connection between the need for benefits sought and the batter or extreme cruelty; and
(IV)    The noncitizen has been approved or has a petition pending which sets forth a prima facie case for one of the following: status as a spouse or child of a U.S. citizen under INA 204(a)(1)(A); classification under INA 204(a)(1)(B)(ii) or (iii); suspension of deportation under INA 244(a)(3); status as a spouse or child of a U.S. citizen under INA 204(a)(1)(A); or classification under INA 204(a)(1)(B); or cancellation of removal under INA 240A(b)(2).
(ix)    A noncitizen who is or has been a victim of a severe form of trafficking in persons and who has been granted nonimmigrant status under INA 101(a)(15)(T) or who has a pending application that sets forth a prima facie case for eligibility for such immigration status; or
(x)    Beginning December 27, 2020, a noncitizen who lawfully resides in the state in accordance with the Compacts of Free Association between the Government of the United States and the Governments of the Federated States of Micronesia, the Republic of the Marshall Islands, and the Republic of Palau.
(B)     Five-year wait exception for refugees and asylees.
(i)    Excepted from the five-year waiting period per 8 U.S.C. 1612(b)(2)(A), the following qualified noncitizens are immediately eligible for a Medicaid determination upon the date:
(I)    A noncitizen is admitted to the U.S. as a refugee under INA section 207 [INA 207 Refugee], per 8 U.S.C. 1157;
(II)    A noncitizen is granted asylum under INA section 208, per 8 U.S.C. 1158;
(III)    A noncitizen's deportation is withheld under INA section 243(h), per 8 U.S.C. 1253 (as in effect immediately before the effective date of section 307 of division C of Public Law 104B208) or section 241(b)(3) of such Act, per 8 U.S.C. 1231(b)(3) (as amended by section 305(a) of division C of Public Law 104B208);
(IV)    A noncitizen is granted status as a Cuban and Haitian entrant (as defined in section 501(e) of the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980); or
(V)    A noncitizen is admitted to the U.S. as an Amerasian immigrant under the Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 1988, section 584.
(ii)    This exception to the five-year waiting period expires seven (7) years after the date of action indicated in the list at (c)(3)(B)(i) above. Upon expiration of the exception, the five-year waiting period must be calculated.
(C)     Five-year wait exception for certain permanent resident noncitizens. The five-year waiting period does not apply and the noncitizen is immediately eligible for a Medicaid determination per 8 U.S.C. 1612(b)(2)(B), if:
(i)    The noncitizen is lawfully admitted to the U.S. for permanent residence;
(ii)    The noncitizen has either:
(I)    worked forty (40) qualifying quarters of coverage as defined under the Act; or
(II)    can be credited with such qualifying quarters as provided under 8 U.S.C. 1645; and
(iii)    In the case of any such qualifying quarters creditable for any period beginning after December 31, 1996, the noncitizen did not receive any federal means-tested public benefit during any such period.
(D)     Five-year wait exception for veteran and active-duty noncitizens. As per 8 U.S.C. 1612(b)(2)(C) and 1613, the five-year waiting period does not apply, and the noncitizen is immediately eligible for a Medicaid determination if the noncitizen is a qualified noncitizen who is lawfully residing in the state and is:
(i)    A veteran (as defined at INA sections 101, 1101, or 1301, or as described at 38 U.S.C. section 107) with a discharge characterized as an honorable discharge and not on account of noncitizenship and who fulfills the minimum active-duty service requirements of 38 U.S.C. section 5303A(d);
(ii)    On active duty (other than active duty for training) in the Armed Forces of the United States; or
(iii)    The spouse or unmarried dependent child of an individual described herein as a veteran or active-duty noncitizen; or
(iv)    The unremarried surviving spouse of an individual described herein as a veteran or active-duty noncitizen who is deceased, if the marriage fulfills the requirements of 38 U.S.C. section 1304.
(E)     Five-year wait exception for COFA migrants. Per 8 U.S.C. 1613(b)(3) and as of December 27, 2020, any noncitizen who lawfully resides in the state in accordance with the Compacts of Free Association between the Government of the United States and the Governments of the Federated States of Micronesia, the Republic of the Marshall Islands, and the Republic of Palau is, with regard to the Medicaid program, are not subject to the five-year waiting period unless and until the individual=s status is adjusted to lawful permanent resident (LPR), at which time the five year waiting period must be calculated, unless the individual meets a separate exception to the five-year waiting period:
(i)    If the individual entered the U.S. before December 27, 2020, and the date of adjustment to LPR status occurred before December 27, 2020, then the waiting period begins on the date of adjustment and ends after five (5) years;
(ii)    If the individual entered the U.S. before December 27, 2020, and the date of adjustment to LPR status occurred after December 27, 2020, the waiting period expires on December 27, 2025; and
(iii)    If the individual entered the U.S. after December 27, 2020, and the date of adjustment to LPR status occurred after December 27, 2020, the waiting period begins on the date of entry into the U.S. and ends after five (5) years.
(F)     Five-year wait exception for qualified noncitizens receiving SSI. Per 8 U.S.C. 1612(b)(2)(F), a qualified noncitizen who is receiving benefits under the supplemental security income program (SSI) under Title XVI of the Act shall be eligible for medical assistance under a state plan under Title XIX of the Social Security Act, per 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq), under the same terms and conditions that apply to other recipients of SSI benefits.
(4)     Special categories of noncitizens and conferred benefits. For the following noncitizens, federal law has expressly authorized Title XIX Medicaid benefits as described below and at law.
(A)     Certain American Indian / Alaskan Native (AI/AN) noncitizens. The qualified noncitizen requirement and the five-year waiting period do not apply to any individual who is:
(i)    An American Indian born in Canada to whom section 289 of the Immigration and Nationality Act apply, per 8 U.S.C. 1359; or
(ii)    A member of a federally recognized Indian tribe as defined at 25 U.S.C. 450b(e).
(B)     Certain Iraqi nationals.
(i)    Public Law 110-181, Section 1244, while in force and as amended from time to time, created a new category of special immigrant for Iraqi nationals, including:
(I)    Principal noncitizens who have provided relevant service to the U.S. government, while employed by or on behalf of the U.S. government in Iraq, for not less than 1 year beginning on or after March 20, 2003, and who have experienced or are experiencing an ongoing serious threat as a consequence of that employment;
(II)    The spouse or surviving spouse of a principal noncitizen; and
(III)    The child of a principal noncitizen.
(ii)    Public Law 111-118, Section 8120, while in force and as amended from time to time, extended Iraqi special immigrant eligibility for medical assistance to the same extent as INA 207 Refugees are eligible for medical assistance [see subparagraph (c)(3)(B) above] as of December 19, 2009.
(iii)    As of August 3, 2021, pursuant to the Office of Refugee Resettlement Policy Letter 21-07, while in force and as may be amended, Iraqi nationals granted special immigrant parole, noncitizens with applications pending for special immigrant status, are also eligible for medical assistance to the same extent as INA 207 Refugees are eligible for medical assistance [see subparagraph (c)(3)(B) above];
(C)     Certain Afghan nationals.
(i)    Public Law 111-8, Section 602, while in force and as amended from time to time, created a new category of special immigrant for Afghan nationals, including:
(I)    Principal noncitizens who have provided relevant service to the U.S. government or the International Security Assistance Force, while employed by or on behalf of the U.S. government in Afghan, for not less than one (1) year beginning on or after October 7, 2001, and who have experienced or are experiencing an ongoing serious threat as a consequence of that employment;
(II)    The spouse or surviving spouse of a principal noncitizen; and
(III)    The child of a principal noncitizen.
(ii)    Public Law 111-118, Section 8120, while in force and as amended from time to time, amended Public Law 111-8, Section 602, to extend Afghan special immigrant eligibility for medical assistance to the same extent as INA 207 Refugees are eligible for medical assistance [see subparagraph (c)(3)(B) above] as of December 19, 2009;
(iii)    As of August 3, 2021, pursuant to the Office of Refugee Resettlement Policy Letter 21-07, while in force and as may be amended, Afghan nationals granted special immigrant parole, noncitizens with applications pending for special immigrant status, are also eligible for medical assistance to the same extent as INA 207 Refugees are eligible for medical assistance [see subparagraph (c)(3)(B) above];
(iv)    Pursuant to Public Law 117-43, Section 2502, while in force and as may be amended from time to time, "applicable individuals" have time-limited eligibility for medical assistance to the same extent as INA 207 Refugees are eligible for medical assistance [See subsection (c)(3)(B) above], until March 21, 2023, or the term of parole, whichever is later. In this subparagraph, the term "applicable individual" includes only:
(I)    A citizen or national of Afghanistan or a person with no nationality who last habitually resided in Afghanistan, if the individual is paroled into the U.S. between July 31, 2021, and September 30, 2022;
(II)    The spouse or child of an individual described at (c)(3)(C)(iv)(I) of this section, if the spouse or child is paroled into the U.S. after September 30, 2022; and
(III)    The parent or legal guardian of an individual described at (c)(3)(C)(iv)(I) who is determined to be an unaccompanied child, if the parent or legal guardian is paroled into the U.S. after September 30, 2022.
(D)     Certain Ukrainian nationals. Public Law 117-128, Section 401, while in force and as amended from time to time, created a new category of special immigrant for Ukraine nationals, including:
(i)    A citizen or national of Ukraine, or a person who last habitually resided in Ukraine, who was paroled into the United States between February 24, 2022 and September 30, 2023; or
(ii)    A citizen or national of Ukraine, or a person who last habitually resided in Ukraine, who was paroled into the United States after September 30, 2023, and is the spouse or child of an individual described in (D)(i)(I) above, or is the parent, legal guardian, or primary caregiver of an individual described in (D)(i)(I) above who is determined to be an unaccompanied child; and
(iii)    The individual's parole has not been terminated by the Secretary of Homeland Security.
(d)     Continuing conformance with federal law. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any noncitizen population that federal law or authority, as amended from time to time, identifies as eligible for medical assistance under Title XIX is eligible for such benefits to the same extent, under the same conditions, and for the same period of time as indicated in the relevant federal law or official federal guidance documents, including any amendments to the law or guidance.
(e)     Emergency Medicaid. Emergency Medicaid in this section means medical assistance provided to a noncitizen under Title XIX for care and services that are necessary for the treatment of an emergency medical condition, as defined by section 1903(v)(3) of the Act and including labor and delivery but not related to organ transplant procedure, of the noncitizen involved if the noncitizen otherwise meets eligibility requirements for medical assistance under the state plan, including but not limited to residency requirements.
[OAR Docket #23-664; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 35.  Medical Assistance for Adults and Children-Eligibility
[OAR Docket #23-665]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 17. ADvantage Waiver Services
317:35-17-3 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-23B)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board; 1915c Advantage Waiver
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions will align policy with the recently approved 1915(c) ADvantage waiver amendment which will add Assistive Technology and Remote Support services to the "Services provided through the ADvantage waiver" list. Additional revisions will correct grammatical errors.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 17.  Advantage Waiver Services
317:35-17-3.  ADvantage program services
(a)    The ADvantage program is a Medicaid Home and Community-Based waiver used to finance non-institutional, long-term care services for the elderly and a targeted group of physically disabled adults when there is a reasonable expectation that within a thirty (30) calendar day period, the person's health, due to disease process or disability, would without appropriate services, deteriorate and require long-term care (LTC) facility care to arrest the deterioration. Individuals may not be enrolled in ADvantage for the sole purpose of enabling them to obtain Medicaid eligibility. Eligibility for ADvantage program services is contingent on an individual requiring one (1) or more of the services offered in the waiver, at least monthly, to avoid institutionalization.
(b)    The number of individuals who may receive ADvantage services is limited.
(1)    To receive ADvantage program services, individuals must meet one of thecategoriesthe categories in (A) thoughthrough (D) of this paragraph. He or she must:
(A)    Be sixty-five (65) years of age andor older; or
(B)    Be twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64) years of age, physically disabled and not developmentally disabled; orwith a physical disability; or
(C)    When developmentally disabled, and twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64) years of age; and does not have an intellectual disability or a cognitive impairment related to the developmental disability;Be twenty-one (21) to sixty-four years of age with a developmental disability, provided he or she does not have a cognitive impairment (intellectual disability); or
(D)    Be twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64) years of age, not physically disabled but haswith a clinically documented, progressive, degenerative disease process that responds to treatment and previously required hospital or LTC facility level of care services to maintain the treatment regimen to prevent health deterioration.
(2)    In addition, the individual must meet criteria in (A) through (C) of this paragraph. He or she must:
(A)    Requirelong-termRequire long-term care facility level of care, per Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:35-17-2;
(B)    Meet service eligibility criteria, per OAC 317:35-17-3(f); and
(C)    Meet program eligibility criteria, per OAC 317:35-17-3(g).
(c)    ADvantage members are eligible for limited types of living arrangements. The specific living arrangements are set forth in (1) thoughthrough (5) of this subsection.
(1)    ADvantage program members are not eligible to receive services while residing in an unlicensed institutional living arrangement, such as a room and board home and/oror facility; an institutional setting including, but not limited to, licensed facilities, such as a hospital, a LTC facility, licensed residential care facility, or licensed assisted living facility, unless the facility is an ADvantage assisted living center.
(2)    Additional living arrangements in which members may receive ADvantage services are the member's own home, apartment, or independent-living apartment, or a family or friend's home or apartment. A home/apartmenthome or apartment unit is defined as a self-contained living space having a lockable entrance to the unit and including a bathroom,and food storage and/orand preparation amenities in addition to the bedroom and/oror living space.
(3)    ADvantage program members may receive services in a shelter or similar temporary-housing arrangement that may or may not meet the definition of home and/oror apartment in emergency situations, for a period not to exceed sixty (60) calendar days during which location and transition to permanent housing is sought.
(4)    For ADvantage members who are full-time students, a dormitory room qualifies as an allowable living arrangement in which to receive ADvantage services while the member is a student.
(5)    Members may receive ADvantage respite services in an LTC facility for a continuous period not to exceed thirty (30) calendar days.
(d)    Home and Community-Based waiver services are outside of the scope of Medicaid State Plan services. The Medicaid waiver allows the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) to offer certain Home and Community-Based services to an annually capped number of persons, who are categorically needy, per Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) Appendix C-1, Schedule VIII. B. 1., and without such services would be institutionalized. The estimated cost of providing an individual's care outside of the LTC facility cannot exceed the annual cost of caring for that individual in ana LTC facility. When determining the ADvantage service plan cost cap for an individual, the comparable SoonerCareMedicaid cost to serve that individual in ana LTC facility is estimated.
(e)    Services provided through the ADvantage waiver are:
(1)    Case management;
(2)    Respite;
(3)    Adult day health care;
(4)    Environmental modifications;
(5)    Specialized medical equipment and supplies;
(6)    Physical, occupational, or speech therapy or consultation;
(7)    Advanced supportive and/or restorative assistance;
(8)    Nursing;
(9)    Skilled nursing;
(10)    Home-delivered meals;
(11)    Hospice care;
(12)    Medically necessary prescription drugs, within the limits of the ADvantage waiver;
(13)    Personal care, State Plan, or ADvantage personal care;
(14)    A Personal Emergency Response System (PERS);
(15)    Consumer-DirectedConsumer Directed Personal Assistance Services and Supports (CD-PASS);
(16)    Institution Transition Services (Transitional Case Management);
(17)    Assisted living; and
(18)    Remote Supports;
(19)    Assistive technology; and
(1820)    SoonerCare medical services for individuals, twenty-one (21) years of age and over, within the State Plan scope.
(f)    The OKDHS area nurse or nurse designee makes a determination ofdetermines service eligibility prior to evaluating the Uniform Comprehensive Assessment Tool (UCAT) assessment for long-term care facility level of care. The criteria in (1) through (5) of this subsection are used to make the service eligibility determination, which includes:
(1)    An open ADvantage program waiver slot, as authorized by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), which is available to ensure federal participation in payment for services to the individual. When the Oklahoma Department of Human Services/Aging Services (OKDHS/AS)Services Community Living, Aging and Protective Services (CAP) determines all slots are filled, the individual cannot be certified by OKDHS as eligible for ADvantage services, and his or her name is placed on a waiting list for entry when an open slot becomes available;.
(2)    The ADvantage waiver-targeted service group. The target group isgroups are individuals, who:
(A)    Are frail and sixty-five (65) years of age and older; or
(B)    areAre Twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64) years of age and physically disabled; or
(C)    When developmentally disabled, and are twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64) years of age and do not have an intellectual disability or cognitive impairment related to the developmental disability; or
(D)    Are twenty-one (21) to sixty-four (64) years of age, and not physically disabled but have a clinically documented, progressive, degenerative disease process that responds to treatment and previously required hospital or long-term care facility level of care services to maintain the treatment regimen to prevent health deterioration. The individual must meet criteria, per OAC 317:35-174-3(b)(2)(A through C)317:35-17-3(b)(2)(A) through (C).
(3)    An ineligible individual because he or she posesis ineligible when posing a physical threat to himself or herselfself or others, as supported by professional documentation.
(4)    MembersAn individual is ineligible when members of the household or persons who routinely visit the household, as supported by professional documentation that do not pose a threat of harm or injury to the individual or other household visitors, as supported by professional documentation.
(5)    An ineligible individual is ineligible when his or her living environment poses a physical threat to himself or herselfself or others, as supported by professional documentation where applicable, and measures to correct hazardous conditions or assist the individual to move are unsuccessful or not feasible.
(g)    The State, as part of the ADvantage waiver program approval authorizationprocess, ensures CMS that each member's health, safety, or welfare can be maintained in his or her home. When a member's identified needs cannot be met through provision of the ADvantage program or Medicaid State Plan services and other formal or informal services are not in place or immediately available to meet those needs, the individual's health, safety, or welfare in his or her home cannot be ensured. The ADvantage Administration (AA) determines ADvantage program eligibility through the service plan approval process. An individual is deemed ineligible for the ADvantage program based on criteria (1) through (8) of this subsection.
(1)    The individual's needs, as identified by the UCAT and other professional assessments, cannot be met through ADvantage program services, Medicaid State Plan services, or other formal or informal services.
(2)    One (1) or more members of the individual's household pose a physical threat to themselves, or others as supported by professional documentation.
(3)    The individual or other household members use threatening, intimidating, degrading, or use sexually inappropriate language and/oror innuendo or behavior towards service providers, either in the home or through other contact or communications, and significant efforts were attempted to correct such behavior, as supported by professional documentation or other credible documentation.
(4)    The individual, or the individual's authorized agent, is uncooperative or refuses to participate in service development or service delivery and these actions result in unacceptable increases of risk to the individual's health, safety, or welfare in his or her home, as determined by the individual, the interdisciplinary team, or the AA.
(5)    The individual's living environment poses a physical threat to self or others, as supported by professional documentation, and measures to correct hazardous conditions or assist the person to move are unsuccessful or are not feasible.
(6)    The individual provides false or materially inaccurate information necessary to determine program eligibility or withholds information necessary to determine program eligibility.
(7)    The individual does not require at least one ADvantage service monthly.
(8)    The individual, his or her family member(s), associate(s), or any other person(s) or circumstances as relates to care and coordination in his or herthe living environment produces evidence of illegal drug activity or substances used illegally as intoxicants. This includes:
(A)    The use, possession, or distribution of illegal drugs;
(B)    The abusive use of other drugs, such as medication prescribed by a doctor;
(C)    The use of substances, such as inhalants including, but not limited to:
(i)    Typewriter correction fluid;
(ii)    Air conditioning coolant;
(iii)    Gasoline;
(iv)    Propane;
(v)    Felt-tip markers;
(vi)    Spray paint;
(vii)    Air freshener;
(viii)    Butane;
(ix)    Cooking spray;
(x)    Paint; and
(xi)    Glue;
(D)    The observed intoxication, consumption, or sensory indicators, such as smell of the use of any drug or intoxicant by the individual, family members, associates, or any other person(s) present at the time care is provided may be construed as evidence indicative of illegal drug activity or intoxication. This includes drug use or intoxicated activity that is menacing to the member or staff providing services;
(E)    The observance of drug paraphernalia or any instrument used in the manufacturing, production, distribution, sale, or consumption of drugs or substances including, but not limited to:
(i)    Smoking pipes used to consume substances other than tobacco;
(ii)    Roach clips containing marijuana cigarettes;
(iii)    Needles and other implements used for injecting drugs into the body;
(iv)    Plastic bags or other containers used to package drugs;
(v)    Miniature spoons used to prepare drugs; or
(vi)    Kits used in the production of synthetic controlled substances including descriptive materials that accompany the item, describing or depicting its use.
(F)    Instructions, verbal or written, concerning the item or device including, but not limited to, the manner in which the object is labeled and displayed for sale;
(G)    The typical use of such items in the community; and/oror
(H)    Testimony of an expert witness regarding use of the item.
(h)    The case manager provides the AA with professional documentation or other credible documentation to support the recommendation for redetermination of program eligibility. The service providers continue providing services according to the person-centered service plan as provider safety permits until the individual is removed from the ADvantage program. As a part of the procedures requesting redetermination of program eligibility, OKDHS ASCAP provides technical assistance to the provider for transitioning the individual to other services.
(i)    Individuals determined ineligible for ADvantage program services are notified in writing by OKDHSCAP of the determination and of their right to appeal the decision.
[OAR Docket #23-665; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 317.  Oklahoma Health Care Authority
CHAPTER 40.  Developmental Disabilities Services
[OAR Docket #23-666]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
317:40-1-4 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Member Services
Part 1. Agency Companion Services
317:40-5-3 [AMENDED]
Part 5. Specialized Foster Care Standards
317:40-5-50 [AMENDED]
317:40-5-60 [REVOKED]
Part 9. Service Provisions
317:40-5-100 [AMENDED]
317:40-5-102 [AMENDED]
317:40-5-103 [AMENDED]
(Reference APA WF # 22-24B)
AUTHORITY:
The Oklahoma Health Care Authority Act, Section 5007 (C)(2) of Title 63 of Oklahoma Statutes; the Oklahoma Health Care Authority Board
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 4, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 7, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 22, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revisions to the Oklahoma Human Services Developmental Disability Services specialized foster care (SFC) section will add new language to outline new criteria for Remote services and Agency Companion services, as well as provide ne SFC standards and criteria. Other revisions will add optometry benefits, which will allow routine eye examination and purchase of corrective lenses. Additional revisions add language to support the increase of the public transportation limit from $5,000 to $25,000. Additional, update and remove outdated language and definitions, remove obsolete references, revoke/combine sections to comply with Executive Order 2020-03, which requires state agencies to reduce unnecessary and outdated rules. Revisions will also correct formatting and grammatical errors, as well as align policy with current business practices.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kasie McCarty, Director of Policy, 405-522-7048, kasie.mccarty@okhca.org
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
317:40-1-4.  Remote support (RS)
(a)     General Information. RS services are intended to promote a member's independence. RS services are provided in the member's home, family home, or employment site to reduce reliance on in person support while ensuring the member's health and safety. RS services are included in the member's Individual Plan (Plan) and arrangements for this service are made through the case manager. Authorization to provide RS must be obtained from the Developmental Disabilities Services (DDS) division director or designee.
(1)    RS services are:
(A)    Based on the member's needs as documented and supported by the Plan and Person-Centered Assessment;
(B)    The least-restrictive option and the member's preferred method to meet an assessed need;
(C)    Provided when all adult members of the household; his or her guardians, when applicable; and Personal Support Team (Team) agree to the provision of RS services as documented in the Plan; and
(D)    Reviewed by the Team after sixty (60) calendar days of initial installation to determine continued appropriateness and approval of services.
(2)    RS services are not a system to provide surveillance or for staff convenience.
(b)     Service description. RS is monitoring of an adult member; allowing for live, two-way communication with him or her in his or her residence or employment site, by monitoring staff using one or more of the systems in one (1) through eight (8) that are:of this subsection.
(1)    Live-video feed;.
(2)    Live-audio feed;.
(3)    Motion-sensing monitoring;.
(4)    Radio-frequency identification;.
(5)    Web-based monitoring;.
(6)    Personal Emergency Response System (PERS) ;.
(7)    Global positioning system (GPS) monitoring devices; or.
(8)    Any other device approved by the Developmental Disabilities Services (DDS)DDS director or designee.
(c)     General provider requirements. RS service providers must have a valid Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) SoonerCare (Medicaid) provider agreement to provide agency-based RS services to Oklahoma Human Services (OKDHS) DDS Home-and-Community BasedHome and Community-Based Services (HCBS) Waiver members. Requests for applications to provide RS are made to and approved by OKDHS DDS state officeState Office.
(1)    An assessment for RS Assessmentservices is completed:
(A)    Annually;
(B)    Prior to RS implementation; and
(C)    As required by ongoing progress and needs assessments.
(2)    Each member is required to identify at least two (2) emergency response staff. The member's emergency response staff are documented in his or her Plan.
(3)    RS observation sites are not located in a member's residence.
(4)    The use of camera or video equipment in the member's bedroom or other private area is prohibited.
(5)    RS services are provided in real time by awake staff at a monitoring base using the appropriate connection, not by a recording. While RS is provided the RS staff does not have duties other than remote supportsRS.
(6)    RS equipment used in the member's residence includes a visual indicator to the member that the system is on and operating.
(7)    RS provider agencies must immediately notify in writing, the member's residential provider agency, vocational provider agency, assigned DDS case manager, or guardian of activity in the household, who that could potentially compromise the member's health or safety.
(8)    Emergency response provider agency staff records are maintained, per Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 340:100-3-40.
(9)    RS provider records are maintained for seven (7) calendar years or until any pending litigation involving the service recipient is completed, whichever occurs last and include at a minimum:
(A)    The member's name;
(B)    The staff's name who delivered the service;
(C)    Service dates;
(D)    Service begin and end times;
(E)    Provider's location;
(F)    Description of services provided or observation note;
(G)    Method of contact with member; and
(H)    The member's current photograph.
(10)    RS providers must have:
(A)    Safeguards in place including, but not limited to:
(i)    A battery or generator to insure continued coverage during an electrical outage at the member's home and monitoring facility;
(ii)    Back-up procedures at the member's home and monitoring site for:
(I)    Prolonged power outage;
(II)    Fire;
(III)    Severe weather; and
(IV)    The member's personal emergency.; and
(iii)    The ability to receive alarm notifications, such as home security, smoke, or carbon monoxide at each residence monitored, as assessed by the teamTeam as necessary for health and safety.; and
(B)    Two-way audio communication allowing staff monitors to effectively interact with, and address the member's needs in each residence;
(C)    A secure Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)-compliant network system requiring data authentication, authorization, and encryption to ensure access to computer vision, audio, sensor, or written information is limited to authorized staff or teamTeam members per the Plan;
(D)    A current file for each member receiving RS services including:
(i)    The member's photograph;
(ii)    The member's Plan;
(iii)    The member's demographics; and
(iv)    Any other pertinent data to ensure the member's safety.; and
(E)    Capability to maintain all video and make it available to OKDHS staff upon request for a minimum of twelve (12) calendar months. OKDHS may require an extended timeframe when necessary.
(d)     RS staff requirements. RS staff:
(1)    May not have any assigned duties other than oversight and member support at the time they are monitoring;
(2)    Receive member specific training per the member's Plan prior to providing support to a member;
(3)    Assess urgent situations at a member's home or employment site and call 911 first when deemed necessary; then contact the member's residential provider agency or employment provider agency designated emergency response staff; or the member's natural support designated emergency response person while maintaining contact with the member until persons contacted or emergency response personnel arrive on site;
(4)    Implement the member's Plan as written by the Team and document the member's status at least hourly;
(5)    CompleteCompletes and submitsubmits incident reports, per OAC 340:100-3-34, unless emergency backup staff is engaged;
(6)    ProvideProvides simultaneous support to no more than sixteen (16)thirty (30) members;
(7)    AreIs eighteen (18) years of age and older; and
(8)    AreIs employed by an approved RS agency.
(e)     Emergency response requirement.
(1)    Emergency response staff areis employed by a provider agency with a valid OHCA SoonerCare (Medicaid) provider agreement to provide residential services, vocational services or habilitation training specialist (HTS) services to OKDHS/DDSOKDHS DDS HCBS Waiver members and:
(A)    May not have any assigned duties other than oversight and support of members at the time they are assigned as response staff;
(B)    ReceiveReceives all trainings required, per OAC 340:100-3-38.1, for members in residential settings; OAC 340:100-3-38.2 for members in employment settings; or OAC 340:100-3-38.3, for members in non-residential settings per the Plan prior to providing support;
(C)    ProvideProvides a response on site at the member's residence or employment site within twenty (20) minutes when contacted by RS staff unless a shorter timeframe is indicated in the member's Plan;
(D)    HaveHas an on-call back-up person who responds when the primary response staff engaged at another home or employment site is unable to respond within the specified time frame;
(E)    ProvideProvides written or verbal acknowledgement of a request for assistance from the RS staff;
(F)    CompleteCompletes and document emergency drills with the member quarterly when services are provided in the member's home;
(G)    ImplementImplements the Plan as written and document each time they are contacted to respond, including the nature of the intervention and the duration;
(H)    CompleteCompletes incident reports, per OAC 340:100-3-34; and
(I)    AreIs eighteen (18) years of age and older.
(2)    Natural emergency response persons:
(A)    Are unpaid family members or other interested parties who agree to become, and are approved as, an emergency response person by the member's Team;
(B)    Are available to respond in the case of an emergency within twenty (20) minutes from the time they are contacted by RS staff, unless a shorter response time is indicated in the Plan;
(C)    Have an on-call back-up person who responds when the primary response staff is unable to respond within the specified time frame;
(D)    Provide written or verbal acknowledgement of a request for assistance from the remote supportsRS staff; and
(E)    Are eighteen (18) years of age and older.
(f)     Service limitations. RS is limited to twenty-four (24) hours per day. RS is not provided simultaneously with HTS services, homemaker services, agency companion services, group home services, specialized foster care, respite, intensive personal supports services, daily living supports, per OAC 340:100-5-22.1, or employment services, per OAC 340:100-17group job coaching, or where foster care is provided to children. RS can be provided in conjunction with daily living supports, individual job coaching, employment stabilization services, and center and community based servicesmay not be provided to members receiving specialized foster care or agency companion services, per OAC 340:100-5.22.1, or group home services, per OAC 340:100-6.
(1)    Services not covered include, but are not limited to:
(A)    Direct care staff monitoring;
(B)    Services to persons under the age of eighteen (18); or
(C)    Services provided in any setting other than the member's primary residence or employment site.
(2)    RS services are shared among OKDHS/DDSOKDHS DDS Waiver members of the same household in a residential setting. RS provider agencies may only bill for one (1) member of a household at a time. Only one (1) remote supportsRS provider per household;.
(3)    Assistive technology purchases are authorized, per OAC 317:40-5-100.
(g)     RS Discontinuation. The member and his or her Team determine when it is appropriate to discontinue RS services. When RS services are terminated, the RS provider agency coordinates termination of service with the member's residential provider agency or vocational provider agency and Team to ensure a safe transition. When a member requests the termination of RS services while RS is being provided, the RS staff RS services can be discontinued:
(1)    Notifies the provider to request an emergency response staff;
(2)    Leaves the system operating until the emergency response staff arrives; and
(3)    Turns off the system once relieved by the emergency response staff.
(1)    When the member and member's Team determine it is appropriate to discontinue RS services. When RS services are terminated, the RS provider agency coordinates termination of service with the member's residential or vocational provider agency and Team to ensure a safe transition. When a member requests the termination of RS services while RS is being provided, the RS staff:
(A)    Notifies the provider to request an emergency response staff;
(B)    Leaves the system operating until the emergency response staff arrives; and
(C)    Turns off the system once relieved by the emergency response staff; or
(2)    At the discretion of the RS provider when services do not meet the health or behavioral needs of the individual.
(A)    A thirty (30) calendar day termination notice must be provided to the member and the Team prior to discontinuing services so alternative services can be arranged.
(B)    Services must continue to be provided to the service recipient until the Team confirms all essential services are in place.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Member Services
PART 1.  AGENCY COMPANION SERVICES
317:40-5-3.  Agency companion services (ACS)
(a)    ACS are:
(1)    Provided by agencies that have a provider agreement with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA);
(2)    Provider Agency independent contractors and provide a shared living arrangement developed to meet the member's specific needs that include supervision, supportive assistance, and training in daily living skills, and integrates the member into the shared experiences of a family in a home owned or rented by the companion;
(3)    Available to members eighteen (18) years of age or older who are eligible for services through Community or Homeward Bound Waivers. Persons under eighteen (18) years of age may be served with approval from the Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) Developmental Disabilities Services (DDS) director or designee; and
(4)    Based on the member's need for residential services, per Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 340:100-5-22, and support as described in the member's Individual Plan (Plan), per OAC 340:100-5-50 through 340:100-5-58.
(b)    An agency companion:Households are limited to one (1) individual companion provider. Exceptions for two individual companion providers are allowed in a household when each provides companion services to different members. Exceptions may be approved by the DDS director or designee. Agency companions may not simultaneously serve more than four (4) members through any combination of companion or respite services. An agency companion:
(1)    Must haveHas an approved home profile, per OAC 317:40-5-3, and contract with a DDS-approved provider agency;
(2)    May provide companion services for one (1) member. Exceptions to serve as companion for two (2) members may be approved by the DDS director or designee. Exceptions for up to two (2) members may be approved when members have an existing relationship and to separate them would be detrimental to their well beingwell-being and the companion demonstrates the skill and ability required to serve as companion for two (2) members. Exceptions for additional members may be granted when the DDS director or designee determines an emergency situation exists and there is no other resolution, and the companion demonstrates the skill and ability required to serve as a companion.;
(3)    Household is limited to one (1) individual companion provider. Exceptions for two (2) individual companion providers in a household who each provide companion services to different members may be approved by the DDS director or designee;
(4 3)    May not provide companion services to more than two (2) household members at any time; and
(5)    Household may not simultaneously serve more than four (4) members through any combination of companion or respite services.
(64)    May not have employment, volunteer activities, or personal commitments that prevent the companion from fulfilling his or her responsibilities to the member, per OAC 317:40-5.
(A)    The companion may have employment when:
(i)    Employment is approved in advance by the DDS area residential services programprograms manager;
(ii)    Companion'sThe companion's employment does not require on-call duties and occurs during time the member is engaged in outside activities such as school, employment or other routine scheduled meaningful activities; and
(iii)    Companion provides assuranceThe companion ensures the employment is such that the member's needs will beare met by the companion shouldif the member's outside activities beare disrupted.
(B)    If, after receiving approval for employment, authorized DDS staff determines the employment interferes with the care, training, or supervision needed by the member, the companion must terminate, within thirty (30) calendar days:
(i)    His or her employment; or
(ii)    His or her contract as an agency companion.
(C)    Homemaker, habilitation training specialist, and respite services are not provided for the companion to maintain employment.
(c)    Each member may receive up to sixty (60) calendar days per year of therapeutic leave without reduction in the agency companion's payment.
(1)    Therapeutic leave:
(A)    Is a SoonerCare (Medicaid) payment made to the contract provider to enable the member to retain services; and
(B)    Is claimed when the:
(i)    Member does not receive ACS for twenty-four (24) consecutive hours due to:
(I)    A visit with family or friends without the companion;
(II)    Vacation without the companion; or
(III)    Hospitalization regardless of whether the companion is present; or
(ii)    Companion uses authorized respite time; and
(C)    Is limited to no more than fourteen (14) consecutive, calendar days per event, not to exceed sixty (60) calendar days per Plan of Care (POC) year; and
(D)    Cannot be carried over from one (1) POC year to the next.
(2)    The therapeutic leave daily rate is the same amount as the ACS per diem rate.
(3)    The provider agency pays the agency companion the payment he or she would earn if the member were not on therapeutic leave.
(d)    The companion may receive a combination of hourly or daily respite per POC year equal to seven-hundred and twenty (720) hours.
(1)    The daily respite rate is used when respite is provided for a full twenty-four (24) hour day. A day is defined as the period between 12:00 am and 11:59 pm.
(2)    The hourly respite rate is used when respite is provided for a partial day.
(3)    The provider may serve more than one (1) member through shared staffing, but may not bill HTS or the hourly respite rate for multiple members at the same time.
(e)    Habilitation Training Specialisttraining specialist (HTS) services:
(1)    May be approved by the DDS director or designee when providing ACS with additional support represents the most cost-effective placement for the member when there is an ongoing pattern of the member not:
(A)    Sleeping at night; or
(B)    Working or attending employment, educational, or day services; and
(2)    May be approved when a time-limited situation exists in which the companion provider is unable to provide ACS, and the provision of HTS will maintainmaintains the placement or provideprovides needed stability for the member, and must be reduced when the situation changes;
(3)    Must be reviewed annually or more frequently as needed, which includes a change in agencies or individual companion providers; and
(4)    Must be documented by the Personal Support Team (Team) and the Team must continue efforts to resolve the need for HTS.
(f)    The contractor model does not include funding for the provider agency for the provision of benefits to the companion.
(g)    The agency receives a daily rate based on the member's level of support. Levels of support for the member and corresponding payment are:
(1)    Determined by authorized DDS staff per levels described in (A) through(D); andOAC 317:40-5-3(g)(2)(A) through (C); and
(2)    Re-evaluated when the member has a change in agencyindividual companion providers that includes a change in individual companion providers.
(A)     Intermittent level of support. Intermittent level of support is authorized when the member:
(i)    Requires minimal physical assistance with basic daily living skills, such as bathing, dressing, and eating;
(ii)    May be able to spend short periods of time unsupervised inside and outside the home; and
(iii)    Requires assistance with medication administration, money management, shopping, housekeeping, meal preparation, scheduling appointments, arranging transportation or other activities.
(BA)     Close level of support. Close level of support is authorized when the member requires the level of assistance outlined in (g)(2)(A) and assistance in at least two (2) of the following:services in (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph.
(i)    Regular frequent, and sometimes constant physical assistance and support to completeMinimal to extensive assistance to complete daily living skills, such as bathing, dressing, eating, and toileting;.
(ii)    Extensive assistance with medication administration, money management, shopping, housekeeping, meal preparation, scheduling appointments, arranging transportation or other activities; or.
(iii)    Assistance with health, medication, or behavior interventions that may include the need for specialized training, equipment, and diet.
(CB)     Enhanced level of support. Enhanced level of support is authorized when the member requires the level of assistance outlined in (g)(2)(B)(A) and meets at least one (1) of the followingcriteria in (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph. The member:
(i)    Is totally dependent on others for:
(I)    Completion of daily living skills, such as bathing, dressing, eating, and toileting; and
(II)    Medication administration, money management, shopping, housekeeping, meal preparation, scheduling appointments, and arranging transportation or other activities; or
(ii)    Demonstrates ongoing complex medical issues requiring specialized training courses, per OAC 340:100-5-26; or
(iii)    Has behavioral issues that requiresrequire a protective intervention protocol (PIP) with a restrictive or intrusive procedure, per OAC 340:100-1-2. The PIP must:
(I)    Be approved by the Statewide Human Rights Behavior Review Committee (SHRBRC), per OAC 340:100-3-14; or
(II)    Have received expeditedtemporary approval, per OAC 340:100-5-57;.
(iv)    Meets the requirements of (g)(2)(C)(i) through (ivii); and does not have an available personal support system. The need for this service level:
(I)    Must be identified by the grand staffing committee, per OAC 340:75-8-40; and
(II)    Requires the provider to market, recruit, screen, and train potential companions for the member identified.
(DC)     Pervasive level of support. Pervasive level of support requires the level of assistance outlined in (g)(2)(C), and is authorized when the member is in OKDHS Child Welfare Services custody and efforts to place in traditional foster care have failed due to the extensive level of support required by the member. It is reevaluated only when the member is eighteen (18) years of age or older and his or her individual companion provider changes.
(i)    This level of support may continue to be authorized when the member requires:
(I)    The level of assistance outlined in (g)(2)(B); and
(II)    Additional professional level support to remain in an agency companion setting due to pervasive behavioral or emotional challenges.
(iii)    Requires additional professional level support to remain in an agency companion setting due to pervasive behavioral or emotional challenges. The support must be providedProviders of this level of support:
(I)    ByDeliver direct support to the companion by a licensed or certified behavioral health professional counselor (LPC) or professional with a minimum of Masters of Social Work (MSW) degreea master's degree; and
(II)    As ongoingProvide ongoing support and training to the companion, offering best practice approaches in dealing with specific members; and
(III)    AsProvide professional level and ongoing support as part of the ACS and not billed as a separate service. Waiver services may be authorized for the development of a PIP, per OAC 340:100-5-57; and
(IV)    Market, recruit, screen, and train potential companions for the identified member.
(ii)    Does not have an available personal support system. The need for this service level:
(I)    Must be identified by the grand staffing committee, per OAC 340:75-8-40; and
(II)    Requires the provider to market, recruit, screen, and train potential companions for the member identified.
(h)    Authorization for payment of ACS is contingent upon receipt of:
(1)    The applicant's approval letter authorizing ACS for the identified member;
(2)    An approved relief and emergency back-up plan addressing a back-up location and provider;
(3)    The Plan;
(4)    The POC; and
(5)    The date the member is scheduled to move to the companionscompanion's home. When a member transitions from a DDS placement funded by a pier diem the incoming provider may request eight (8) hours of HTS for the first day of service.
(i)    The Plan reflects the amount of room and board the member pays to the companion. The provider must use the room and board reimbursement payment to meet the member's needs. Items purchased with the room and board reimbursement payment include housing and food.
(j)    The room and board payment may include all but one-hundred and fifty dollars ($150) per month of the service recipient'smember's income, up to a maximum of ninety (90) percent of the current minimum Supplemental Security Income (SSI) payment for a single individual.
PART 5.  SPECIALIZED FOSTER CARE STANDARDS
317:40-5-50.  Purpose of Specialized Foster Care Scope(SFC)
(a)    Specialized Foster Care (SFC)SFC provides up to 24twenty-four (24) hours per day of in-home residential habilitation services funded through the Community Waiver or the Homeward Bound Waiver. SFC serves individuals ages three (3) years of age and older. SFC provides an individualized living arrangement in a family setting including up to 24twenty-four (24) hours per day of supervision, supportive assistance, and training in daily living skills.
(b)    SFC is provided in a setting that best meets the member's specialized needs of the service recipient.
(c)    Members in SFC have a written plan that addresses visitation, reunification, or permanency planning, and which may also address guardianship as the member approaches eighteen (18) years of age.
(d)    As per the requirements in (1) through (4) of this subsection, SFC providers:
(1)    Are approved through the home profile process described in Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 317:40-5-40;
(2)    Have a current Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) Waiver contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority; and
(3)    Have a current Fixed Rate Foster Home Contract for room and board reimbursement with Developmental Disabilities Services (DDS) when:
(A)    The SFC member is a child; or
(B)    Required by the adult member'sSFC recipient's Personal Support Team (Team).
(e)    A child in Oklahoma Human Services (OKDHS) or tribal custody who is determined eligible for HCBS Waiver services, per OAC 317:40-1-1, is eligible to receive SFC services if the child's special needs cannot be met in a Child Welfare Services (CWS) foster home.
(1)    SFC provides a temporary, stable, nurturing, and safe home environment for the child while OKDHS plans for reunification with the child's family.
(2)    In the event reunification is not achievable, SFC may be provided on a long-term basis while other more permanent living arrangements are sought.
(3)    When the court has established a specific visitation plan, the CWS specialist informs the SFC provider, the member, the DDS case manager, and the natural family of the visitation plan.
(A)    The SFC provider cooperates with the visitation plan between the child and family as prescribed by the court or the member's Team.
(B)    The reunification effort is the joint responsibility of the:
(i)    CWS worker;
(ii)    DDS case manager;
(iii)    Natural family; and
(iv)    SFC family.
(C)    For children in OKDHS custody, CWS and DDS work together to determine the need for guardianship. When it has been established that a legal guardian is in the child's best interest, both programs work together to locate a guardian.
(f)    SFC is a temporary service provided to children who are not in OKDHS custody when SFC services are needed to prevent institutionalization.
(1)    SFC intent is to allow the member's family relief that cannot be satisfied by respite services provisions or other in-home supportsSFC is intended to allow relief for the member's family that cannot be satisfied by respite services provisions or other in-home supports.
(2)    SFC provides a nurturing, substitute home environment for the member while plans are made to reunify the family.
(3)    Visitation with the family is a part of the reunification efforts for non-custody children. Visitation must not be intrusive to the SFC home.
(4)    Parents of a child receiving SFC services must comply with the requirements listed in (A) through (D) of this paragraph.
(A)    Natural or adoptive parents retain the responsibility for their child's ongoing involvement and support while the child is in SFC.
(i)    The parents are required to sign a written agreement allowing OKDHS to serve as the representative payee for the child's Social Security Administration (SSA) benefits, other government benefits, and court-authorized child support.
(ii)    SSA and other government benefits, and child support are used to pay for room and board.. HCBS services do not pay for room and board maintenance.
(B)    Parental responsibilities of a child receiving voluntary SFC are to:
(i)    Provide respite to the SFC provider;
(ii)    Provide transportation to and from parental visitation;
(iii)    Provide a financial contribution toward their child's support;
(iv)    Provide in kind supports, such as disposable undergarments, if needed, clothing, recreation, birthday and holiday presents, school supplies, and allowances or personal spending money;
(v)    Follow the visitation plan as outlined by the member's Team, per OAC 317:40-5-52;
(vi)    Maintain ongoing communication with the member and SFC provider by letters, telephone calls, video conferencing, or email;
(vii)    Be available in an emergency;
(viii)    Work toward reunification when appropriate;
(ix)    Provide written consent for medical treatments as appropriate;
(x)    Attend medical appointments, when possible, and keep informed of the member's health status;
(xi)    Participate in the member's education plan per Oklahoma State Department of Education regulations; and
(xii)    Be present for all Team meetings.
(C)    When moving out of Oklahoma, parents of a child receiving voluntary SFC are responsible for taking their minor child with them, since the child is no longer eligible for services because he or she is no longer an Oklahoma resident.
(D)    For children eighteen (18) years of age and younger, the case manager reports to CWS if the family moves out of Oklahoma without taking their child with them or if the family cannot be located.
(g)    SFC is an appropriate living arrangement for many adults. The decision to use SFC for an adult is based on the member's need for residential support as described in the member's Individual Plan (Plan).
(1)    In general, SFC is appropriate for members who have not experienced family life. A child served in SFC may continue to receive services in the home indefinitely after turning 18eighteen (18) years of age.
(2)    The member who receives SFC services lives in the provider's home.
(3)    Visitation with the adult member's family is encouraged and arranged according to the member's preference. Visitation is not intrusive to the SFC home.
(h)    When natural or other unpaid supports are not available, the SFC provider may request respite support.
(1)    Respite units do not replace the responsibilities of the SFC provider on a regular basis.
(2)    All respite units must be justified in the member's Plan process.
(3)    No more than seven-hundred and twenty (720) hours annually may be authorized unless approved by the DDS director or designee.
(A)    The daily respite rate is used when respite is provided for a full twenty-four (24) hour day. A day is defined as the period between 12:00 a.m. and 11:59 p.m..
(B)    The hourly respite rate is used when respite is provided for a partial day.
(C)    The provider may serve more than one (1) member through shared staffing, but may not bill habilitation training specialist (HTS) services or the hourly respite rate for multiple members at the same time.
(4)    No spouse or other adult living in the provider household may serve as paid respite staff.
(5)    Consideration is given to authorizing additional respite hours when providing additional relief represents the most cost-effective placement for the member and:
(A)    There are multiple members living in the home;
(B)    The member has an on-going pattern of not sleeping at night; or
(C)    The member has an on-going pattern of not working or attending employment services, in spite of continuing efforts by the Team.
(i)    HTS services may be approved by the DDS director or designee when providing SFC with additional staffing support represents the most cost-effective placement for the member when:
(1)    There is an ongoing pattern of not sleeping at night; or
(2)    There is an ongoing pattern of not working or attending employment, educational, or day services;
(3)    There are multiple members living in the home;
(4)    A time-limited situation exists in which the foster parent is unable to provide SFC, and the provision of HTS maintains the placement or provides needed stability for the member, and must be reduced when the situation changes;
(5)    Must be reviewed annually or more frequently as needed; and
(6)    Must be documented by the Team and the Team must continue efforts to resolve the need for HTS.
(j)    A member may receive therapeutic leave for no more than fourteen (14) consecutive days per event, not to exceed sixty (60) calendar days per Plan of Care year.
(1)    The payment for a day of therapeutic leave is the same amount as the per diem rate for SFC services.
(2)    Therapeutic leave is claimed when the member does not receive SFC services for twenty-four (24) consecutive hours from 12:00 am to 11:59 pm because of:
(A)    A visit with family or friends without the SFC provider;
(B)    Vacation without the SFC provider; or
(C)    Hospitalization.
317:40-5-60.  Relief support for providers of Specialized Foster Care  [REVOKED]
     When natural or other unpaid supports are not available, the Specialized Foster Care (SFC) provider may request relief support.
(1)    Relief units do not replace the responsibilities of the SFC provider on a regular basis.
(2)    All relief units must be justified in the service recipient's Plan process.
(3)    No more than 720 hours annually may be authorized unless approved by the Developmental Disabilities Services Division director or designee.
(4)    No spouse or other adult living in the provider household may serve as paid relief staff.
(5)    Consideration is given to authorizing additional relief hours when providing additional relief represents the most cost-effective placement for the service recipient and:
(A)    there are multiple service recipients living in the home;
(B)    the service recipient has an on-going pattern of not sleeping at night; or
(C)    the service recipient has an on-going pattern of not working or attending employment services, in spite of continuing efforts by the Team.
PART 9.  SERVICE PROVISIONS
317:40-5-100.  Assistive technology (AT) devices and services
(a)     Applicability. This Section applies to AT services and devices authorized by Oklahoma Department of Human Services OKDHS(OKDHS) Developmental Disabilities Services (DDS) through Home and Community BasedCommunity-Based Services (HCBS) Waivers.
(b)     General information.
(1)    AT devices include the purchase, rental, customization, maintenance, and repair of devices, controls, and appliances. AT devices include:
(A)    Visual alarms;
(B)    Telecommunication devices (TDDS);
(C)    Telephone amplifying devices;
(D)    Devices for the protection of health and safety of members who are deaf or hard of hearing;
(E)    Tape recorders;
(F)    Talking calculators;
(G)    Specialized lamps;
(H)    Magnifiers;
(I)    Braille writers;
(J)    Braille paper;
(K)    Talking computerized devices;
(L)    Devices for the protection of health and safety of members who are blind or visually impaired;
(M)    Augmentative and alternative communication devices including language board and electronic communication devices;
(N)    Competence-based cause and effect systems, such as switches;
(O)    Mobility and positioning devices including:
(i)    Wheelchairs;
(ii)    Travel chairs;
(iii)    Walkers;
(iv)    Positioning systems;
(v)    Ramps;
(vi)    Seating systems;
(vii)    Standers;
(viii)    Lifts;
(ix)    Bathing equipment;
(x)    Specialized beds; and
(xi)    Specialized chairs; and
(P)    Orthotic and prosthetic devices, including:
(i)    Braces;
(ii)    Precribed modified shoes; and
(iii)    Splints; and
(Q)    Environmental controls or devices;
(R)    Items necessary for life support, and devices necessary for the proper functioning of such items, including durable and non-durable medical equipment not available through SoonerCare (Medicaid); and
(S)    DevicesEnabling technology devices to protect the member's health and safety or support increased independence in the home, employment site or community can include, but are not limited to:
(i)    Motion sensors;
(ii)    Smoke and carbon monoxide alarms;
(iii)    Bed and/oror chair sensors;
(iv)    Door and window sensors;
(v)    Pressure sensors in mats on the floor;
(vi)    Stove guards or oven shut off systems;
(vii)    Live web-based remote supports;
(viii)    Cameras;
(ix)    Automated medicationMedication dispenser systems;
(x)    Software to operate accessories included for environmental control;
(xi)    Software applications;
(xii)    Personal Emergency Response Systems (PERS) or Mobile;mobile;
(xiii)    Emergency Response Systems (MER);
(xiv)    Global positioning system (GPS) monitoring devices;
(xv)    Radio frequency identification;
(xvi)    Computers, smart watches and tablets; and
(xvii)    Any other device approved by the Developmental; andDDS director or designee;
(xviii)    Disabilities Services (DDS) director or designee.
(T)    Eye glasses lenses, frames or visual aids.
(2)    AT services include:
(A)    Sign language interpreter services for members who are deaf;
(B)    Reader services;
(C)    AuxillaryAuxiliary aids;
(D)    Training the member and provider in the use and maintenance of equipment and auxiliary aids;
(E)    Repair of AT devices; and
(F)    Evaluation of the member's AT needs.; and
(G)    Eye examinations.
(3)    AT devices and services must be included in the member's Individual Plan (IP)(Plan), prescribed by a physician, or appropriate medical professional with a SoonerCare (Medicaid) contract, and arrangements for this HCBS service must be made through the member's case manager.
(4)    AT devices are provided by vendors with a Durable Medical Equipment (DME)durable medical equipment or other appropriate contract with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA).
(5)    AT devices and services are authorized in accordance withper requirements of Thethe Oklahoma Central Purchasing Act, other applicable statutory provisions, Oklahoma Administrative Code OAC(OAC) 580:15 and OKDHS-approved purchasing procedures.
(6)    AT services are provided by an appropriate professional services provider with a current HCBS contract with OHCA and current, unrestricted licensure and certification with their professional board, when applicable.
(7)    AT devices or services may be authorized when the device or service:
(A)    Has no utility apart from the needs of the person receiving services;
(B)    Is not otherwise available through SoonerCare (Medicaid) an AT retrieval program, the Oklahoma Department of RehabilitativeRehabilitation Services, or any other third party or known community resource;
(C)    Has no less expensive equivalent that meets the member's needs;
(D)    Is not solely for family or staff convenience or preference;
(E)    Is based on the assessment and Personal Support Team (Team) consideration of the member's unique needs;
(F)    Is of direct medical or remedial benefit to the member;
(G)    Enables the member to maintain, increase, or improve functional capabilities;
(H)    Is supported by objective documentation included in a professional assessment, except as specified, per OAC 317:40-5-100;
(I)    Is within the scope of assistive technologyAT, per OAC 317:40-5-100;
(J)    Is the most appropriate and cost effective bid, when applicable; andor
(K)    Exceeds a cost of seventy-five dollars ($75) AT devices or services with a cost of seventy-five dollars ($75) or less, are not authorized through DDS HCBS Waivers.
(8)    The homeowner must sign a written agreement for any AT equipment that attaches to the home or property.
(c)     Assessments. Recommendations for enabling technology devices are completed by the DDS programs manager for remote supports or their designee. Assessments for AT devices or services are performed by a licensed, professional service provider and reviewed by other providers whose services may be affected by the device selected. A licensed, professional service provider must:
(1)    Determine if the member's identified outcome can be accomplished through the creative use of other resources, such as:
(A)    Household items or toys;
(B)    Equipment loan programs;
(C)    Low-technology devices or other less intrusive options; or
(D)    A similar, more cost-effective device; and
(2)    Recommend the most appropriate AT based on the member's:
(A)    Present and future needs, especially for members with degenerative conditions;
(B)    History of use of similar AT, and his or her current ability to use the deviceand for the next five (5) years; and
(C)    Outcomes; and
(3)    Complete an assessment, including a decision making review and device trial that provides supporting documentation for purchase, rental, customization, or fabrication of an AT device. Supporting documentation must include:
(A)    A device review;
(B)    Availability of the device rental with discussion of advantages and disadvantages;
(C)    How frequently and in what situations the device will beis used in daily activities and routines;
(D)    How the member and caregiver(s) will beare trained to safely use the AT device; and
(E)    The features and specifications of the device necessary for the member, including rationale for why other alternatives are not available to meet the member's needs; and
(4)    Upon DDS staff's request, provide a current, unedited video or photographs of the member using the device, including recorded trial time frames.
(d)     Repairs and placement part authorization. AT device repairs or parts replacements, do not require a professional assessment or recommendation. DDS resource development staff with assistive technologyAT experience may authorize repairs and replacement of parts for previously recommended AT.
(e)     AT device retrieval. When a member no longer needs an AT device, OKDHS DDS staff may retrieve the device.
(f)     Team decision-making process. The member's Team reviews the licensed professional's assessment and decision-making review. The Team ensures the recommended AT:
(1)    Is needed by the member to achieve a specific, identified functional outcome.
(A)    A functional outcome, in this Section, means the activity is meaningful to the member, occurs on a frequent basis, and would require assistance from others, if the member could not perform the activity independently, such as self-care, assistance with eating, or transfers.
(B)    Functional outcomes must be reasonable and necessary given a member's age, diagnosis, and abilities; and
(2)    Allows the member receiving services to:
(A)    Improve or maintain health and safety;
(B)    Participate in community life;
(C)    Express choices; or
(D)    Participate in vocational training or employment; and
(3)    Will beIs used frequently or in a variety of situations;
(4)    WillIs easily fit into the member's lifestyle and work place;
(5)    Is specific to the member's unique needs; and
(6)    Is not authorized solely for family or staff convenience.
(g)     Requirements and standards for AT devices and service providers.
(1)    Providers guarantee devices, work, and materials for one (1) calendar year, and supply necessary follow-up evaluation to ensure optimum usability.
(2)    Providers ensure a licensed occupational therapist, physical therapist, speech therapist, or rehabilitation engineer evaluates the need for AT, and individually customizes AT devices.
(h)     Services not covered through AT devices and services. AT devices and services do not include:
(1)    Trampolines;
(2)    Hot tubs;
(3)    Bean bag chairs;
(4)    Recliners with lift capabilities;
(5)    Computers, except as adapted for individual needs as a primary means of oral communication, and approved, per OAC 317:40-5-100;
(6)    Massage tables;
(7)    Educational games and toys; or
(8)    Generators.
(i)     AT approval or denial. DDS approval, conditional approval for pre-determined trial use, or denial of the purchase, rental, or lease or purchase of the AT is determined, per OAC 317:40-5-100.
(1)    The DDS case manager sends the AT request to designated DDS AT-experienced resource development staff. The request must include:
(A)    The licensed professional's assessment and decision making review;
(B)    A copy of the Plan of Care (POC);
(C)    DocumentaionDocumentation of the current Team consensus, including consideration of issues, per OAC 317:40-5-100; and
(D)    All additional documentation to support the AT device or service need.
(2)    The designated AT-experienced resource development staff approves or denies the AT request when the device costs less than $5000.
(3)    The State Office programs manager for AT approves or denies the AT request when the device has a cost of $5000 or more. When authorization of an AT device of $5000 or more is requested:
(A)    The AT-experienced resource development staff:
(i)    Solicits three (3) AT bids; and
(ii)    Submits the AT request, bids, and other relevant information identified in (1) of this subsection to the State Office DDS AT programs manager or designee within five (5) business days of receipt of the required bids; and
(B)    The State Office DDS AT programs manager or designee issues a letter of authorization, a written denial, or a request for additional information within five (5) business days of receipt of all required AT documentation.
(4)    Authorization for purchase or a written denial is provided within ten (10) business days of receipt of a complete request:.
(A)    If the AT is approved, a letter of authorization is issued;.
(B)    If additional documentation is required by the AT-experienced resource development staff, to authorize the recommended AT, the request packet is returned to the case manager for completion;.
(C)    When necessary, the case manager contacts the licensed professional to request the additional documentation; and.
(D)    The authorization of an AT device of $5000 or more is completed per (2) of this subsection, and the AT-experienced resource development staff with:
(i)    Solicits three (3) AT bids;
(ii)    Submits the AT request, bids, and other relevant information to the State Office DDS AT programs manager or designee within five (5) business days of receipt of the required bids; and
(iii)    The State Office DDS AT programs manager or designee issues a letter of authorization, a written denial, or a request for additional information within five (5) business days of receipt of all required AT documentation.
(j)     Vehicle approval adaptations. Vehicle adaptations are assessed and approved, per OAC 317:40-5-100. In addition, the requirements in (1) through (3) of this subsection must be met.
(1)    The vehicle must be owned or in the process of being purchased by the member receiving services or his or her family in order to be adapted.
(2)    The AT request must include a certified mechanic's statement that the vehicle and adaptations are mechanically sound.
(3)    Vehicle adaptations are limited to one vehicle in a ten (10) year period per member. Authorization for more than one vehicle adaptation in a ten (10) year period must be approved by the DDS director or designee.
(k)     Eye glasses and eye exams. Routine eye examination or the purchase of corrective lenses for members twenty-one (21) years of age and older, not covered by SoonerCare (Medicaid), may be authorized for the purpose of prescribing glasses or visual aids, determination of refractive state, treatment of refractive errors, or purchase of lenses, frames, or visual aids. Payment can be made to a licensed optometrist who has a current contract on file with OHCA for services within the scope of Optometric practice as defined by the appropriate State law; provided, however, that services performed by out-of-state providers are only compensable to the extent that they are covered services.
(kl)     AT denial. Procedures for denial of an AT device or service are described in (1) through (3) of this subsection.
(1)    The person denying the AT request provides a written denial to the case manager citing the reason for denial, per OAC 317:40-5-100.
(2)    The case manager sends OKDHS Form 06MP004E, Notice of Action, to the member and his or her family or guardian.
(3)    AT service denials may be appealed through the OKDHS hearing process, per OAC 340:2-5.
(lm)     AT device returns. When, during a trial use period or rental of a device, the therapist or Team including the licensed professional who recommended the AT and, when available, determines the device is not appropriate, the licensed professional sends a brief report describing the change of device recommendation to the DDS case manager. The DDS case manager forwards the report to the designated resource development staff, who arranges for the equipment return to the vendor or manufacturer.
(mn)     AT device rental. AT devices are rented when the licensed professional or AT-experienced resource development staffdeterminesstaff determines rental of the device is more cost effective than purchasing the device or the licensed professional recommends a trial period to determine if the device meets the member's needs.
(1)    The rental period begins on the date the manufacturer or vendor delivers the equipment to the member, unless otherwise stated in advance by the manufacturer or vendor.
(2)    AT-experienced resource development staff monitor use of equipment during the rental agreement for:
(A)    Rental time frame cost effectiveness;
(B)    Renewal conditions; and
(C)    The Team's, including the licensed professional's re-evaluation of the member's need for the device, per OAC 317:40-5-100.
(3)    Rental costs are applied toward the purchase price of the device when the option is available from the manufacturer or vendor.
(4)    When a device is rented for a trial-use period, the Team including the licensed professional, decides within ninety (90) calendar days whether the device:
(A)    Meets the member's needs; and
(B)    ShouldNeeds to be purchased or returned.
(no)     AT committee. The AT committee reviews equipment requests when deemed necessary by the OKDHS DDS State Office AT programs manager.
(1)    The AT committee is comprised of:
(A)    DDS professional staff members of the appropriate therapy;
(B)    DDS State Office AT programs manager;
(C)    The DDS area field administrator or designee; and
(D)    An AT expert, not employed by OKDHS.
(2)    The AT committee performs a paper review, providing technical guidance, oversight, and consultation.
(3)    The AT committee may endorse or recommend denial of a device or service, based on criteria provided in this Section. Any endorsement or denial includes a written rationale for the decision and, when necessary, an alternative solution, directed to the case manager within twenty (20) business days of the receipt of the request. Requests reviewed by the AT committee result in suspension of time frames specified, per OAC 317:40-5-100.
317:40-5-102.  Nutrition Servicesservices
(a)     Applicability. The rules in this Section apply to nutrition services authorized for members who receive services through Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) Waivers operated by the Oklahoma Department of Human Services (OKDHS) Developmental Disabilities Services Division(DDSD)(DDS).
(b)     General information. Nutrition services include nutritional evaluation and consultation to members and their caregivers, are intended to maximize the member's health and are provided in any community setting as specified in the member's Individual Plan (IP)(Plan). Nutrition services must be prior authorized, included in the member's Individual Plan (IP) and arrangements for this service must be made through the member's case manager. Nutrition service contract providers must be licensed in the state where they practice and registered as a dietitian with the Commission of Dietetic Registration. Each dietitian must have a current provider agreement with the Oklahoma Health Care Authority (OHCA) to provide Home and Community Based ServicesHCBS, and a SoonerCare (Medicaid) provider agreement for nutrition services. Nutrition Servicesservices are provided per Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 340:100-3-33.1. In order for the member to receive Waiver-funded nutrition services, the requirements in this Section must be fulfilled.
(1)    The member must be assessed by the case manager to have a possible eating problem or nutritional risk.
(2)    The member must have a physician's order for nutrition services current within one year.an order for nutrition services current within one (1) year signed by a medical or osteopathic physician, physician assistant, or other licensed health care professional with prescriptive authority.
(3)    Per OAC 340:100-5-50 through 58, the teamPersonal Support Team (Team) identifies and addresses member needs.
(4)    Nutrition services may include evaluation, planning, consultation, training and monitoring.
(5)    A legally competent adult or legal guardian who has been informed of the risks and benefits of the service has the right to refuse nutrition services per OAC 340:100-3-11. Refusal of nutrition services must be documented in the Individual Plan.
(6)    A minimum of 15fifteen (15) minutes for encounter and record documentation is required.
(7)    A unit is 15fifteen (15) minutes.
(8)    Nutrition services are limited to 192one hundred ninety-two (192) units per Plan of Care year.
(c)     Evaluation. When arranged by the case manager, the nutrition services contract provider evaluates the member's nutritional status and completes the Level of Nutritional Risk Assessment.
(1)    The evaluation must include, but is not limited to:
(A)    health,Health, diet, and behavioral history impacting on nutrition;
(B)    clinicalClinical measures including body composition and physical assessment.;
(C)    dietaryDietary assessment, including:
(i)    nutrientNutrient needs;
(ii)    eatingEating skills;
(iii)    nutritionalNutritional intake; and
(iv)    drug-nutrientDrug-nutrient interactions; and
(D)    recommendationsRecommendations to address nutritional risk needs, including:
(i)    outcomes;Outcomes;
(ii)    strategies;Strategies;
(iii)    staffStaff training; and
(iv)    programProgram monitoring and evaluation.
(2)    The nutrition services contract provider and other involved professionals make recommendations for achieving positive nutritional outcomes based on the risks identified on the OKDHS Form 06HM040E, Level of Nutritional Risk Assessment.
(3)    The nutrition services contract provider sends a copy of the Level of Nutritional Risk Assessment to the case manager within ten (10)working days of receipt of the authorization.
(4)    If the evaluation shows the member rated as High Nutritional Risk, the nutrition services contract provider sends a copy of the Level of Nutritional Risk Assessment to the DDSDDDS area nutrition therapist or DDSDDDS area professional support services designee as well as the case manager within 10 workingten (10) business days of receipt of the authorization.
(d)     Planning. The DDSDDDS case manager, in conjunction with the Team, reviews the identified nutritional risks that impact the member's life.
(1)    Desired nutritional outcomes are developed and integrated into the Individual Plan using the least restrictive, least intrusive, most normalizing measures that can be carried out across environments.
(2)    The Team member(s) identified responsible in the Individual Plan develops methods to support the nutritional outcomes, which may include:
(A)    Stragegies;Strategies;
(B)    Staff training; or
(C)    Program monitoring.
(3)    When the member has been receiving nutrition services and nutritional status is currently stable and the Team specifies that nutrition services are no longer needed, the Team will identifyidentifies individual risk factors for the member that would indicate consideration of the resumption of nutrition services and assigns responsibility to a named Team Member(s) for monitoring and reporting the members status regarding these factors.
(4)    Any member who receives paid 24twenty-four (24) hour per day supports and requires constant physical assistance and mealtime intervention to eat safely, or is identified for risk of choking or aspiration must have an individualized mealtime assistance plan developed and reviewed at least annually by the Team member(s) identified responsible in the Individual Plan. Team members may include a nutrition services contract provider and a speech therapy contract provider or occupational therapy contract provider with swallowing expertise (mealtime therapists). Documentation should delineatedelineates responsibilities to insure there is no duplication of services. The mealtime assistance plan includes but is not limited to:
(A)    aA physician ordered diet;
(B)    dietDiet instructions;
(C)    positioningPositioning needs;
(D)    assistiveAssistive technology needs;
(E)    communicationCommunication needs;
(F)    eatingEating assistance techniques;
(G)    supervisionSupervision requirements;
(H)    documentationDocumentation requirements;
(I)    monitoringMonitoring requirements; and
(J)    trainingTraining and assistance.
(5)    For those members receiving paid 24twenty-four (24) hour per day supports and nutrition through a feeding tube, the Team develops and implements strategies for tube feeding administration that enables members to receive nutrition in the safest manner and for oral care that enables optimal oral hygiene and oral-motor integrity as deemed possible per OAC 340:100-5-26. The Team reviews the member's ability to return to oral intake following feeding tube placement and annually thereafter in accordance with the member's needs.
(e)     Implementation, Consultation and Training. Strategies are implemented by the assigned person within a designated time frame established by the Team based on individual need(s).
(1)    Direct support staff members are trained per the Individual Plan and OAC 340:100-3-38.
(2)    All special diets, nutritional supplements, and aids to digestion and elimination must be prescribed and reviewed at least annually by a physician.
(3)    Consultation to members and their caregivers is provided as specified in the IPPlan.
(4)    Program documentation is maintained in the member's home record for the purpose of evaluation and monitoring.
(5)    The contract professional provider(s) sends documentation regarding the member's program concerns, recommendations for remediation of any problem area and progress notes to the case manager per OAC 340:100-5-52.
(A)    The designated professional(s) reviews the program data submitted for:
(i)    completeness;completeness;
(ii)    consistencyConsistency of implementation; and
(iii)    positivePositive outcomes.
(B)    When a member is identified by the Level of Nutritional Risk Assessment to be at high nutritional risk, he or she receives increased monitoring by the nutrition services contract provider and health care coordinator, as determined necessary by the Team.
(C)    Significant changes in nutritional status must be reported to the case manager by the health care coordinator.
(D)    The Level of Nutritional Risk Assessment:
(i)    isIs used by the nutrition services contract provider to reassess members at high risk on a quarterly basis; and
(ii)    mustMust be submitted by the nutrition services contract provider to the DDSDDDS area nutrition therapist or DDSDDDS area professional support services designee within 15fifteen (15) calendar days following the end of each quarter.
317:40-5-103.  Transportation
(a)     Applicability. The rules in this Section apply to transportation services provided through the Oklahoma Department of Human Services (DHS), Developmental Disabilities Services (DDS); Home and Community BasedCommunity-Based Services (HCBS) Waivers.
(b)     General Information. Transportation services include adapted, non-adapted, and public transportation.
(1)    Transportation services are provided to promote inclusion in the community, access to programs and services, and participation in activities to enhance community living skills. Members are encouraged to utilize natural supports or community agencies that can provide transportation without charge before accessing transportation services.
(2)    Services include, but are not limited to, transportation to and from medical appointments, work or employment services, recreational activities, and other community activities within the number of miles authorized in the Plan of Care (POC).
(A)    Adapted or non-adapted transportation may be provided for each eligible person.
(B)    Public transportation may be provided up to a maximum of $5,000$15,000 per Plan of CarePOC year. The DDS director or designee may approve requests for public transportation services totaling more than $5,000$15,000 per year when public transportation promotes the member's independence, is the most cost-effective option or only service option available for necessary transportation. For the purposes of this Section, public transportation is defined as:
(i)    services,Services, such as an ambulance when medically necessary, a bus, or a taxi; or
(ii)    aA transportation program operated by the member's employment services or day services provider.
(3)    Transportation services must be included in the member's Individual Plan (Plan) and arrangements for this service must be made through the member's case manager.
(4)    Authorization of Transportation Services is based on:
(A)    Personal Support Team (Team) consideration, per Oklahoma Administrative Code (OAC) 340:100-5-52, of the unique needs of the person and the most cost effective type of transportation services that meets the member's need, per (d) of this Section; and
(B)    theThe scope of transportation services as explained in this Section.
(c)     Standards for transportation providers. All drivers employed by contracted transportation providers must have a valid and current Oklahoma driver license, and the vehicle(s) must meet applicable local and state requirements for vehicle licensure, inspection, insurance, and capacity.
(1)    The provider must ensure that any vehicle used to transport members:
(A)    meetsMeets the member's needs;
(B)    isIs maintained in a safe condition;
(C)    hasHas a current vehicle tag; and
(D)    isIs operated in accordance withper local, state, and federal law, regulation, and ordinance.
(2)    The provider maintains liability insurance in an amount sufficient to pay for injuries or loss to persons or property occasioned by negligence or malfeasance by the agency, its agents, or employees.
(3)    The provider ensures all members wear safety belts during transport.
(4)    Regular vehicle maintenance and repairs are the responsibility of the transportation provider. Providers of adapted transportation services are also responsible for maintenance and repairs of modifications made to vehicles. Providers of non-adapted transportation with a vehicle modification funded through HCBS assistive technology services may have repairs authorized per OAC 317:40-5-100.
(5)    Providers must maintain documentation, fully disclosing the extent of services furnished that specifies the:
(A)    serviceService date;
(B)    locationLocation and odometer mileage reading at the starting point and destination; or trip mileage calculation from Global Positioning System (GPS)global positioning system software;
(C)    nameName of the member transported; and
(D)    purposePurpose of the trip.
(6)    A family member, including a family member living in the same household of an adult member may establish a contract to provide transportation services to:
(A)    workWork or employment services;
(B)    medicalMedical appointments; and
(C)    otherOther activities identified in the Plan as necessary to meet the needs of the member, per OAC 340:100-3-33.1.
(7)    Individual transportation providers must provide verification of vehicle licensure, insurance and capacity to the DDS area office before a contract may be established and updated verification of each upon expiration. Failure to provide updated verification of a current and valid Oklahoma driver license and/oror vehicle licensure may result in cancellation of the contract.
(d)     Services not covered. Services that cannot be claimed as transportation services include:
(1)    servicesServices not approved by the Team;
(2)    servicesServices not authorized by the Plan of CarePOC;
(3)    tripsTrips that have no specified purpose or destination;
(4)    tripsTrips for family, provider, or staff convenience;
(5)    transportationTransportation provided by the member;
(6)    transportationTransportation provided by the member's spouse;
(7)    transportationTransportation provided by the biological, step or adoptive parents of the member or legal guardian, when the member is a minor;
(8)    tripsTrips when the member is not in the vehicle;
(9)    transportationTransportation claimed for more than one (1) member per vehicle at the same time or for the same miles, except public transportation;
(10)    transportationTransportation outside Oklahoma unless:
(A)    theThe transportation is provided to access the nearest available medical or therapeutic service; or
(B)    advanceAdvance written approval is given by the DDS area manager or designee;
(11)    servicesServices that are mandated to be provided by the public schools pursuant to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act;
(12)    transportationTransportation that occurs during the performance of the member's paid employment, even when the employer is a contract provider; or
(13)    transportationTransportation when a closer appropriate location was not selected.
(e)     Assessment and Team process. At least annually, the Team addresses the member's transportation needs. The Team determines the most appropriate means of transportation based on the:
(1)    presentPresent needs of the member. When addressing the possible need for adapted transportation, the Team only considers the member's needs. The needs of other individuals living in the same household are considered separately;
(2)    member'sMember's ability to access public transportation services; and
(3)    availabilityAvailability of other transportation resources including natural supports, and community agencies.
(f)     Adapted transportation. Adapted transportation may be transportation provided in modified vehicles with wheelchair or stretcher-safe travel systems or lifts that meet the member's medical needs that cannot be met with the use of a standard passenger vehicle, including a van when the modification to the vehicle was not funded through HCBS assistive technology service and is owned or leased by the DDS HCBS provider agency, family of an adult member, agency companion provider or specialized foster care provider.
(1)    Adapted transportation is not authorized when a provider agency leases an adapted vehicle from a member or a member's family.
(2)    Exceptions to receive adapted transportation services for modified vehicles other than those with wheelchair/stretcherwheelchair or stretcher safe travel systems and lifts may be authorized by the DDS programs manager for transportation services when documentation supports the need, and there is evidence the modification costs exceeded $10,000. All other applicable requirements of OAC 317:40-5-103 must be met.
(3)    Adapted transportation services do not include vehicles with modifications including, but not limited to:
(A)    restraintRestraint systems;
(B)    plexi-glassPlexi-glass windows;
(C)    barriersBarriers between the driver and the passengers;
(D)    turneyTurney seats; and
(E)    seatSeat belt extenders.
(4)    The Team determines if the member needs adapted transportation according to:
(A)    theThe member's need for physical support when sitting;
(B)    theThe member's need for physical assistance during transfers from one surface to another;
(C)    theThe portability of the member's wheelchair;
(D)    associatedAssociated health problems the member may have; and
(E)    lessLess costly alternatives to meet the need.
(5)    The transportation provider and the equipment vendor ensure that the Americans with Disabilities Act requirements are met.
(6)    The transportation provider ensures all staff assisting with transportation is trained according to the requirements specified by the Team and the equipment manufacturer.
(g)     Authorization of transportation services. The limitations in this subsection include the total of all transportation units on the Plan of CarePOC, not only the units authorized for the identified residential setting.
(1)    Up to 12,000 units of transportation services may be authorized in a member's Plan of CarePOC per OAC 340:100-3-33 and OAC 340:100-3-33.1.
(2)    When there is a combination of non-adapted transportation and public transportation on a Plan of CarePOC, the total cost for transportation cannot exceed the cost for non-adapted transportation services at the current non-adapted transportation reimbursement rate multiplied by 12,000 miles for the Plan of CarePOC year.
(3)    The DDS area manager or designee may approve:
(A)    upUp to 14,400 miles per Plan of CarePOC year for people who have extensive needs for transportation services; and
(B)    aA combination of non-adapted transportation and public transportation on a Plan of Care, when the total cost for transportation does not exceed the cost for non-adapted transportation services at the current, non-adapted transportation reimbursement rate multiplied by 14,400 miles for the Plan of CarePOC year.
(4)    The DDS division director or designee may approve:
(A)    transportationTransportation services in excess of 14,400 miles per Plan of CarePOC year in extenuating situations when person-centered planning identified specific needs that require additional transportation for a limited period; or
(B)    anyAny combination of public transportation services with adapted or non-adapted transportation when the total cost for transportation exceeds the cost for non-adapted transportation services at the current, non-adapted transportation reimbursement rate multiplied by 14,400 miles for the POC year; or
(C)    publicPublic transportation services in excess of $5,000$25,000, when it promotes the member's independence, is the most cost effective or only service option available for necessary transportation.
[OAR Docket #23-666; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 318.  Highway Construction Materials Technician Certification Board
CHAPTER 1.  Administrative Operations  [REVOKED]
[OAR Docket #23-701]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
318:1-1-1. Purpose [REVOKED]
318:1-1-2. Definitions [REVOKED]
318:1-1-3. Board officers and staff. [REVOKED]
318:1-1-5. Board records and Board Seals [REVOKED]
318:1-1-6. Declaratory rulings [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
69 O.S. § 1951 et. Seq.; Oklahoma Corporation Commission; 69 O.S. Sections 301, 306, 1002; 2022 HB. 1229 and repealed Highway Construction Material Technician Certification Board Act; 69 O.S. 1951-1961 & 1964 and amended 69 O.S. Section 1963.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 7, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 15, 2022 through December 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None.
ADOPTION:
February 6,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 14, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
In 2022 the Legislature passed HB 1229, which repealed all but one section of the Highway Construction Material Technician Certification Board Act; 69 O.S. Sections 1951-1962 and 1964; amending Section 1963; Oklahoma Transportation Commission; 69 O.S. Sections 302, 306; The Board was repealed by legislation and the program and revolving fund were transferred to ODOT via amendment to 69 O.S. Section 1963.
The Board disbanded effective November 1, 2022. Because there is no longer a Board to administer these rules, these rules are outdated and must be revoked to avoid confusion now that ODOT operates this program.
CONTACT PERSON:
Sydney Barrett, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st St, Oklahoma City, OK 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
318:1-1-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The Rules in this Chapter set forth the administrative operations governing the Highway Construction Materials Technician Certification Board as authorized by the Act.
318:1-1-2.  Definitions  [REVOKED]
     The following words or terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Act" shall mean Oklahoma Highway Construction Materials Technician Registration Act.
"Applicant" shall mean a person seeking certification as a construction materials technician.
"Certification" shall mean registration as a construction materials technician.
318:1-1-3.  Board officers and staff  [REVOKED]
(a)    Chair.The Chair shall preside over the meetings, appoint advisory committees, sign all certificates, and perform all other duties which are required or permitted by law.
(b)    Vice-Chair.The Vice-Chair shall perform the Chair's duties in the absence of the Chair.
(c)    Secretary.The Board may elect a Secretary from its members. The Secretary shall perform those duties prescribed by the Chair.
(d)    Program Director.The Program Director shall perform those duties prescribed by the Board.
318:1-1-5.  Board records and Board seal  [REVOKED]
(a)    The Board shall comply with the Oklahoma Open Records Act. All records required by law to be maintained by the Board shall be available for public inspection in the Board Office during regular business hours. Unless otherwise exempted by the Oklahoma Open Records Act, copying costs shall be $0.25 per uncertified page and $1.00 per certified page.
(b)    The Board Seal shall be kept on file at the Board Office.
318:1-1-6.  Declaratory rulings  [REVOKED]
     Persons may request a declaratory ruling as to the applicability of any Board rule or order by filing a written petition with the Board, setting forth the rule or order in question, the effective date of the rule or order, a statement setting forth the issues raised by the rule or order which caused the petition to be filed, and a statement setting forth the petitioner's personal interest in the ruling and how the Board's ruling will affect that interest. The Board shall consider any petition filed at least one (1) month prior to the next regular meeting. The Board may request verbal or written presentations upon its own motion. The Board may refuse to issue a declaratory ruling. Appeals from any declaratory ruling may be taken in a manner consistent with the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act.
[OAR Docket #23-701; filed 7-13-23]

TITLE 318.  Highway Construction Materials Technician Certification Board
CHAPTER 10.  Examination and Certification  [REVOKED]
[OAR Docket #23-702]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
318:10-1-1. Purpose [REVOKED]
318:10-1-2. Application for certification [REVOKED]
318:10-1-3. Areas of certification [REVOKED]
318:10-1-3.1. Training of personnel not seeking certification [REVOKED]
318:10-1-4. Examination Criteria [REVOKED]
318:10-1-5. Certification [REVOKED]
318:10-1-6. Re-Certification [REVOKED]
318:10-1-7. Temporary and apprentice certifications [REVOKED]
318:10-1-8. Continuing Training Requirements [REVOKED]
318:10-1-9. Administrative proceedings [REVOKED]
318:10-1-10. Grounds for discipline [REVOKED]
318:10-1-11. Fees [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
69 O.S. § 1951 et. Seq.; Oklahoma Corporation Commission; 69 O.S. Sections 301, 306, 1002; 2022 HB. 1229 and repealed Highway Construction Material Technician Certification Board Act; 69 O.S. 1951-1961 & 1964 and amended 69 O.S. Section 1963.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 7, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 15, 2022 through December 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None.
ADOPTION:
February 6,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 14, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
In 2022 the Legislature passed HB 1229, which repealed all but one section of the Highway Construction Material Technician Certification Board Act; 69 O.S. Sections 1951-1962 and 1964; amending Section 1963; Oklahoma Transportation Commission; 69 O.S. Sections 302, 306; The Board was repealed by legislation and the program and revolving fund were transferred to ODOT via amendment to 69 O.S. Section 1963.
The Board disbanded effective November 1, 2022. Because there is no longer a Board to administer these rules, these rules are outdated and must be revoked to avoid confusion now that ODOT operates this program.
CONTACT PERSON:
Sydney Barrett, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st St, Oklahoma City, OK 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
318:10-1-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The Rules in this Chapter set forth the training, examination and certification procedures governing highway construction materials technician training and certification and training of others in Oklahoma as authorized by the Act.
318:10-1-2.  Application for certification  [REVOKED]
     Applicants for certification shall make application on forms prescribed by the Program Director.
318:10-1-3.  Areas of certification  [REVOKED]
(a)    Applicants may apply for certification in various areas of construction material sampling and testing. Applicants may seek certification in one or more areas.
(b)    The Board may offer training to applicants in the areas of certification. Applicants may attend the training in preparation for the certification examination(s).
(c)    Applicants also may prepare for certification by sampling and/or testing construction materials under the direct guidance of certified construction materials technicians, through an apprentice program.
318:10-1-3.1.  Training of personnel not seeking certification  [REVOKED]
     Construction inspectors, first line construction supervisors, and others not seeking certification as a materials technician may apply for training in various areas of construction. Fees for such training shall be determined in accordance with the same procedures as those for training of materials technicians.
318:10-1-4.  Examination Criteria  [REVOKED]
(a)    Applicants shall achieve passing scores on both written and practical examinations prescribed by the Board. On the written examination, a passing score shall consist of a minimum score of seventy percent (70%) on each section and a minimum average score of eighty percent (80%) on all sections combined. On the practical examination, a passing score shall consist of successful completion of a series of sampling and testing procedures.
(b)    Examinations shall be administered by the Board or an evaluator approved by the Board.
(c)    Applicants failing to achieve a passing score on the written examination may retake the examinations one (1) time within sixty (60) days after notification of the failing score. Applicants failing to achieve a passing score on the subsequent written examination shall not be considered for certification until re-satisfying all certification requirements.
(d)    Applicants failing to achieve a passing score on any procedure in the practical examination will be given one opportunity to re-attempt that procedure between seven (7) and sixty (60) days after the notification of failing. Applicants failing to pass the procedure on the subsequent attempt shall not be considered for certification until re-satisfying all certification requirements.
318:10-1-5.  Certification  [REVOKED]
(a)    Applicants who achieve passing scores on both written and practical examinations and who satisfy all other certification requirements shall be construction material technicians qualified to use the title Registered Highway Construction Materials Technician or RHCMT. The title shall designate which area(s) the construction materials technician is certified to practice in the State of Oklahoma.
(b)    Certification shall be effective for a period of five (5) consecutive years or until a re-certification attempt is failed unless otherwise revoked or suspended by the Board.
318:10-1-6.  Re-Certification  [REVOKED]
(a)    Requirements for re-certification are the same as for original certification.
(b)    Construction materials technicians may complete all re-certification requirements within one (1) year prior to the expiration of the current certification period. Recertification will become effective on the expiration date of the current certification period.
(c)    Construction materials technicians who have maintained certification in a specific area of registration for a minimum of 9 years with no more than twelve total months interruption of continuous certification shall have the option to omit the practical examination provided the construction materials technician has received, within the past 18 months, a satisfactory evaluation in that registration area from the Oklahoma Department of Transportation Independent Assurance Branch or its authorized representative(s).
318:10-1-7.  Temporary and apprentice certifications  [REVOKED]
(a)    The Program Director may grant temporary certification to construction materials technicians failing to complete all applicable re-certification requirements prior to certification expiration.
(b)    In order to receive a temporary certification, an applicant must (1) furnish adequate documented evidence of qualifying experience and/or education, (2) achieve a passing score on a written examination, and (3) enroll in and make full payment for the next available certification module.
(c)    Temporary certifications shall expire on the date of the next available certification module.
(d)    The Program Director may grant apprentice certification to apprentices sampling and/or testing construction materials under the direct guidance of certified construction materials technicians. Such apprenticeships shall be used for the sole purpose of developing knowledge and skills by the apprentice and are not prerequisite for certification.
(e)    In order to receive an apprentice certification, an applicant must (1) agree to conduct, under the direct guidance of a certified construction materials technician, all sampling and/or testing which he or she performs and (2) make payment of $100.00 for certification in each area of interest.
(f)    Apprentice certifications shall expire when the apprentice obtains full certification in the area of interest or one year from the beginning of the apprenticeship, whichever is earlier. Apprenticeships in more than one area of interest are acceptable; however, only one apprenticeship in any given area is allowed. (No apprenticeship may be repeated.)
318:10-1-8.  Continuing Training Requirements  [REVOKED]
(a)    Construction materials technicians shall maintain sufficient levels of technical competency in their respective areas of certification. The Board may require construction materials technicians to successfully complete no more than ten (10) hours of continuing training per year in each certification area. Successful completion of continuing training shall be evidenced by achieving a passing score on a written and/or practical examination prescribed by the Board. Failure to successfully complete the continuing training may be deemed grounds for Board discipline.
(b)    Continuing training shall be provided by the Board or providers approved by the Board.
(c)    Construction materials technicians who fail to comply with the continuing training requirement may petition the Board for partial or complete relief upon showing of hardship. The hardship petition should be filed prior to the expiration of certification, but the Board, at its discretion, may accept petitions filed after the expiration of certification.
318:10-1-9.  Administrative proceedings  [REVOKED]
     The Board shall comply with the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act when conducting an individual proceeding against a construction materials technician. The substantive and procedural provisions of the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act are hereby incorporated by reference.
318:10-1-10.  Grounds for discipline  [REVOKED]
(a)    The Board may revoke, suspend, reprimand, or otherwise sanction a construction materials technician upon clear and convincing evidence of the following:
(1)    "Gross negligence" which shall mean a construction materials technician's willful, intentional, or bad faith failure to use due diligence in the performance of the duties of a construction materials technician; or
(2)    "Misconduct" which shall include a construction materials technician's following acts or omissions:
(A)    Making false or misleading statements or claims contained in laboratory samplings or testing results;
(B)    Making false or misleading statements or claims concerning professional qualifications or areas of certification;
(C)    Conviction of or pleading guilty or nolo contendere to a felony or drug-related offense;
(D)    Attempting to bribe or improperly influence an existing or prospective client;
(E)    Failure to comply with recognized professional codes or governmental regulations;
(F)    Acting in a negligent or incompetent manner in the performance of duties of a construction materials technician;
(G)    Practice or other behavior that demonstrates a manifest incapacity or incompetence to hold certification;
(H)    Aiding or abetting an uncertified person to act as a certified construction materials technician (Providing direct guidance to an apprentice technician shall not be considered misconduct.);
(I)    Accepting an assignment when it is contingent upon reporting a predetermined analysis, opinion, or conclusion or where employment or the fee paid is contingent upon the analysis, opinion, or conclusion of the construction materials technician;
(J)    Failure to disclose a professional conflict of interest;
(K)    Use or abuse of alcohol or of a habit-forming drug or chemical which impairs the ability of the construction materials technician to act in that capacity in a diligent and competent manner;
(L)    Failure to furnish the Board, its staff, or authorized agents information legally requested or failure to cooperate with a lawful investigation conducted by or on behalf of the Board; or
(M)    Continued practice as a certified construction materials technician after expiration of certification.
(b)    The Board may apply to the district court for any relief not otherwise provided for by the Administrative Procedures Act.
318:10-1-11.  Fees  [REVOKED]
(a)    Applicants shall pay the following training fees (when applicable):
(1)    No more than $450.00 for modules with a duration of five (5) days or less.
(2)    Fees for modules with a duration exceeding five days shall be based upon a a rate of not more than $90.00 per day.
(b)    Applicants shall pay the following certification fees (when applicable):
(1)    Three-Day Certification Examinations in Sampling and Testing of Asphalt: $975.00 each
(2)    Two-Day Certification Examinations in Sampling and Testing of Soils: $650.00
(3)    One-Day Certification Examinations in Sampling and Testing of Concrete: $325.00
(4)    One-Day Certification Examinations in Sampling and Testing of Aggregates: $325.00
(5)    One-Day Certification Examinations in Profilograph Operation: $375.00
(6)    One-Day Certification Examinations to Supplement American Concrete Institute Certification: $325.00
(7)    Three-Day Certification Examination in Field Testing of Concrete and Sampling of Soils, Aggregates, Asphalt, and Concrete: $975.00
(8)    One-Day Certification Examination in Sampling Only of Asphalt: $325.00
(9)    Re-Certification Examinations: Same as the Applicable Certification Fee except the Fee shall be $100.00 when the practical examination is omitted.
(10)    Temporary Certification: Same as applicable certification fee (to be applied toward full certification fee if applicant is certified at the next available certification module.)
(11)    Apprentice Certification: $100.00 in each area (to be applied toward full certification fee(s) if applicant is certified within one year after beginning each apprenticeship.)
(12)    Fees for applicants seeking certification through reciprocity shall be one-half (1/2) the applicable certification examination fee(s).
(13)    Fees for new or modified certifications will be based on a rate not to exceed $325.00 per day.
(c)    Administrative Fee for returned checks: $25.00
(d)    Duplicate certificate fee: $15.00
[OAR Docket #23-702; filed 7-13-23]

TITLE 318.  Highway Construction Materials Technician Certification Board
CHAPTER 20.  Complaints and Individual Proceedings  [REVOKED]
[OAR Docket #23-703]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
318:20-1-1. Purpose [REVOKED]
318:20-1-2. Complaint procedures; forms [REVOKED]
318:20-1-3. Investigation of alleged violations [REVOKED]
318:20-1-4. Parties to proceedings [REVOKED]
318:20-1-5. Notice of hearing [REVOKED]
318:20-1-6. Persons to be notified [REVOKED]
318:20-1-7. Method of service [REVOKED]
318:20-1-8. Time for hearing [REVOKED]
318:20-1-9. Hearing [REVOKED]
318:20-1-10. Hearing officer [REVOKED]
318:20-1-11. Failure to appear [REVOKED]
318:20-1-12. Subpoenas [REVOKED]
318:20-1-13. Depositions [REVOKED]
318:20-1-14. Record of hearing [REVOKED]
318:20-1-15. Rehearing [REVOKED]
318:20-1-16. Appeal [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
69 O.S. § 1951 et. Seq.; Oklahoma Corporation Commission; 69 O.S. Sections 301, 306, 1002; 2022 HB. 1229 and repealed Highway Construction Material Technician Certification Board Act; 69 O.S. 1951-1961 & 1964 and amended 69 O.S. Section 1963.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 7, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 15, 2022 through December 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None.
ADOPTION:
February 6,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 14, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
In 2022 the Legislature passed HB 1229, which repealed all but one section of the Highway Construction Material Technician Certification Board Act; 69 O.S. Sections 1951-1962 and 1964; amending Section 1963; Oklahoma Transportation Commission; 69 O.S. Sections 302, 306; The Board was repealed by legislation and the program and revolving fund were transferred to ODOT via amendment to 69 O.S. Section 1963.
The Board disbanded effective November 1, 2022. Because there is no longer a Board to administer these rules, these rules are outdated and must be revoked to avoid confusion now that ODOT operates this program.
CONTACT PERSON:
Sydney Barrett, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st St, Oklahoma City, OK 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
318:20-1-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The rules of this Chapter establish procedures for pursuing formal disciplinary proceedings against persons qualified to use the title Registered Highway Construction Materials Technician or RHCMT, based on the grounds for discipline set forth in 318:10-1-10.
318:20-1-2.  Complaint procedures; forms  [REVOKED]
(a)    Complaint against any Highway Construction Materials Technician shall be verified and signed by the person or persons making complaint or allegation and shall be notarized. Complaint forms are available from the office of the Board. Complaint shall include the following information:
(1)    Name and address of person against whom complaint is filed.
(2)    Detailed explanation of offense committed.
(3)    Name and address of person(s) filing complaint.
(b)    Anonymous complaints may not receive response from or other action by the Board.
318:20-1-3.  Investigation of alleged violations  [REVOKED]
(a)    Alleged violations are investigated by an investigator appointed by the Program Director. One or more investigators may be assigned to complete the investigatory process.
(b)    A full written report of the investigation of alleged violations shall be submitted by the investigator(s) to the Program Director.
(c)    Reports are reviewed by the Program Director who determines in accordance with the Highway Construction Materials Technician Registration Act and Board rules and regulations if sufficient evidence exists to call for formal disciplinary proceedings.
318:20-1-4.  Parties to proceedings  [REVOKED]
     If sufficient evidence exists to call for formal disciplinary proceedings, the Program Director shall file a sworn complaint. The style of the complaint shall be: STATE OF OKLAHOMA ex rel. HIGHWAY CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATION BOARD v. RESPONDENT'S NAME.
318:20-1-5.  Notice of hearing  [REVOKED]
(a)     General statement. Original complainants and respondents shall be given not less than ten (10) days advance notice of every individual proceeding.
(b)     Content of notice. The notice shall include:
(1)    a statement of the time, place and nature of the hearing,
(2)    a statement of the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held,
(3)    a reference to the particular sections of the statute and rules involved, and
(4)    a short and plain statement of the matters asserted. If the Board or other party is unable to state the matters in detail at the time the notice is served, the initial notice may be limited to a statement of the issues involved. Thereafter upon application a more definite and detailed statement shall be furnished.
318:20-1-6.  Persons to be notified  [REVOKED]
(a)    The original complainant and respondent shall be entitled to notice of an individual proceeding.
(b)    The Board shall also notify the person or entity with whom the respondent technician is associated.
318:20-1-7.  Method of service.  [REVOKED]
(a)     Service. All notices or other papers requiring service in an individual proceeding shall be served in one of the following manners:
(1)    personally, by a person appointed by the Program Director for such purpose, in any manner authorized by the law of this state for the personal service of summons in proceedings in a state court, or
(2)    by certified mail mailed by the Program Director, or the Program Director's designee, addressed to the technician or applicant at such address as the technician or applicant filed with the Board, or if no such address is on file, at the noticee's last known address.
(b)     Completion. Notice shall be deemed to have been given at the time that notice is deposited in the United States mail with proper postage thereon and mailed to the last known address of the notified person, or the date when such notice is served in person by a person duly authorized as a representative of the Board.
318:20-1-8.  Time for hearing  [REVOKED]
(a)     Setting hearing. The time set for a hearing, specified in the notice, shall not be less than ten (10) days after the date the notice is completed.
(b)     Continuances. Written motions for any continuances or extensions of time shall state the time desired and the reasons for the request. The Board hereby authorizes the Program Director to rule on said motions. Said application shall be served upon the Program Director. If the extension is denied, the party may renew the request and make proper showing for continuance at the hearing.
318:20-1-9.  Hearing  [REVOKED]
(a)     Presiding officer. The hearing shall be conducted by the Chair of the Board or his designee.
(b)     Order of procedure. Each individual proceeding shall proceed as follows:
(1)    Any party shall at all times have the right to counsel. Counsel must be licensed to practice law by the Oklahoma Supreme Court.
(2)    All parties shall be afforded the opportunity to present witnesses, evidence, and argument on all issues involved.
(3)    A party may cross-examine witnesses.
(4)    The Board or hearing officer may ask questions of all parties.
(c)     Objections and motions. The Chair or his designee shall rule on the admissibility of evidence and objections to evidence, and shall rule on motions or objections raised in the course of the hearing. In the exercise of this function, the Chair may rely on the advice of counsel present and serving in an advisory capacity. Any party may object to a ruling which the party considers erroneous, and an exception to such ruling shall be noted of record. Failure to timely object to any alleged error or irregularity shall be deemed as a waiver of such objection.
(d)     Burden and standard of proof. The burden of proving the allegations contained in its complaint shall be upon the State. The standard of proof required to sustain the imposition of any sanction against a respondent shall be by clear and convincing evidence.
(e)     Ruling.
(1)    The Board or hearing officer shall prepare Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law. The Board or hearing officer may request the parties to submit proposed Findings and Conclusions before making a final ruling. Any party may file proposed Findings and Conclusions. Disposition of any individual proceeding may be by stipulation, agreed settlement, consent order, default or majority vote.
(2)    The Board, by majority vote of a quorum of its members, may deny, suspend, or revoke a certification for any of the reasons provided in 318:10-1-10. The Board by majority vote of a quorum of its members, may refuse, cancel, or revoke a certification or any of the reasons provided in 318:10-1-10.
318:20-1-10.  Hearing officer  [REVOKED]
(a)     Selection. A hearing may be conducted by a hearing officer designated by the Chair.
(b)     Hearing. The hearing officer shall swear witnesses, hear testimony, admit evidence, and make rulings on objections and motions, and prepare proposed Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law and submit the Findings and Conclusions to the Board.
318:20-1-11.  Failure to appear  [REVOKED]
     Any respondent who fails to appear as directed, after having received proper notice, may be determined to have waived their right to present a defense to the charges alleged in the complaint and a denial, suspension, or revocation of a certification, or other disciplinary action may be ordered by the Board if it appears, after having reviewed the evidence, that the allegations did in fact occur.
318:20-1-12.  Subpoenas  [REVOKED]
(a)     Witnesses. Subpoenas for the furnishing of information required by the Board, for the attendance of witnesses, and/or the production of evidence or records of any kind shall be issued by the Program Director of the Board. Subpoenas shall be served and a return made in any manner prescribed by general civil law.
(b)     Sanctions. Upon the failure of any person to obey a subpoena, upon the refusal of any witness to be sworn or make an affirmation, or to answer a lawful question put to them in the course of the hearing, the Program Director may institute appropriate judicial proceedings under the laws of the State for an order to compel compliance with the subpoena or the giving of testimony, as the case may be. The hearing shall proceed, so far as it is possible, but the hearing officer or the Board in its discretion, at any time may continue the proceedings for such time as may be necessary to secure a final ruling in the compliance proceeding.
318:20-1-13.  Depositions  [REVOKED]
     The Board or any party to a proceeding before it, may take the deposition of witnesses, within or without the State, in the same manner as provided by law for the taking of depositions in civil actions in courts of record. The admissibility of a deposition and objections to all or part of a deposition shall be determined by the Board Chair or his designee in accordance with rules provided in the Administrative Procedures Act.
318:20-1-14.  Record of hearing  [REVOKED]
(a)     Contents of record. The record in every individual proceeding shall include the following:
(1)    all pleadings, motions, and intermediate rulings,
(2)    evidence received and considered,
(3)    a statement of matters officially noticed,
(4)    questions and offers of proof, objections and rulings thereon,
(5)    proposed findings and exceptions,
(6)    any decision, opinion, or report by the person(s) presiding at the hearing, and
(7)    all staff memoranda or data submitted to the Board or hearing officer in connection with their consideration of the case.
(b)    Recording
(1)    A record of the hearing, by means of tape recording, will be made of all hearings conducted by the Board or hearing officer unless the presiding officer designates otherwise.
(2)    The record of the hearing and the file containing the pleadings will be maintained in aplace designated by the Program Director. The tape recordings of the proceedings shall be maintained for a period of at least one (1) year.
(c)     Transcript. A transcript of the proceeding shall not be transcribed except upon written application by any party to the action. The party requesting transcription will bear the cost and will pay a fee according to the actual cost of transcription. An initial deposit established by the Program Director must be paid by the requesting party.
(d)     Final order. All final orders in individual proceedings shall be in writing. The final order shall include Findings of Fact and Conclusions of Law, separately stated. A copy of the final order will be mailed to each party and to their attorney of record.
318:20-1-15.  Rehearing  [REVOKED]
(a)     Petition. A petition for rehearing is not required before an appeal may be perfected to the District Court of Oklahoma County. A petition for rehearing, reopening, or reconsideration of a final order may be filed with the Program Director within ten (10) days from the entry of the order. It must be signed by the party or their attorney and must set forth with particularity the statutory grounds upon which it is based. However, a petition for rehearing based upon fraud by any party or procurement of the order by perjured testimony or fictitious evidence may be filed at any time within one (1) year of the entry of the order.
(b)     Disposition. An order of the Board granting a rehearing shall set forth the grounds which justify such action. The hearing shall be confined to the grounds upon which the rehearing was ordered.
318:20-1-16.  Appeal  [REVOKED]
     The technician or applicant may appeal the decision of the Board within thirty (30) days from the date the written Final Order is issued. Such appeal shall be made to the District Court of Oklahoma County.
[OAR Docket #23-703; filed 7-13-23]

TITLE 330.  Oklahoma Housing Finance Agency
CHAPTER 36.  Affordable Housing Tax Credit Program
[OAR Docket #23-681]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
330:36-1-4 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 2. Allocation Procedures
330:36-2-13.1 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 4. Development Applications and Selection
330:36-4-1.1 [AMENDED]
330:36-4-2 [AMENDED]
330:36-4-2.1 [AMENDED]
330:36-4-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 6. Program Administration
330:36-6-1 [AMENDED]
330:36-6-7 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 10. Credit Assistance/Stimulus Legislation
330:36-10-2 [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
These Chapter 36 Rules are authorized by 75 O.S., Section 302; 60 O.S., Section 176 through 180.3; the Board of Trustees of Oklahoma Housing Finance Agency (OHFA), the Amended Trust Indenture, and the Bylaws of OHFA as established by the OHFA Board of Trustees
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
April 5, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
May 17 through June 17,2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
June 17, 2022
ADOPTION:
July 20, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
August 3, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
January 1, 2024
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Modifications to these Chapter 36 Rules are adopted in response to comments and program changes.
Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (Code), provides that a federal tax credit (Credit) may be claimed for a period of ten years by qualified owners (as defined by the Code) of residential property rented to qualified low-income tenant at restricted rates, if said owner has been approved for an allocation of Credits by the state housing credit allocating agency. Oklahoma Housing Finance Agency (OHFA) is Oklahoma's allocating agency. The Code further provides that each state's annual Credit authority is to be allocated by that state's allocating agency pursuant to a Qualified Allocation Plan (QAP). Chapter 36 Affordable Housing Tax Credit Program (Rules) is part of Oklahoma's QAP. The purpose of said Rules is to comply with the Code, the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act (APA), and to provide guidelines for administering the allocations of Oklahoma's annual Credit authority and OHFA's Affordable Housing Tax Credit Program (Program). The Board of Trustees are also required to administer the Program in a manner consistent with Oklahoma's Housing Antidiscrimination Act, 15 O.S., § 1451-1453 and all federal laws prohibiting discrimination, including 42 U.S.C., § 1983 and the Fair Housing Act, as amended 42 U.S.C., § 3601 et seq.
CONTACT PERSON:
Darrell Beavers, (405) 419-8261, darrell.beavers@ohfa.org.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF JANUARY 1, 2024:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
330:36-1-4.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. Additional capitalized terms used in these Chapter 36 Rules are defined in the Code and these Chapter 36 Rules. When a conflict exists between the following definitions and the Code the more restrictive meaning shall be applied.
"Affiliate" means any Person that directly or indirectly through one (1) or more intermediaries, Controls, is Controlled By, or is Under Common Control With any other Person.
"Allocation" means the maximum amount of TCAs available to the Development as a result of the approval of an award by the Trustees. The Credit shall be apportioned to each Qualified Building at the time such Qualified Building is Placed-In-Service.
"Applicable Fraction" means the fraction used to determine the qualified basis of a qualified low-income Building which is the smaller of the Unit Fraction or the Floor Space Fraction.
"Applicant" means any individual, Nonprofit Sponsored Development, Nonprofit organization or profit-motivated individual, corporation, general or limited partnership, limited liability company or other legal entity which has submitted an Application to OHFA for a Credit Reservation and Allocation, and its successors in interest. "Applicant" includes the Owner and Owner's predecessor in interest, if any, and includes any successor in interest, Transferee of all or any portion of the Development, and the heirs, executors, administrators, devisees, successors and assigns of any purchaser, grantee, Transferee, Owner or lessee (other than a Resident) of all or any portion of the Development, and any other Person or entity having any right, title, or interest in the Development.
"Application" means an Application in the form prescribed by OHFA, from time to time, in the Application Packet (AP), including all exhibits and other materials filed by an Applicant with OHFA in support of or in connection with the formal request by the Applicant requesting a TCA.
"Application Packet" (referred to in these Rules as the "AP") means the Application in the form prescribed by OHFA at least annually, together with instructions and such other materials provided by OHFA to any Person requesting the same for the purpose of seeking to obtain from OHFA a TCA. OHFA will solicit formal public input on the Application Packet, and provide explanation of any significant changes. Staff will present the proposed AP to the Trustees for approval at a Trustees meeting. The AP may include definitive statements of what shall constitute Threshold Criteria, Selection Criteria, priorities, preferences, and compliance and monitoring requirements as may be authorized by or provided for in the Code and these Rules, and may include the necessary forms, instructions and requirements for Applications, market studies, Commitments, Agreements, Elections, set-asides, OHFA staff evaluation criteria for Threshold Criteria and Selection Criteria, final ranking, Credit amounts, tax-exempt bond financed projects, compliance monitoring, and other matters deemed by Trustees, in their complete discretion, to be relevant to the process of evaluation of Applications and the Applicants in connection with the award or denial of TCAs.
"Area Median Gross Income" means the median Gross Income adjusted for household size, for the county or counties where each Building in a Development is located as determined and published annually by HUD.
"Building" means a property containing residential Housing Units located on the Land and included in the Development. For purposes of the Credit Program, each Building is identified by its Building Identification Number (BIN) assigned by OHFA and its street address assigned by the United States Postal Service. The BIN shall control for Tax Credit purposes. In the event more than one Building is located on the Land, each Building must be identified in the manner required by Code Section 42(g) to be treated as part of the Development. Any Allocation of Credit shall be effective only for the Building(s) identified in a Carryover Allocation Agreement, if applicable, or in Exhibit "A" to the Regulatory Agreement.
"Capital Needs Assessment" (CNA) means a qualified professional's opinion of a property's current physical condition determined after a physical inspection of the interior and exterior of the units and structures as set out in the AP.
"Carryover Allocation" means, an Allocation which is made with respect to a Building or Development pursuant to Code Section 42(h)(1)(E) and/or Code Section 42(h)(1)(F), as the case may be, and in conformance with IRS Notice 89-1 and Treasury Regulation Section 1.42-6.
"Carryover Allocation Agreement" means the contract between Owner and OHFA, authorized and approved by the Trustees. A Carryover Allocation is made pursuant to Code Section 42(h)(1)(E) and/or Code Section 42(h)(1)(F), IRS Notice 89-1 and Treasury Regulation Section 1.42-6.
"Certifications" means the representations made under penalties of perjury by the Applicant, Owner, each Developer, each partner or general partner, party to a joint venture, and/or Resident, as applicable, including but not limited to those representations and Certifications set forth in the Applications and the Regulatory Agreement and Exhibits. Certifications also mean any and all representations made under penalties of perjury with respect to the Development at any time from the date of submission of the Application and throughout the Extended Use Period.
"Code" means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, together with applicable rules and regulations, revenue rulings, guidelines, releases, pronouncements, notices or procedures promulgated thereunder or referred to therein or in the applicable rules and regulations.
"Commitment" means a representation or agreement of the Owner/Applicant contained in the Application, or otherwise, which in all cases shall be irrevocable and binding upon Owner/Applicant and its Transferees and successors in interest throughout the Development Compliance Period, unless otherwise noted in the Regulatory Agreement, these Rules, the Application, or any other agreements entered into by Owner/Applicant with OHFA in connection with the Credit Program.
"Compliance Period" means with respect to any Qualified Building, the continuous fifteen (15) year period over which the Qualified Building must satisfy all requirements of the Code and the Credit Program. The Compliance Period begins with the first year of the Credit Period.
"Consultant" means any Person (which is not an Affiliate of an Owner of the Development) that provides professional or expert services relating to an Application, a Development, or any activities pertaining to the filing of an Application, the award of a TCA, the Carryover Allocation, or cost Certification documents filings with OHFA.
"Control" (including the terms "Controls", "Controlling", "Controlled By", and/or "Under Common Control With") means the possession, directly or indirectly, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of any other Person, whether through an ownership interest in the other Person, by contract, agreement, understanding, designation, office or position held in or with the other Person or in or with any other Person, or by coercion, or otherwise.
"Credit" (including the terms Tax Credit and Low-Income Housing Tax Credit) means the Low-Income Housing Tax Credit available for federal income tax purposes under Code Section 42 for a Qualified Building.
"Credit Period" means the ten (10) year period over which the Credit may be claimed for a Building. The Credit Period begins when the Building is Placed-In-Service, for Credit purposes, or if the Owner makes an election under Section 42(f)(1)(B) of the Code, the next year; but only if the Building is a qualified low-income Building within the meaning of Code Section 42(c)(2), by the end of the first year of that period. For an existing Building with Rehabilitation Expenditures, the Credit Period shall not begin before the year that the rehabilitation Credit is allowed under Code Section 42(f)(5).
"Credit Program" means OHFA's program for approving Allocations and includes, without limitation, adopting the Qualified Allocation Plan and OHFA's Credit Program Rules, the AP, and all things contemplated therein or appurtenant thereto, including without limitations, monitoring Developments throughout the Extended Use Period and notifying the IRS of the Building's or a Development's failure to comply with Code requirements.
"Credit Reservation" means the reservation of a maximum amount available for Allocation to such Development and apportioned to each Qualified Building therein upon meeting the requirements of the Credit Program and Code Section 42.
"Developer" means the Person or entity with the responsibility of ensuring the effective construction or rehabilitation of the Development, including any and all responsibilities as outlined in the Development Agreement, which may also be the Applicant and/or Owner of the Development. Developer also includes any other Person or organization affiliated with, Controlled by, in Control of or a related party to, the Developer, as determined by OHFA.
"Development" means the Land and one (1) or more Buildings, structures, or other improvements now or hereafter constructed or located upon the Land. If more than one (1) Building is to be part of the Development, each Building must be financed under a common plan and identified in the manner required under Code Section 42(g).
"Development Compliance Period" means the period beginning with the first day the first Building of the Development is Placed-In-Service and continuing thereafter until the latest to end of the following periods for each Building in the Development: (i) the Compliance Period; (ii) the Extended Use Period; or (iii) the "Three Year Period."
"Development Team" means the Applicant, architect, attorney, Consultant, Developer, general contractor, market analyst and/or appraiser, property management company, Owner, tax professional, and the principals of each.
"Drug" for purposes of these OAHTC Program Rules, means "a controlled substance" as that term is defined in Section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C., Section 802.
"Drug-Related Criminal Activity" means the illegal manufacture, sale, distribution, or use of a Drug, or the possession of a Drug with intent to manufacture, sell, distribute or use the Drug.
"Due Date" if a Due Date for submission of documents or fees falls on a weekend or a designated Federal holiday, then the Due Date becomes the next business day.
"Elderly" means housing that meets the Elderly exemptions from Fair Housing. For Credit Program purposes these exemptions only apply to household members. Definitions also only apply to Developments Allocated after the effective date of these Chapter 36 Rules.
(A)    Provided under any State or Federal program that has determined to be specifically designed and operated to assist elderly persons (as defined in the State or Federal program); or
(B)    Intended for and solely occupied by persons 62 years of age or older; or
(C)    Intended and operated for occupancy by persons 55 years of age or older. In order to qualify for this definition, a facility or community must satisfy each of the following requirements:
(i)    At least 80 percent of the units must have at least one occupant who is 55 years of age or older; and
(ii)    The facility or community must publish and adhere to policies and procedures that demonstrate the intent to operate as 55 or older housing; and
(iii)    The facility or community must comply with HUD's regulatory requirements for age verification of residents.
"Eligible Basis" means generally the depreciable basis in the property.
"Exchange" means returning tax credits allocated from a prior year for a subsequent year's tax credit allocation.
"Extended Use Period" means the continuous period, a minimum of fifteen (15) years, following the close of the Compliance Period during which a Qualifying Building must satisfy all requirements of the Code and the Credit Program. The Extended Use Period for the Development is set forth on Exhibit "A" to the Regulatory Agreement and may not be revoked or terminated prior to said date except as provided in the Code, these Chapter 36 Rules or in the Regulatory Agreement.
"Floor Space Fraction" means the total floor space of the Low-Income Unit in the Building divided by the total floor space of all residential units in the Building(whether occupied or not).
"Gross Rent" means the rent received for a Low-Income Housing Unit, including utility allowances but excluding (i) any payments under Section 8 or any comparable rental assistance program; (ii) any fees or supportive services (within the meaning of Code Section 42(g)(2)(B); (iii) paid to Owner (on the basis of the low-income status of the qualified Resident of the Low-Income Unit) by a governmental assistance program or an organization exempt from federal income tax under Code Section 501(c)(3), if such program or organization provides assistance for rent and the amount of assistance provided for rent is not separable from the amount of assistance provided for supportive services; and (iv) rental payments to Owner to the extent an equivalent amount is paid to the Rural Housing Service (RHS) under Section 515 of the Housing Act of 1949. Gross Rent includes the minimum amounts paid toward purchase of a Housing Unit as described in Code Section 42(g)(6). The amount of Gross Rent is determined annually based upon the Area Median Gross Income for the locality in which the Development is located. The annual amount may decrease but such amount will not be reduced below the amount of Gross Rent established in the Carryover Allocation Agreement. The date would be either the date of Allocation or Placed in Service date for each Building.first year of the Credit Period.
"Hard Construction Costs" means the following types of activities, but not limited to, earthwork/site work, on-site utilities, roads and walks, concrete, masonry, metals, carpentry (rough and finish), moisture protection, doors/windows/glass, insulation, roofing, sheet metal, drywall, tile work, acoustical, flooring, electrical, plumbing, elevators, blinds and shades, appliances, lawns & planting, fence, cabinets, carpets, and heat & ventilation. For calculations of contractor fees, a reasonable contingency can be included.
"Homeless" means (1) lacking a fixed, regular and adequate nighttime residence; and has a primary nighttime residence that is a supervised public or private shelter providing temporary accommodations or a public or private place not ordinarily used as sleeping accommodations for human beings, OR (2) displaced as a result of fleeing violence in the home; and has a temporary residence that is a supervised public or private shelter OR (3) certified by an agency involved in regularly determining Homeless status. OR (4) displaced as a result of a major disaster and receiving FEMA assistance. Homeless individuals are considered Homeless for a period of twenty-four (24) months from the date of move-in, according to Section 103 of the Stewart B. McKinney Homeless Assistance Act and 42(i)(3)(B)(iii)(I) of the Code.
"Housing Unit" means a Low-Income Unit and/or Market Rate Unit located in a Building which is available for rent or is rented by Residents. Common area units are not included.
"HUD" means the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development.
"Income" means the Income of one or more qualified Residents, as determined in a manner consistent with the methods under HUD's Section 8 Program.
"IRS" means the Internal Revenue Service of the Treasury.
"IRS Form 8609" means the IRS Form entitled "Low Income Housing Credit Certification". The IRS Form 8609 establishes the maximum Credit for a Building.
"IRS Form 8823" means the IRS form entitled "Low-Income Housing Credit Agencies Report of Noncompliance or Building Disposition" issued or to be issued by OHFA with respect to issues of noncompliance with the laws of the IRS and/or the sale or disposition of the Development.
"Land" means the site(s) for each Building in the Development and having the legal description set forth described in the Carryover Allocation Agreement and Exhibit "A" to the Regulatory Agreement.
"Large Development" means a Development with more than sixty (60) units.
"LIHTC Program" means the Credit Program. "LIHTC Program" may be used interchangeably with the term "Credit Program" or "OAHTC Program".
"Low-Income Unit" means a Housing Unit that is both Rent-Restricted and occupied by qualified Residents, provided that: (i) Housing Unit shall constitute a Low-Income Unit only if it is suitable for occupancy taking into account local health, safety and building codes and it is used other than on a transient basis except in the case of Transitional Housing, all as determined under Code Section 42(i)(3); and (ii) Housing Unit in any Building which has four (4) or fewer total Housing Units shall not constitute a Low-Income Unit if any Housing Unit in the Building is occupied by an Owner or a related Person [within the meaning of Code Section 42(i)(3)(C)] unless such Building is described in Code Section 42(i)(3)(E).
"Market Rate Unit" means a Housing Unit that does not meet the definition of a Low-Income Unit.
"Minimum Low-Income Housing Set-Aside" means the minimum percent required under Code Section 42(g) of Housing Units in the Development to be both Rent-Restricted and occupied by qualified Residents, i.e., Residents whose Income is at or below a certain percentage of Area Median Gross Income. For purposes of Code Section 42(g), Owner must have selected one of the following: (i) twenty percent (20%) or more of the total Housing Units to be Rent-Restricted and occupied by Residents whose Income is at or below fifty percent (50%) percent of the Area Median Gross Income; (ii) forty percent (40%) or more of the total Housing Units to be Rent-Restricted and occupied by Residents whose Income is at or below sixty percent (60%) of the Area Median Gross Income as the Minimum Low-Income Housing Set-Aside; or (iii) Average Income Test - The project meets the minimum requirements of this test if 40 percent or more of the residential units in such Development are both rent-restricted and occupied by individuals whose income does not exceed the imputed income limitation designated by the taxpayer with respect to the respective unit. The Applicant may, however, have made a Commitment to provide greater percentages of Housing Units that are both Rent-Restricted and occupied by Residents meeting the above Income limitations and/or making Housing Units available to Residents with Income below the above limitations, i.e., an Additional Low-Income Housing Set-Aside. Owner and all Transferees, and successors in interest shall be bound by all Commitments, including the Minimum Low-Income Housing Set-Aside, or Additional Low-Income Housing Set-Aside made in the Regulatory Agreement, or included in the Carryover Agreement or any of the Resolutions of the Trustees respecting the Application, the Development, or Owner.
"National Non-Metro Area Median Income" means as determined and published annually by HUD.
"Nonprofit" means a private Nonprofit organization that is organized under State or local laws; has no part of its net earnings inuring to the benefit of any member, founder, contributor, or individual; is neither Controlled By, nor under the direction of, individuals or entities seeking to derive profit or gain from the organization; has a tax exemption from the Internal Revenue Service under section 501(c) (3) or (4) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; does not include a public body; has among its purposes the provision of decent housing that is affordable to low-income persons, as evidenced in its charter, articles of incorporation, resolutions or by-laws; and, has at least a one year history of providing affordable housing, and is duly qualified to do business within the State.
"Nonprofit Sponsored Development" means and refers to a proposed Development that has or will have a Nonprofit that has a Controlling interest by reason of an ownership interest in a Person that is or will be the Owner of the subject Development, and has materially participated, or will materially participate (within the meaning of the Code) in the Development and operation of the Development throughout the Compliance Period.
"OAHTC Program" means the Credit Program. "OAHTC Program" may be used interchangeably with the term "LIHTC Program" or "Credit Program".
"OHFA" means Oklahoma Housing Finance Agency a State-beneficiary public trust. OHFA is the allocating agency for the State for purposes of the Credit Program.
"One Year Period (1YP)" means period commencing on the date on which OHFA and the Owner agree to the Qualified Contract Price in writing and lasting twelve (12) calendar months.
"Owner" means the legal Owner of record of the Development, as set forth on page one of the Regulatory Agreement, and any and all successor(s) in interest. Owner also means any other Person or entity having or acquiring any right, title, or interest in the Development.
"Person" means, without limitation, any natural person, corporation, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, trust, estate, association, cooperative, government, political subdivision, agency or instrumentality, Community Housing Development Organization (CHDO), interlocal cooperative, or other organization of any nature whatsoever, and shall include any two or more Persons acting in concert toward a common goal.
"Placed-In-Service" means: (i) the date on which a new Building or existing Building used as residential rental property is ready and available for its specifically assigned function as evidenced by a certificate of occupancy or the equivalent; or (ii) for Rehabilitation Expenditures that are treated as a separate new Building, any twenty-four (24) month period over which such Rehabilitation Expenditures are aggregated.
"Program Rules" means the various written criteria, requirement, rules, and policies adopted from time to time by the Trustees as the State's Qualified Allocation Plan to administer the Credit Program and to provide for Allocations. The Program Rules must be followed by any participant in the Program. The Program Rules may include requirements that are more stringent than those under Code Section 42.
"Qualified Allocation Plan (QAP)" means these Chapter 36 Rules plus the Application Packet (AP) as defined and other materials provided by OHFA. The deadline for all informal input sessions and the formal public hearing for changes in the QAP will be published by OHFA Staff.
"Qualified Building" means a Building which meets the terms, conditions, obligations, and restrictions of the Program Rules, Carryover Allocation Agreement, Regulatory Agreement, Resolutions of the Trustees respecting Owner or the Development, and Code Section 42(c)(2) for an Allocation and the issuance by OHFA of IRS Form 8609.
"Qualified Contract" means a bona fide contract to acquire the portion of a Building which is not Rent-Restricted for fair market value and the portion of the Building which is Rent-Restricted for an amount not less than the Applicable Fraction for the Building or the sum of: (i) the portion of outstanding indebtedness secured by, or with respect to the Building which is allocable to such Building; (ii) adjusted investor equity in the Building; and (iii) other capital contributions invested in the Building but not reflected in the amounts described in (i) or (ii) above; reduced by cash distributed from the Development or available for distribution from the Development; provided that in all cases, the purchase price for the Building required for a contract to be a Qualified Contract shall be determined in a manner consistent with the requirements of Code Section 42(h)(6)(F), or such other regulations as prescribed by the Code to carry out this section.
"Qualified Contract Application (QCA)" means an Application containing all information and items required by the OHFA to process a request for a Qualified Contract.
"Qualified Contract Preliminary Application (QCPA)" means a request containing all information and items necessary for OHFA to determine the eligibility of an Owner to submit a Qualified Contract Application.
"Qualified Contract Price (QCP)" means calculated purchase price of the Development as defined within §42(h)(6)(F) of the Code and as further delineated in Chapter 36 Rules.
"Qualified Development" means a Development where the Housing Units are both Rent-Restricted and occupied by Residents whose Income is at or below the level selected as the Minimum Low-Income Housing Set-Aside.
"Qualifying Households" means households whose annual Incomes do not exceed the elected area median family income set-aside required in the Code.
"Regulatory Agreement" means the written and recorded agreement between a recipient of a TCA and the allocating agency, OHFA, placing restrictive covenants upon the Development and the underlying Land for a term of not less than thirty years (30) years, or such other term as may be required from time to time by provisions of the AP, these OAHTC Rules and Section 42 of the Code and the federal rules and regulations promulgated thereunder and containing other restrictions, covenants, warranties and agreements required by State, federal or local law and these OAHTC Rules.
"Rehabilitation Expenditures" means amounts that are capitalized and incurred for the addition to or improvement of an existing Building of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation under Section 167 of the Code. However, it does not include the costs of acquiring a Building or an interest in it, for example, any Developer Fee properly allocated in acquiring a Building or any other soft costs or any amount not permitted to be taken into account under Section 42(d)(3) or Section 42(d)(4) of the Code.
"Rent-Restricted" means that the Gross Rent with respect to a Low-Income Unit does not exceed thirty percent (30%) of the Income limitations for qualified Residents adjusted by the Imputed Household Size, subject to the exception set forth in Code Section 42(g)(2)(E) (relating to certain Housing Units for which federal rental assistance decreases as Resident Income increases).
"Resident" means an individual or group of individuals (other than an Owner) residing in a Housing Unit.
"Resolution" means an official action of the Trustees and may include all Resolutions adopted by the Trustees with respect to a Development.
"Review Report" means the Threshold Criteria Review and Selection Criteria Review containing the results of OHFA's review of the Application and scoring of the Application. There are preliminary and final versions of the Review Report for each Application.
"Rural Area" means any city, town, village, area or place generally considered rural by the Secretary of Agriculture (RHS) for rural housing programs. Verification will be obtained by OHFA staff.
"Rural Development" means a Development that is, or will be located within a Rural Area as defined by USDA.
"Section 8" means Section 8(c)(2)(A) of the United States Housing Act of 1937, as amended.
"Selection Criteria" means the evaluation criteria, over and above the Threshold Criteria, set out in the AP, which shall be established and may be changed by OHFA from time to time in the AP (using the priorities for the State as they are established from time to time under and pursuant to these Rules and the AP), to determine the Development's qualifications, and which are the basis for ranking Applications and establishing a relative level of acceptability for consideration under the Rules and the AP for the possibility of the award of a TCA by OHFA. Although the Selection Criteria may be given substantial weight by the Trustees in deciding whether or not a particular Application and Applicant shall be awarded a TCA, the Trustees reserve the right to take into consideration such other factors as they, in their complete discretion, deem appropriate.
"Site Control" means the exercise of dominion or Control over the property through the execution of a purchase, sale, or long-term lease agreement (with a lease term that exceeds the Extended Use Period), receipt of a deed or conveyance of the Land where the Development will be located, or an option to purchase the property (where the option is not revocable on the part of the seller). OHFA alone will decide if an Applicant or Owner has obtained Site Control.
"State" means the State of Oklahoma.
"Targeted Populations" means such populations as may be designated from time to time in the AP by official action of the Trustees, which designations may include, but are not necessarily limited to, the Homeless, the Elderly, Veterans, Youth aging out of Foster Care, persons with mental and physical disabilities and/or disabled persons.
"Tax Credit Allocation (TCA)" means a federal Low-Income Tax Credit Allocation by OHFA to a Development Owner pursuant to Section 42 of the Code, QAP, and formal action by the Trustees.
"Three-Year Period" for a Building means the three (3) year period following: (a) the date of acquisition of such Building by foreclosure or forfeiture under a deed of trust, mortgage or real estate contract or by deed in lieu of foreclosure; or (b) the end of the Extended Use Period, or (c) in the case of the release of the affordability restriction due to the failure of OHFA to present a QC before the expiration of the One Year Period, the recording of a Release of Regulatory Agreement by OHFA. During the Three-Year Period the Owner may not evict or terminate a tenancy of an existing tenant of any Low-Income Unit except for good cause. During the Three-Year Period the Owner may not increase the Gross Rent with respect to any Low-Income Unit except as permitted under Section 42 of the Code.
"Threshold Criteria" means the criteria set out herein and in the AP, which shall be established and may be changed by OHFA from time to time in the AP, to determine the qualifications of the Applicant and the Owner and the proposed Development, presented in each Application that are the minimum level of acceptability for consideration under the Rules and the AP for the possibility of the award of a TCA by OHFA. Failure to satisfy all Threshold Criteria set out in the AP may result in the disqualification of the Application for further consideration, and may require no further action by OHFA Staff except to notify the Applicant of the disqualification.
"Total Development Costs" means the total costs incurred in acquiring and developing the Development as set forth in the proposed budget for the Development included in the Application. Total Development Costs will be certified by an independent certified public accountant's Certification of sources and uses of funds at times prescribed by OHFA.
"Transfer" means any sale, Transfer, merger, consolidation, liquidation, contribution, assignment, exchange or other change in all or part of the Ownership of the Land and/or Development or any Building which is a part thereof, whether voluntary or involuntary, and also includes: a Transfer, sale, contribution or assignment by the Applicant, Owner or Developer of all or any part of its rights, title or interest in the Application, Carryover Allocation Agreement, Credit, Land, Building and/or Development to another party; or a withdrawal, change or addition of any partner to a general partnership, general partner of a limited partnership, any party to a joint venture or the manager of a limited liability company.
"Transferee" means any and all successor(s) in interest of Owner and any other Person or entity having or acquiring any right, title, or interest in the Development.
"Transitional Housing" for purposes of these OAHTC Program Rules means Transitional Housing for the Homeless which meets the requirements of Code Section 42(i)(3)(B)(iii)
"Treasury" means the United States Department of the Treasury.
"Trustees" means the Board of Trustees of OHFA.
"Unit Fraction" means the fraction of a Building devoted to low-income housing, the numerator of which is the number of Low-Income Housing Units in the Building, and the denominator of which is the number of total Housing Units, whether or not occupied, in the Building.
"Violent Criminal Activity" means any criminal activity that has as one of its elements the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force substantial enough to cause, or be reasonably likely to cause, serious bodily injury or property damage.
SUBCHAPTER 2.  Allocation Procedures
330:36-2-13.1.  Final Review Report
(a)    The Staff of OHFA will consider the Applicant's response to the preliminary Review Report prior to issuing the final Review Report and making its recommendations to the Trustees. The Applicant will be informed of Staff's recommendations prior to the meeting of the Trustees where the Application is being considered. OHFA will forward OHFA's final Review Report to the contact person identified by the Applicant in the Application.
(b)    The final Review Report may be adopted by the Trustees, including Staff's recommendations and exclusion of any additional documentation proffered by the Applicant for consideration of the Application by the Trustees.
(c)    In the event the Applicant disputes any matter contained in the final Review Report, Applicants must file ten (10) copies of any response(s) to the final Review Report or other information they wish the Trustees to consider not less than forty-eight (48) hoursthree business days prior to the commencement of the meeting where the Application will be considered. In addition to the hard copies, Applicants must submit an electronic version of the response. If both the hard copy and the electronic version are not received, the responses will not be accepted or considered by the Staff or the Trustees.
SUBCHAPTER 4.  Development Applications and Selection
330:36-4-1.1.  Bond financed Developments
(a)    Tax-exempt bond Developments financed at least fifty percent (50%) with the proceeds of tax-exempt bonds adhering to guidelines established by federal legislation and/or the IRS, adopted by OHFA, and subject to the private activity bond volume cap are required to comply with all the requirements of these Rules with the exception of the competitive selection process.
(b)    Code requirements for bond financed Developments must be met in addition to the AHTC requirements, i.e., rental units, rents, student exemptions, Transfers on site, occupancy changes, verification of assets.
(c)    Deadlines for the submission of Applications for bond financed Developments will be established in the AP.
330:36-4-2.  Selection of Applications for award of TCAs
(a)     General. For the purpose of selecting Applications for awards of TCAs, OHFA shall develop Threshold and Selection Criteria that conform to the Code, the OAHTC Program purposes and these Chapter 36 Rules for inclusion in the next AP. The number, severity, or value of any one or more of the Threshold or Selection Criteria items may be increased by adoption of an AP for a given year that contains such increased Threshold or Selection Criteria items. However, each AP must contain for any AP, criteria to evaluate set-asides and all Threshold and Selection Criteria.
(b)     Minimum Threshold Criteria. Failure to meet all Threshold Requirements set forth in the AP upon initial submission of the Application may result in the Application being rejected without further review. The Threshold Criteria may include, but are not necessarily limited to the following:
(1)     Market analysis. All Applicants must submit a third party, independent housing market analysis conforming to the Threshold Criteria set forth in the AP, demonstrating and documenting the status of the market demand for the type and number of Housing Units proposed to be developed.
(2)     Nonprofit Owners. Applicants proposing Developments under the Nonprofit set-aside must demonstrate and document that the Nonprofit Owner and/or Nonprofit ownership participant meet the definition of a Nonprofit Sponsored Development as defined in Section 42h(5)(C) of the Code and these Chapter 36 rules at 330:36-1-4. Applicants for Nonprofit set-aside TCAs must demonstrate that the Nonprofit participant:
(A)    demonstrates more than fifty percent (50%) Ownership in the general partner or managing member;
(B)    will materially participate, on a regular basis, in the planning and construction of the Development, and in the operation and management of the Development throughout the entire Compliance Period pursuant to 26 CFR § 1.469;
(C)    has a Board of Directors and Officers that are independent from any for-profit Development partner; and
(D)    is duly authorized to do business within the State; and
(E)    has at least one year of affordable housing experience.
(3)     Capacity and prior performance. Each Applicant must demonstrate and document the degree of expertise of Applicant and Owner, the Development Team, general partner, management, and principals thereof in the use of TCAs in the development, rehabilitation and/or conversion, management and operation of properties related to the type of the proposed Development. Instances of nonperformance include, but are not limited to:
(A)    having been involved in uncured financing defaults, foreclosures, or placement on HUD's list of debarred contractors;
(B)    events of material uncorrected noncompliance with any Federal or State assisted housing programs within the prior seven (7) years;
(C)    the appointment of a Receiver; conviction on a felony criminal charge; or bankruptcy within the prior seven (7) years;
(D)    removal as a general partner/managing member;
(E)    failure to meet and maintain any material aspect of a Development as represented in a Development Application;
(F)    failure to meet and maintain minimum property standards;
(G)    failure to bring any Development back into compliance after receiving written notice from OHFA's Compliance Staff.
(H)    failure to comply with OHFA's requests for information or documentation on any Development funded or administered by OHFA;
(I)    Extension requests depending on number and severity; and/or
(J)    excessive late or incomplete reports to OHFA.
(4)    Waiver of Qualified Contract. Applicants applying for Affordable Housing Tax Credits must waive their right to a Qualified Contract. Waiving the right to a Qualified Contract will not prohibit the Applicant from selling the Tax Credit Development after the initial 15-year compliance period. However, it will require the Tax Credit Development itself to remain Affordable for a minimum of 30 years.
(5)     Acquisition Credits. Applicants requesting acquisition Credits must provide an opinion of independent unrelated counsel, in a form satisfactory to OHFA, that the requirements of Code Section 42(d)(2)(B) have been met or a waiver obtained from the IRS.
(6)     Financial feasibility and viability. Applicants must demonstrate that there are Commitments to the Development's financial feasibility and viability as a qualified low-income housing Development. Applicants must demonstrate to OHFA's satisfaction that the Applicant has financing Commitments for one hundred percent (100%) of the project's total estimated construction and permanent financing. Items required to be included in financing Commitments will be established in the AP. Requirements set out in 36-4-2.1 (b)(c) and (d) are part of the analysis for financial feasibility.
(7)     Readiness to proceed. Applicants must demonstrate readiness to proceed in a timely manner should they be awarded a TCA. Factors that may be considered regarding Development readiness may include but not be limited to:
(A)    Site Control;
(B)    preliminary plans or specifications;
(C)    proper zoning for the proposed Development; and
(8)    Certifications. Refer to the application for required certification attachments to be completed.
(9)    Fair Housing Training. Refer to the application for details regarding what training sessions OHFA will accept for the Developer, Architectural firm, general contractor, and managers.
(10)     Capital Needs Assessment. All Applications for rehabilitation will be accompanied by a Capital Needs Assessment as established in the AP.
(11)     Development amenities. Each Application will be analyzed and evaluated as to Commitments made therein for the provision of amenities. Amenities and documentation requirements will be established in the AP. This may be considered as a Threshold or Selection item in the AP.
(c)     Selection Criteria. The Selection Criteria, documentation, and points shall be set forth in the AP. Selection may include, but not necessarily be limited to the following:
(1)     Income targeting. Each Application will be analyzed and evaluated as to the extent to which it is demonstrated therein a Commitment to target lower-income populations.
(2)     Term of affordability. Each Application will be analyzed on its ability and evaluated as to any Commitments made therein in regard to serving qualified tenants for a period of time longer than the minimum required by the Code.
(3)     Development location. Each Application will be analyzed and evaluated as to the location for the proposed Development.
(4)     Tenant/Targeted Populations. Each Application will be analyzed and evaluated as to the extent to which Commitments are made therein to serve such Targeted Populations as are designated in the AP.
(5)     Tenant Populations of Individuals with Children. Each Application will be analyzed and evaluated as to the extent to which it serves tenant populations with children.
(6)     Tenant ownership. Applicants proposing single family home ownership after the Compliance Period must submit a detailed plan which includes projections on maintenance, tenant reserve funds, etc., which will be evaluated for feasibility.
(7)     Preservation of affordable housing. Each Application will be analyzed and evaluated to how an Application is preserving affordable housing.
(8)     Energy Efficiency/Green Building of a Development. Applicants are encouraged to provide energy efficient Developments and to utilize green building. This may be a separate point category, or it may be combined within another Threshold or Selection category.
(9)     Historic Nature of a Development. This may be a separate point category, or it may be combined within another Threshold or Selection category.
(10)     Subsidy per Unit. Refer to the application for the administration of this criterion.
(11)     Negative Points. OHFA Staff may deduct points for records of poor performance.
(12)     Tie-breaker. In case there are Applications with the same final score in any set-aside that will affect funding, the tie-breaker procedure will be established in the AP.
(d)     OHFA Trustee discretion. Notwithstanding the point ranking under the Selection Criteria set forth above under 330:36-4-2(c), the Trustees may in their sole discretion allocate Credits to a project irrespective of its point ranking, if Allocation is:
(1)    in compliance with Code Section 42;
(2)    in furtherance of the housing goals set forth herein, in the AP or any formally adopted Resolution of the Trustees; and
(3)    determined by the Trustees to be in the interests of the citizens of the State.
330:36-4-2.1.  General program requirements and limitations
(a)     General. [RESERVED]
(b)     Developer Fee limitations. The amount of allowable Developer Fees shall be established in the AP.
(c)     Contractor Fee limitation. Allowable contractor fees shall be established in the AP.
(d)     Underwriting standards.
(1)     Total reserves.
(A)    Minimum reserves will be established in the AP.must equal the sum of six months of each:
(i)    projected operating expenses
(ii)    debt service payments and
(iii)    replacement reserve payments.
(B)    Minimum replacement reserves will be established in the AP.
(C)    Developer guarantees or letters of credit may be accepted in lieu of operating reserves, at the discretion of OHFA. The Developer must demonstrate financial capacity and liquidity. OHFA will also consider the Developer's performance record and the number of other guarantees outstanding.
(2)     Debt service coverage.
(A)    Debt service coverage means the ratio of a property's net operating income to debt service obligations.
(B)    The minimum acceptable debt service coverage ratio will be established in the AP.
(3)     Projections. All projections and pro-formas must contain realistic operating expense and vacancy rate projections consistent with prevailing market conditions.
(4)     Cost limits. Costs per unit must be realistic. Specific cost per unit criteria will be established in the AP. OHFA encourages cost efficient production, but will not give a preference solely for lowest construction costs.
(5)     Minimum Hard Construction Costs per unit for rehabilitations. Minimum Hard Construction Costs will be established in the AP.
(6)     Buildings designated by OHFA to receive increase in Credit. Designation of any boost will be established in the AP.OHFA will allow up to one hundred thirty percent (130%) boost for reasons determined and identified in the AP.
(e)     Progress reports.
(1)    Progress reports must be filed by the Owner beginning with the calendar quarter following the approval of a reservation of Credits until the Final Allocation Application is submitted to OHFA. Due Dates are January 10, April 10, July 10 and October 10. The report must contain, at a minimum, the status of site preparation and/or construction, including the percentage of completion of each Building, and costs incurred to date. The report must address any other requirements set forth in a Resolution of the Trustees and/or the Carryover Agreement, or as OHFA may designate. Within thirty (30) calendar days after the Certificate of Occupancy is issued for each Building in the project, the Owner must submit a copy of the Certificate of Occupancy and the Placed-In-Service Acknowledgement for that Building. Remedies for violation of these provisions include those denoted at 330:36-6-3, including but not limited to return of Credits.
(2)    Compliance progress reports are required as outlined in the compliance manual.
(f)     Construction time period. Guidance concerning Construction commencement will be established in the AP. Construction must begin within nine (9) months of the last calendar day of the month of the Credit Reservation, unless extended for cause by OHFA. Remedies for violation of these provisions include those denoted at 330:36-6-3, including but not limited to return of Credits. 6-3, including but not limited to return of Credits.
(g)     Additional requirements. OHFA may, as it deems necessary in its sole discretion, impose additional requirements or Program limitations on any Applicant, Owner, or Development. Said requirements or limitations may be set forth in a Resolution of the Trustees, in any contract between the Applicant or Owner and OHFA, or in any other document deemed acceptable in OHFA's sole discretion.
(h)     Timeliness and completeness of filings. Deadlines for filing Applications will be established in the AP. Should OHFA request additional information, the deadline for filing same with OHFA will be set forth in the letter requesting same. Applicants/Owners must strictly comply with all deadlines and all filings must be complete when filed.
330:36-4-3.  Fees
 General.      Application and TCA Fees will be used to support overall OAHTC Program delivery and operation activities. Fees are nonrefundable.
(1)     Application fees. All Applications will pay a $2,000 fee with each submission of an Application.
(2)     Allocation fee. A nonrefundable Allocation fee shall be paid in an amount equal to eleven percent (11%) of the total TCA, but in any event not less than $1,000.00. The Allocation fee is due within fourteen (14) calendar days of notification from OHFA of the approval of a TCA. A Carryover Allocation Agreement will not be executed, nor will Form 8609(s) be issued unless this fee has been received by OHFA. Nonpayment may result in revocation of Credits.
(3)     Processing fee. A nonrefundable processing fee of one percent (1%) of the TCA must accompany the request for a Final Allocation. Form 8609(s) will not be issued unless this fee has been received by OHFA.
(4)     Regulatory Agreement filing fee. An executed Regulatory Agreement must be submitted to OHFA, as part of the request for Final Allocation, and be accompanied by a check payable to the County Clerk of the county or counties in which the Development is located. The check or checks shall be in an amount sufficient to cover the filing fees of the county or counties.
(5)     Compliance monitoring fees. In addition to the documentation required by OHFA, an annual compliance monitoring fee shall be paid to OHFA. The compliance fee is payable on or before January 28th for each year during the Compliance Period and Extended Use Period subject to annual adjustment. If the Development includes scattered sites, a compliance monitoring fee for each site shall be paid to OHFA. If the compliance fee is not paid within thirty (30) calendar days of the Due Date, then a Late Fee will be assessed. The Late Fee is equal to twenty five percent (25%) of the compliance fee. Failure to remit timely payment of compliance monitoring fees may result in the filing by OHFA of a lien against the Development. The compliance monitoring fee shall be computed as follows:
(A)    For Developments financed by RHS under the Section 515 (and otherwise qualify under the Code) receiving a TCA in 2011 or before where an agreement has been entered into between OHFA and RHS wherein the RHS agrees to provide OHFA with the required information respecting the Income and rent of the tenants in the Development, the fee shall be $315.00 per Development per year, plus $14.00 per OAHTC unit per year within any Building within the Development;
(B)    For single site or contiguous site Developments of four units or less, the fee shall be $350.00 per Development per year.
(C)    For all other Developments, including those financed by RHS under Section 515 receiving a TCA in 2012 or later, the fee shall be $450.00 per Development, plus $23.00 per OAHTC unit per year within any Building within the Development.
(D)    Single-family homes or duplexes regardless if scattered or on the same tract of land $525.00 flat fee + $30.00 per unit.
(E)    Developments selecting Income Averaging as the Minimum-Set- Aside will have an additional flat fee of $150.00 in addition to the applicable items in (A-D) above.
(6)     Additional monitoring fees. In the event of noncompliance with the Code or Regulatory Agreement or these Chapter 36 Rules requiring OHFA to conduct an examination of the Owner, any Building within the Development or any documentation to verify correction of said noncompliance, OHFA shall be reimbursed its costs by the Development or Owner for such an examination, including an hourly rate for the OHFA examiner, not to exceed $35.00 per hour, plus any and all actual travel, lodging and per diem expenses of such examiner. Such reimbursement of expenses and costs shall be paid to OHFA within ten (10) calendar days of receipt of OHFA's statement of same.
(7)     Ownership/General Partner Transfer fee. In the event that the Owner submits a request for approval of a Transfer of Ownership/general partner of the Development or any of the Buildings therein, a nonrefundable fee of $7,500.00, shall be imposed to cover OHFA's costs of handling the request. This fee shall accompany the request. If additional transfers are submitted at the same time and are essentially the same parties involved, then each additional transfer will be $4,000.
(8)     Management Transfer fees. In the event that the Owner submits a request for approval of a Transfer of the management company of the Development, a $650.00 fee per Development shall be imposed to cover OHFA's costs of handling the request. This fee shall accompany the request and shall be nonrefundable.
(9)     Copies of Rules. Copies of these Chapter 36 Rules can be accessed via OHFA's website, www.ohfa.org. If a copy is requested, then a charge to defray production will be charged.
(10)     Qualified Contract fees. Submission deadlines for these fees will be established in the Qualified Contract Application (QCA) materials. Qualified Contract Preliminary Application (QCPA) fee shall be $1,500.00 and is nonrefundable. Additionally, the nonrefundable Qualified Contract Application fee shall be $12,500.00 plus any third party fees and expenses incurred by OHFA and not paid directly by the Applicant. Third party fees and expenses include but are not limited to appraisals for the entire property, market study, title reports, environmental reports, accountants review and reports, and legal services. This is not an all-inclusive listing. Any third party fees and expenses incurred by OHFA will be identified and Applicants will receive notice of the charge and reason.
(11)     Late fees. The Form 8609(s) will not be issued unless these fees have been received by OHFA.
(A)     Progress reports. Progress reports as required in 36-4-2.1 when filed late will be assessed a late fee of $10.00 per calendar day, per each late report.
(B)     Carryover Allocations. Owners who fail to timely file all requirements in the AP as to Agreement, Application, ten percent (10%) cost Certifications, opinions and documents shall incur $100.00 late fee per calendar day.
(C)     Final Allocations. Owners who fail to timely file all requirements in the AP as to the Regulatory Agreement, Application, cost Certifications, opinions and documents shall incur $100.00 late fee per calendar day.
(D)     Transfer Documents. Owners who fail to timely file all requirements in regard to the Transfer of Ownership or general partnership interest (or other type of entity), and/or Management Transfers may incur $25.00 late fee per calendar day.
(E)     Acknowledgment of Placed-In-Service Form. Owners who fail to timely file an Acknowledgment of Placed-In-Service Form in accordance to timelines established in the AP may shall incur $10 late fee per calendar day.
SUBCHAPTER 6.  Program Administration
330:36-6-1.  Program violations and revocation
(a)    The following are violations of OAHTC Program policies and procedures and these OAHTC Program Rules:
(1)    The filing of false information in an Application and/or a Development report;
(2)    Failure of an Applicant or Owner, as the case may be, to satisfy any of the requirements of the Code, applicable State or federal statutes, rules or regulations, these OAHTC Program Rules, or any requirements contained in the AP, or any Commitments made in the Application upon which the award of a TCA was based;
(3)    Breach of any of the terms, conditions, obligations, covenants, warranties, or representations of the Owner or Applicant contained in the Regulatory Agreement and/or the Carryover Allocation Agreement or the breach of any terms conditions, obligations or requirements set forth in any Resolution of the Trustees pertaining to the Applicant/Owner or the Development;
(4)    Notice by OHFA to the Owner that significant corrective actions are necessary to protect the integrity of the Development and that such corrective actions have not been, or cannot be, effected within a reasonable time, in the judgment of OHFA staff;
(5)    An administrative or judicial determination that the Applicant or Owner has committed fraud, waste, or mismanagement in any current or prior State or federally funded project;
(6)    The housing of a person(s) convicted of a felony or engaged in any illegal or criminal activities as set forth in this subsection, if the Owner, or managers of the Development, or any of their Affiliates, have knowledge of or about, or by reasonable inquiry should have known of same. The prohibition on housing shall apply to any person who:
(A)    is currently engaged in, has been convicted of using, distributing, or manufacturing methamphetamine. Housing of such person shall be prohibited for a period of ten (10) years from the date of the conviction, or end of the incarceration, whichever is most recent.
(B)    is currently engaged in, has been convicted of Violent Criminal Activity or Drug Related Criminal Activity. Housing of such person shall be prohibited for a period of three (3) years from the date of the conviction, or end of the incarceration, whichever is most recent.
(C)    has been convicted of any other felonious activities other than Drug Related Criminal Activity or Violent Criminal Activity. Housing of such person shall be prohibited for a period of three (3) years from the date of the conviction or end of the incarceration, whichever is most recent.
(D)    is subject to a lifetime registration requirement under a Federal or State sex offender registration program.
(E)    is a sex offender, not subject to lifetime registration. Housing of such person shall be prohibited for a period of ten (10) years from the date of the arrest, conviction, or end of incarceration (whichever is later) or the period of required registration as a sex offender, whichever is greater.
(7)    The prohibition on the housing of a convicted felon shall not apply to qualified tenants of Transitional Housing or Permanent Supportive Housing, except that the housing of a person in any Transitional Housing or Permanent Supportive Housing shall be prohibited if said person:
(A)    is subject to a lifetime registration requirement under a Federal or State sex offender registration program, or
(B)    is currently engaged in or has been convicted of a violent felony in the last three (3) years.
(8 6)    From and after the date of the filing of the Application, failure to notify OHFA of any material changes effecting the proposed Development, including, but not limited to, modifications to any representations contained in the Application, any amendments or modifications of the financing plan, syndicators or equity partners or any other Threshold requirement and/or changes in Development Team Members, contractors, property managers, etc. Notification must be filed with OHFA not less than sixty (60) calendar days prior to the proposed change. Approval by the Trustees is required for any changes or amendments involving the ownership or Control of the Development or the Owner after the Application is filed. This would include, but not be limited to, changes or Transfers of the Development, changes or modifications of the ownership or composition of the general partner entity (i.e. addition or removal of members, partners, stockholders, etc.), any addition, substitution, withdrawal or removal of any general partner. Other amendments may be handled administratively by staff, although staff reserves the right to refer any amendments to the Trustees for their consideration; or
(b)    Failure to follow all required procedures throughout the Allocation process could jeopardize the final Allocation or result in housing Credits being revoked.
(1)    The following shall not be considered violations of OAHTC Program policies and procedures and these OAHTC Program Rules. The owner of any real property, including any improvements consisting of dwelling units, acquired or improved in connection with an allocation of income tax credits pursuant to the provisions of Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, or in connection with an allocation of income tax credits pursuant to the provisions of Section 2357.403 of Title 68 of the Oklahoma Statutes shall have the right to impose conditions in any lease agreement for the occupancy of any dwelling located on real property as described by this section which allow the owner to accept or decline to enter into the lease agreement, or to terminate a previously executed lease agreement based upon the discovery of incomplete or false information, with respect to the prior felony conviction of any person identified as a tenant pursuant to the terms of the lease agreement, including occupants of the dwelling whether or not those occupants formally execute a lease agreement.
(2)    The owner of real property as described in subsection (c) of this section may either accept or decline to enter into a lease agreement or to terminate a previously executed lease agreement based upon felony convictions, whether pursuant to federal law or the laws of any state or other governmental jurisdiction.
330:36-6-7.  OHFA monitoring procedures
(a)     General. Section 42(m)(1)(B)(iii) of the Code mandates that state housing Credit agencies monitor all Placed-In-Service tax Credit projects for compliance with the provisions of Section 42. The Code also mandates that the Internal Revenue Service be notified, by the state housing agencies, of any instances of noncompliance, this includes failure to comply with the Code and federal regulations and these Chapter 36 Rules, as well as failure to pay all compliance fees in a timely manner. OHFA will also monitor for compliance with the Regulatory Agreement provisions which contain additional Owner Commitments made to secure points in the project selection process, e.g. additional Low-Income Units or an Extended Use Period. OHFA has assembled and will make available to the Development Owners, a Compliance Manual explaining the OAHTC monitoring process in detail. An Owner representative and a management agent representative will be required to successfully complete a compliance training session conducted by OHFA or approved by OHFA and submit proof thereof with the first Quarterly report. OHFA will monitor the documents and Certifications set forth in 330:36-6-7(b) and (c) for compliance with the Code.
(b)     Record keeping and record retention provisions.
(1)    The Owner of a low-income housing project is required to keep records for each qualified low-income Building in the project showing:
(A)    The total number of residential units in the Building (including the number of bedrooms and the size in square feet of each residential rental unit);
(B)    The percentage of residential rental units in the Building that are Low-Income Units;
(C)    The rents charged on each residential rental unit in the Building (including any utility allowances);
(D)    The number of occupants in each Low-Income Unit;
(E)    The Low-Income Unit vacancies in the Building and information that shows when, and to whom the next available units were rented;
(F)    The initial Income Certification of each low-income tenant per unit, and any additional recertification that may be required;
(G)    Documentation to support each low-income tenant's Income Certification;
(H)    The Eligible Basis and qualified basis of the Building at the end of the first year of the Credit period;
(I)    The character and use of the nonresidential portion of the Building included in the Building's Eligible Basis under Section 42(d) of the Code (e.g. tenant facilities that are available on a comparable basis to all tenants and for which no separate fee is charged for use of the facilities, or facilities reasonably required by the project); and
(J)    Copies of all correspondence with the IRS.
(2)    The Owner is required to retain the records described in this section for each Building in the project for at least six (6) years after the Due Date (with extensions) for filing the federal income tax return for that year. The records for the first year of the Credit period must be retained for at least six (6) years beyond the Due Date (with extensions) for filing the federal income tax return for the last year of the Compliance Period of the Building.
(c)     Certification and review provisions.
(1)    Between the Placed-In-Service date of a Building and the submission of an Application for a final Allocation of Credits, and prior to the issuance of an 8609, OHFA may physically inspect the property. An on-site review will again be conducted within the following year as described in 330:36-6-7 (c) (6) of these Rules.
(2)    In accordance with Section 42(l) (1), following the close of the first taxable year in the Credit period, the Owner must certify to the Secretary of the Treasury:
(i)    the taxable year in which such Building was Placed-In-Service,
(ii)    the adjusted basis and Eligible Basis as of the close of the first year of the Credit period,
(iii)    the maximum applicable percentage and qualified basis, and
(iv)    the election made for the low-income targeting threshold.
(v)    This Certification is accomplished by completing Part II of the 8609(s). A copy of the completed 8609(s) must also be submitted to OHFA. The Due Date for submission is May 10, or as extended by The Service or Staff, of the year due to The Service for the first Credit year.
(3)    Owners must prepare and submit a quarterly report beginning with the first full calendar quarter after the last Building is Placed-In-Service, and for the subsequent three quarters. This report must be accompanied by copies of the Tenant Income Certifications for each tenant and new move-ins for the appropriate quarter. If a project is determined not to be in compliance with Program requirements or there is indication of possible noncompliance, OHFA, at its discretion, may require reports each quarter until compliance is demonstrated.
(4)    The Owner of a low-income housing project is required to certify annually to OHFA for the preceding 12-month period on a form prescribed by OHFA certain questions regarding Section 42., in a form prescribed by OHFA, that for the preceding 12-month period:
(A)    The project met the requirements of the 20-50 or 40-60 test under Section 42(g)(I) of the Code, whichever Minimum set-aside is applicable to the project, and, if applicable to the project, the 15-40 test under Section 42(g)(4) for "deep rent skewed" projects;
(B)    There was no change in the Applicable Fraction (as defined in Section 42(c) (1) (B))of any Building in the project, or that there was a change and a description of the change;
(C)    The Owner has received an Income Certification from each low-income tenant and documentation to support that Certification;
(D)    Each Low-Income Unit in the project was Rent-Restricted under Section 42(g) (2);
(E)    All units in the project were for use by the general public and used on a nontransient basis (except for Transitional Housing for the Homeless);
(F)    Each Building in the project was suitable for occupancy, taking into account local health, safety, and building codes (or other habitability standards), and the State or local government unit responsible for making building code inspections did not issue a report of a violation for any Building or Low-Income Unit in the project;
(G)    There was no change in the Eligible Basis (as defined in Section 42(d)) of any Building in the project, or that there was a change, and the nature of that change;
(H)    All tenant facilities included in the Eligible Basis under Section 42(d) of any Building in the project, such as swimming pool, other recreational facilities, and parking areas, were provided on a comparable basis without charge to all tenants in the Building;
(I)    If a Low-Income Unit in the project became vacant during the year, reasonable attempts were, or are being made to rent that unit or the next available unit of comparable or smaller size to tenants having a qualifying Income before any units in the project were, or will be rented to tenants not having a qualifying Income;
(J)    If the Income of the tenant of a Low-Income Unit in the project increased above the limit allowed in Section 42(g)(2)(D)(ii), the next available unit of comparable or smaller size in the project was, or will be, rented to tenants having a qualifying Income;
(K)    An extended Low-Income Housing Commitment, as described in Section 42 (h)(6), was in effect;
(L)    The project meets the additional requirements contained in the Regulatory Agreements;
(M)    There was no change in the Owner entity (for example, Transfer of general partnership interest);
(N)    If the Owner received its Credit Allocation from a portion of the State's ceiling set-aside for projects involving "qualified Nonprofit organizations" under Section 42(h)(5) of the Code, the Nonprofit organization has materially participated in the operation of the Development (within the meaning of CFR § 1.469) and complete the Nonprofit Addendum or other form prescribed by OHFA;
(O)    No finding of discrimination under the Fair Housing Act, 42 U.S.C. 3601-3619, has occurred for this project. A finding of discrimination includes an adverse final decision by a substantially equivalent state or local fair housing agency, 42 U.S.C. 361a(a)(1), or an adverse judgment from federal court; and
(P)    An extended Low-Income Housing Commitment as described in Section 42(h)(6) was in effect, that an Owner cannot refuse to lease a unit in a project to an applicant because the applicant holds a voucher or certificate of eligibility under Section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937, 42 U.S.C. 1437s.
(Q)    Collect data required by HUD in a form prescribed by OHFA. In no way will the data collection be in violation of Fair Housing.
(5)    OHFA will review the Owner Certifications submitted pursuant to 330:36-6-7(c)(4), for compliance with the requirements of Section 42 of the Code.
(6)    OHFA must and will conduct on-site inspections of all Buildings in the project by the end of the second calendar year following the year the last Building in the project is Placed-In-Service, and for at least twenty (20) percent of the project's Low-Income Units, inspect the units and review the low-income Certifications, the documentation supporting the Certifications, and the rent records for the tenants in those units.
(7)    At least once every three (3) years through the Extended Use Period, OHFA must conduct on-site inspections of all Buildings. Refer to the application and/or the compliance manual for number of units to be inspected based on size of property according to amended compliance monitoring regulation 1.42-5. Staff will inspect the units and review the low-income Certifications, the documentation supporting the Certifications, and the rent records for the tenants in those units.
(8)    The Certifications and reviews of paragraphs 330:36-6-7(c)(2) and (c)(4) of these Chapter 36 Rules are required to be made at least annually until the end of the Extended Use Period, and the Certifications are to be made under penalty of perjury.
(9)    The Owner is required to provide to OHFA, for the first Credit year, a copy of the completed Part II 8609, 8609 Schedule A and Form 8586 that is submitted to the Internal Revenue Service.
(10)    The Owner is required to provide to OHFA, as it occurs, copies of all correspondence with the Internal Revenue Service.
(d)     Auditing/compliance provisions. OHFA has the right to perform an audit and/or compliance inspection of any low-income housing project during the term of the Regulatory Agreement. An audit/compliance inspection includes physical inspection of any Building in the project, as well as a review of the records described in 330:36-6-7(c)(1) of these Chapter 36 Rules. The auditing/compliance inspection provisions of this paragraph is in addition to any inspection of low-income Certifications and documentation under 330:36-6-7(c)(7)of this Chapter 36 Rules.
(e)     Notification of noncompliance provisions.
(1)    OHFA will provide prompt written notice to the Owner of a low-income housing project if OHFA does not receive the Certification described in 330:36-6-7(c)(4) of these Chapter 36, or does not receive, or is not permitted to inspect, the tenant Income Certification supporting documentation and rent records, or discovers on audit, inspection review, or in some other manner, that the project is not in compliance with the Code or these Chapter 36 rules. The Owner shall have a period of time, not to exceed forty-five (45) calendar days, from the date of such notice (the "correction period") to supply any missing Certifications and bring the project into compliance. OHFA may extend, in its own discretion, the correction period for up to an additional thirty (30) calendar days for good cause.
(2)    OHFA must file IRS Form 8823 Report of Noncompliance with the Internal Revenue Service no later than forty-five (45) calendar days after the end of the correction period whether or not the noncompliance or failure to certify is corrected. OHFA will explain on Form 8823 the nature of the noncompliance or failure to certify and indicate whether the Owner has corrected the noncompliance or failure to certify. Any change in either the Applicable Fraction or Eligible Basis that results in a decrease in the qualified basis of the project under Section 42(c)(1)(A) is an event of noncompliance that must be reported under this paragraph.
SUBCHAPTER 10.  Credit Assistance/Stimulus Legislation
330:36-10-2.  Other Enactments of Law
     In the event any federal or State assistance/stimulus programs benefiting the OAHTC Program become available to the State through OHFA, OHFA shall immediately implement such procedures as OHFA deems necessary, in its sole discretion, to access these funds for the purpose of Allocating, granting, awarding, etc. to Qualified Owners of Tax Credit Developments. The process developed for the current economic stimulus programs available and future enactments of law will be consistent with the goals of the Qualified Allocation Plan (QAP), the Chapter 36 Rules, Section 42 of the Code and any relevant rules, regulations, rulings or other guidance issued by the IRS and, as relevant the regulations of the HOME Program and guidance from HUD. The Application process and procedures developed will be reviewed by OHFA through normal procedures.
[OAR Docket #23-681; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 375.  Oklahoma State Bureau of Investiation
CHAPTER 35.  Investigative Services  [REVOKED]
[OAR Docket #23-668]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [REVOKED]
375:35-1-1. Purpose [REVOKED]
375:35-1-2. Definitions [REVOKED]
375:35-1-3. Judicial Background Investigations for the Judicial Nominating Commission [REVOKED]
Subchapter 3. Crimes Information Unit [REVOKED]
375:35-3-1. Creation and duties of the CIU [REVOKED]
375:35-3-2. Submission of information to CIU [REVOKED]
375:35-3-3. Distribution of information from CIU [REVOKED]
375:35-3-4. Duties of receiver of CIU information [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
74 O.S. 150 et seq; Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 6, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None held or requested
ADOPTION:
March 10, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVENRNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 10, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Revocations to rules in Chapter 35 of the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation [OAC 375:9] are proposed to implement changes made to the rules to reflect actual practices and changes to federal requirements.
CONTACT PERSON:
Shannon Desherow, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation, 6600 North Harvey Place, Oklahoma City, OK 73116
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisons  [REVOKED]
375:35-1-1.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The rules of this Chapter have been adopted for the purpose of complying with the relevant provisions of 75 O. S., Sections 250 et seq. (The Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act). The rules contained in this Chapter outline the procedures of the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation's Investigative Services Division.
375:35-1-2.  Definitions  [REVOKED]
     The following words or terms, when used in this chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly states otherwise:
"CIU" means Crimes Information Unit of the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation as established by Title 74 O. S., Section 150.21 a, and which shall hereafter be referred to as the Criminal Intelligence Unit.
"Crime Prevention" means activity by law enforcement officers or prosecutorial authorities which anticipates, hinders, frustrates, or stops suspected criminal activity. It does not include dissemination of information to persons other than commissioned peace officers.
"Director" means the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation's Director.
"INTERPOL" means the International Criminal Police Organization.
"Level One Background Investigation" means an electronic database search and report of the following by an OSBI Analyst and/or Communications Specialist:
(A)    OSBI Criminal history,
(B)    State Court Records via OSCN/ODCR (and/or out of state equivalent),
(C)    Oklahoma Driver License status and traffic record, (D) NCIC/NCIC III files,
(E)    United States District Courts records,
(F)    United States Bankruptcy Court records, (G) INTERPOL records (if applicable),
(H)    OSBI Indices Records, (I) Intelligence Files,
(J)    Oklahoma Employment Security Commission, (K) Newspaper Archives.
"Level Two Background Investigation" means a Level One Background Investigation and the following additional queries to be completed and reported by investigative personnel of the OSBI:
(A)    Oklahoma Tax Commission,
(B)    Internal Revenue Service,
(C)    Ethics Commission,
(D)    Federal Bureau of Investigation, (E) Education Verification,
(F)    Military Service Verification, (G) Birth Certificate Verification,
(H)    Employment Verification for 10 years prior to application, (I) Neighborhood interviews,
(J)    Employer Interviews for 10 years prior to application
(K)    Reference Interviews,
(L)    Interviews of relevant Court Officials,
(M)    Verification of facts as submitted by the applicant, (N) Applicant interview,
(O)    Other applicable and relevant interviews developed as a result of Level One and Level Two Background Investigations
"NCIC" means the National Crime Information Center.
"NCIC/III" means the National Crime Information Center Interstate Identification Index.
"ODCR" On Demand Court Records for the State of Oklahoma.
"OSBI" Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation.
"OSCN" means The Oklahoma State Courts Network.
"Reasonable suspicion of criminal activity" means that level of certainty which is created in the mind of an experienced and trained police officer that there is a reasonable possibility an individual or organization is involved in a definable criminal activity or enterprise.
375:35-1-3.  Judicial Background Investigations for the Judicial Nominating Commission  [REVOKED]
     The OSBI will conduct a Level One Background Investigation on all judicial applicants as requested by the Judicial Nominating Commission. The OSBI will conduct a Level Two Background Investigation on no more than three (3) applicants per judicial vacancy being considered by the Judicial Nominating Commission as requested by that agency.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Crimes Information Unit  [REVOKED]
375:35-3-1.  Creation and duties of the CIU  [REVOKED]
     The Director hereby establishes the Criminal Intelligence Unit of the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation. CIU shall, as authorized by the Director, perform the following functions:
(1)    Investigate organized crime, criminal conspiracies, and threats of violent crime;
(2)    collect information concerning the activity and identity of individuals reasonably believed to be engaged in organized crime, criminal conspiracies, or threatening violent crime;
(3)    analyze collected information and disseminate such information to other law enforcement agencies for the purposes of criminal investigation and crime prevention;
(4)    coordinate the effort of the State of Oklahoma with local, state, and federal agencies to protect its citizens against organized crime, criminal conspiracies, and threats of violent crime by providing a clearinghouse of crime-related information for use by local, state, and federal law enforcement agencies; and
(5)    provide training to peace officers of Oklahoma concerning the legal collection, preservation, and dissemination of crime-related information.
375:35-3-2.  Submission of Information to CIU  [REVOKED]
(a)    No person shall submit information to CIU and no information shall be retained by CIU which does not meet the standard of reasonable suspicion of criminal activity.
(b)    No person shall submit information to CIU which was obtained by illegal methods.
(c)    No employee of CIU shall distribute, accept, or store information which that employee has reason to believe was obtained by illegal methods.
(d)    No privacy interest or right to confidentiality belonging to the submitter attaches to the information submitted to CIU.
(e)    The Director shall designate a form to be used to submit information to CIU. No information shall be accepted by the CIU for retention which is not provided on the designated form.
375:35-3-3.  Distribution of information from CIU  [REVOKED]
(a)    Distribution of information contained in CIU shall be done at the sole discretion of the Director or his/her designee(s). No right to receive information exists by law, nor is any created by these rules.
(b)    Crime prevention does not include dissemination of information to persons other than commissioned peace officers.
(c)    In emergencies, dissemination of information received by CIU may be given to individuals other than law enforcement officers when:
(1)    there are open investigations in a matter when such release is deemed necessary by the Director or his/her designee(s) and;
(2)    for the purpose of preventing the commission of an eminent felony or preventing physical injury to any person.
(d)    Each dissemination of information under this rule shall be documented in CIU.
(e)    Each individual who requests and receives information from CIU is subject to jurisdiction of the Oklahoma District Court of Oklahoma County: if the requester is a resident of a state other than Oklahoma, or the District Court of the county of Oklahoma in which the requester is a resident, for the purposes of enforcing these rules and Title 74 O. S. §150.21a.
(f)    Each individual who requests and receives information from CIU shall provide OSBI with a signed receipt for the information on a form provided by OSBI.
375:35-3-4.  Duties of receiver of CIU information  [REVOKED]
(a)    Each individual who receives information from CIU or submits information to CIU shall notify OSBI immediately upon notice of any order of a court with jurisdiction concerning the dissemination, maintaining, sealing, expungement, or purging of the information submitted or received, or of any other order which affects the information. The individual who has received such an order shall provide CIU with a copy of the order within five (5) days of the date on which the individual originally received it.
(b)    Each individual shall be responsible for maintaining the secrecy of the information. Requesters shall keep received CIU information in a secure location with access limited to those law enforcement officers who are assigned to the specific investigation which generated the need to receive the information from CIU.
(c)    Each individual shall immediately purge such information from their records upon receiving a request to purge from the OSBI. Purging shall include removal of the information in any way which effectively obliterates the information or in the case of electronic storage removes the possibility of its retrieval. The receiver shall notify OSBI in writing that the purge has been completed.
(d)    No individual who receives information from CIU shall make copies, allow copies to be made, or otherwise further disseminate the information in any form. If further dissemination is necessary for the administration of law or legal court proceedings, the requester shall request CIU to provide copies of the information to the additional parties who require the information.
[OAR Docket #23-668; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 375.  Oklahoma State Bureau of Investiation
CHAPTER 40.  Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Program
[OAR Docket #23-669]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
375:40-1-2. Definitions [AMENDED]
375:40-1-3. Request for application [AMENDED]
375:40-1-5. Submission of application and required documents [AMENDED]
375:40-1-7. Identity theft database [REVOKED]
375:40-1-8. Issuance or denial of Passport [AMENDED]
375:40-1-11. Improper usage [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
74 O.S. 150 et seq; Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 6, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 1, 2023 through March 3, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None held or requested
ADOPTION:
March 8, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVENRNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 8, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Amendments and revocations to Chapter 40 of the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation [OAC 375:9] are proposed to implement changes made to the rules to reflect actual practices.
CONTACT PERSON:
Shannon Desherow, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation, 6600 North Harvey Place, Oklahoma City, OK 73116
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
375:40-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly states otherwise.
"Application" means the State of Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Request Victim Information Sheet.
"Bureau" means the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation.
"Certificate" means the 8 ½" x 11" State of Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Certificate issued to identity theft victims.
"Consumer Reporting Agency", as defined in Title 15 United States Code, Section 1681 et seq., The Fair Credit Reporting Act, means any person which, for monetary fees, dues, or on a cooperative nonprofit basis, regularly engages in whole or in part in the practice of assembling or evaluating consumer credit information or other information on consumers for the purpose of furnishing consumer reports to third parties, and which uses any means or facility of interstate commerce for the purpose of preparing or furnishing consumer reports.
"Eligible" means those victims of identity theft who have been (1) charged with or arrested for a criminal offense or have become the subject of an arrest warrant for a crime that was committed by the unauthorized individual or (2) those whose identities have been stolen, giving an unauthorized person or persons the potential to use the information to obtain false documents or consumer privileges.
"Fee" means a reasonable charge prescribed by the OSBI for processing applications for Identity Theft Passports.
"Identity Theft Affidavit" means a document created by the Federal Trade Commission to assist victims in reporting identity theft to one or more of the three national consumer reporting agencies and the fraud departments of their creditors, banks, or utilities/services.
"Identity Theft Report" means a report of identity theft (police report) made by the victim to a federal, state, or local law enforcement agency within the State of Oklahoma.
"Minor Child" means any person under 18 years of age.
"Nationally Recognized Credit Card" means any instrument or device, whether known as a credit card, credit plate, charge plate, or by any other name, issued with or without fee by the issuer for the use of the cardholder in obtaining goods, services, or anything else of value on credit which is accepted by over one thousand merchants in the state. The Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation shall determine which nationally recognized credit cards will be accepted by the Bureau.
"Order of Expungement and Sealing of Records" means a certified court document issued for the purpose of expunging a criminal charge, arrest or outstanding arrest warrant created or issued as the result of identity theft pursuant to 22 Oklahoma Statutes Sections 18(9) and 19a.
"OSBI" means the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation.
"Passport" means the Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Card issued to identity theft victims.
"Reasonable Cause" means the basis on which the OSBI may deny an application for an Identity Theft Passport to include, but not limited to, failure to complete the application form and/or provide any of the required documents outlined in OAC Rule 375: 40-1-5 Submission of Application and Required Documentation.
"Victim" means a person whose name or other identification has been appropriated or used by another without the person's consent or authorization.
375:40-1-3.  Request for application
     The State of Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Request Victim Information Sheet and instructions may be requested from the OSBI's Identity Theft Passport Unit by telephone at #405/848-6724 (Oklahoma City metropolitan area) or #1/800/522-8017#1/800/207/6724 (outside the metropolitan area) between 8:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m.8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday excluding holidays. The form and instructions are available for download on the Bureau's Internet web site at www.osbi.ok.gov. The FTC Identity Theft Affidavit is available on the OSBI web site or at www.consumer.gov/idtheft/.
375:40-1-5.  Submission of application and required documents
(a)    Each identity theft passport applicant shall provide the following documents:
(1)    Complete a State of Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Request Victim Information Sheet;
(2)    Provide his or her current Oklahoma driver's license or current Oklahoma ID card (in-person requests) or a legible photocopy of either document (mail requests). If the victim is a minor child, a parent or legal guardian must provide his or her Oklahoma driver's license or ID card, along with a notarized statement in which the parent or guardian attests he or she has legal responsibility for the victim as a minor child;
(3)    Provide two current, passport size, color photographs for the Oklahoma Identity Theft Passport Card;
(4)    Provide a certified copy of an Order for Expungement and Sealing of Records issued pursuant to 22 O. S. Section 18(9) or 22 O. S. Section 19a; or copies of all of the following documents
(A)    An FTC Identity Theft Affidavit
(B)    An Identity Theft Report (police report) made to a federal, state or local law enforcement agency within the State of Oklahoma
(C)    A completed United States Postal Service Certified Mail/Domestic Return Receipt (PS Form 3811) as proof that an Identity Theft Affidavit and Identity Theft Report have been sent to and received by one of the three major national consumer reporting agencies identified as:
(i)    Equifax Credit Information Services, Inc., www.exquifax.com
(ii)    Experian Information Solutions, Inc., www.experian.com
(iii)    TransUnion, www.transunion.com
(b)    Each identity theft passport applicant shall mail the application packet to the Oklahoma State Bureau of Investigation, Identity Theft Passport Unit, 6600 North Harvey, Oklahoma City, OK 73116, or deliver all such items to Suite 140 at the same address.
375:40-1-7.  Identity theft database  [REVOKED]
     An Identity Theft Passport record will be created for each request received and issuances made. Information in the database is sealed and not subject to the Open Records Act, 51 Oklahoma Statutes, Section 24A.1 et seq., pursuant to 22 Oklahoma Statute, Section 18(9) and 22 Oklahoma Statute, Section 19b, Subsection F. However, the Bureau may provide information from the database to a law enforcement agency or officer upon receipt of a written request on a form provided by the OSBI.
375:40-1-8.  Issuance or denial of Passport
(a)    Unless a review of the application reveals reasonable cause not to issue a passport, the Identity Theft Passport Unit will create an Identity Theft Passport Card stating whether the passport was issued on the basis of an Order for Expungement or an Identity Theft Report and Affidavit. The card will contain the victim's name, address, birthdate, sex, race, height, weight, hair and eye color, the passport number and date issued.
(b)    Identity Theft Passport and Certificate shall be returned by certified mail with return receipt requested to ensure delivery to the applicant only. Notification of a denied application shall be made by letter and include the reason(s) for the denial.
375:40-1-11.  Improper usage
     Any use or attempted use of an Identity Theft Passport or Certificate not specifically authorized by OAC 375: 40-1-10 (Passport Restrictions) is not authorized and is prohibited.
[OAR Docket #23-669; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 380.  Department of Labor
CHAPTER 75.  Alarm and Locksmith Industry Rules
[OAR Docket #23-568]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. License Requirements
380:75-3-3 [AMENDED]
380:75-3-4 [AMENDED]
380:75-3-6 [AMENDED]
380:75-3-7 [AMENDED]
380:75-3-8 [AMENDED]
380:75-3-9 [AMENDED]
380:75-3-10 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Department of Labor; 59 O.S. § 1800.17, Alarm, Locksmith and Fire Sprinkler Industry Act
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 21, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 21, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule amendments provide that the Commissioner of Labor may require that applicants for a manager's license in the Alarm, Locksmith & Fire Sprinkler Industry (excluding alarm monitoring) take more than one exam in order to qualify for a license. The circumstances which created the need for the rule amendments are that the Oklahoma Alarm, Locksmith and Fire Sprinkler Industry Committee recommended this amendment to the Commissioner of Labor to ensure that managers are knowledgeable in each category for which they are licensed. The intended effect of the proposed rule amendments is to better ensure public safety by ensuring minimum manager competence regarding each category for which a manager is licensed.
CONTACT PERSON:
Daniel A. Mares, Assistant General Counsel, (405) 521-6186 or daniel.mares@labor.ok.gov or Don Schooler, Chief of Staff and General Counsel, (405) 521-6181 or don.schooler@labor.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  License Requirements
380:75-3-3.  Burglar alarm license requirements
     Licensing requirements for the burglar alarm industry are as follows:
(1)     Company.
(A)    Each burglar alarm company shall employ an Oklahoma licensed burglar alarm manager who is responsible for the operations of the company's office. A burglar alarm company shall notify the Department within fourteen (14) days in event of the death of the burglar alarm company manager or the manager's separation from the company for any other reason, and the company shall designate another licensed burglar alarm manager within (30) thirty days from separation.
(B)    A licensed burglar alarm technician or manager shall be on site for any work being performed.
(C)    A burglar alarm company may operate multiple activity offices provided each office has the same name and ownership of the parent company and shall operate in compliance with 380:75-3-3(1)(A). The company will notify the Department of the physical address and telephone number for each office in accordance with 59 O.S. Section 1800.10.
(D)    Each alarm company engaged in alarm business that sells a burglar alarm system to a consumer upon request from the consumer shall within forty-eight (48) hours return the lockout, installer, or programming code of the system to the factory default setting when the consumer cancels the contract on customer-owned equipment. If a system is installed without a written contract with the consumer, the system shall have the lockout code, installer or programming code set at default.
(E)    A company shall maintain and provide the customer with the following information prior to any agreement for service becoming effective. Any early termination clause applicable to military personnel, or the lack of such a clause, shall be fully disclosed in writing and shall be separately acknowledged by the customer. All monitoring and/or lease contracts shall include, as a minimum, the following information: the initial term of the agreement, the renewal term of the agreement, the terms for notification of cancellation of the agreement as well as the costs involved of all the terms of the agreement, the company name and the state issued license number, the sales representative's name and state issued license number, and the address where service will be provided. The minimum contract information described above shall be disclosed in one of the following ways:
(i)    Printed on the front or face of the written contract in not less than twelve (12) point bold type and at least two (2) points larger than the rest of type size of the remaining text in the written contract;
(ii)    On a separate disclosure form appended to the written contract and dated, and signed by the customer and the licensed alarm company representative who made the sale; or
(iii)    Electronically in a format and language that is understandable to the average consumer using bold type which is at least two (2) points larger than the type size of the remaining text in the contract.
(2)     Manager.
(A)    Each application for licensure as a manager shall include verification of four (4) years of experience in the burglar alarm business. The experience shall include two (2) years verified/or licensed experience as a burglar alarm technician or other related experience approved by the Committee.
(B)    Each burglar alarm manager applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each licensed burglar alarm company manager shall be responsible for all activities conducted within the State of Oklahoma by the office where they are listed as manager.
(D)    Each licensed burglar alarm company manager shall have a security background verification.
(E)    Each licensed burglar alarm company manager shall also be licensed as a residential fire alarm manager.
(3)     Technician.
(A)    Each technician shall work for a licensed burglar alarm company and under the supervision of a burglar alarm company manager.
(B)    Each burglar alarm technician applicant must pass an examination prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each technician shall have a security background verification.
(D)    Each licensed burglar alarm technician shall also be licensed as a residential fire alarm technician.
(E)    An individual that holds a technician license in this category can engage in any licensed category as a trainee pursuant to this Chapter.
(4)     Technician/Salesperson Trainee.
(A)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall be employed by a licensed Oklahoma burglar alarm company.
(B)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall work under the direct supervision of a licensed burglar alarm company manager, burglar alarm technician or a burglar alarm salesperson.
(C)    There shall be no more than three (3) technician/salesperson trainees per burglar alarm company manager, burglar alarm technician or burglar alarm salesperson per job site or project.
(D)    Each technician/salesperson trainee shall have security background verification.
(E)    Each licensed burglar alarm trainee shall also be licensed as a residential fire alarm trainee.
(F)    An individual that holds a trainee license can engage in any licensed category pursuant to this Chapter while under the direct supervision of an individual holding the appropriate license in the category of activity being performed.
(G)    An individual who holds a trainee license can engage in the rough-in cabling or wiring under the direct supervision of a licensed company holding the appropriate license category.
(H)    A technician trainee must submit a trainee application to the Department of Labor within fifteen (15) business days of being hired by a burglar alarm company.
(5)     Salesperson.
(A)    Each salesperson shall work for a licensed burglar alarm company and under the supervision of a burglar alarm company manager.
(B)    Each salesperson shall have a security background verification.
380:75-3-4.  Fire alarm license requirements
     Licensing requirements for the fire alarm industry are as follows:
(1)     Company.
(A)    Each fire alarm company shall employ an Oklahoma licensed fire alarm manager who is responsible for the operations of the company's office. In the event of the death of the fire alarm company manager or his/her separation from the company for any other reason, a fire alarm company shall notify the Department within fourteen (14) days and name a licensed fire alarm manager within thirty (30) days after separation.
(B)    A licensed fire alarm technician or manager shall be on site for any work being performed.
(C)    A company whose manager only holds a residential fire alarm manager license shall be issued a residential fire alarm company license.
(D)    A company whose manager holds a commercial fire alarm manager license shall be issued a commercial fire alarm company license.
(E)    A company with a residential fire alarm company license shall only offer to, or engage in the planning, installation, repair, alteration, maintenance, service, sale, inspection, or advertisement of fire alarms for use in residential building and manufactured housing.
(F)    A company with a commercial fire alarm company license may offer to, or engage in the planning, installation, repair, alteration, maintenance, service, sale, inspection, or advertisement of fire alarm systems for any residential or commercial use.
(G)    Any equipment installed by a company as part of a fire alarm system shall be listed by Underwriters Laboratories, Factory Mutual or any other nationally recognized testing entities for such purpose.
(H)    A fire alarm company may operate multiple activity offices provided each office has the same name and ownership of the parent company and shall operate in compliance with 380:75-3-4(1)(A). The company will notify the Department of the physical address and telephone number for each office in accordance with 59 O.S. Section 1800.10.
(I)    A properly licensed fire alarm technician or manager of a properly licensed alarm company shall perform the initial testing, inspection, or certification of the entire fire alarm system, and that licensed alarm company shall assume full responsibility for the installation of the alarm system.
(J)    Each fire alarm company that sells a fire alarm system to a consumer upon request from the consumer shall within forty-eight (48) hours return the central station monitoring programming code of the system to the factory default setting when the consumer cancels the contract on customer owned equipment. If a system is installed without a written contract with the consumer, the system shall have the central station monitoring programming code set at default.
(2)     Manager.
(A)    Each application for licensure as a fire alarm manager shall include verification of four (4) years of experience in the fire alarm business. The experience shall include two (2) years verified/or licensed experience as a fire alarm technician. If applying for residential fire alarm manager, experience must show residential technical experience. If applying for commercial fire alarm manager, experience must show commercial technical experience.
(B)    Each residential fire alarm manager applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each commercial fire alarm manager applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(D)    Each licensed company manager shall be responsible for all activities of the office they are listed as manager for within the State of Oklahoma.
(E)    Each licensed company manager shall have a security background verification.
(F)    A manager with a residential fire alarm manager license shall only offer to, engage in, or supervise the planning, installation, repair, alteration, maintenance, service, sale, inspection, or advertisement of fire alarm systems for use in residential building and manufactured housing. Each licensed fire alarm company manager that engages in residential systems must also be licensed as a burglar alarm manager.
(G)    A manager with a commercial fire alarm manager license may offer to, engage in, or supervise the planning, installation, repair, alteration, maintenance, service, sale, inspection, or advertisement of fire alarm systems for any residential or commercial use.
(3)     Technician.
(A)    Each technician shall work for a licensed Oklahoma fire alarm company and under the supervision of a fire alarm company manager.
(B)    Each residential fire alarm technician applicant must pass an examination prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each commercial fire alarm technician applicant must pass an examination prescribed by the Commissioner.
(D)    Each technician shall have a security background verification.
(E)    Each technician shall perform or supervise only fire alarm work within the fire alarm license category for which the fire alarm company is licensed. Each licensed fire alarm technician that engages in residential systems must also be licensed as a burglar alarm technician.
(F)    An individual that holds a technician license in this category can engage in any licensed category as a trainee pursuant to this Chapter.
(4)     Technician/salesperson trainee.
(A)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall be employed by a licensed Oklahoma fire alarm company.
(B)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall work under the direct supervision of a licensed fire alarm company manager, fire alarm technician or a fire alarm salesperson.
(C)    There shall be no more than three (3) technician/salesperson trainees per fire alarm company manager or fire alarm technician per job site.
(D)    Each technician/salesperson trainee shall have a security background verification.
(E)    Each technician/salesperson trainee shall only install, repair, alter, maintain, service, sell, or inspect fire alarm systems within the fire alarm license category for which the supervisor is licensed. Each licensed fire alarm trainee that engages in residential systems must also be licensed as a burglar alarm trainee.
(F)    An individual that holds a trainee license can engage in any licensed category pursuant to this Chapter while under the direct supervision of an individual holding the appropriate license in the category of activity being performed.
(G)    An individual who holds a trainee license can engage in the rough-in cabling or wiring under the direct supervision of a licensed company holding the appropriate license category.
(H)    A technician trainee must submit a trainee application to the Department of Labor within fifteen (15) business days of being hired by a fire alarm company.
(5)     Salesperson.
(A)    Each salesperson shall work for a licensed Oklahoma fire alarm company and under the supervision of a fire alarm company manager.
(B)    Each commercial fire alarm salesperson applicant must pass an examination required by the Department and prescribed by the Commissioner which determines if the applicant is sufficiently knowledgeable in fire alarms to design and sell fire alarm systems that meet applicable code standards when installed.
(C)    Each salesperson shall have a security background verification.
(D)    Each salesperson shall design and sell only fire alarm systems in the license category for which the fire alarm company is licensed.
380:75-3-6.  Fire sprinkler license requirements
     Licensing requirements for the fire sprinkler industry are as follows:
(1)     Company.
(A)    Each fire sprinkler company shall employ an Oklahoma licensed fire sprinkler manager who shall attend the operations of that office. In the event of the death of the fire sprinkler manager or his/her separation from the company for any other reason, a fire sprinkler company shall notify the Department within fourteen (14) days and name another licensed fire sprinkler manager within thirty (30) days from separation.
(B)    A licensed fire sprinkler technician or manager must be on job site of any work being performed.
(C)    A company whose manager only holds a residential fire sprinkler manager license shall be issued a residential fire sprinkler license.
(D)    A company whose manager holds a commercial fire sprinkler manager license shall be issued commercial fire sprinkler license.
(E)    A company with a residential fire sprinkler company license shall only offer to, or engage in the planning, sales, installation, repair, alteration, service, and inspection of residential multipurpose fire sprinkler systems on residential building and manufactured housing.
(F)    A company with a commercial fire sprinkler company license may offer to, or engage in the planning, installation, repair, alteration, maintenance, service, sale, inspection, or advertisement of fire sprinkler systems for any residential or commercial use.
(2)     Manager.
(A)    Each residential fire sprinkler applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(B)    Each licensed residential or commercial company manager accepts full responsibility for all activities of his/her company within the State of Oklahoma.
(C)    A fire sprinkler company manager is a specialty contractor whose principal contracting business is the execution of contracts requiring the art, ability, experience, knowledge, science, and skill to design, fabricate, install, inspect (other than electrical), alter or repair, fire sprinkler systems, piping or tubing and appurtenances and equipment pertaining thereto, including both overhead and underground non-potable water mains, fire hydrant mains, standpipes, and hose connections to fire sprinkler systems, air line systems used in connection with fire sprinkler systems, and tanks and pumps connected thereto, in compliance with nationally recognized standards including state and local codes and standards for layout, installation and maintenance of fire sprinkler systems.
(D)    Each commercial fire sprinkler manager applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(E)    A residential fire sprinkler manager shall only offer to, engage in, or supervise the planning, installation, repair, alteration, maintenance, service, sale, inspection, or advertisement of multipurpose fire sprinkler systems for use in residential building and manufactured housing.
(F)    A commercial fire sprinkler manager may offer to, engage in, or supervise the planning, installation, repair, alteration, maintenance, service, sale, inspection, or advertisement of fire sprinkler systems for any residential of commercial use.
(G)    Each commercial or residential fire sprinkler manager shall have a security background verification.
(3)     Technician.
(A)    Each residential or commercial fire sprinkler technician must work for a licensed Oklahoma fire sprinkler company and work under the supervision of a fire sprinkler company manager.
(B)    Each residential fire sprinkler technician applicant must pass an examination required by the Department.
(C)    Each commercial fire sprinkler technician applicant must pass an examination prescribed by the Commissioner.
(D)    A commercial fire sprinkler technician working for a fire sprinkler company with a residential license shall only perform fire sprinkler work for which the company is licensed.
(E)    Each fire sprinkler technician shall have a security background verification.
(4)     Technician Trainee.
(A)    A technician trainee shall be employed by a licensed Oklahoma fire sprinkler company.
(B)    A technician trainee shall work under the direct supervision of a licensed fire sprinkler company manager or fire sprinkler technician.
(C)    There shall be no more than three (3) technician trainees per fire sprinkler company manager or fire sprinkler technician per job site.
(D)    A technician trainee must submit a trainee application to the Department of Labor within fifteen (15) business days of being hired by a fire sprinkler company.
(E)    Each fire sprinkler technician trainee shall have a security background verification.
(5)     Inspector.
(A)    An applicant for initial licensure as a fire sprinkler inspector applicant must pass an exam prescribed by the Commissioner.
(B)    Each fire sprinkler inspector shall work for a licensed fire sprinkler company.
(C)    Each fire sprinkler inspector shall inspect and test each fire sprinkler system to determine if the system has been installed and is operating according to the appropriate code and standard before certifying the system.
(D)    Each fire sprinkler inspector shall work for a fire sprinkler company which possesses an unlimited fire sprinkler company license.
(E)    Each fire sprinkler inspector shall have a security background verification.
380:75-3-7.  Locksmith license requirements
     Licensing requirements for the locksmith industry are as follows:
(1)     Company.
(A)    Each locksmith company shall employ an Oklahoma licensed locksmith manager who is responsible for the operations of the company's office. In the event of the death of the locksmith company manager or his/her separation from the company for any other reason, a locksmith company shall notify the Department within fourteen (14) days and name another licensed locksmith manager within thirty (30) days from separation.
(B)    A licensed locksmith technician or manager shall be on site for any work being performed.
(C)    A locksmith company may operate multiple offices provided each office has the same name and ownership of the parent company and shall operate in compliance with 380:75-3-7(1)(A). The company shall notify the Department of the physical address and telephone number for each office in accordance with 59 O.S. Section 1800.10.
(D)    The initial retail sales and pinning of locks and lock system shall not require a locksmith license. However, the repinning of locks subsequent to the initial sales shall require a locksmith license.
(E)    Tow truck companies/operators licensed by the Department of Public Safety are exempted from the requirements of licensure and this Chapter when performing automotive locksmith services at their business location, and when performing automotive locksmith roadside services in a vehicle appropriately licensed and identified in accordance with the Department of Public Safety requirements for tow truck companies/operators (OAC 595:25) existing at the time of the adoption of this rule or as may subsequently enumerated or adopted.
(F)    An individual, company, corporation, institution, industry, business or religious organization, or employee thereof, is exempt from the requirements of this Chapter when performing locksmith category activities on the property of the same, provided the locksmith category services are not performed as a normal business practice on the property of another.
(2)     Manager.
(A)    Each application for licensure as a manager shall include verification of experience in the locksmith business. The experience shall include verified/or licensed experience as a locksmith technician.
(B)    Each locksmith manager applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each licensed locksmith company manager shall be responsible for all activities conducted within the State of Oklahoma by the office where they are listed as manager.
(D)    Each licensed locksmith company manager shall have a security background verification.
(3)     Technician.
(A)    Each technician shall work for a licensed Oklahoma locksmith company and under the supervision of a locksmith company manager.
(B)    Each locksmith technician applicant must pass an examination prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each technician shall have a security background verification.
(D)    An individual that holds a technician license in this category can engage in any licensed category as a trainee pursuant to this Chapter.
(4)     Technician Trainee.
(A)    A technician trainee shall be employed by a licensed Oklahoma locksmith company.
(B)    A technician trainee shall work under the direct supervision of a licensed locksmith company manager or a locksmith technician.
(C)    There shall be no more than three (3) technician trainees per locksmith company manager or locksmith technician per job site.
(D)    Each technician trainee shall have security background verification.
(E)    An individual that holds a trainee license can engage in any licensed category pursuant to this Chapter while under the direct supervision of an individual holding the appropriate license in the category of activity being performed.
(F)    A technician trainee must submit a trainee application to the Department of Labor within fifteen (15) business days of being hired by a locksmith company.
(5)     Salesperson.
(A)    Each salesperson shall work for a licensed Oklahoma locksmith company and under the supervision of a locksmith company manager.
(B)    Each salesperson shall have a security background verification.
380:75-3-8.  Electronic Access Control license requirements
     Licensing requirements for the electronic access control are as follows:
(1)     Company.
(A)    Each electronic access control company shall employ an Oklahoma licensed electronic access control manager who is responsible for the operations of the company's office. In the event of the death of the electronic access control company manager or his/her separation from the company for any other reason, an electronic access control company shall notify the Department within fourteen (14) days and name another licensed electronic access control manager within thirty (30) days from separation.
(B)    A licensed electronic access control technician or manager shall be on site for any work being performed.
(C)    An electronic access control company may operate multiple offices provided each office has the same name and ownership of the parent company and shall operate in compliance with 380:75-3-8(1)(A). The company shall notify the Department of the physical address and telephone number for each office in accordance with 59 O.S. Section 1800.10.
(2)     Manager.
(A)    Each application for licensure as a manager shall include verification of experience in the electronic access control business. The experience shall include verified and/or-licensed experience as an electronic access control technician.
(B)    Each electronic access control manager applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each licensed electronic access control company manager shall be responsible for all activities conducted within the State of Oklahoma by the office where they are listed as manager.
(D)    Each licensed electronic access control company manager shall have a security background verification.
(3)     Technician.
(A)    Each technician shall work for a licensed Oklahoma electronic access control company and under the supervision of an electronic access control company manager.
(B)    Each electronic access control technician applicant must pass an examination prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each technician shall have a security background verification.
(D)    An individual that holds a technician license in this category can engage in any licensed category as a trainee pursuant to this Chapter.
(4)     Technician/ Salesperson Trainee.
(A)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall be employed by a licensed Oklahoma electronic access control company.
(B)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall work under the direct supervision of a licensed electronic access control company manager, electronic access control technician or an electronic access control salesperson.
(C)    There shall be no more than three (3) technician/salesperson trainees per electronic access control company manager, electronic access control technician or electronic access control salesperson per job site.
(D)    Each technician/salesperson trainee shall have a security background verification.
(E)    An individual that holds a trainee license can engage in any licensed category pursuant to this Chapter while under the direct supervision of an individual holding the appropriate license in the category of activity being performed.
(F)    An individual who holds a trainee license can engage in the rough-in cabling or wiring under the direct supervision of a licensed company holding the appropriate license category.
(G)    A technician trainee must submit a trainee application to the Department of Labor within fifteen (15) business days of being hired by an electronic access control company.
(5)     Salesperson.
(A)    Each salesperson shall work for a licensed Oklahoma electronic access control company and under the supervision of an electronic access control company manager.
(B)    Each salesperson shall have a security background verification.
380:75-3-9.  Closed circuit television license requirements (CCTV)
     Licensing requirements for the CCTV industry are as follows:
(1)     Company.
(A)    Each CCTV company shall employ an Oklahoma licensed CCTV manager who is responsible for the operations of the company's office. In the event of the death of the CCTV company manager or his/her separation from the company for any other reason, a CCTV company shall notify the Department within fourteen (14) days and name another licensed CCTV manager within thirty (30) days from separation.
(B)    A licensed CCTV technician or manager shall be on site for any work being performed.
(C)    A CCTV company may operate multiple offices provided each office has the same name and ownership of the parent company and shall operate in compliance with 380:75-3-9(1)(A). The company will notify the Department of the physical address and telephone number for each office in accordance with 59 O.S. Section 1800.10.
(2)     Manager.
(A)    Each application for licensure as a CCTV manager shall include verification of experience in the CCTV business. The experience shall include verified and/or licensed experience as a CCTV technician.
(B)    Each closed circuit television manager applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each licensed CCTV company manager shall be responsible for all activities conducted within the State of Oklahoma by the office where they are listed as manager.
(D)    Each licensed CCTV company manager shall have a security background verification.
(3)     Technician.
(A)    Each technician shall work for a licensed Oklahoma CCTV company and under the supervision of a CCTV company manager.
(B)    Each closed circuit television technician applicant must pass an examination prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each technician shall have a security background verification.
(D)    An individual that holds a technician license in this category can engage in any licensed category as a trainee pursuant to this Chapter.
(4)     Technician - residential stand-alone CCTV systems designed for the purpose of self-monitoring by the end user.
(A)    Each technician who shall only install residential stand-alone CCTV systems designed for the purpose of self-monitoring by the end user shall work for a licensed CCTV company and under the supervision of a CCTV company manager.
(B)    Each technician who shall only install residential stand-alone CCTV systems designed for the purpose of self-monitoring by the end user shall have a security background verification.
(5)     Technician/salesperson trainee.
(A)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall be employed by a licensed Oklahoma CCTV company.
(B)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall work under the direct supervision of a licensed CCTV company manager, CCTV technician or a CCTV salesperson.
(C)    There shall be no more than three (3) technician/salesperson trainees per CCTV company manager, CCTV technician or CCTV salesperson per job site.
(D)    Each technician/salesperson trainee shall have a security background verification.
(E)    An individual that holds a trainee license can engage in any licensed category pursuant to this Chapter while under the direct supervision of an individual holding the appropriate license in the category of activity being performed.
(F)    An individual who holds a trainee license can engage in the rough-in cabling or wiring under the direct supervision of a licensed company holding the appropriate license category.
(G)    A technician trainee must submit a trainee application to the Department of Labor within fifteen (15) business days of being hired by a CCTV company.
(6)     Salesperson.
(A)    Each salesperson shall work for a licensed Oklahoma CCTV company and under the supervision of a CCTV company manager.
(B)    Each salesperson shall have a security background verification.
380:75-3-10.  Nurse call system license requirements
     Licensing requirements for the nurse call industry are as follows:
(1)     Company.
(A)    Each nurse call company shall employ an Oklahoma licensed nurse call manager who is responsible for the operations of the company's office. In the event of the death of the nurse call company manager or his/her separation from the company for any other reason, a nurse call company shall notify the Department within fourteen (14) days and name another licensed nurse call manager within thirty (30) days from separation.
(B)    A licensed nurse call technician or manager shall be on site for any work being performed.
(C)    A nurse call company may operate multiple offices provided each office has the same name and ownership of the parent company and shall operate in compliance with 380:75-3-10(1)(A). The company shall notify the Department of the physical address and telephone number for each office in accordance with 59 O.S. Section 1800.10.
(2)     Manager.
(A)    Each application for licensure as a manager shall include verification of experience in the nurse call business. The experience shall include verified and/or licensed experience as a nurse call technician.
(B)    Each nurse call manager applicant must pass an examination or examinations prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each licensed nurse call company manager shall be responsible for all activities conducted within the State of Oklahoma by the office where they are listed as manager.
(D)    Each licensed nurse call company manager shall have a security background verification.
(3)     Technician.
(A)    Each technician shall work for a licensed Oklahoma nurse call company and under the supervision of a nurse call company manager.
(B)    Each nurse call technician applicant must pass an examination prescribed by the Commissioner.
(C)    Each technician shall have a security background verification.
(D)    An individual that holds a technician license in this category can engage in any licensed category as a trainee pursuant to this Chapter.
(4)     Technician/salesperson trainee.
(A)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall be employed by a licensed Oklahoma nurse call company.
(B)    A technician/salesperson trainee shall work under the direct supervision of a licensed nurse call company manager, nurse call technician or a nurse call salesperson.
(C)    There shall be no more than three (3) technician/salesperson trainees per nurse call company manager, nurse call technician or nurse call salesperson per job site.
(D)    Each technician/salesperson trainee shall have a security background verification.
(E)    An individual that holds a trainee license can engage in any licensed category pursuant to this Chapter while under the direct supervision of an individual holding the appropriate license in the category of activity being performed.
(F)    An individual who holds a trainee license can engage in the rough-in cabling or wiring under the direct supervision of a licensed company holding the appropriate license category.
(G)    A technician trainee must submit a trainee application to the Department of Labor within fifteen (15) business days of being hired by a nurse call company.
(5)     Salesperson.
(A)    Each salesperson shall work for a licensed Oklahoma nurse call company and under the supervision of a nurse call company manager.
(B)    Each salesperson shall have a security background verification.
[OAR Docket #23-568; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 380.  Department of Labor
CHAPTER 80.  Alternative Fuels Program
[OAR Docket #23-569]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Rules for Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) Equipment
380:80-1-2 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-3 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-4 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-5 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-6 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-7 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-8 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-9 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-10 [AMENDED]
380:80-1-11 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Dispensing Systems
380:80-3-1 [AMENDED]
380:80-3-2 [AMENDED]
380:80-3-3 [AMENDED]
380:80-3-4 [AMENDED]
380:80-3-5 [AMENDED]
380:80-3-7.1 [NEW]
380:80-3-8 [AMENDED]
380:80-3-9 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Alternative Fuels Program
380:80-5-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Standards for Alternative Fuels Technicians - Conversion and Compression
380:80-9-2 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Department of Labor; 40 O.S. § 142.1, Alternative Fuels Technician Certification Act
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 21, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 21, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 15, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed rule amendments update the Alternative Fuels Program to include provisions for the inspection of hydrogen fill stations. The circumstances which created the need for the rule amendments are that SB1855 went into effect on November 1, 2022 giving the Oklahoma Department of Labor the authority to inspect any hydrogen fueling station or pump. The intended effect of the proposed rule amendments is to provide guidance to industry regarding the standards for construction and operation of hydrogen fill stations in Oklahoma.
CONTACT PERSON:
Daniel A. Mares, Assistant General Counsel, (405) 521-6186 or daniel.mares@labor.ok.gov or Don Schooler, Chief of Staff and General Counsel, (405) 521-6181 or don.schooler@labor.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 15, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Rules for Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) Equipment
380:80-1-2.  Standards for alternative fuel engine fuel systems
(a)    The standards for the design, construction, installation, repair, use, and inspection of alternative fuel engine fuel systems are contained in the National Fire Protection Association's pamphlets No. 2, 52, 55 and 58 and are adopted by reference as part of these rules.
(b)    The standards for the installation, modification, repair, or performance of maintenance on motors, controllers, on-board power sources, or the drive systems of vehicles powered by electricity, including vehicles originally equipped as electric vehicles, vehicles converted from gliders, and vehicles converted from internal combustion engine vehicles, are contained in the National Electrical Code (NEC) and are adopted by reference as part of these rules.
(c)    Copies of the adopted standards are available for inspection at the Oklahoma Department of Labor, 3017 N. Stiles, Ste. 100, Oklahoma City, OK 73105.
380:80-1-3.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Alternative fuels" means fuels which result in comparably lower emissions of oxides of nitrogen, volatile organic compounds, carbon monoxide, or particulate matter or any combination thereof and includes CNG, LPG, LNG, methanol, ethanol, reformulated gasoline, biodiesel, hydrogen, and electricity.
"Alternative fuel engine fuel systems" means an object or objects mounted, installed, attached or otherwise placed upon or within a vehicle or vehicle trailer to supply or assist in the supply of an alternative fuel to an internal combustion engine or engines.
"ANSI" means the American National Standards Institute.
"ASME" means the American Society of Mechanical Engineers.
"ASME Code" means the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.
"Automatic dispenser" means a CNG and/or hydrogen dispenser which is operated by a member of the general public and which requires transaction authorization.
"Building" means a structure with walls and a roof resulting in the structure being totally enclosed.
"BTU" means a scientific unit of measurement equal to the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit at approximately sixty degrees Fahrenheit.
"CNG" See "Compressed natural gas" in this section.
"CNG GGE" means 5.660 pounds of CNG.
"CNG cylinder" means a cylinder or other container designed for use or used as part of a CNG system.
"CNG system" means a system of safety devices, cylinders, piping, fittings, valves, compressors, regulators, gauges, relief devices, vents, installation fixtures, and other CNG equipment intended for use or used in any building or commercial installation, or used in conjunction with a motor vehicle or mobile fuel system fueled by CNG, or any system or facilities designed to be used or used in the compression, sale, storage, transportation for delivery, or distribution of CNG in portable CNG cylinders, not including natural gas facilities, equipment, or pipelines located upstream of the inlet of a compressor devoted entirely to CNG.
"Commercial installation" means any CNG and/or hydrogen installation located on premises other than a single family dwelling used as a residence, including but not limited to a retail business establishment, school, convalescent home, hospital, retail CNG and/or hydrogen cylinder filling/exchange operation, service station, forklift refueling facility, or private motor/mobile fuel cylinder filling operation.
"Compressed natural gas" means natural gas which is a mixture of hydrocarbon gases and vapors consisting principally of methane (CH4) in gaseous form that is compressed and used, stored, sold, transported, or distributed for use by or through a CNG system.
"Compressed natural gas vehicular fuel system" means an object or objects mounted, installed, attached or otherwise placed upon or within a vehicle or vehicle trailer to supply or assist in the supply of compressed natural gas as a fuel to an internal combustion engine or engines including compressed natural gas blended with other gases such as hydrogen.
"Container" means a pressure vessel, cylinder, or cylinders permanently manifolded together used to store CNG or LNG.
"Cylinder" means a container constructed, inspected, and maintained in accordance with DOT and Transport Canada regulations or ANSI/IAS NGV2, Basic Requirements for Compressed Natural Gas Vehicle (NGV) Fuel Containers.
"DOT" means the United States Department of Transportation.
"Fuel supply cylinder" means a cylinder mounted upon a vehicle for storage of CNG and/or hydrogen as fuel supply to an internal combustion engine.
"Gallon Diesel Equivalent" or "Diesel Gallon Equivalent (DGE)" means an amount of a motor fuel that contains an average lower heating value of one hundred twenty-eight thousand (128,000) BTUs but in no case contains a lower heating value of less than one hundred twenty-four thousand (124,000) BTU's.
"Gallon Gasoline Equivalent" or "Gasoline Gallon Equivalent (GGE)" means an amount of a motor fuel that contains an average lower heating value of one hundred fourteen thousand (114,000) BTU's, but in no case contains a lower heating value of less than one hundred ten thousand (110,000) BTU's.
"Gallon Equivalent" means either a gallon diesel equivalent or a gallon gasoline equivalent.
"Hydrogen" means a hydrogen fuel composed of molecular hydrogen intended for consumption in a surface vehicle or mobile electricity production device with an internal combustion engine or fuel cell and includes liquid and gaseous hydrogen.
"Hydrogen system" means a system of safety devices, cylinders, piping, fittings, valves, compressors, regulators, gauges, relief devices, vents, installation fixtures, and other hydrogen equipment intended for use or used in any building or commercial installation, or used in conjunction with a motor vehicle or mobile fuel system fueled by hydrogen, or any system or facilities designed to be used or used in the sale, storage, transportation for delivery, or distribution of hydrogen in portable hydrogen cylinders, not including hydrogen facilities, equipment, or pipelines located upstream of the inlet of a hydrogen fill station.
"Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG)" means natural gas that has been liquefied at -259°F (-126.1°C) and stored in insulated cryogenic tanks for use as an engine fuel.
"LNG DGE" means 6.06 pounds of LNG.
"Location" means a site operated by a CNG and/or hydrogen licensee at which the licensee carries on an essential element of its CNG and/or hydrogen activities, but where the activities of the site alone do not qualify the site as an outlet.
"Manifold" means the assembly of piping and fittings used to connect cylinders.
"Mobile fuel container" means a CNG container mounted on a vehicle to store CNG as the fuel supply for uses other than motor fuel.
"Mobile fuel system" means a CNG system which supplies natural gas fuel to an auxiliary engine other than the engine used to propel the vehicle or for other uses on the vehicle.
"Motor vehicle" means every vehicle which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails; provided, however, the definition of "motor vehicle" herein shall not include implements of husbandry.
"Natural Gas" means compressed natural gas (CNG) or liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) as defined by this regulation.
"NFPA" means The National Fire Protection Association.
"NIST" means The National Institute of Standards and Technology.
"Outlet" means a site operated by a CNG and/or hydrogen licensee at which the business conducted materially duplicates the operations for which the licensee is initially granted a license.
"Person" means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, firm, joint venture, association, corporation, or any other business entity, a state agency or institution, county, municipality, school district, or other governmental subdivision, public trust, or licensee.
"Proved" means the act of having verified the accuracy of dispensing equipment used to measure fuel and petroleum products using a "prover".
"Prover" means a calibrated volumetric receiver or mechanical device traceable to NIST standards.
"Representative" means the individual designated by an applicant or licensee as the principal individual in authority who is responsible for actively supervising the licensee's CNG and/or hydrogen activities.
380:80-1-4.  Applicability and severability
(a)    The provisions of this chapter apply to pressurized components of a compressed natural gas (CNG) system as well as the pressurized or unpressurized components of a hydrogen system, and are applicable to both engine fuel systems, hydrogen fuels cells, and compression, storage, and dispensing systems.
(b)    If any item, clause, or provision of these rules is for any reason declared invalid, the remainder of the provisions shall remain in full force and effect and shall in no way be affected, impaired, or invalidated.
(c)    Nothing in these rules shall be construed as requiring, allowing, or approving the unlicensed practice of engineering or any other professional occupation requiring licensure.
380:80-1-5.  Filings required for stationary CNG and/or hydrogen installations
(a)    No CNG or hydrogen container shall be placed into CNG or hydrogen service or an installation operated or used in CNG or hydrogen service until the requirements of this section, as applicable, are met and the facility is in compliance with the rules in this chapter and all applicable statutes, in addition to any applicable requirements of the municipality or the county where an installation is or will be located.
(b)    The licensee shall submit the following to the Department of Labor at least 30 days prior to construction:
(1)    Form AF-1;
(2)    a plat drawing from the appropriate appraisal district identifying the facility's property boundaries;
(3)    a site plan of sufficient scale that identifies:
(A)    the location, types, and sizes of all containers already on site or proposed to be on site;
(B)    the distances from the containers and material handling equipment to the property lines, buildings, and railroad, pipeline, or roadway rights-of-way; and
(C)    any known potential hazards.
(4)    the Alternative Fuels Installation Certification Fee.
(c)    The Department of Labor shall notify the applicant in writing outlining its findings. If the application is administratively denied, the applicant may modify the submission and resubmit it or may request a hearing in accordance with Administrative Procedures Act.
(d)    If the Department of Labor finds after a public hearing that the proposed installation complies with the rules in this chapter and the statutes of the State of Oklahoma, and does not constitute a danger to the public health, safety, and welfare, the Department of Labor shall issue an interim approval order. The construction of the installation and the setting of the container shall not proceed until the applicant has received written notification of the interim approval order. Any interim approval order shall include a provision that such approval may be suspended or revoked if:
(1)    the applicant has introduced CNG and/or hydrogen into the system prior to final approval; or
(2)    a physical inspection of the installation indicates that it is not installed in compliance with the submitted plat drawing for the installation, the rules in this chapter, or the statutes of the State of Oklahoma; or
(3)    the installation constitutes a danger to the public health, safety, and welfare.
(e)    If a CNG or hydrogen stationary installation, equipment, or appurtenances not specifically covered by the rules in this chapter has been or will be installed, the Department of Labor shall apply and require any reasonable safety provisions to ensure the CNG or hydrogen installation is safe for CNG or hydrogen service. If the affected entity disagrees with the Department of Labor's determination, the entity may request a hearing. The installation shall not be placed in CNG or hydrogen operation until the Department of Labor has determined the installation is safe for CNG or hydrogen service.
(f)    The Department of Labor shall review all applications within 21 business days of receipt of all required information and shall notify the applicant in writing of any deficiencies or whether the installation has been approved.
(g)    Applications shall expire and be renewed as follows:
(1)    When the Department of Labor notifies an applicant of an incomplete CNG Form AF-1, the applicant has 120 calendar days from the date of the notification letter to resubmit the corrected application or the application will expire. After 120 days, a new application shall be filed should the applicant wish to reactivate Department of Labor review of the proposed installation.
(2)    If the applicant requests an extension of the 120-day time period in writing, postmarked or physically delivered to the Department of Labor before the expiration date, the application may be renewed for up to 90 days as determined by the Department of Labor.
(3)    If the subject installation is not commenced, with permits pulled, within one year from the date of the Department of Labor's completed review, the applicant shall resubmit the application for the Department of Labor's review.
(h)    The applicant shall notify the Department of Labor in writing when the installation is ready for inspection. If the Department of Labor does not physically inspect the facility within 30 calendar days of receipt of notice that the facility is ready for inspection, the applicant may operate the facility conditionally until the initial complete inspection is made. If any safety rule violations exist at the time of the initial inspection, the applicant may be required to cease CNG or hydrogen operation until the applicant corrects the violations.
(i)    If the Department of Labor determines the completed installation varies materially from the application originally accepted, the applicant shall correct the variance and notify the Department of Labor of the correction of the variance or resubmit the application. The Department of Labor's review of such resubmitted application shall comply with the procedure described in this section.
(j)    Pressure vessels shall be subject to inspections pursuant to OAC 380:25-3.
380:80-1-6.  Design and construction of cylinders, pressure vessels, and vapor recovery receivers
(a)    FuelCNG fuel supply cylinders shall have a rated service pressure of not less than 3,000 psig at 70 degrees Fahrenheit. Cascade storage cylinders shall have a rated service pressure of not less than 3,600 psig at 70 degrees Fahrenheit.
(b)    Hydrogen fuel supply cylinders must comply with the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII, and NFPA 2 unless the Chief Boiler Inspector determines that pressure vessels meeting a different standard will operate at an equivalent level of safety.
(bc)    Field welding or brazing for the repair or alteration of a cylinder or ASME pressure vessel may only be done by repair companies holding the required Certificate of Authorization from ASME or The National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors, or in accordance with OAC 380:25-13-3.
380:80-1-7.  Vehicle fueling connection
(a)    A vehicle fueling connection shall provide for the reliable and secure connection of the fuel system cylinders to a source of compressed natural gas (CNG) and/or hydrogen.
(b)    The fueling connection shall be suitable for the pressure expected under normal conditions and corrosive conditions which might be encountered.
(c)    The fueling connection shall prevent escape of gas when the connector is not properly engaged or becomes separated.
(d)    The refueling connection on an engine fuel system shall be firmly supported, and shall:
(1)    receive the fueling connector and accommodate the service pressure of the vehicle fuel system;
(2)    incorporate a means to prevent the entry of dust, water, and other foreign material. If the means used is capable of sealing system pressure, it shall be capable of being depressurized before removal;
(3)    have a different fueling connection for each pressure based vehicle fuel system.
(e)    Any vehicle that will be fueled by an automatic dispenser shall be equipped with a fueling connection that complies with ANSI/AGA NGV1, Requirements for Natural Gas Vehicles (NGV) Refueling Connection Devices, Requirement 1-90 or ANSI HGV 4.1, Standard for hydrogen-dispensing systems, and NFPA 2, as applicable.
380:80-1-8.  Application for an exception
(a)    A person may apply for an exception to the provisions of this chapter by filing a written application for an exception, along with supporting documentation, with the Department of Labor.
(b)    The application shall contain the following:
(1)    the section number of any applicable rules or codes;
(2)    the type of relief desired, including the exception requested and any information which may assist the Department of Labor in comprehending the requested exception;
(3)    a concise statement of facts which supports the applicant's request for the exception, such as the reason for the exception, the safety aspects of the exception, and the social and/or economic impact of the exception;
(4)    for all stationary installations, a description of the acreage and/or address upon which the subject of the exception will be located. The description shall be in writing and shall include:
(A)    a site drawing;
(B)    sufficient identification of the site so that determination of property boundaries may be made;
(C)    a plat from the applicable appraisal district indicating the ownership of the land; and
(D)    the legal authority under which the applicant, if not the owner, is permitted occupancy.
(5)    the name, business address, and telephone number of the applicant and of the authorized agent, if any;
(6)    an original signature, in ink, by the party filing the application or by the authorized representative;
(7)    a list of the names and addresses of all interested entities as defined in subsection (c) of this section.
(c)    The applicant shall provide notice of the application for an exception as follows:
(1)    The applicant shall send a copy of the written application and supporting documents by certified mail, return receipt requested, to all affected entities as specified in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) of this subsection on the same date on which the form is filed with or sent to the Department of Labor. The applicant shall include a notice to the affected entities that any objection shall be filed with the Department of Labor within 30 calendar days of the date of postmark. The applicant shall file all return receipts with the Department of Labor as proof of notice.
(2)    If an exception is requested on a stationary site, the affected entities to whom the applicant shall give notice shall include but not be limited to:
(A)    persons and businesses owning or occupying property within a radius of 600 feet of the site;
(B)    the city clerk or fire marshal, if the site is within municipal limits; and
(C)    the Board of County Commissioners of the county where the site is located, if the site is not within any municipal limits.
(3)    If an exception is requested on a nonstationary site, affected entities to whom the applicant shall give notice include but are not limited to:
(A)    the Oklahoma Department of Transportation; and
(B)    all CNG and/or hydrogen loading and unloading facilities utilized by the applicant.
(4)    the Department of Labor may require an applicant to give notice to persons in addition to those listed in paragraphs (2) and (3) of this subsection if doing so will not prejudice the rights of any entity.
(d)    Objections to the requested exception shall be in writing, filed with the Department of Labor within 30 calendar days of the postmark of the application, and shall be based on facts that tend to demonstrate that, as proposed, the exception would have an adverse effect on public health, safety, or welfare. The Department of Labor may decline to consider objections based solely on claims of diminished property or aesthetic values in the area.
(e)    The Department of Labor shall review the application within 21 business days of receipt of the application. If the Department of Labor does not receive any objections from any affected entities as defined in subsection (c) of this section, the Commissioner of Labor may administratively grant the exception if the Commissioner of Labor determines that the installation, as proposed, does not adversely affect the health or safety of the public. The Department of Labor shall notify the applicant in writing after the end of the 30-day objection period and, if approved, the installation shall be commenced, with permits pulled, within one year from the date of approval and installed within two years from the date of approval. The Department of Labor shall also advise the applicant at the end of the objection period as to whether any objections were received and whether the applicant may proceed. If the Commissioner of Labor denies the exception, the Department of Labor shall notify the applicant in writing, outlining the reasons and any specific deficiencies. The applicant may modify the application to correct the deficiencies and resubmit the application or may request a hearing on the matter. To be granted a hearing, the applicant shall file a written request for hearing within 14 calendar days of receiving notice of the administrative denial.
(f)    A hearing shall be held when the Department of Labor receives an objection as set out in subsection (d) of this section from any affected entity, or when the applicant requests one following an administrative denial. The Department of Labor shall mail the notice of hearing to the applicant and all objecting entities by certified mail, return receipt requested, at least 21 calendar days prior to the date of the hearing. Hearings will be held in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act and this chapter.
(g)    After hearing, exceptions to this chapter may be granted by the Department of Labor if the Department of Labor finds that granting the exception for the installation, as proposed, will not adversely affect the safety of the public.
(h)    A request for an exception shall expire if it is inactive for 90 calendar days after the date of the letter in which the applicant was notified by the Department of Labor of an incomplete request. The applicant may resubmit an exception request.
380:80-1-9.  Report of CNG or hydrogen incident/accident
(a)    In case of an incident involving single release of compressed natural gas (CNG) or hydrogen during or following CNG or hydrogen transfer or during container transportation, or an accident at any location where CNG or hydrogen is the cause or is suspected to be the cause, the licensee owning, operating, or servicing the equipment or the installation shall notify the Department of Labor by telephone immediately after the licensee has knowledge of the incident or accident. Any loss of CNG or hydrogen which is less than 1.0% of the gross amount delivered, stored, or withdrawn need not be reported to the Department of Labor. Any individual reporting shall leave his or her name and telephone number where he or she can be reached for further information.
(b)    The telephone notification required by this section shall be made to the Department of Labor's main telephone line and shall include the following information:
(1)    date and time of the incident or accident;
(2)    type of structure or equipment involved;
(3)    resident's or operator's name;
(4)    physical location;
(5)    number of injuries and/or fatalities;
(6)    whether fire, explosion, or gas leak has occurred; and
(7)    whether gas is leaking.
380:80-1-10.  Removal from CNG or hydrogen service
(a)    If the Department of Labor determines that any compressed natural gas (CNG) or hydrogen cylinder constitutes an immediate danger to the public health, safety, and welfare, the Department of Labor shall require the immediate removal of the CNG and/or hydrogen by a properly licensed company to the extent necessary to eliminate the danger. If the Department of Labor determines that any CNG or hydrogen appliance, equipment, or system constitutes an immediate danger to the public health, safety, and welfare, the Department of Labor shall require the immediate disconnection by a properly licensed company of such appliance, equipment, or system from the CNG or hydrogen cylinder it services.
(b)    If the affected entity disagrees with the placement of a warning tag, or with the Department of Labor's findings in subsection (a) of this section, the entity may request an investigation into the matter. The Department of Labor shall notify such entity of its finding. If the entity disagrees, the entity may request or the Department of Labor on its own motion may call a hearing. Such installation shall be brought into compliance or removed from service until such time as the final decision is rendered. All hearings and deadlines shall comply with the Administrative Procedures Act.
380:80-1-11.  Filling unapproved containers prohibited
     No licensee shall introduce compressed natural gas (CNG) or hydrogen into any container if he has knowledge or notice that such CNG or hydrogen container or system was not installed in accordance with the statutes of the State of Oklahoma, and with the rules and regulations in effect at the time of installation. Exception: This section does not apply to motor fuel or mobile fuel containers and systems installed on vehicles licensed in states other than Oklahoma, provided, however, that no licensee shall be required to introduce CNG or hydrogen into any container and/or system that the licensee reasonably believes to be unsafe.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Dispensing Systems
380:80-3-1.  Applicability
     This subchapter applies to the design, construction, installation, and operation of cylinders, pressure vessels, compression equipment, and associated equipment used for storage and dispensing of compressed natural gas (CNG) and/or hydrogen as an engine fuel or for use with any hydrogen fuel cell vehicle in fleet and automatic dispensing operations.
380:80-3-2.  Dispenser accuracy
     Each retail compressed natural gas (CNG) and/or hydrogen dispenser shall comply with the applicable weights and measures requirements of the Department of Labor, relating to dispensing accuracy.
380:80-3-3.  Codes incorporated by reference
     In addition to other codes adopted in this chapter, the following codes are incorporated by reference:
(1)    NIST Handbook 44 Specifications, Tolerances, and Other Technical Requirements for Weighing and Measuring Devices
(2)    NIST Handbook 130 Uniform Laws and Regulations in the Areas of Legal Metrology and Engine Fuel Quality
(3)    The codes adopted by the Oklahoma Uniform Building Code Commission
(4)    NFPA 2 (2020), NFPA 55 (2023), NFPA 30A (2021), SAE J2601 (2020), and SAE J2719 (2020)
380:80-3-4.  Retail dispensing of natural gas and/or hydrogen
     All retail dispensing of natural gas and/or hydrogen used as a motor vehicle fuel, or for use with any hydrogen fuel cell vehicle, from either fixed equipment or mobile refueling equipment, including vehicles, shall be operated and maintained in accordance with the applicable requirements of the codes adopted by this regulation.
380:80-3-5.  Retail motor fuel dispensers inspection and testing
(a)    All retail motor fuel dispensers (RMFDs) shall be suitable for their intended use, properly installed accurate and maintained in that condition by their owner/operator.
(b)    All RMFDs shall be traceable to an active National Type Evaluation Program Certificate of Conformance prior to installation or use for commercial purposes.
(c)    All RMFDs shall be capable of displaying delivered quantity in units of mass or gasoline or diesel gallon equivalents for calibration purposes. All adjustments and calibrations of RMFDs shall be made utilizing mass or gasoline or diesel gallon equivalent measurement standards.
(d)    The Department of Labor shall be notified when any new or remanufactured RMFD is placed in service at a new or existing installation.
(e)    No owner/operator of any RMFD shall use the RMFD for the measurement of natural gas and/or hydrogen unless it has been proved in a manner acceptable to the Department of Labor and sealed as correct by a state inspector or person or persons authorized by the Department of Labor.
(f)    All RMFDs shall be proved and sealed as correct on an annual basis by either a state inspector or a person or persons authorized by the Department of Labor. Pursuant to these rules and National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Handbook 44, all RMFDs must be accurate to within minus 2%. Any RMFD found to be calibrated at minus 4% or greater shall be sealed until it complies with this regulation.
(g)    If any RMFD fails to comply with any of the provisions of this regulation, a state inspector shall seal it in such a manner as to prohibit its use, and it shall remain sealed until it complies with all of the provisions of this regulation.
(h)    When an RMFD is brought back into compliance with this regulation, it may only be placed back in service by a state inspector or a person or persons authorized by the Department of Labor.
380:80-3-7.1.  Dispensers for hydrogen
     All dispensers and related equipment for hydrogen must meet the standards contained in NFPA 2. Facility construction must meet the standards adopted by the Oklahoma Uniform Building Code Commission.
380:80-3-8.  Product quality
(a)    CNG shall meet the requirements of NFPA 52 for product quality and odorization.
(b)    CNG and LNG shall have a minimum methane content of not less than 80%.
(c)    Hydrogen for fuel cell vehicles shall meet the requirements of SAE J2719.
(d)    The BTU content of natural gas gallon equivalents shall meet the following requirements:
(1)    A CNG GGE shall contain a lower heating value of not less than 110,000 BTU's.
(2)    An LNG DGE shall contain a lower heating value of not less than 124,000 BTU's.
(de)    All equipment, including filters and strainers, used to prevent any foreign material, including compressor oil or water, from being dispensed into a vehicle container, shall be periodically serviced and maintained.
(ef)    Any shipper of natural gas products to be used for retail motor fuel, who ships such product into the state of Oklahoma or ships natural gas products from one point within the state to another point within the state shall make records of such shipments available to the division upon request.
380:80-3-9.  Inspection by Department of Labor
     The Department of Labor shall have authority to have access to and inspect any equipment, including compression equipment and storage tanks, practices or methods used by or in association with any public access compressed natural gas fueling station or pump or any hydrogen fueling station or pump.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Alternative Fuels Program
380:80-5-2.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Subchapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrator" means the Program Administrator and Recording Secretary of the Committee.
"Agency" means the Department of Labor.
"Alternative fuels" means fuels which result in comparably lower emissions of oxides of nitrogen, volatile organic compounds, carbon monoxide, or particulate matter or any combination thereof and includes CNG, LPG, LNG, methanol, ethanol, reformulated gasoline, hydrogen, and electricity.
"Alternative fuels compression technician" means any person who installs, services, modifies, repairs or renovates fill stations.
"Alternative fuels equipment technician" means any person who installs, modifies, repairs or renovates equipment used in the conversion of any engines to engines fueled by alternative fuels and includes OEM vehicles either dedicated to operate on an alternative fuel or manufactured bi-fueled, i.e., capable of operating on gasoline or an alternative fuel.
"Alternative Fuels Technician Certification Act" means O.S. Title 40, Section 142.1 through 142.16.
"Alternative fuels equipment trainee" means an individual who is employed by an Oklahoma licensed alternative fuels conversion company to assist an alternative fuels equipment technician and learn to properly convert motor vehicles to operate on alternative fuels and to service and maintain such vehicles.
"Capable of operating on an alternative fuel" means any motor vehicle converted or designed to operate on an alternative fuel.
"Charge station" means the physical device that provides a connection from a power source to an electric vehicle as defined by the Electric Power Research Institute, and the Society of Automotive Engineers.
"CNG" means compressed natural gas.
"Committee" means the Committee of Alternative Fuels Technician Examiners.
"Electric vehicle technician" means any person who installs, modifies, repairs, performs maintenance on, motors, controllers, on-board power sources, or the drive systems of vehicles powered by electricity. This includes vehicles originally equipped as electric vehicles, vehicles converted from gliders, and vehicles converted from internal combustion engine vehicles.
"Engine" means the propulsion system of a motor vehicle. Nothing in this definition is meant to cover any stationary engine.
"Fill station" means the property which is directly related to the delivery of compressed natural gas,and/or liquefied natural gas, and/or hydrogen into the fuel tank of a motor vehicle propelled by such fuel and/or a hydrogen fuel cell including the compression equipment and storage vessels for such fuel at the point where the fuel is delivered.
"Glider" means a vehicle built without an engine or fuel system for the purpose of converting it to an electric vehicle.
"Hydrogen" means a hydrogen fuel composed of molecular hydrogen intended for consumption in a surface vehicle or mobile electricity production device with an internal combustion engine or fuel cell and includes liquid and gaseous hydrogen.
"Liquefied petroleum gas vehicular fuel systems" means an object or objects mounted, installed, attached or otherwise placed upon or within a vehicle or vehicle trailer to supply or assist in the supply of liquefied petroleum gas as a fuel to an internal combustion engine or engines.
"LNG" means liquefied natural gas.
"LPG" means liquefied petroleum gas otherwise known as propane and/or propane autogas.
"Motor vehicle" means every vehicle which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails; provided, however, the definition of "motor vehicle" herein shall not include implements of husbandry.
"NFPA" means the National Fire Protection Association.
"OEM" means original equipment manufacturers.
"Person" means individuals, corporations, partnerships, cooperatives, associations and governmental subdivisions.
"Trainee" means an individual who is employed by an Oklahoma licensed company to learn to properly engage in the activities regulated by this Chapter that can engage in any licensed category pursuant to this Chapter while under the direct supervision of an individual holding the appropriate license in the category of activity being performed.
"Work" means any procedure involved in the physical installation or servicing of all components used in the conversion of motor vehicles to operate on alternative fuels and the servicing of original equipment manufacturers vehicles that operate on alternative fuels, including:
(A)    LPG and CNG components;
(i)    tubing;
(ii)    fittings;
(iii)    valves;
(iv)    gauges;
(v)    brackets;
(vi)    fuel lines;
(vii)    cylinders;
(viii)    tanks; and
(ix)    electronic or electrical devices.
(B)    Electric vehicle components;
(i)    traction battery packs or modules;
(ii)    motor controllers;
(iii)    subsystem controllers;
(iv)    inverters;
(v)    drive motors;
(vi)    auxiliary components powered by high voltage; and
(vii)    any high voltage circuits.
(C)    Hydrogen vehicle components;
(i)    tubing;
(ii)    fittings;
(iii)    valves;
(iv)    gauges;
(v)    brackets;
(vi)    fuel lines;
(vii)    cylinders;
(viii)    tanks;
(ix)    electronic or electrical devices including DC/DC converters;
(x)    traction battery packs or modules;
(xi)    electric traction motors; and
(xii)    fuel cell stacks.
"Written" or "In writing" means a tangible or electronic record of a document, communication or representation, including handwriting, typewriting, printing, photostating, photography, e-mail or other electronic format or record. A "signed" writing includes an electronic sound, symbol or process attached to or logically associated with a writing and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the writing.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Standards for Alternative Fuels Technicians - Conversion and Compression
380:80-9-2.  Standards for equipment installation and inspection
(a)    The standards for the equipment installation and inspection of liquefied petroleum gas vehicular fuel systems adopted by NFPA are published in its pamphlet No. 58 and are adopted as the standards for this state.
(b)    The standards for the equipment installation and inspection of compressed natural gas and liquid natural gas vehicular fuel systems adopted by NFPA are published in its pamphlet No. 52 and are adopted as the standards for this state.
(c)    The standards for the equipment installation and inspection of hydrogen fuel cell systems and hydrogen in combustion applications adopted by the NFPA are published in its pamphlet No. 2 and are adopted as the standards for this state.
[OAR Docket #23-569; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 435.  State Board of Medical Licensure and Supervision
CHAPTER 20.  Physical Therapists and Assistants
[OAR Docket #23-705]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
435:20-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
435:20-1-1.1. Definitions [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Licensure of Physical Therapists and Assistants
435:20-3-3. Criteria for disqualification as a physical therapytherapist assistant [AMENDED]
435:20-3-5. Licensure by examination [AMENDED]
435:20-3-6. Requirements for renewal and re-entry [AMENDED]
435:20-3-7. Licensure by agreement [NEW]
Subchapter 5. Regulation of Practice
435:20-5-6. Physical therapists under probation [AMENDED]
435:20-5-10. Referrals [AMENDED]
435:20-5-11. Telehealth regulations [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Title 59 O.S. §§ 887.1 et seq; Oklahoma Board of Medical Licensure and Supervision
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
June 29, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
August 1 - August 31, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
September 7, 2022 at 9:00 a.m.
ADOPTION:
September 15, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
September 20, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 14, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Board of Medical Licensure and Supervision, with the cooperation of the Physical Therapy Advisory Committee, intends to establish rules regulating the use of telemedicine while providing physical therapy. In addition to establishing telemedicine rules, there are amendments to a number of sections under Chapter 20 of Title 435, including updated definitions, amended language consistent with law regarding referrals, and new language allowing (Board) Secretary to enter into a written agreement with an applicant for licensure to provide assurance that the Physical Therapist or Physical Therapist Assistant may be able to practice physical therapy with reasonable skill and safety.
CONTACT PERSON:
Barbara J. Smith, Executive Secretary, Oklahoma State Board of Medical Licensure and Supervision, 101 NE 51st Street, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73105, (405) 962-1422, bsmith@okmedicalboard.org.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 14, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
435:20-1-1.  Purpose
     The rules in this Chapter provide requirements for licensure as a physical therapist/physical therapytherapist assistant and regulation of practice.
435:20-1-1.1.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Act" means the Physical Therapy Practice Act, unless otherwise specified.
"Alternate Supervising Physical Therapist" means the physical therapist who temporarily provides direct or general supervision of a physical therapist assistant or applicant for licensure in the absence of the supervising physical therapist and who will be identified in the medical record as the therapist of record.
"Board" means the Oklahoma State Board of Medical Licensure and Supervision.
"CAPTE" means the Commission on Accreditation of Physical Therapy Education.
"Committee" means the Physical Therapy Committee of the Board.
"Examination/Evaluation" means a comprehensive visit by the physical therapist, in the presence of the patient, to determine the plan of care, based on the physical therapist's clinical judgments, which are supported by the data gathered during the examination.
"Foreign-educated physical therapist" means a physical therapist who graduated from any physical therapy education program outside the United States.
"General supervision" means the responsible supervision and control of the practice of the licensed physical therapist assistant by the supervising physical therapist. The supervising therapist is regularly and routinely on-site, and every three months will provide a minimum of one (1) co-treatment of face to face, real time interaction with each physical therapist assistant providing services with his/her patients. These co-treatments will be documented in the medical record and on a supervision log, which is subject to inspection. When not on-site, the supervising therapist is on call and readily available physically or through direct telecommunication for consultation.
"Group Setting" means two or more physical therapists providing supervision to physical therapist assistants in the same practice setting or physical facility.
"Immediate Supervision" means the supervising physical therapist or physical therapist assistant is on the premises and in attendance when patient care is being delivered.
"On-site supervision" or "Direct supervision" means the supervising physical therapist is continuously on-site and present in the department or facility where services are provided, is immediately available to the person being supervised and maintains continued involvement in appropriate aspects of each treatment session in which assistive personnel are involved in components of care.
"Physical Therapist" means a licensed professional health care worker who is a graduate of a program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Physical Therapy Education or approved successor organization, and who provides physical therapy services including evaluation, treatment program design/management/ modification, and supervision of delegated portions of a treatment program. The Physical Therapist is responsible and accountable for the overall use and actions of unlicensed personnel and Physical Therapist Assistant (s) under his/her supervision and control during a therapy session or service delivery, whether in person or by telehealth.
"Physical Therapist Assistant" means a licensed technically educated health care provider who is a graduate of a program accredited by an agency recognized by the Commission on Accreditation of Physical Therapy Education or approved successor organization, and who performs selected physical therapy procedures and related tasks under the direction and supervision of a Physical Therapist.
"Physical Therapist of Record" means the physical therapist who assumes the responsibility for the provision and /or supervision of physical therapy services for a patient, delivered in person or by telehealth, and is held accountable for the coordination, continuation and progression of the plan of care.
"Physical Therapy Aide" means a person on-the-job trained and working under the immediate supervision of a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant who performs designated and supervised routine tasks as outlined in 435:20-7-1.
"Poses a reasonable threat" means the nature of criminal conduct for which the person was convicted involved an act or threat of harm against another and has a bearing on the fitness or ability to serve the public or work with others in the occupation.
"Practice Setting" means the type of service delivery such as acute care, outpatient, inpatient rehabilitation, long term care, home health, educational settings or DDSD.
"Re-examination/Re-evaluation/Assessment" means visits by the physical therapist, in the presence of the patient, to assess the patient's current status, gather additional data, and update the plan of care.
"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Board.
"Substantially relates" means the nature of criminal conduct for which the person was convicted has a direct bearing on the fitness or ability to perform one or more of the duties or responsibilities necessarily related to the occupation.
"Supervision" means the physical therapist is delegating portions of the patient's care to licensed personnel or applicants for licensure but remains accountable for the coordination, continuation and progression of the care of the patient.
"Supervising Physical Therapist" means the physical therapist of record who provides either direct or general supervision for a physical therapist assistant or applicant for licensure and delegates components of patient care to that person.
"Telehealth" means, and shall have, the same meaning as it does under 59 O.S. § 887.2(7).
"Telecommunication" means, and shall have, the same meaning as it does under 59 O.S. § 887.2(8).
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Licensure of Physical Therapists and Assistants
435:20-3-3.  Criteria for disqualification as a physical therapytherapist assistant
     No license will be issued to a Physical TherapyTherapist Assistant who has:
(1)    Practiced other than under the direction and supervision of a licensed Physical Therapist;
(2)    Used drugs or alcohol excessively, affecting competence or judgment, unless is able to provide satisfactory evidence of rehabilitation and participation efforts;
(3)    Been convicted of a felony crime that substantially relates to the occupation of physical therapy or poses a reasonable threat to public safety or of a misdemeanor crime involving moral turpitude;
(4)    Been adjudged mentally incompetent unless competency has been legally re-established;
(5)    Conducted himself/herself in a manner considered improper by recognized acceptable standards of moral and ethical conduct.
435:20-3-5.  Licensure by examination
(a)     Qualifications.
(1)    Any applicant for licensure as a Physical Therapist by examination must meet the criteria of qualifications outlined in (a) through (c) of 435:20-3-1.
(2)    Any applicant for licensure as a Physical Therapist Assistant by examination must be a graduate of a program for education of Physical TherapyTherapist Assistants accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Physical Therapy Education or approved successor organization, provided in no event shall the qualifications for licensure be less than those required by 59 O.S. 1971, Section 887.6, as amended.
(b)     Admittance. No person shall be admitted to the examination until satisfactory evidence is submitted to the Board of his/her qualifications to be admitted to such examination.
(c)     Examination dates. Examinations must be taken by the applicant within sixty (60) days of receiving written notice of eligibility to sit for the examination.
(d)     Passing score. In the event the examination used, for either Physical Therapists or Physical Therapist Assistants, is provided by the recognized examination service providing a nationally accepted standardized examination, the candidate will pass based on criterion referenced standards as established by the recognized examination service. This passing point will be set equal to a scaled score of 600 based on a scale ranging from 200 to 800. Prior to March 1993 no criterion referenced scoring system existed; examinations taken prior to March 1993 shall be considered to have passed if his/her raw score on the total examination fell within 1.50 standard deviation below the National Average for the particular examination.
(1)    Applicants who do not pass the examination after the first attempt may retake the examination one additional time without re-application for licensure. This must occur within six months of the Board's receipt of notification of the first failure. Prior to being approved by the Board for subsequent testing beyond two attempts, individuals shall reapply and present evidence satisfactory to the Board of having successfully completed additional clinical training and/or course work as approved by the Board.
(2)    In the event of failure to pass the first examination, the applicant may work under the direct, on the premises supervision and direction of a licensed physical therapist for a period not to exceed six months.
(3)    In the event of failure to pass the second examination, the applicant:
(A)    may not practice;
(B)    must meet with the Committee; and
(C)    must submit a new application.
(4)    In the event of failure to pass the third examination, an applicant will not be eligible to re-apply for examination in Oklahoma.
(5)    The applicant may re-take the examination in another state, if the examination is one provided by the Professional Examination Service or another recognized examination service providing a nationally accepted standardized examination and is the same examination service then providing the examination being given in Oklahoma. All scores must be submitted to the Oklahoma Board for evaluation by the Interstate Reporting Service or another nationally recognized reporting service. Failure to make passing scores accepted in Oklahoma on such re-takes will be considered as having failed the re-take examination in Oklahoma.
(6)    Any applicant may be required to make a personal appearance before the Board to discuss individual circumstances at any time.
435:20-3-6.  Requirements for renewal and re-entry
(a)     Renewal of license. In order to renew the license, each Physical Therapist and Physical Therapist Assistant shall:
(1)    complete the renewal application;
(2)    pay the required fee as set out in OAC 435:1-1-7(a)(2);
(3)    complete a jurisprudence examination prepared by the Board focusing on the areas of the Oklahoma Physical Therapy Practice Act and related Oklahoma Administrative Code;
(4)    and meet requirements for continuing education as set out in Subchapter 9 of this Chapter.
(b)     Re-entry requirements. Pursuant to 59 O.S. §495h, physical therapists and physical therapist assistants with licenses lapsed more than three months wishing to re-enter the practice of physical therapy will be required to file an application on forms provided by the Board and submit documentation of continuing competence. Physical therapists and physical therapist assistants may be required to meet one or more of the following requirements:
(1)    Personal appearance before the Advisory Committee;
(2)    Work under the direct supervision of a physical therapist licensed in the State of Oklahoma for at least one month (at least 22 days) for each year license was lapsed, not to exceed twelve (12) months. The applicant must obtain authorization from the Board before beginning the period of supervised practice. On completion of the period of supervised practice, the applicant will provide to the Board an adequate performance evaluation from the supervising physical therapist;
(3)    Participation in continuing education activities directed towards maintaining or improving clinical knowledge and skills; or
(4)    Achieve a passing score on an examination approved by the Board.
(5)    Complete a jurisprudence examination prepared by the Board focusing on the areas of the Oklahoma Physical Therapy Practice Act and related Oklahoma Administrative Code.
435:20-3-7.  Licensure by agreement
(a)    The Secretary may enter into a written agreement with an applicant for licensure to provide assurance that the Physical Therapist or Physical Therapist Assistant may be able to practice physical therapy with reasonable skill and safety.
(b)    The Secretary may enter such an Agreement when circumstances and/or conditions of an applicant raise questions as to the fitness or ability of the applicant to practice physical therapy with reasonable skill and safety or questions as to prior actions of the applicant in this or any other jurisdiction would constitute a violation of the Act or these rules, as the Secretary may determine.
(c)    The Agreement shall be a written statement of conditions on which a license may be granted to an applicant, although no license shall be guaranteed or granted should an applicant enter into an Agreement, by which the Secretary shall devise and specify authority of the Board or its staff to meet with the applicant upon specific terms, to gather additional information from the applicant or to require the applicant to take certain specific actions if, when and after the applicant is granted a license by the Board. Additionally, the Applicant shall agree to pay all actual costs incurred for any testing or monitoring required under the Agreement.
(d)    Any Agreement entered into by the Secretary and an applicant shall not be effective until ratified by the Board.
(e)    The Board intends any agreement entered into by the Secretary and an applicant to be of continuing nature until set aside or otherwise terminated by the Board.
(f)    Licensure by agreement shall not be considered by the Board to be disciplinary action.
(g)    The failure of a licensee who is subject of an agreement to comply with the terms of an agreement shall be considered in violation of the rules of the Board and shall be grounds for disciplinary action by the Board pursuant to section 8, subchapter 5, chapter 20 of this Title. Failure to comply with an agreement hereunder may subject a licensee to revocation by the Board.
(h)    The Committee may recommend an application to the Secretary and request the Secretary to review the application for the possibility of entering an agreement with an applicant.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Regulation of Practice
435:20-5-6.  Physical therapists under probation
     Physical therapists on probation shall not supervise physical therapytherapist assistants or new graduates who require supervision under 435:20-5-2.
435:20-5-10.  Referrals
(a)    A licensed physical therapist who has received a referral from a person licensed as an allopathic physician, osteopathic physician, physician assistant, dentist, chiropractor or, podiatrist, or advanced practice registered nurse, consistent with his or her respective areas of training and practice, may extend or reinstitute physical therapy for the patient named on the referral for a time period not to exceed ninety (90) days after the origination of the referral, unless a longer duration of physical therapy services is requested by the referring health care professional, provided that:
(1)    the diagnosis or symptom listed on the referral is the same as the reason for the extension or reinstitution of the physical therapy treatment;
(2)    the referring health care professional is notified of the extension or reinstitution of the treatment within five (5) business days of the date of the extension or reinstitution of the physical therapy treatment; and
(3)    the patient involved has made or is making sufficient improvement in symptoms or function to warrant the extension or reinstitution of the physical therapy treatment without first being seen or re-evaluated by the by the referring health care professional.
(b)    The physical therapist may not make a medical diagnosis or diagnosis of disease.
(c)    If the physical therapist determines, based on the physical therapy screening and evaluation, that the patient's condition is outside the scope of the physical therapy practice, the physical therapist may not initiate, extend, or reinstitute treatment and must immediately refer the patient to a licensed health care professional.
(d)    If the physical therapist determines, based on reasonable evidence that appropriate improvement in symptoms or function has not been made within 60 days of the date on the referral, the physical therapist shall consult with or refer the patient back to the health care professional who originated the referral.
(e)    The provisions of paragraphs (a) - (d) of this section do not apply if the patient is receiving physical therapy services pursuant to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004, as may be amended, and the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Section 504, as may be amended.
435:20-5-11.  Telehealth regulations
(a)    In order to provide physical therapy via telehealth defined in 435:20-1-1.1 of the Code, a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant providing services to a patient or client, physically located in Oklahoma, must have a valid and current Oklahoma Physical Therapist or Physical Therapist Assistant license, issued by State of Oklahoma.
(b)    Provision of services via telehealth shall be synchronous.
(c)     A physical therapist shall determine whether an in-person evaluation or in-person interventions are necessary in lieu of telehealth provision, considering: the complexity of the patient's/client's condition; the provider's own knowledge, skills and abilities; the nature and complexity of the intervention; the requirements of the practice setting; and the patient's/client's context and environment. The clinical documentation for the visit shall reflect:
(1)    that the visit was rendered, by one or more parties, via telehealth; and
(2)    all clinicians present, in person or via telehealth, during the visit.
(d)    All legal, regulatory, and ethical rules applicable to the delivery of in-person physical therapy shall also apply to the delivery of physical therapy via telehealth technology.
(e)    Audio and video equipment must allow for interactive, real-time communications which permit the physical therapist or physical therapist assistant and the patient to see and hear each other. Any telehealth technology used by any physical therapist or physical therapist assistant must comply with confidentiality requirements imposed by federal or state law concerning network connection security in place for video and non-video connections, specifically including requirements under HIPAA.
(f)    A physical therapist or physical therapist assistant providing physical therapy services via telehealth shall:
(1)    Exercise the same standard of care when providing physical therapy services via telehealth as with any other mode of delivery of physical therapy services;
(2)    Provide physical therapy in a manner consistent with the standards of practice, ethical principles, and rules for Oklahoma physical therapy practitioners. Therefore, it is the physical therapy practitioner's responsibility to determine when a telehealth encounter is not the appropriate treatment model;
(3)    Be proficient in the use of the telehealth technology.
(g)    A physical therapist may utilize telehealth methods for routine and general supervision of Form 5-registered supervisees.
(h)    While providing physical therapy to a patient using telehealth technology, physical therapist or physical therapist assistant students must follow the Commission on Accreditation in Physical Therapy Education (CAPTE) standards, academic program rules, and practice setting policies regarding the use of telehealth service delivery as well as follow all applicable supervision rules.
(i)    Failure to comply with telehealth regulations shall be considered unprofessional conduct as set forth in 435:20-5-8 and 435:20-5-9. of Oklahoma Administrative Code and Section 887.13 of the Physical Therapy Practice Act.
[OAR Docket #23-705; filed 7-19-23]

TITLE 465.  Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission
CHAPTER 1.  Administrative Operations
[OAR Docket #23-696]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Description of Organization
465:1-1-4 [AMENDED]
465:1-1-5 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. General Course of Method and Operations
465:1-3-2 [AMENDED]
465:1-3-4 [REVOKED]
Subchapter 5. Public Rights
465:1-5-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. Procedures Pertaining to Individual Proceedings
465:1-7-2 [AMENDED]
465:1-7-3 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission; Title 47, Sections 563(F), and Title 75, Section 302(A)(2)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
December 23, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
No public hearing was held
ADOPTION:
March 30, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The amendments in the first two Subchapters are clean up language and a revocation of an obsolete Rule. Subchapters 5 & 7 provide more clarification to the consumer complaint process and the types of complaints; and subsequent rights of the public.
CONTACT PERSON:
Marilyn Maxwell (405) 607-8227, Marilyn.Maxwell@omvc.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Description of Organization
465:1-1-4.  Duties
     The Commission's duties shall include but shall not be limited to the licensing of manufacturers, distributors, their representatives, new motor vehicle dealers and registration of their salespersons. The Commission is also established to protect the public welfare and public interest of the citizens of the state of Oklahoma.
465:1-1-5.  Hearings
     The Commission is authorized to conduct hearings on various matters brought to its attention by its various licensees and citizens all as more fully provided in 47 O.S. Supp. 1985 Section 561 et seq.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  General Course of Method and Operations
465:1-3-2.  Commission meetings
(a)     Date. In the absence of any conflicting legal holiday established by statute or proclamation by the Governor, or unavoidable conditions that result in failure to achieve a quorum or absence of Executive Director or Deputy Director, then the meetings of the Commission shall be held on the second Tuesday of each month, starting at 10:00 a.m. at the Commission's Office.
(b)     Compliance with laws. All meetings of the Commission shall be conducted in compliance with the applicable provisions of the Oklahoma Open Meeting Act, 25 O.S. 1981, Sections 301, et seq. (as Amended) and the Oklahoma Administration Procedures Act, 75 O.S. 1981, Section 301 et seq. (as Amended).
465:1-3-4.  Correspondence  [REVOKED]
     Communication in writing to the Commission shall be addressed to the Executive Director at the address indicated in OAC 465:1-3-1(a), unless the Commission so directs otherwise.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Public Rights
465:1-5-3.  Public submission
     Any member of the general public may make submissions or any reasonable requestsubmit questions and concerns regarding the business of this Commission by contacting the Executive Director in writing or by appearing at the offices of the Commission in person.writing.The Executive Director, after consultation with the Board Chair, may place such items on the agenda for discussion.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Procedures Pertaining to Individual Proceedings
465:1-7-2.  Proceedings initiated by person or entityComplaints concerning licensees
(a)     Informal Complaint. Any person or entity including a current licensee of this Commission, can file an informal complaint, in writing, on forms prescribed by the Commission, against any licensee of this Commission. Complaint forms may be obtained from the Commission. The Executive Director, or his designee, will attempt to bring about an informal resolution andcause the complaint to be investigated to determine if any violations of Motor Vehicle Commission Law have occurred.
(b)     Formal Complaint. Any person or entity including a current licensee of the Commission can initiate an individual proceeding to consider the suspension or revocation of the license issued by the Commission to any of its licensees or the imposition of a fine against any of these licensees by filing with the Commission, in writing, a formal complaint requesting a hearing, alleging that this licensee has violated any of the provisions of the Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission Act, 47 O.S. 1981 Section 561, et seq. (as amended) or any of the provisions of this Title.
(b)     Informal Resolution. The Executive Director, or designee, in consultation with the Commission's prosecutor will attempt to bring about an informal resolution. An informal resolution may include but is not limited to, mediation between the parties to reach an acceptable resolution or a settlement agreement offered by the Executive Director or designee, and approved by the Commission at a public meeting.
(c)     Hearing.
(1)    Upon its receipt of a written formal complaint as described in (b) of this Section, the Commission shall set the matter for a hearing and provide both the complainant and the affected licensee(s) with appropriate notice thereof.
(2)    At any hearing held to consider a complaint as provided by (b) of this Section, the complainant shall be a party to such hearing and shall have all the rights and privileges attendant thereto as provided by law. The Commission shall act in a quasi-judicial capacity at such an adversarial hearing and shall not itself introduce evidence or otherwise act as a party. The Commission shall, however, have the right to direct questions at any witness appearing at the hearing.
(c)     Formal Complaint. If an informal resolution is not possible, a formal complaint may be filed against the licensee. The Commission shall set the matter for a hearing as set forth in 465:1-7-3 to be held in accordance with the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S. Section 309-323.
(d)     Hearing. At any hearing held to consider a formal complaint, the Commissioners shall act in a quasi-judicial capacity at such an adversarial hearing and shall not themselves introduce evidence or otherwise act as a party. The Commissioners shall, however, have the right to direct questions at any witness appearing at the hearing.
465:1-7-3.  Proceedings initiated by Commission
(a)     Complaint. The Commission can, sua sponte, initiate anAn individual proceeding to consider the suspension or revocation of the license issued by the Commission to any of its licensees or the imposition of a fine against any of its licensees by issuing a complaint, verified by the Commission's Executive Director, a formal complaint is initiated by issuing a complaint, verified by the Commission's Executive Director, against said licensee(s) alleging a violation(s) of the Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission Act, 47 O.S. 1981 Section 561, et seq. (as amended) or any of the provisions of this Title.Rules.
(b)     Notice and Hearing. The matters addressed in a formal complaint issued pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section, shall be considered at a hearing to be held before the Commission. The affected licensee shall be provided appropriate notice of this hearing. In a hearing held pursuant to this Section, counsel or the Executive Director for the Commission shall present evidence substantiating the allegations contained in the complaint and otherwise act in a quasi-prosecutorial role. For this reason, the individualindividual(s) presenting the evidence for the Commission shall not be allowed to be present during any Executive Session at which the Commission deliberates on what action to take in an individual proceeding held pursuant to this subsection.
[OAR Docket #23-696; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 465.  Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission
CHAPTER 10.  Licenses
[OAR Docket #23-697]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Commission Licensing Procedures
465:10-1-5 [AMENDED]
465:10-1-7 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Dealership Locations
465:10-9-2 [AMENDED]
465:10-9-3 [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission; Title 47, Sections 563(F), 564, and Title 75, Section 302(A)(2)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
December 23, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
No public hearing was held
ADOPTION:
March 30, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The first two amendments provide clean up language from previous rulemaking in 2020. The amendment in Subchapter 9 updates the definition of an established place of business which supplements the language in Title 47, Section 565(7)(b). The revoked section is not required because this Commission has no jurisdiction over used motor vehicle dealers.
CONTACT PERSON:
Marilyn Maxwell (405) 607-8227, Marilyn.Maxwell@omvc.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Commission Licensing Procedures
465:10-1-5.  Application deferred
     In the event that the Commission issues an Order deferring consideration on the applied fora license application pending receipt of additional information or documents, then the Commission shall reconsider the application at its next regularly scheduled meeting.meeting held after the receipt of the requested information. The Commission shall so notify in writing the affected applicant of this decision within ten days.the additional information needed within ten days of its deferral decision.
465:10-1-7.  Consideration of other applications for license and registration
     All other applications received for licenses and registrations by the Commission (representative, salesperson, and off premise) shall be reviewed by the Executive Director. In reviewing these applications for licenses or registrations, the Executive Director shall follow the same procedures as outlined above for review of initial licenses.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Dealership Locations
465:10-9-2.  Definition of established place of business
     An established place of business as used in 47 O.S. Supp., 2001, Section 565 (7)(a), (as amended), shall mean a permanently enclosed building or structure, easily accessible to the public, with a paved or graveled lot for customer parking and for the showing and storage of vehicles, and, shall not mean residences, tents, temporary stands, lots, or other temporary quarters.quarters, unless such temporary quarters are part of a contingent approval and will be replaced by a permanent building or buildings within a period of time as designated by the Commission. The established place of business must have a sign visible from the outside which identifies the motor vehicle dealership. An established place of business shall include an indoor show room capable of displaying at least one vehicle, provided, however, the Commission may waive this requirement to dealerships engaged in the business of selling medium or heavy duty trucks or recreational vehicles only.vehicle. It shall also have indoor office and public areas sufficient to conduct sales transactions with customers, and have restroom facilities available for the public. The established place of business shall also include a service and parts area, separated from the public areas, equipped with tools, equipment, and replacement parts necessary for reasonably expected warranty and service needs, and equipped with the means to vent exhaust directly from vehicles being repaired to the outside. The Commission may waive one or more of the requirements provided for in this Section. This definition is intended to clarify and supplement the language in 47 O.S. Supp. 2001, Section 565 (7)(b), (as amended).
465:10-9-3.  Use of trade name at remote used car dealership locations  [REVOKED]
     A new motor vehicle dealer operating a licensed used motor vehicle dealership(s) at a location(s) other than the licensed location of its new motor vehicle dealership shall be permitted to use its trade name at its used motor vehicle dealership(s) so long as there is no reference therein to any line-make of motor vehicle.
[OAR Docket #23-697; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 465.  Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission
CHAPTER 15.  Advertising
[OAR Docket #23-698]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
465:15-1-2 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Specific Advertising Regulations
465:15-3-5 [AMENDED]
465:15-3-6 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission, Title 47, Sections 563(F), 565, and Title 75, Section 302(A)(2)
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
December 23, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 17, 2023 through February 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
No public hearing was held
ADOPTION:
March 30, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
All of these amendments modify and update motor vehicle advertising rules and regulations to address false and misleading ways of advertising. O.S. Title 47, 565A(5)(b) is specific in that sanctions may be levied against any dealer who uses false or misleading advertising in connection with their business.
CONTACT PERSON:
Marilyn Maxwell (405) 607-8227, Marilyn.Maxwell@omvc.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S. SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
465:15-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Advertisement" means an oral, written, graphic, or pictorial statement made in the course of soliciting business, including, without limitation, a statement or representation contained in a newspaper, magazine, publication, notice, sign, poster, display, circular, pamphlet, letter, or on the Internet, radio, television, or any other type of media.
"Bait Advertisement" means an alluring but insincere offer to sell a product of which the primary purpose is to obtain leads to persons interested in buying merchandise of the type advertised and to switch consumers from buying the advertised product in order to sell some other product at a higher price or on a basis more advantageous to the advertiser.
"Clear and Conspicuous" means that the statement, representation, or disclosure is of such size, color, contrast, and audibility and is presented so as to be readily noticed and understood. All language and terms, including abbreviations, shall be used in accordance with their common or ordinary usage and meaning.
"Dealer-added fee" means an amount charged by the dealer to the customer in connection with the sale or lease of a new motor vehicle including, but not limited to, processing fee, documentary fee, service and handling fee, administrative fee, closing fee, or ADP (additional dealer profit) fee. "Dealer-added fee" does not mean legally required charges such as a lien entry filing fee. It is prohibited to state or imply that a dealer-added fee is required by law or by any government agency.
"Dealership addendum" means a form which is to be displayed on a window of a new motor vehicle when the dealer installs special features, equipment, parts or accessories, or charges for services not already compensated by the manufacturer or distributor for work required to prepare a vehicle for delivery to a buyer. The addendum is to disclose:
(A)    That it is supplemental and it should not be deceptively similar in appearance to the manufacturer's label, which is required to be affixed by every manufacturer to the windshield or side window of each new motor vehicle under the Automobile Information Disclosure Act;
(B)    Any added feature, service, equipment, part, or accessory charged and added by the dealership and the retail price thereof;
(C)    Any additional charge to the selling price such as additional dealership markup; and,
(D)    The total dealer selling price.
"Demonstrator" means those vehicles that are of the current or previous model year which have not been sold, titled or registered to any type of purchaser and are used by dealership personnel for demonstration purposes. Service vehicles, courtesy cars, daily rentals, loaners, factory program cars, driver education and factory executive cars shall not be described as "demonstrator" vehicles. Demonstrators may be advertised for sale, as such, only by a franchised dealer of the same line-make of vehicle.
"Disclosure" means required information that is clear, conspicuous, and accurate. In print and internet advertisements, disclosures shall be located either adjacent to the price or in an area clearly marked with reference symbols. In audio advertisements, disclosures shall be clear and understandable in pace and volume and shall be located at the end of the advertisement. In a television or video advertisement, the disclosure must appear continuously on the screen for a minimum of ten seconds.
"Factory executive/official vehicle" means a new motor vehicle with an original Manufacturer's Statement of Origin, that has been used exclusively by an executive or official of the dealer's franchising manufacturer, distributor, or their subsidiaries.
"Licensee" means any entity or person required to obtain a license from the Oklahoma Motor Vehicle Commission.
"Manufacturer's label" means the label required by the Automobile Information Disclosure Act, 15 U.S.C. Sections 1231-1233, (normally referred to as Monroney Label), to be affixed by the manufacturer to the windshield or side window of each new automobile delivered to a dealer.
"Manufacturers Suggested Retail Price" or "MSRP" means the selling price suggested by the manufacturer or distributor displayed on the Manufacturer's Label / Monroney Label.
"Program car" means a car that is purchased at a manufacturer's closed auction or sold by or directly from the manufacturer or distributor which is a current or previous year model, that has been previously tagged and/or titled, and returned to the manufacturer for disposal.
"Rebate" or "Cash back" means a sum of money refunded to a purchaser or for the benefit of the purchaser. The purchaser may choose to reduce the amount of the purchase price by the sum of money or the purchaser may opt for the money to be returned to the purchaser for his or her benefit.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Specific Advertising Regulations
465:15-3-5.  Layout
     The layout, headlines, illustrations, or type size of a printed advertisement and the broadcast words or pictures of radio/TVradio/TV/internet advertisements shall not convey or permit an erroneous or misleading impression as to which vehicle or vehicles are offered at featured prices. No advertised offer, expression, or display of price, terms, down payment, trade-in allowance, cash difference, savings, or other such material terms shall be misleading and any necessary qualifications shall be clearly, conspicuously, and accurately set forth to prevent any misunderstandings.
465:15-3-6.  Manufacturer's suggested retail price
     The suggested retail price of a new motor vehicle when advertised by a manufacturermanufacturer,or distributor shall include all costs and charges for the vehicle advertised, except that destination and dealer preparation charges, and state and local taxes, title, and license fees may be excluded from such price, provided that the advertisement conspicuously states that such costs and charges are excluded. However, with respect to advertisements placed with local media in Oklahoma by a manufacturer, distributor, or advertising association which include the names of the local dealers for the vehicles advertised, if the price of a vehicle is stated in the advertisement, such price must include all costs and charges for the vehicle advertised, including destination and dealer preparation charges and may exclude only state and local taxes, license, and title fees. MSRP is an exact price and may not be inflated arbitrarily, or otherwise misrepresented by a manufacturer, distributor or dealer.
[OAR Docket #23-698; filed 6-30-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 1.  Administrative Operations
[OAR Docket #23-671]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
540:1-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
540:1-1-2. Interpretation of rules [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Organization
540:1-3-1. Membership [AMENDED]
540:1-3-2. Officers; Executive Director; legal counsel [AMENDED]
540:1-3-3. Powers, duties, and responsibilities of Commission [AMENDED]
540:1-3-5. Principal office; office hours; availability of records [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Rulemaking and Individual Proceedings
540:1-5-2. Procedures applicable to adoption, amendment, and repeal of rules [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
540:1-1-1.  Purpose
     The rules of this chapter are adopted for the purpose of simplifying procedure, avoiding unnecessary delays, saving expenses, and facilitating the administration of the programs of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
540:1-1-2.  Interpretation of rules
(a)    The rules of this chapter shall be given a fair and impartial construction. The rules of this chapter shall be cumulative to the Oklahoma Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S.,§§250-323.
(b)    The rules of this chapter shall govern all formal proceedings of the Oklahoma Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. Informal proceedings may be held by agreement between the Commission or its agents and any party.
(c)    Rules become effective ten (10) calendar days after publication in "The Oklahoma Register," unless the Commission designates a later date in the rule or the agency rule report, or a later date is required by statute. [75:304]
(d)    The provisions of this chapter herein contained are severable and the repeal, amendment, or invalidity of any provision hereof shall not serve to repeal or invalidate the remaining provisions of this chapter.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Organization
540:1-3-1.  Membership
(a)     Governing Commission.
(1)    As stated in Section 697.3 of Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes, the Commission shall be composed of sevennine (7)(9) members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate.Three members shall be practicing allopathic physicians, three shall be practicing osteopathic physicians, and one shall not be a physiciantwo shall be registered nurses, and one shall be a member of the general public. The membership shall be appointed from diverse geographic areas of the state. [70:697.3] Quorum shall consist of a majority of the appointed voting members present.
(2)    ThreemembersMembers of the Commission shall be appointed for one-year terms, two members shall be appointed for three-year terms and two members shall be appointed forfive-year terms, andat the expiration of the initial terms, succeeding terms of office shall be five (5) years in duration. [70:697.3]
(b)     Ex-officio members. There shall be also twelve additional nonvoting ex officio members of the Commission who shall serve in an advisory capacity only and include [70:697.3] the following:
(1)    Dean of the University of Oklahoma College of Medicine or designee,
(2)    Dean of the University of Oklahoma College of Medicine-Tulsa or designee,
(3)    Chair of the Department of Family Medicine of the University of Oklahoma Health Sciences Center or designee,
(4)    Chair of the Department of Family Practice of the University of Oklahoma College of Medicine-Tulsa or designee,
(5)    President of the Oklahoma Academy of Family Physicians or designee,
(6)    Chair of the Department of General Practice of the Oklahoma College of Osteopathic Medicine and Surgery or designee,
(7)    President of the Oklahoma State Medical Association or designee,
(8)    President of the Oklahoma State Osteopathic Association or designee,
(9)    President of the Oklahoma Hospital Association or designee,
(10)    Provost of the University of Oklahoma Health Sciences Center or designee,
(11)    Dean of the Oklahoma College of Osteopathic Medicine and Surgery or designee,
(12)    State Commissioner of Health or designee. [70:697.3]
540:1-3-2.  Officers; Executive Director; legal counsel
(a)    The Commission shall elect annually from the membership a Chairman and a Vice-Chairman. The Vice-Chairman shall serve as Chairman Elect.
(b)    Officers of the Commission shall be elected annually at the last regular meeting of each fiscal year. In the event an officer's position becomes vacant, a replacement shall be elected to complete the term at the following regular meeting of the Commission.
(c)    The Chairman shall preside over all Commission meetings and rule on all questions of procedure and order. He shall have the power, in the exercise of his discretion, to call special meetings of the Commission, and shall call a special meeting when requested by four members, in writing, to do so. The Chairman, in counsel with the Executive Director, shall determine the agenda of each meeting.
(d)    The Vice-Chairman shall assume the duties of the Chairman, during the chairman's absence or incapacity.
(e)    The Executive Director shall be responsible for keeping the minutes of the Commission meetings.
(f)    The Attorney General shall serve as the legal counsel for the Oklahoma Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
540:1-3-3.  Powers, duties, and responsibilities of Commission
     As defined in Section 697.5 of Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes, the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission, in order to perform its official function in establishing and administering physician training programs [70:697.5] to meet the physician and health manpowercare workforce needs in Oklahoma, shall have the following specific powers, duties, and responsibilities: [70:697.5]
(1)    To review all available data on physician manpowerhealth care workforce in Oklahoma in order to determine the current and projected distribution of physicians by geographic location and by type of practice, and, to accomplish this review, the Commission shall obtain information from and work in conjunction with the State Department of Health and all other agencies which gather data and evaluate health manpowercare workforce needs. [70:697.5(1)] The Commission shall fully utilize the resources of its Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Databank.
(2)    To serve as an agent to advise hospitals, clinics, and communities on setting up and planning internship and residency programs which emphasize the provision of additional primary care physicians to service the rural areas of Oklahoma with primary care specialties to be defined to include training in the area of internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, pediatrics, emergency trauma, and family practice. [70:697.5(3)]
(3)    To administer and determine the specific level of funding and the priorities used for granting state support to approved hospitals and clinical situations, in cooperation with the University of Oklahoma College of Medicine, University of Oklahoma College of Medicine-Tulsa and the Oklahoma College of Osteopathic Medicine and Surgery for approved hospital physician training programs for interns and residents and to recommend to the Governor and the Oklahoma Legislature the total funds needed to carry out the purpose of this program. [70:697.5(8)]
(4)    To administer and determine the level of funding to be requested for the following programs of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission:
(A)    the Oklahoma Community Physician Education Scholarship Program Fund, [70:625.11]
(B)    the Community Match Rural Scholarship Incentive Program, [70:625.13]
(C)    the program of physician and health manpowercare workforce placement services, [70:697.5(12)]
(D)    the Nursing Student Assistance Program, [70:697.17]
(E)    the Physician Assistant Scholarship Program, [70:697.21] and
(F)    the Oklahoma Medical Loan Repayment Program. [63:1-2721]
(5)    To negotiate and enter into agreements or contracts with local, state, or federal agencies or institutions or other instrumentalities as may be authorized by statute or as necessary for performance of duties.
(6)    To employ a director and any staff personnel required to administer the funding of approved physician training programs and to contract with other state agencies and institutions to conduct and to perform specified services, functions and aspects in administering state funds. [70:697.5(9)]
540:1-3-5.  Principal office; office hours; availability of records
(a)    The principal office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission ("PMTC")("HWTC") is located in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma at the address listed on the PMTCHWTC website, oklahoma.gov/pmtc.htmloklahoma.gov/hwtc.html.
(b)    Office hours shall be from 8:00 A.M. to 4:30 P.M., Monday through Friday, excepting legal holidays established by statute or proclamation of Governor.
(c)    All rules and regulations and statements of policy adopted by the Commission shall be available for inspection at the principal office during regular business hours.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Rulemaking and Individual Proceedings
540:1-5-2.  Procedures applicable to adoption, amendment, and repeal of rules
(a)    The Commission may promulgate, amend, or repeal a rule of his own initiative, and may promulgate, amend, or repeal a rule at the request of the Chairman.
(b)    Any interested person may petition the Commission, requesting the promulgation, amendment, or repeal of a rule. All such petitions shall be in writing, and be filed with the Executive Director of the Commission at the principal office. The petition shall state, clearly and concisely, all matters pertaining to the requested action and the reasons for the request. The request must also state whether there is someone known to the petitioner who is concerned with the subject of the request and should be notified of the hearing.
(c)    Within thirty (30) calendar days of submission of a petition, The Commission shall initiate rulemaking proceedings or provide a written response explaining why rulemaking proceedings were not initiated. [75:305]
(d)    The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission may, of its own motion, conduct hearings on proposed rules, amendments to or repeal of rules, and shall conduct such hearings when so directed by the Commission.
(e)    Unless otherwise specified, and stated in the notice of hearing, all hearings, shall be conducted in the offices of the Commission.
(f)    Any person who is interested or affected by a proposed action may appear at the hearing. An appearance may be made individually, by an attorney, or by an authorized agent.
(g)    Prior to the adoption, amendment, or repeal of a rule the Commission shall afford any interested person a reasonable opportunity to submit data, views, and arguments, either oral or written, concerning such proposed action. If the rule under consideration is one which affects the substantive rights of any person, the Commission shall grant any person or association a reasonable opportunity to submit data, views, and arguments, either oral or written, concerning such proposed action. If the rule under consideration is one which affects the substantive rights of any person, the Commission shall grant any person or association a reasonable opportunity to participate in an oral hearing, when so requested in writing by the person or association. Oral argument on such a rule shall also be granted when requested by a subdivision or agency of government. If no substantive rights of the person, association, or governmental entity are affected by or involved in the rule to be considered, the Commission may, in its discretion, refuse to hear oral argument and require such matters to be submitted in writing. The Commission, in the exercise of its sound discretion, shall determine whether the proposed action affects any such substantive rights.
[OAR Docket #23-671; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 10.  Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Loan and Scholarship Fund
[OAR Docket #23-672]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
540:10-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
540:10-1-2. Statutory administration of fund [AMENDED]
540:10-1-3. Terms and conditions of scholarships [AMENDED]
540:10-1-5. Procedures for administering scholarships [AMENDED]
540:10-1-6. Repayment of scholarship loans [AMENDED]
540:10-1-8. Applicant contracts [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
540:10-1-1.  Purpose
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission shall be authorized and empowered to grant scholarships to qualified students who are bona fide residents of the State of Oklahoma and who would not otherwise have funds necessary to finance the cost of a program of study leading to the Degree of Doctor of Medicine, or to the Degree of Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine, to be granted by an accredited and recognized college of medicine or college of osteopathic medicine. [70:625.2]
540:10-1-2.  Statutory administration of fund
     The Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Loan and Scholarship Fund shall be administered by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission under the provisions of Section 625.9 of 70. O.S. 1981.
540:10-1-3.  Terms and conditions of scholarships
(a)    The terms and conditions governing the scholarship shall be as prescribed and formulated by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission, but shall include the condition that each recipient, upon completion of his course of study, shall repay his scholarship by practicing histhe recipient's profession in a rural community in Oklahoma having a population of seven thousand five hundred (7,500)7,500 persons or less according to the last preceding United States Decennial Census and having a need therefore, as determined by the Commission, for one (1) year for each one (1) year the scholarship is financed; provided, however, that the recipient will be given no credit for payment and reduction of said obligation by serving in the defined rural communities for a period less than two years.
(b)    The terms of this subsection shall apply to recipients who accept assistance before July 1, 1993. The contract shall provide that, in the event the recipient breaches the terms of the contract by not serving the designated community for the specified period of time, he shall pay liquidated damages in an amount agreed upon by the Commission and the recipient and representing a reasonable estimate of the damage or loss to the community or the state. Said damages shall not exceed 100% of the principal. After payment of the liquidated damages, repayment of the principal may be made in cash with interest at the rate of 12% per annum, said interest to accrue from the date each payment is made pursuant to the scholarship. No interest, however, shall accrue during any one period of time that the recipient thereof is required to serve in the Armed Forces of the United States, including any one period of voluntary enlistment or during any period of internship and residency.
(c)    The terms of this subsection shall apply to recipients who accept assistance on or after July 1, 1993. The contract shall provide that, in the event the recipient breaches the terms of the contract by not serving the designated community for the specified period of time, the Commission shall be entitled to recover an amount equal to three times the principal disbursed, pursuant to the contract, plus interest. Interest on all amounts paid to or on behalf of the participant shall be computed at the current prime rate plus one percent (1%) with said interest to accrue from the date each payment is made, pursuant to the contract. The amount the Commission is entitled to recover shall be paid within ninety (90) days of the date the recipient becomes liable as determined by the Commission. [70:625.3]
540:10-1-5.  Procedures for administering scholarships
     The Commission shall promulgate and adopt procedures as may be necessary to carry out the administration of the scholarship program. The Commission shall delineate the following procedures:
(1)     Promulgation of information concerning scholarships. Each medical and osteopathic student being trained in the State of Oklahoma shall, by March first of each school year, be notified concerning the availability of scholarships.
(2)     Applications. All interested students shall file an application with the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. The deadline for submitting applications shall be March 30 of each year. Applications shall be reviewed by a Screening Committee appointed by the Chairperson of the Commission. The criteria to be used by the Screening Committee are delineated in 540:10-1-4(a). (A copy of the application is available in the office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission).
(3)     Approval of scholarships by the Commission. The Scholarship Screening Committee shall recommend those scholarship applicants selected for funding to the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission at one of its meetings prior to June 30. A student not selected by the Screening Committee may appeal to the Commission for a hearing at any scheduled Commission meeting. If approved, funding for each scholarship shall become effective on July 1 of that particular year.
(4)     Renewal of contracts. The original scholarship shall be guaranteed for the initial year. Renewal contracts will be mailed to each student by May 1 of each year to be signed and returned no later than June 30 of that same year. See 540:10-1-4(d) for additional information concerning renewals.
540:10-1-6.  Repayment of scholarship loans
     Monies received by the Commission in repayment of scholarships granted from appropriated funds shall be deposited with the State Treasurer who shall place the same to the credit of the Commission in a depository fund. All monies so collected and deposited in the State Treasury as aforesaid shall constitute a continuing fund, shall not be subject to fiscal limitations, and the unexpended balance shall at all times be available for expenditures for the purpose and in the manner and form provided by this act. All funds and property, and income therefrom, received by the Commission through the acceptance of gifts, grants, bequests or devise shall be held by the Commission in trust, and may be sold, transferred, invested and reinvested by the Commission in accordance with the provisions of the Oklahoma Trust Act, and all such funds and property, and income therefrom, shall be used by the Commission in fulfilling and accomplishing the conditions and purposes of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. [70:625.4]
540:10-1-8.  Applicant contracts
     Each applicant, before being granted a scholarship, shall enter into a contract with the Commission agreeing to the terms and conditions upon which the scholarship shall be granted to him. Said contract shall include such terms and provisions as will carry out the full purpose and intent of the Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Loan and Scholarship Fund; the form thereof shall be prepared and approved by the Attorney General. Said contracts shall be signed by the Executive Director on behalf of the Commission and by the applicants. The Commission, under Section 625.6 of 70 O.S. 1981, is hereby vested with full and complete authority and power to sue in its own name any applicant for any balance due the Commission on any contract. The Commission shall have authority to cancel any contract made between it and any recipient of a scholarship upon cause deemed sufficient by the Commission. [70:625.6Copies of the Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Loan and Scholarship Fund contracts are available in the office of the Physician Manpower Training Commission. .Before being granted a scholarship, each applicant shall enter into a contract with the Commission and agree to the terms and conditions of the scholarship, in accordance with the Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Loan and Scholarship Fund Act. The form of the contract shall be prepared and approved by the Attorney General. Contracts shall be signed by the applicant and by the Executive Director on behalf of the Commission, and copies of the contracts shall be available in the Commission's office. Pursuant to 70 O.S., § 625.6, the Commission is authorized to sue a scholarship recipient for the balance due on his or her contract, and may cancel any contract upon cause deemed sufficient by the Commission.
[OAR Docket #23-672; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 15.  Internship and Residency Program
[OAR Docket #23-673]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
540:15-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
540:15-1-2. Statutory administration of program [AMENDED]
540:15-1-3. Terms and conditions of assistance [AMENDED]
540:15-1-4. Contractual arrangements [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
540:15-1-1.  Purpose
     Section 697.1 of 70 O.S. 1981Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes indicates that the legislature recognizes that there is a need to upgrade the availability of health care services for people of Oklahoma, and thus, there is a need to improve the balance of physician manpowerhealth care workforce distribution in the state both by type of practice and geographic location. Furthermore, the Legislature recognizes the need to accommodate the increasing number of graduates from the medical and osteopathic colleges of Oklahoma by retaining their services as practicing physicians in the state and by attracting graduates from schools outside the state. Therefore, it is the intent of the Legislature to increase the number of internship and residency programs offered for the training of physicians throughout the state through the sharing by the state of the costs of such internships and residencies with hospitals and other clinical residency training establishments. These programs shall be designed primarily to emphasize the training of primary health care and family practice physicians and to develop manpowerworkforce programs to service directly the rural and nonmetropolitian areas of the state or other areas of severe need. [70:697.1]
540:15-1-2.  Statutory administration of program
     Section 697.2 of Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes provides that the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission is authorized to establish and administer cost-sharing programs for internship and residency physician training. [70:697.2]
540:15-1-3.  Terms and conditions of assistance
     Section 697.2 of Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes states that financial assistance for internship and residency training shall be provided to Oklahoma allopathic and osteopathic institutions engaged in postgraduate training on a cost sharing basis as follows:
(1)    Salary, fringe benefits, training and program administration of the interns and residents as may be arranged by contract for reimbursement with an accredited and approved hospital and accredited clinical programs throughout the state approved by the Physician Manpower Training Commission. . . .[70:697.2]
(2)    The Commission shall conduct the coordination and selection of internship and residency programs to assure the effective operation of these programs.
(3)    Not less than seventy-five percent (75%) of the subsidy for these programs shall be used in the training of primary health care and family/general practice physicians for the rural and medically underserved areas of the state [70:697.2]; the subsidy to a given training institution shall not exceed any maximum or minimum amount which may be prescribed by law or as determined by the Commission.
(4)    No less than forty percent (40%) of all participating residents and interns in each school year must participate in a rural program outside the Oklahoma City and Tulsa metropolitan areas. [70:697.6]Residents and interns shall allocate the time spent in rural programs outside the Oklahoma City and Tulsa metropolitan areas in accordance with primary care specialty accreditation standards.
540:15-1-4.  Contractual arrangements
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission is . . . authorized to enter into contractual arrangements with residency training programs at the University of Oklahoma College of Medicine, University of Oklahoma-Tulsa Medical College, or the Oklahoma College of Osteopathic Medicine and Surgery. [70:697.7] Copies of all contracts are filed in the office of the Commission.
[OAR Docket #23-673; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 25.  Physician and Health ManpowerCare Workforce Placement Services
[OAR Docket #23-674]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
540:25-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
540:25-1-2. Role of Commission [AMENDED]
540:25-1-3. List of practice opportunities [AMENDED]
540:25-1-4. List of physicians seeking practice opportunities [AMENDED]
540:25-1-5. Assistance to physicians in evaluating communities [AMENDED]
540:25-1-6. Assistance to communities and others seeking physicians [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
540:25-1-1.  Purpose
     The Physician Placement Program is administered by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission under the provisions pursuant to Section 697.5(12) of 70. O.S., to conduct and to administer a program of physician and health manpowercare workforce placement services throughout the State of Oklahoma.
540:25-1-2.  Role of Commission
     The role of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission in helping Oklahoma communities recruit physicians, is basically one of physician practice location referral.
540:25-1-3.  List of practice opportunities
     All physicians seeking practice situations in Oklahoma will, on request, be provided with a list of practice opportunities. A list of practice opportunities will be prepared or updated quarterly by the Commission.
(1)    All communities, agencies, clinics, and private physicians in the State of Oklahoma who are seeking physicians to fill particular practice situations in Oklahoma are eligible to be included in the "List of Practice Opportunities in Oklahoma" which is distributed to prospective physicians.
(2)    The Commission may list any practice situation which is being requested.
(3)    The Commission may provide the "List of Practice Opportunities in Oklahoma" to any physician who is seeking a practice opportunity in the State of Oklahoma.
(4)    When the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission provides information concerning the "List of Practice Opportunities in Oklahoma" to a physician, the following disclaimer shall be used: "Any information concerning a practice opportunity in the State of Oklahoma - as provided by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission - in no way constitutes a recommendation or endorsement of a given Oklahoma practice opportunity by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission."
540:25-1-4.  List of physicians seeking practice opportunities
     Communities, agencies, clinics, and private physicians in the State of Oklahoma can be provided with a "List of Physicians Seeking Practice Opportunities in Oklahoma". This includes graduates of Oklahoma medical schools receiving postdoctural training inside and outside Oklahoma, as well as all other physicians receiving postdoctural training in Oklahoma. This list shall be prepared or updated quarterly by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(1)    All physicians who submit a Physician Information Worksheet approved by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission are eligible to be included on the "List of Physicians Seeking Practice Opportunities in the State of Oklahoma".
(2)    All community leaders, agencies, clinics, and private physicians in the State of Oklahoma are eligible to receive the "List of Physicians Seeking Practice Opportunities in Oklahoma".
(3)    The "List of Physicians Seeking Practice Opportunities in the State of Oklahoma" contains the following "disclaimer" which is used whenever the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission shares information concerning a physician with a community: "Any information concerning physicians seeking practice opportunities in Oklahoma - as provided by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission - in no way constitutes documentation or verification of the information nor an endorsement of an individual physician's medical training, medical ability, or character."
540:25-1-5.  Assistance to physicians in evaluating communities
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission will perform the following procedures in helping a physician to evaluate a community:
(1)    The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission provides physicians with guidelines to be used to help the physician assess a community as a prospective practice site.
(2)    The staff members of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission may refer interested physicians to responsible individuals who might be the source of information.
540:25-1-6.  Assistance to communities and others seeking physicians
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission will perform the following procedures in helping to place a physician in an Oklahoma community:
(1)    The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission provides all communities, agencies, clinics, and private physicians seeking physicians to fill particular practice needs with a list of resource persons and guidelines which can provide assistance in the screening process.
(2)    The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission asks for information on its Physician Information Worksheet which can be of assistance to community leaders, agencies, clinics, and private physicians in their assessment of prospective physicians.
(3)    Staff members of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission will provide a community with information which has been obtained from an appropriate professional or licensing organization.
[OAR Docket #23-674; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 30.  Oklahoma Nursing Student Assistance Program
[OAR Docket #23-675]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
540:30-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
540:30-1-3. Power to grant scholarships [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Role of Nursing Scholarship Advisory Committee
540:30-3-1. Role of Nursing Scholarship Advisory Committee [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Categories of Scholarships
540:30-5-1. Matching Nursing Student Assistance Program [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Application Process
540:30-9-3. Approval [AMENDED]
Subchapter 11. Loan Provisions
540:30-11-6. Suit for collection; attorney's fees and collection costs [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
540:30-1-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of the Nursing Student Assistance Program is to encourage entry of persons to enterinto nursing education programs and to practice in areas… in which there is an urgent need or in institutions or agencies.. which provide funds on a matching basis with the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission for the support of nursing students. [70:697.17(A)]
540:30-1-3.  Power to grant scholarships
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission shall be authorized and empowered to grant nursing scholarships to qualified students who are bona fide residents of the State of Oklahoma. It is recognized that the rules of this Chapter are guidelines only and may be waived at the discretion of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Role of Nursing Scholarship Advisory Committee
540:30-3-1.  Role of Nursing Scholarship Advisory Committee
(a)    A Nursing Scholarship Advisory Committee (NSAC) will assist and advise the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission relative to the Nursing Student Assistance Program.
(b)    Recipients will be selected by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission assisted by recommendations of a twelve member Nursing Scholarship Advisory Committee. The Nursing Scholarship Advisory Committee will be appointed by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission and will consist of:
(1)    a Rural Hospital Nursing Service Administrator, representing the Oklahoma Organization of Nurse Executives,
(2)    an Urban Hospital Nursing Service Administrator, representing the Oklahoma Organization of Nurse Executives,
(3)    a representative of the Oklahoma Nursing Home Association,
(4)    a representative of the Oklahoma Hospital Association,
(5)    a representative of the Oklahoma League for Nursing,
(6)    a representative of the Oklahoma State Association of Licensed Practical Nurses,
(7)    three Educators (a representative of the Oklahoma Directors of Practical Nursing Education; a representative of the Associate Degree Nursing Director's Council, and a representative of the Baccalaureate and Higher Degree Nursing Programs),
(8)    a lay community representative, and
(9)    a representative from the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(c)    The role of the Nursing Scholarship Advisory Committee will be delineated by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Categories of Scholarships
540:30-5-1.  Matching Nursing Student Assistance Program
(a)    Scholarships granted under the Matching Nursing Student Assistance Program will stipulate that a sponsor and the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission provide equal dollar amounts for funding the scholarships. The maximum amounts that can be matched are $750.00 per full-time semester for LPN program, $1,250 per full-time semester for an ADN program, $1,750.00 per full-time semester for the BSN program, and $2,500.00 per full-time semester (up to 4 years) for MSN/DNP/Ph.D. program.
(b)    Sponsors of nurse students may be hospitals, nursing homes, home health and hospice agencies, other health care delivery facilities, public agencies, corporations, private organizations, communities, foundations, trusts, or other entities who wish to apply for and, if approved, match an amount equal to fifty percent of the loan authorized by the Commission.
(c)    Under the provisions of the Matching Nursing Student Assistance Program, a student may receive an equal full scholarship amount from both the sponsor and the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. The monies are to be used for payment of tuition, required fees, equipment, uniforms, training materials, books, certification exams, and other educationally related expenses necessary for attendance at nursing school.
(d)    An approximate guideline of seventy percent of all monies appropriated for the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission Nursing Student Assistance Program may be used for funding scholarships approved under the Matching Nursing Student Assistance Program. Approximately seventy percent of all funds designated for the Matching Nursing Student Assistance Program may be expended for nursing scholarships in Oklahoma communities that meets the current definition of rural as determined by PMTCHWTC.
(e)    Scholarship recipients may carry out their service obligation by practicing full time as a licensed practical or registered nurse (excluding physician's offices, private duty practice, research or non-patient based facilities, industrial and summer camp nursing) as agreed to by contract or with Commission approval.
(f)    Scholarship recipients may carry out their service obligation by teaching in an accredited/approved Oklahoma nursing school (provided other Oklahoma Board of Nursing faculty qualifications are met).
(g)    Scholarship receipts who become nurse practitioners may carry out their service obligation by practicing full time as a nurse practitioner at any Oklahoma hospital, nursing home, state health facility, qualified rural health clinic, or hospital, private owned, or leased rural physician clinic.
(h)    Receipts received from sponsors shall be deposited into and disbursed from a Commission revolving fund created by State Law in the State Treasury.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Application Process
540:30-9-3.  Approval
(a)    If a scholarship loan is approved, the original of the contract will be completed and executed by the applicant, sponsor, and Commission.
(b)    One copy of the contract is to be returned to both the sponsor and recipient of the scholarship loan.
(c)    Copies of the contract for Matching Scholarships and for Non- Matching Scholarships are available in the Office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
SUBCHAPTER 11.  Loan Provisions
540:30-11-6.  Suit for collection; attorney's fees and collection costs
     If it becomes necessary for the Attorney General, on behalf of the State and Commission, to file suit for collection of a loan for notes, the makers of the note will be responsible for attorney's fees and other costs or charges necessary for the collection of the balance due on the loan. Any collection under this Section will be deposited in the Revolving Fund. That portion representing a contribution(s) by a sponsor may be returned to the sponsor, placed to the sponsor's credit or retained by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission as is appropriate.
[OAR Docket #23-675; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 35.  Community Match Intern Resident Program
[OAR Docket #23-676]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
540:35-1-2. Statutory administration [AMENDED]
540:35-1-3. Power to grant loans [AMENDED]
540:35-1-4. Terms and conditions of loans [AMENDED]
540:35-1-5. Eligibility and amount [AMENDED]
540:35-1-6. Procedures for administering loans [AMENDED]
540:35-1-7. Repayment of loans [AMENDED]
540:35-1-9. Applicant contracts [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
540:35-1-2.  Statutory administration
     The Community Match Intern Resident Program, also known as the Physician Community Match Program, shall be administered by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission under the provisions of Section 625.13 of Title 70 O.S. 1992of the Oklahoma Statutes. The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission shall have the authority to receive funds direct from that community for the purpose of paying the physician involved to the extent of the contractual arrangement.
540:35-1-3.  Power to grant loans
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission is authorized and empowered to grant loans to qualified individuals who have completed a degree of Doctor of Medicine or Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine, and who have completed an intern/residency program in a primary care specialty (Family Practice, General Practice, Internal Medicine, Pediatrics, OB/GYN, Emergency Medicine, or General Surgery), or other specialty as approved by the Commission on an individual basis. The loans will be provided through participation with communities considered by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission to be medically underserved rural Oklahoma communities outside the Oklahoma City and Tulsa metropolitan service areas and approved by the Commission. Assistance will be on a matching basis between state and community and community (60%-40%). The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission reserves the right to disapprove an application.
540:35-1-4.  Terms and conditions of loans
(a)    Recipients shall agree to practice medicine in the specific community for a minimum of three years for a $50,000loan, or two years for a $30,000 loan. Communities shall deposit the funds with the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission to be administered and matched by the Commission.
(b)    The procedures, terms and conditions governing the loans and how they are administered shall be as prescribed and formulated by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission but shall include the following:
(1)    Eligible communities desiring to participate in the Oklahoma Community Match Intern Resident Program, shall select an individual who meets the requirements for participating and give notice to the Commission.
(2)    The Commission shall aid and advise communities in the selection of qualified individuals to participate in a given community loan program.
(3)    The communities shall deposit their total share, 40%, of the loan with the Commission a minimum of 30 days prior to the participating physician's initial practice date in the community.
(4)    The Commission shall review and approve the selection of a given individual and then (based on availability of funds) match community funds with the state funds from the Oklahoma Community Match Intern Resident Program in the amount agreed upon by the participating physician, the Commission, and the community in each particular case, within limits prescribed by the Commission.
(c)    The Contract shall provide that in the event the recipient breaches the terms of the contract by not serving the designated community for the specified period of time, he/she shall pay liquidated damages in an amount determined by the Commission and representing a reasonable estimate of the damage or loss to the community or the state. Said damages shall not exceed one hundred percent (100%) of the principal. After payment of the liquidated damages, repayment of the principal and interest shall be made as agreed upon by the Commission and the recipient.
540:35-1-5.  Eligibility and amount
(a)    An applicant may be eligible for the Community Match Intern Resident Program when the following conditions are met:
(1)    That the physician has not previously received Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission money, either through the Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Scholarship Loan Program, the Community Match Intern Resident Program, the Community Physician Education Scholarship Loan Program, or the Family Practice/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Program.
(2)    That he/she has successfully completed an accredited medical or osteopathic college and an approved internship or residency program in a primary care specialty (Family Practice, General Practice, Internal Medicine, Pediatrics, OB/GYN, General Surgery or Emergency Medicine) or other specialties as approved by the Commission on an individual basis.
(3)    That he/she desires to practice medicine in a specific Oklahoma community which participates in the "matching" program.
(4)    That he/she submits proof which states that he/she has not accepted or will not accept any other assistance which has a conflicting service obligation requirement.
(5)    That the physician possesses a valid license to practice medicine in the State of Oklahoma at the time he/she actually receives the matching funds.
(6)    That the physician has conformed to requirements stipulated in the contract.
(b)    The amount of each loan shall not exceed Fifty($50,000) Thousand Dollars.
(c)    The method of payment of funds to each recipient will be in lump sum by the Commission, payable upon the recipient's beginning his/her practice in the applicable community, providing that said recipient has met requirements stipulated in the contract.
540:35-1-6.  Procedures for administering loans
     The Commission shall promulgate and adopt procedures as may be necessary to carry out the administration of the program. The Commission shall delineate the following procedures:
(1)     Promulgation of information concerning loans. Each medical and osteopathic physician enrolled in a primary care intern residency program in the State of Oklahoma shall be notified concerning the loans by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(2)     Applications. All interested individuals shall file an application with the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. This application can be submitted at any time during the year. A copy of the application is available in the office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(3)     Matching with a town. The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission shall work with the eligible physician who has submitted an application to find an eligible community which desires to fund monies for that particular individual on a cost sharing basis with the State of Oklahoma.
(4)     Approval of loan by the Commission. The Oklahoma Community Match Intern Resident Program may be awarded at any Commission meeting throughout the year. The individual and spouse along with representatives from the community, may appear before the Commission to be interviewed.
540:35-1-7.  Repayment of loans
(a)    Each recipient shall repay the loan to the state and to the community by practicing medicine in the community in Oklahoma providing the initial funds at a minimum of two years for Thirty Thousand Dollars ($30,000) or three years for Fifty Thousand Dollars ($50,000) which the community and the state have jointly financed for the recipient; provided, however, that the recipient will be given no credit for payment, repayment and reduction of said obligation to the community and the state by serving the given community for a period of less than one year.
(b)    Repayment of the total amount of the loan, plus principal, interest, litigation charges, and liquidated damages as assessed by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission, upon failure of the recipient to fulfill his/her contractual obligations, shall be made to the state fund. This loan repayment will be shared with the participating community in accordance with the percentage and total amounts contributed by the state and by the community to the matching fund program and in accordance with the provisions of the contract requirements delineated by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(c)    Monies received by the Commission in repayment of loans granted from appropriated funds shall be deposited with the State Treasurer who shall place the same to the credit of the Commission in a depository fund. All monies so collected and deposited in the State Treasury as aforesaid shall not be subject to fiscal limitations, and the unexpended balance shall at all times be available for expenditures for the purposes and in the manner and form provided by this act. All funds and property, and income therefrom, received by the Commission through the acceptance of gifts, grants, bequests, or devise shall be held by the Commission in trust and may be sold, transferred, invested and reinvested by the Commission in accordance with the provisions of the Oklahoma Trust Act, and all such funds and property and income therefrom shall be used by the Commission in fulfilling and accomplishing the conditions and purposes of the program.
540:35-1-9.  Applicant contracts
     Each applicant, before being granted a loan, shall enter into a contract with the Commission agreeing to the terms and conditions upon which the loan shall be granted to him/her. Said contract shall include such terms and provisions as will carry out the full purpose and intent of the Oklahoma Community Matching Intern Resident Program; the form, therefore, shall be prepared and approved by the Attorney General. Said contracts shall be signed by the Executive Director on behalf of the Commission and by the applicant. The Commission is vested with full and complete authority and power to sue in its own name any applicant for any balance due the Commission on any contract. The Commission shall have authority to cancel any contract made between it and any recipient upon cause deemed sufficient by the Commission. Copies of the Oklahoma Community Matching Intern Resident Program contracts are available in the office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
[OAR Docket #23-676; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 40.  Family/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Loan Program
[OAR Docket #23-677]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
540:40-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
540:40-1-2. Statutory administration [AMENDED]
540:40-1-3. Terms and conditions of scholarship [AMENDED]
540:40-1-4. Eligibility; amount; method of payment [AMENDED]
540:40-1-5. Procedures for administering scholarships [AMENDED]
540:40-1-6. Repayment of scholarship loans [AMENDED]
540:40-1-7. Applicant contracts [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
540:40-1-1.  Purpose
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission shall establish and administer a Family/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Loan Program for the purpose of assisting Oklahoma's rural communities by providing financial assistance through a scholarship loan forgiveness program to medical and osteopathicmedical and osteopathic residents enrolled in an accredited Family Practice or General Practice residency program. [70:625.13(B)]
540:40-1-2.  Statutory administration
     The Family/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Loan Program shall be administered by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission under the provisions of Section 625.13 of 70. O.S. 1992Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
540:40-1-3.  Terms and conditions of scholarship
     The terms and conditions governing the scholarship shall be as prescribed and formulated by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission, but shall include the conditions that each recipient shall match and sign an agreement with a community, approved by the Commission, on or before the end of the second year of residency training; shall schedule and complete one (1) month of elective rotation in the matched community during the third year of residency training; and upon completion of residency training, return to the matched community and practice medicine for one (1) month for each month the scholarship is financed. The contract shall provide that in the event the recipient breaches the terms of the contract by not serving the matched community for the specified period of time, the recipient shall pay liquidated damages in an amount not to exceed 100% of the principal. After payment of liquidated damages, repayment of the principal may be made in cash with interest at the rate of prime plus one per annum, said interest to accrue from the date each payment of funds pursuant to the scholarship is made. [70:625.13]
540:40-1-4.  Eligibility; amount; method of payment
(a)    The Commission shall establish the eligibility standards [625.13(B)] for the award of a scholarship when the following conditions are met:
(1)    That the resident has not previously received Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission money, either through the Oklahoma Rural Medical Education Scholarship Loan Program, the Oklahoma Community Physician Education Scholarship Loan Program, the Community Match Intern Resident Program or the Family Practice/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Program.
(2)    That he/she is accepted into and training full time in an accredited Family/General Practice Residency Program in Oklahoma;
(3)    That he/she desires to practice medicine in a rural community in Oklahoma;
(4)    That he/she agrees to select and match an approved community on or before the end of the second year of residency training and sign a practice agreement with the approved community; and
(5)    That he/she submits proof that he/she has not accepted or will not accept any other scholarship assistance which has a conflicting service obligation requirement.
(b)    The amount of the loan not to exceed One Thousand Dollars ($1,000.00) per month, [625.13(B)] not to exceed thirty-six (36) months.
(c)    In the event a recipient joins the program on or before the end of the second year of residency training, the Commission may approve retroactive payment to the beginning of the current fiscal year.
540:40-1-5.  Procedures for administering scholarships
     The Commission shall promulgate and adopt procedures as may be necessary to carry out the administration of the scholarship program. The Commission shall delineate the following procedures:
(1)     Promulgation of information concerning scholarships. Every reasonable effort shall be made to contact all medical/osteopathic students and family/general practice residents being trained in the State of Oklahoma concerning the availability of the scholarship.
(2)     Applications. All interested family/general practice residents shall file an application with the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. This application can be submitted at any time during the year. Copy of the application is available in the office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(3)     Approval of scholarship by the Commission. Scholarship applications shall be submitted to the Commission for approval at any regular Commission meeting.
(4)     Renewal of contracts. The original scholarship shall be guaranteed for the initial fiscal year, and automatically renewed each year thereafter contingent upon funding from the Legislature.
540:40-1-6.  Repayment of scholarship loans
(a)    Each recipient shall repay the loan to the state and to the community by practicing medicine full time in the community in Oklahoma providing matching funds, one month for each month the loan was received, with no credit being granted for practicing less than twelve (12) months. The period shall begin on the date the recipient begins to practice medicine in the community.
(b)    Repayment of the total amount of the loan, plus principal, interest, litigation charges, and liquidated damages, up to 100% of principal as assessed by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission, upon failure of the recipient to fulfill his/her contractual obligations, shall be made to the Commission. This loan repayment will be shared with the participating community in accordance with the percentage and total amounts contributed by the state and by the community to the matching fund program and in accordance with the provisions of the contract requirements delineated by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(c)    Monies received by the Commission in repayment of scholarships granted from appropriated funds shall be deposited with the State Treasurer who shall place the same to the credit of the Commission in a depository fund. All monies so collected and deposited in the State Treasury as aforesaid shall constitute a continuing fund, shall not be subject to fiscal limitations, and the unexpended balance shall at all times be available for expenditures for the purpose and in the manner and form provided by this act. All funds and property, and income therefrom, received by the Commission through the acceptance of gifts, grants, bequests or devise shall be held by the Commission in trust, and may be sold, transferred, invested and reinvested by the Commission in accordance with the provisions of the Oklahoma Trust Act, and all such funds and property, and income therefrom, shall be used by the Commission in fulfilling and accomplishing the conditions and purposes of the program.
540:40-1-7.  Applicant contracts
     Each applicant, before being granted a scholarship, shall enter into a contract with the Commission agreeing to the terms and conditions upon which the scholarship shall be granted to him/her. On or before the end of the second year of residency training, the recipient will select an approved community in Oklahoma and shall enter into an agreement with the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission and the community. This agreement will be attached to the original contract signed by the recipient and the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. The recipient will fulfill their contractual obligation to the community as outlined in the original contract. Said contract and agreement shall include such terms and provisions as will carry out the full purpose and intent of the Family/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Loan Program; the form thereof shall be prepared and approved by the Attorney General. Said contracts shall be signed by the Executive Director on behalf of the Commission and by the applicant. The Commission is hereby vested with full and complete authority and power to sue in its own name any applicant for any balance due the Commission on any contract. The Commission shall have authority to cancel any contract made between it and any recipient of a scholarship upon cause deemed sufficient by the Commission. Copies of the Family/General Practice Resident Rural Scholarship Loan Program contracts are available in the office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
[OAR Docket #23-677; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 45.  Physician Assistant Scholarship Program
[OAR Docket #23-678]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
540:45-1-1. Purpose [AMENDED]
540:45-1-2. Statutory administration [AMENDED]
540:45-1-3. Terms and conditions of scholarship [AMENDED]
540:45-1-5. Procedures for administering scholarships [AMENDED]
540:45-1-6. Repayment of scholarship loan [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
540:45-1-1.  Purpose
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission shall establish and administer a Physician Assistant Scholarship Program under the provisions of Section 697.21 Title 70 of the Oklahoma State Statutes. The purpose of the program is to encourage persons to enter physician assistant education programs and to practice in rural and medically underserved areas of this state. [70:697.21(a)]
540:45-1-2.  Statutory administration
     The Physician Assistant Scholarship Program shall be administered by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission pursuant to rules promulgated by the Commission and shall be funded based on an annual estimate of need as determined by the Commission. [70:697.21(a)]
540:45-1-3.  Terms and conditions of scholarship
     The terms and conditions governing the scholarship are to be as prescribed and formulated by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission, but includes the conditions that each recipient upon completion of the course of study, will repay the scholarship by practicing in a rural Oklahoma community outside the Oklahoma City and Tulsa Metropolitan Service Areas and having a need therefore, as determined by the Commission, for one month for each month the scholarship was received. The contract will provide that in the event the recipient breaches the terms of the contract by not serving in an approved community for the specified period of time, the recipient will pay liquidated damages in an amount not to exceed 100% of the principal. After payment of liquidated damages, repayment of the principal may be made in cash with interest at a rate that equals the prime interest rate plus one percent (1%) from the date of disbursement of the funds. [70:697.21(c)]
540:45-1-5.  Procedures for administering scholarships
     The Commission shall promulgate and adopt procedures as may be necessary to carry out the administration of the scholarship program. The Commission shall delineate the following procedures:
(1)     Promulgation of information concerning scholarships. Every reasonable effort shall be made to contact all physician assistants being trained in the State of Oklahoma concerning the availability of the scholarship.
(2)     Applications. All interested physician assistant students shall file an application with the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. This application can be submitted at any time during the year. Applications are available in the office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(3)     Approval of scholarship by the Commission. Scholarship applications shall be submitted to the Commission for approval at any regular Commission meeting. Applications will be reviewed in the order they are received and will be approved or declined as determined by the Commission.
(4)     Renewal of contracts. The original scholarship shall be guaranteed for the initial fiscal year, and renewed each year thereafter contingent upon funding from the Legislature, and continued approval of the Commission based on the students academic performance and recommendation of the Director of the Physician Assistant Program.
540:45-1-6.  Repayment of scholarship loan
(a)    Each recipient shall repay the scholarship loan to the state by practicing full time in an approved community in Oklahoma, one month for each month the scholarship loan was received. The period shall begin on the date the recipient begins to practice in the approved community.
(b)    Repayment of the total amount of the loan, plus principal, interest, litigation costs, and liquidated damages in an amount up to 100% of principal as assessed by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission, upon failure of the recipient to fulfill the contractual obligations, shall be made payable to the Commission.
(c)    There is hereby created in the State Treasury a revolving fund for the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission to be designated the "Physician Assistant Scholarship Fund". The fund shall be a continuing fund, not subject to fiscal year limitations, and shall consist of all monies received by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission for implementation of the Physician Assistant Scholarship Program. All monies accruing to the credit of the fund are hereby appropriated and may be budgeted and expended by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission for such scholarships as may be provided for pursuant to the Physician Assistant Scholarship Program. Expenditures from the fund shall be made upon warrants issued by the State Treasurer against claims filed as prescribed by law with the Director of State FinanceOffice of Management and Enterprise Services for approval and payment. [70:697.21(d)]
[OAR Docket #23-678; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 50.  Oklahoma Medical Loan Repayment Program
[OAR Docket #23-679]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
540:50-1-2. Statutory administration [AMENDED]
540:50-1-3. Terms and conditions of loans [AMENDED]
540:50-1-6. Procedures for administering loans [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; 70 O.S., § 697.21a.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission amended its rules to comply with recently-enacted H.B. 2776, 58th Leg, 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022), which changed the composition of the Commission as well as the agency's name. The Commission also fixed scrivener's errors and cleaned-up the language, more generally.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
540:50-1-2.  Statutory administration
     The Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission shall administer the Oklahoma Medical Loan Repayment Program. [63:1-2721(A)(1)] The Oklahoma Medical Loan Repayment Program shall be administered by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission pursuant to rules promulgated by the Commission and shall be funded based on an annual estimate of need as determined by the Commission and the actual funds available to the Program for expenditure.
540:50-1-3.  Terms and conditions of loans
(a)    The terms and conditions governing the Programs shall be as prescribed and formulated by the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. The physician or physician assistant shall agree to practice in the designated need areas identified by the Commission as a condition of the loan repayment. If the physicianof the loan repayment. If the physician or physician assistant does not fulfill the service obligation, or doesn't comply with the reporting requirements, the Commission may discontinue the payments beginning with the current year, and may remove the physician or physician assistant from the Program.
(b)    Physicians and physician assistants must submit proof that they are not currently obligated, and will not become obligated, to any other repayment program that has a conflicting service obligation.
540:50-1-6.  Procedures for administering loans
     The Commission shall promulgate and adopt procedures as may be necessary to carry out the administration of the program. The Commission shall delineate the following procedures:
(1)     Promulgation of information concerning loans. Every reasonable effort shall be made to contact all eligible physicians or physician assistants concerning the availability of the program. Preference will be given to graduates of the primary care residency programs affiliated with the Oklahoma State University of College of Osteopathic Medicine, the University of Oklahoma College of Medicine and the teaching hospitals affiliated with both schools of medicine and teaching health centers located in this state. [63:1-2721(C)(2)]
(2)     Applications. All interested physicians or physician assistants shall file an application with the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission. This application can be submitted at any time during the year. Applications are available at www.pmtc.ok.gov and in the office of the Physician ManpowerHealth Care Workforce Training Commission.
(3)     Approval by the Commission. Applications shall be submitted to the Commission for approval at any regular Commission meeting. Applications will be reviewed in the order they are received and will be approved or denied as determined by the Commission.
(4)     Renewal of contracts. The original contract shall be guaranteed for the initial year, and renewed each anniversary thereafter contingent upon available funding.
[OAR Docket #23-679; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 540.  Health Care Workforce Training Commission
CHAPTER 55.  Health Care Workforce Development Grant Program
[OAR Docket #23-680]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [NEW]
540:55-1-1. Purpose [NEW]
540:55-1-2. Definitions [NEW]
Subchapter 3. Program Administration [NEW]
540:55-3-1. System for Award Management ("SAM") [NEW]
540:55-3-2. Capital expenditures [NEW]
540:55-3-3. Competitive bidding [NEW]
540:55-3-4. Reporting [NEW]
540:55-3-5. Labor reporting for construction projects [NEW]
540:55-3-6. Reimbursements [NEW]
540:55-3-7. Audit requirements [NEW]
540:55-3-8. Compliance with federal requirements [NEW]
540:55-3-9. Grantee assurances [NEW]
Subchapter 5. Violations and Corrective Actions [NEW]
540:55-5-1. Program violations [NEW]
540:55-5-2. Corrective and remedial actions [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Health Care Workforce Training Commission; S.B. 1458, 58th Leg., 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); S.B. 8xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); S.B. 9xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); S.B. 10xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); S.B. 17xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); and H.B. 1025, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted).
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 23, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 15, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 20, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 31, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [NEW]
540:55-1-1 [NEW]
540:55-1-2 [NEW]
Subchapter 3. Program Administration [NEW]
540:55-3-1 [NEW]
540:55-3-2 [NEW]
540:55-3-3 [NEW]
540:55-3-4 [NEW]
540:55-3-5 [NEW]
540:55-3-6 [NEW]
540:55-3-7 [NEW]
540:55-3-8 [NEW]
540:55-3-9 [NEW]
Subchapter 5. Violations and Corrective Actions [NEW]
540:55-5-1 [NEW]
540:55-5-2 [NEW]
Gubernatorial approval:
January 27, 2023
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 821
Docket number:
23-670
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Title 2 of the Code of Federal Regulations; U.S. Treasury Final Rule, Coronavirus State and Local Fiscal Recovery Funds, 87 Fed. Reg. 4338 (Jan. 27, 2022); State and Local Fiscal Recovery Funds Compliance and Reporting Guide
Incorporating rules:
540:55-1-2
540:55-3-1
540:55-3-2
540:55-3-3
540:55-3-4
540:55-3-5
540:55-3-7
540:55-3-8
540:55-3-9
540:55-5-2
Availability:
8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday at the Health Care Workforce Training Commission, 119 North Robinson Avenue, Suite 520, Oklahoma City, OK 73102-4603, 405-604-0020.
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The Health Care Workforce Training Commission proposes permanent rules that establish guidelines for administration of the Health Care Workforce Development Grant Program. This program will distribute over $75,000,000 in federal American Rescue Plan Act ("ARPA") money to select subrecipients for 27 specific health care workforce projects, including, among other things, capital improvements to nursing schools, as designated by the Oklahoma Legislature.
CONTACT PERSON:
Janie Thompson, Executive Director (405), 604-0020, Janie.Thompson@HWTC.ok.gov. For legal questions, contact Maria Maule, Assistant Attorney General, (405) 522-0055, Maria.Maule@oag.ok.gov.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
540:55-1-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of the Health Care Workforce Development Grant program is to use federal funds distributed to the State of Oklahoma pursuant to the American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021) ("ARPA"), to help recruit, educate, and stabilize Oklahoma's health care workforce. The Oklahoma Legislature designated the Health Care Workforce Training Commission ("HWTC") as a pass-through entity through which federal ARPA funding will be further distributed to grantees for specific health care workforce projects, including, but not limited to, capital improvements to nursing schools. See S.B. 1458, 58th Leg., 2d Reg. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); S.B. 8xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); S.B. 9xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); S.B. 10xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); S.B. 17xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted); and H.B. 1025, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted).
540:55-1-2.  Definitions
     When used in this chapter, the following words or terms shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"ARPA" means the American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021), as amended.
"C.F.R." means Code of Federal Regulations, available at www.ecfr.gov.
"Grantee" means a recipient of ARPA funds awarded through the Health Care Workforce Development Grant program, regardless of whether the recipient is a "pass-through entity" or "subrecipient."
"HWTC" or "the Commission" means Health Care Workforce Training Commission.
"OMES" means Office of Management and Enterprise Services.
"Pass-through entity" or "PTE" means a non-federal entity that provides a subaward to a subrecipient to carry out part of a federal program, consistent with the definition at 2 C.F.R., § 200.1.
"SAM" means System for Award Management.
"Subrecipient" means an entity that receives a subaward from a pass-through entity to carry out part of a federal award, but does not include an individual that is a beneficiary of such award, consistent with the definition at 2 C.F.R., § 200.1.
"U.S. Treasury" means United States Department of the Treasury.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Program Administration
540:55-3-1.  System for Award Management ("SAM")
     All eligible grantees must have an active registration with SAM.gov pursuant to Part 25 of Title 2 of the C.F.R. This registration must be active prior to the submission of mandatory reporting.
540:55-3-2.  Capital expenditures
(a)    In accordance with Section 35.6(b)(4) of the Treasury Final Rule, grantees expending $1,000,000 or more for capital expenditures related to the response to the COVID-19 public health emergency or its negative economic impacts, must provide the following written justification:
(1)    A description of the specific harm or need to be addressed, and why the harm was exacerbated or caused by the public health emergency. The grantee may provide quantitative information on the extent and the type of harm, such as the number of individuals or entities affected.
(2)    An explanation of why a capital expenditure is appropriate. For example, a grantee should explain why existing equipment or facilities, or policy changes or additional funding to pertinent programs or services, would be inadequate.
(3)    A comparison of the proposed capital project against at least two (2) alternative capital expenditures and a demonstration of why the proposed capital expenditure is superior. Grantees should consider the effectiveness of the capital expenditure in addressing the harm identified and the expected total cost (including pre-development costs) against at least two (2) alternative capital expenditures.
(b)    Funding for grantees expending $1,000,000 or more of a Health Care Workforce Development Grant for capital expenditures will not be distributed until the complete written justification for capital expenditure as detailed above is received and approved by OMES.
(c)    If the capital expenditures amount to $10,000,000 or more, the written justification will also have to be submitted as part of regular reporting.
540:55-3-3.  Competitive bidding
(a)    All projects, programs, services, or activities sponsored in whole or in part with ARPA funds will be purchased in accordance with the State Purchasing Director's Guide to Competitive Purchasing with ARPA and GEER II Funds, available at https://oklahoma.gov/content/dam/ok/en/omes/documents/ARPAGuide.pdf, and in accordance with applicable state and federal law, including but not limited to, 2 C.F.R., §§ 200.310 through .316 (property standards), and 2 C.F.R., §§ 200.317 through .327 (procurement standards).
(b)    All grantees that utilize competitive bidding procurement methods must provide HWTC with documentation of the process, including, but not limited to, copies of the bids received and justification of how a decision was reached to award a contract to a specific vendor.
540:55-3-4.  Reporting
(a)    All grantees will appropriately maintain accounting records for compiling and reporting accurate, compliant financial data in accordance with generally accepted accounting standards and principles.
(b)    All grantees are required to submit Project and Expenditure Reports at the close of each month or quarter, in accordance with OMES' Subrecipient Monitoring Schedule. These reports must include, at a minimum, the status of the overall project, a listing of obligations and expenditures, any applicable program income, and a description of the project demographic distribution. A template for the reports will be sent to all grantees, and the complete report shall be submitted to HWTC within thirty (30) days of the end of the reporting period, or as otherwise directed by OMES. HWTC, in turn, will submit all requested monthly and quarterly data to OMES to report as needed to the U.S. Treasury.
(c)    Pursuant to the State and Local Fiscal Recovery Funds ("SLFRF") Compliance and Reporting Guide, some grantees with larger projects may be required to submit an annual Recovery Plan Performance Report ("Recovery Plan"). The Recovery Plan must detail how the grantee will ensure program outcomes are achieved in an effective, efficient, and equitable manner. The Recovery Plan, if required, must be submitted annually to HWTC and the U.S. Treasury; in addition, the Recovery Plan must be posted on the grantee's public-facing website.
540:55-3-5.  Labor reporting for construction projects
(a)    For projects with over $10,000,000 in capital expenditures (based on total expected cost), the grantee shall submit labor reporting requirements, including, but not limited to:
(1)    A Project Employment and Impact Report; and
(2)    A Project Workforce Continuity Plan.
(3)    These reports must be updated on a quarterly basis and submitted to HWTC within thirty (30) days of the end of the reporting period.
(b)    Projects funded entirely by ARPA dollars are not subject to the Davis-Bacon Act, Pub. L. No. 107-217 (Aug. 21, 2002), as amended; however, for projects that are funded in part by other federal dollars, grantees must determine whether their other funding source will require compliance with said act.
(c)    Pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Final Rule, and regardless of the expected cost for construction projects, grantees are expected to use strong labor standards, including project labor agreements and community benefits agreements that offer wages at or above the prevailing rate and include local hire provisions.
540:55-3-6.  Reimbursements
(a)     Prior authorization. Grantees must receive written prior authorization from HWTC before making purchases exceeding a prior authorization threshold amount. This amount will be based upon the grantee's risk assessment, as completed by a third-party consultant, as well as the overall scope of the proposed project. Grantees shall be informed in writing of the prior authorization threshold amount. A grantee shall upload the quote and a brief justification to the grant software designated by HWTC, for review and prior authorization by the HWTC Grants Manager. Any purchase over the threshold amount that has not been prior authorized by the Grants Manager may not be reimbursed by the Health Care Workforce Development Grant program.
(b)     Invoices. In order to obtain reimbursement, grantees shall electronically send monthly invoice packets to the HWTC Grants Manager. These packets must be received by the 5th day of each month.
(1)    Invoice packets must include the following:
(A)    Signed receipts/invoices for all purchases;
(B)    A brief justification of all expenses (1-2 sentences explaining how the purchase benefits the project); and
(C)    Bidding documentation with justification for why the vendor was chosen.
(2)    Invoices shall not be submitted to HWTC for reimbursement before performance is completed by the vendor and accepted by the grantee, including physical receipt of goods. A grantee must sign the invoice or receipt to verify that the item or service has been received.
(c)     Approval by Commission or Executive Director. After a purchase is prior authorized, if applicable, by the HWTC Grants Manager and made by the grantee, the grantee must still obtain approval before receiving reimbursement.
(1)     Purchases less than $50,000. The Commission has delegated to HWTC's Executive Director the authority to approve reimbursement of purchases of goods and/or services that cost less than $50,000. Requests for the Executive Director's approval shall be made electronically. A written copy of the Executive Director's approval or disapproval shall be electronically sent to a grantee within fifteen (15) business days of submission. A grantee may not request more than one (1) reimbursement approval from the Executive Director in any two-month (2-month) period.
(2)     Purchases of $50,000 or more. The Commission may, through formal Commission action, increase the maximum dollar value of reimbursements the Executive Director is authorized to approve, as identified in OAC 540:55-3-6(3)(a), above; any decision to provide such increased authorization to the Executive Director will be within the Commission's sole and absolute discretion and subject to the Commission's directives. Absent any increased authorization, requests to approve reimbursements equal to or more than $50,000 must be submitted to the Commission electronically, for approval or disapproval at a regularly- or specially-scheduled public meeting. Grantees that wish to be reimbursed following a particular Commission meeting must submit their invoice packets to the HWTC Grants Manager no less than two (2) weeks prior to the meeting. Grantees will be provided with a copy of the Commission meeting schedule, and may search for the Commission's meetings at www.sos.ok.gov/meetings/legacy/default.aspx. Grantees will be provided electronic correspondence reflecting the Commission's approval or disapproval within two (2) business days of the public meeting.
(d)     Advance payments, cash advances, and working capital advances. Requests for advance payments, cash advances, working capital advances, or any other payment of ARPA funds that is made to a grantee other than on a reimbursement basis, must be submitted to OMES for approval, in accordance with OMES' policies, as amended, including, but not limited to, OMES' Controlled Advance Grant Policy, Post-Payment Reimbursement Policy, and Working Capital Policy.
540:55-3-7.  Audit requirements
(a)    The Grantee shall complete the Subrecipient Annual Report annually within forty-five (45) days after its fiscal year end, informing the State of Oklahoma whether a Single Audit is required for the prior fiscal year. If a Single Audit is required, the grantee shall submit a copy of the audit report to the State of Oklahoma within nine (9) months. A Single Audit is required if the grantee expends $750,000 or more in federal assistance during its fiscal year and must be conducted in accordance with Subpart F of Part 200 of Title 2 of the C.F.R.
(1)    HWTC will review the grantee's audit and issue any management decisions thereon within six (6) months of acceptance of the audit report by the Federal Audit Clearinghouse. Prior to issuing the management decision, HWTC may request additional information or documentation from the grantee, including a request for auditor assurance related to the documentation, as a way of mitigating disallowed costs.
(2)    After review of the audit, if it is determined that funds are owed to the State of Oklahoma, HWTC may issue a management decision letter to the grantee. Pursuant to 2 C.F.R., § 200.521, the management decision will include:
(A)    A clear statement of whether or not the audit finding is sustained, the reasons for the decision, and the actions the grantee is expected to take (including, for example, repaying disallowed costs, making financial adjustments, or taking other actions);
(B)    A description of the appeals process available to the grantee; and
(C)    The reference numbers the auditor assigned to each audit finding.
(3)    A grantee aggrieved by an HWTC management decision may initiate an appeal of that decision. In order to initiate an appeal, the grantee must complete and submit the appropriate form provided by HWTC and made available on its website, within twenty (20) calendar days of the date of the management decision letter. If the form is not timely received, the Commission or the hearing officer designated by the Commission will issue a letter stating that the appeal will not be heard.
(4)    Appeals of management decisions shall be conducted in accordance with OAC 540:1-5-1.
(b)    Even if a grantee is exempt from federal audit requirements for a particular fiscal year, it shall still make its records available for review or audit by appropriate officials of the U.S. Treasury, OMES, HWTC, and Government Accountability Office, as requested. Moreover, all "government entities," as such term is defined by law, shall comply with the applicable provisions of 74 O.S., § 212A relating to the Oklahoma State Auditor & Inspector's Office.
540:55-3-8.  Compliance with federal requirements
     Grantees must establish and maintain effective internal controls over the federal award that provide reasonable assurance that they are managing the awards in compliance with federal statues, regulations, and the terms and conditions of the award. Some of the applicable federal compliance, reporting, and contract requirements include:
(1)    American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021), as amended;
(2)    U.S. Treasury Final Rule, Coronavirus State and Local Fiscal Recovery Funds, 87 Fed. Reg. 4338 (Jan. 27, 2022), and all other applicable federal rules, policies, guidance, procedures, and directives including reporting and compliance guidance, as amended;
(3)    Uniform Guidance (Part 200 of Title 2 of the C.F.R.), including Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards, as amended; and
(4)    Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996, Pub. L. No. 104-156 (July 5, 1996), as amended.
540:55-3-9.  Grantee assurances
     Grantees must agree to certain state- and federally-required assurances, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1)    The grantee shall report on incurred expenses and/or losses, in a form and at a frequency prescribed by the State of Oklahoma and shall cooperate with the State of Oklahoma in creating and retaining appropriate documentation to demonstrate that the proposed uses meet the requirements of ARPA.
(2)    Grantees shall timely complete Quarterly Performance Management Plans and submit them to HWTC. Quarterly Performance Management Plans must show measurable outcomes of the project. HWTC will submit the combined reports and results to the Commission on a quarterly basis.
(3)    In accordance with federal guidelines, grantees must keep accurate records of all inventory, including all equipment purchases over five thousand dollars ($5,000). Annual inventory reconciliations must be performed by both an agent of the grantee and an agent of HWTC (can be simultaneous).
(4)    Grantees shall comply with all requests from the State of Oklahoma to schedule in-person site visits to observe and review progress of Capital (Real Property) building or renovation projects. Site visits will be scheduled at least once every three (3) months until completion of the project.
(5)    The grantee shall expend all funds by October 2, 2026. To the extent that actual expenditures or demonstrated need is less than the total award amount, the grantee will return the balance of unspent funds to the State of Oklahoma. If the U.S. Treasury recoups funds from the State of Oklahoma based on a determination that these award funds were used in a manner not in compliance with ARPA, the State of Oklahoma may recover funds from the grantee by reducing future funding in state budgets.
(6)    The grantee shall repay the award or portion of the award if: any funds received were issued in error; are based on incorrect representations; or any costs forming the basis of an award under this program have been or will be covered by other federal grants or awards or federally forgiven loans received by the grantee. The final determination of whether there has been a duplication of benefits and the amount to be repaid, if any, will be made by HWTC and/or OMES.
(7)    The grantee shall maintain and make available to the State of Oklahoma and/or U.S. Treasury, upon request, all documents and financial records sufficient to establish compliance with ARPA. Records and supporting documentation must be maintained for a period of seven (7) years after all funds have been expended or returned to U.S. Treasury, whichever is later. However, if any litigation, claim, or audit begins before the end of that seven-year period, all records must be retained until all litigation, claims, or audit findings involving the records have been resolved and the final action has been taken. Moreover, all records relating to real property shall be retained until seven (7) years after final disposition of the property.
(8)    Records to support compliance with ARPA may include, but are not limited to, copies of the following:
(A)    General ledger and subsidiary ledgers used to account for:
(i)    The receipt of ARPA payments; and
(ii)    The disbursements from such payments to meet eligible expenses related to the public health emergency due to COVID-19;
(B)    Budget records;
(C)    Payroll, time records, human resource records to support costs incurred for payroll expenses related to addressing the public health emergency due to COVID-19;
(D)    Receipts of purchases made related to addressing the public health emergency due to COVID-19;
(E)    Contracts and subcontracts entered into using ARPA payments and all documents related to such contracts;
(F)    Grant agreements and grant subaward agreements entered into using ARPA payments and all documents related to such awards;
(G)    All documentation of reports, audits, and other monitoring of contractors, including subcontractors, and grant recipient and subrecipients;
(H)    All documentation supporting the performance outcomes of contracts, subcontracts, grant awards, and grant recipient subawards;
(I)    All internal and external email/electronic communications related to use of ARPA payments; and
(J)    All investigative files and inquiry reports involving ARPA payments.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Violations and Corrective Actions
540:55-5-1.  Program violations
     The State shall find that a violation of the Health Care Workforce Development Grant program policies and procedures occurred under certain circumstances, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1)    A grantee provided false or misleading information in proposed project applications and/or project reports;
(2)    The requirements of federal statute, federal regulations, Oklahoma statute, or rules of HWTC have not been met or have been violated;
(3)    There is a significant deviation from the grant agreement;
(4)    Significant corrective actions are necessary to protect the integrity of the project funds, and those corrective actions are not or cannot be put into effect, in the judgment of HWTC staff, within a reasonable timeframe; or
(5)    There has been a finding of fraud, waste, or mismanagement of any current or prior state- or federally-funded project.
540:55-5-2.  Corrective and remedial actions
     After having determined that a program violation has occurred, HWTC may take the following actions:
(1)    HWTC may adjust specific award conditions as needed, after providing notification consistent with the requirements in 2 C.F.R., § 200.208, including:
(A)    Requiring payments as reimbursements rather than advance payments;
(B)    Withholding authority to proceed to the next phase until receipt of evidence of acceptable performance within a given performance period;
(C)    Requiring additional, more detailed financial reports;
(D)    Requiring additional project monitoring;
(E)    Requiring the grantee to obtain technical or management assistance; or
(F)    Establishing additional prior approvals; or
(2)    If, after determining that noncompliance cannot be remedied by imposing additional conditions, HWTC may, in accordance with 2 C.F.R., § 200.339:
(A)    Temporarily withhold cash payments pending correction of the deficiency by the grantee or more severe enforcement action by the U.S. Treasury or OMES;
(B)    Disallow all or part of the cost of the activity or action not in compliance;
(C)    Wholly or partly suspend or terminate the grant;
(D)    Recommend the U.S. Treasury initiate suspension or debarment proceedings under Part 180 of Title 2 of the C.F.R.;
(E)    Withhold further federal awards for the project or program; or
(F)    Take other remedies that are legally available.
[OAR Docket #23-680; filed 6-29-23]

TITLE 590.  Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System
CHAPTER 25.  Deferred Compensation
[OAR Docket #23-595]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
590:25-1-3. Definitions [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Election to Defer Compensation
590:25-3-1. Election limits [AMENDED]
590:25-3-3. Discontinuation and deferral change [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Assets, Credits, Accounts, and Reports
590:25-5-8. Establishment of Accounts [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Benefits
590:25-9-11. Payment and distribution options [AMENDED]
590:25-9-15. Taxation [AMENDED]
590:25-9-16. RolloversRollover contributions to thefrom other plansplan [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System Board of Trustees; 74 O.S. Section 1701.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 29, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 3, 2023, through February 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
February 16, 2023
ADOPTION:
February 16, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The amendments to 590:40-1-3 add definitions to the new types of investment accounts available to participants. The amendments to 590:40-5-6 address changes to Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals and Roth Elective Deferrals. The amendment to 590:40-9-33 allows the participant to designate the source of distributions. The amendment to 590:40-9-37 addresses taxes and penalties related to distributions from the participant's Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount. The amendments to 590:40-9-38 address the Plan accepting eligible rollovers from other eligible retirement plans.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kristi Ice, General Counsel, Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System, 5400 N. Grand Boulevard, Suite 400, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73112, 405-858-6703
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
590:25-1-3.  Definitions
     The following words,and terms, or phrases, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Account" means any of the accounts established for a Participant under the Plan, as described in Section 8 of Subchapter 5 of Chapter 25. The following Accounts may be established for a Participant within the 457(b) Plan:
(A)    A Pre-Tax Elective Deferral Subaccount to reflect the Participant's interest in the 457(b) Plan attributable to their Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals;
(B)    A Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount to reflect the Participant's interest in the 457(b) Plan attributable to their Roth Elective Deferrals;
(C)    A Rollover Contribution Account to reflect the Participant's interest in the 457(b) Plan attributable to their rollover contributions, made pursuant to Section 590:25-9-16. To the extent that Roth Rollover Contributions are made to the Plan, a separate subaccount under the Rollover Account shall be established to hold the Roth Rollover Contributions; and
(D)    A Transfer Contribution Account to reflect the Participant's interest in the 457(b) Plan attributable to amounts transferred to the Plan pursuant to 590:25-9-13. To the extent that such transferred amounts constitute amounts from a designated Roth Account, a separate subaccount under the Transfer Contribution Account shall be established to hold such amounts from a designated Roth Account.
"Amendments, alterations and changes" means all Annuities, Mutual Fund(s), and Savings contracts can be altered, amended, changed or substituted for, from time to time by action of a majority of the Board and such altered, amended, changed, or substituted contract or contracts thereafter shall be used in the Plan.
"Beneficiary" means beneficiary or beneficiaries designated by the Participant in his Agreement with the Employer. If more than one designated beneficiary survives the participant, payments shall be made equally to the surviving beneficiaries unless otherwise provided in the Agreement. Nothing herein shall prevent the Participant from designating primary and secondary beneficiaries.
"Board" means the Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System Board of Trustees, acting by and through the Plan Administrator.
"Code" shallmeanmeans the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
"Contracts and savings" means any deferred fixed annuity, variable annuity, mutual fund, common trust fund, savings account, or any combination thereof, authorized by applicable law or regulation to be sold or made available in the State of Oklahoma by any company or companies approved by the Board.
"Deferral" means a postponement of recognition of income taxes to be paid on salary withheld and invested with the Oklahoma State Employees Deferred Compensation Plan.
"Deferred compensation" means that portion of the Participant's compensation which the Participant and the Employer mutually agree to defer until the conditions set forth in the Deferred Compensation Plan are met.
"De-minimis account" means an inactive plan account that does not exceed the amount allowed by the Internal Revenue Code.
"Disability" means an actual and continuous physical or mental incapacity which causes the Participant to be retired with a disability retirement under the Participant's retirement plan.
"Emergency withdrawals" means withdrawals of amounts because of an unforeseeable emergency and are only permitted to the extent reasonably needed to satisfy the emergency need.
"Employee" means any officer or employee of the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of the Employer who is an active member of a public retirement system of this state, but does not include:
(A)    Employees of the public elementary, secondary, or area vocational school districts;
(B)    Employees of The Oklahoma State System of Higher Education except employees of the Oklahoma State Regents of Higher Education, the employees of the governing boards and the employees at the George Nigh Rehabilitation Institute or the Medical Technology and Research Authority of Oklahoma who remain participating members of OPERS;
(C)    Persons on temporary, student, internship, or other limited-term appointments except for Executive Fellows in the Carl Albert Public Internship Program;
(D)    Persons employed pursuant to Section 1.6a of Title 53 of the Oklahoma Statutes or Section 1806.1 of Title 74 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
"Employer" means The State of Oklahoma, its agencies and any duly constituted authority or instrumentality of the State of Oklahoma.
"Gender and number" Except when otherwise indicated by the context, any masculine terminology herein shall also include the feminine, and the definition of any terms herein in the singular may also include the plural.
"Normal retirement age" means not later than April 1 of the calendar year following that in which the Participant attains age seventy (70) years and six (6) months if the Participant is no longer employed by the Employer or April 1 of the calendar year following that in which the Participant severs employment after attaining the age seventy (70) years and six (6) months and beginning no earlier than the earliest age at which the Participant can retire under any state retirement system with full benefits.
"Participant" means an individual who is eligible and agrees to defer compensation under the Plan.
"Plan" means the current Oklahoma State Employees Deferred Compensation Plan and as it may be amended from time to time.
"Plan Administrator" means the person or persons appointed by the Executive Director of the Oklahoma Employees Retirement System to administer the Plan pursuant to Section 1 of Subchapter 13 of this Chapter 25.
"Plan Year" means the twelve month period ending on June 30.
"Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals" means pre-tax voluntary deferrals made to the Plan pursuant to a Participant's election.
"Qualified Distribution" means a distribution from a Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount after the Participant has satisfied a five-year holding period and has attained age 59½, died, or become disabled within the meaning of Code Section 72(m)(7), in accordance with Code Section 402A(d). Within the meaning of this definition, the five-year holding period is the period of five consecutive taxable years that begins with the first day of the first taxable year in which the Participant makes a designated Roth Elective Deferral under the Plan or to another retirement plan which amount was directly rolled over to the Plan and ends when five consecutive taxable years have been completed.
"Recordkeeper" means the company designated by the Board to perform recordkeeping, administrative, and/or investment services to the Plan.
"Retirement" means the first date upon which each of the following shall have occurred: Separation from Service and attainment of Normal Retirement Age.
"Roth Elective Deferrals"means after-tax voluntary deferrals designated by the Participant as Roth Elective Deferrals that are being made in lieu of all or a portion of the Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals the Participant is otherwise eligible to make under the Plan.
"Roth Rollover Contribution" means an eligible rollover distribution from another applicable retirement plan in accordance with Code Section 402A(e)(1) only if it is a direct rollover, and only to the extent the rollover is permitted under the rules of Code Sections 402(c) and 402A(c).
"Termination of service" means the severance of the Participant's employment relationship with the Employer prior to his retirement, death or disability.
"Trust" means the provisions of this document that comprise the trust established hereunder, effective January 1, 1998.
"Trust Fund" means the fund established under the Trust, with the Board of Trustees as trustee, and held by said trustee in accordance with this Plan and Trust, to which deposits and Deferred Compensation under this Plan and Trust will be made and out of which benefits under this Plan and Trust will be provided.
"Trustee" means the individuals appointed to the Board of Trustees to administer the Trust Fund in accordance with this Plan and Trust.
"Valuation Date" means each business day of the calendar year. On each Valuation Date, the Recordkeeper shall determine the value of the Trust Fund.
"Unforeseeable emergency" means severe financial hardship to the Participant, resulting from a sudden and unexpected illness or accident of the Participant or of a dependent of the Participant, loss of the Participant's property due to casualty, or other similar extraordinary and unforeseeable circumstances arising as a result of events beyond the control of the Participant.
(A)    The circumstances that will constitute an unforeseeable emergency will depend upon the facts of each case, but, in any case, payment may not be made to the extent that such hardship is or may be relieved:
(i)    Through reimbursement or compensation by insurance or otherwise.
(ii)    By liquidation of the Participant's assets, to the extent the liquidation of these assets would not itself cause severe financial hardship, or
(iii)    By cessation of deferrals under the Plan.
(B)    Foreseeable personal expenditures normally budgetable, such as a down payment for a home, mortgage payments, rent, credit card debt, the purchase of an automobile, college or other schooling expense, etc., will not constitute an unforeseeable emergency.
"Variable annuity contract" means a Group Variable Annuity Contract approved for sale in the State of Oklahoma by any company or companies approved by the Board.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Election to Defer Compensation
590:25-3-1.  Election limits
(a)    The Employee may elect to participate in this Plan and consent to the Employer deferring a predetermined amount equivalent to at least Twenty-Five Dollars ($25.00) a month, including Roth Elective Deferrals. Effective January 1, 2002, the maximum that may be deferred under the Plan for the taxable year shall not exceed the lesser of the maximum amount allowed each year as determined by the Internal Revenue Service or one hundred percent (100%) of the employee's includable compensation. For purposes of the Plan, only compensation from the Employer that is attributable to services performed for Employer may be includable in gross income. Compensation includes payments made by the later of 2 1/2 months after severance from employment or the end of the calendar year that includes the date of the Participant's severance from employment if they are payments that, absent a severance from employment, would have been paid had the Participant continued in employment with the Employer and are:
(1)    Regular compensation for services during the Participant's regular working hours, or compensation for services outside the Employee's regular work hours (such as overtime or shift differential), commissions, bonuses, or other similar payments, and the compensation would have been paid to the Participant prior to a severance from employment if the Participant had continued employment with the Employer; or
(2)    payments for unused accrued bona fide sick, vacation or other leave, but only if the Participant would have been able to use the leave if employment had continued; or
(3)    payments pursuant to a nonqualified unfunded deferred compensation plan, but only if the payments would have been paid to the Qualified Participant at the same time if the Participant had continued employment with the Employer and only to the extent that the payment is includible in the Qualified Participant's gross income.
(b)    Includable compensation excludes amounts converted under the State's Internal Revenue Code Section 125 Plan and employee retirement contributions that are tax-deferred. The deferment will commence no sooner than the first pay period of the month following the date the enrollment application is properly completed by the Employee and accepted by the Plan Administrator.
590:25-3-3.  Discontinuation and deferral change
(a)    The election of the Employee to participate under this Plan and the amount of compensation to be deferred is continuous, except that the Employee may discontinue participation, change his or her deferral amount, or change the amount designated as Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals or Roth Elective Deferrals, at any time during the year by giving authenticated notice the month prior to the effective date of such change. Unless otherwise designated by the Participant, any deferrals under the Plan shall be treated as Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals.
(b)    An Employee who elects to discontinue participation shall not again become eligible to participate in the Plan until one (1) month has elapsed from the Discontinuation Date, or as provided in 590:25-9-12.
(c)    For purposes of this rule, authenticated notice means participant communication through the Plan's website, through the Recordkeeper's dedicated toll-free telephone service or by approved written form.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Assets, Credits, Accounts and Reports
590:25-5-8.  Establishment of Accounts
     The Plan Administrator shall cause Accounts to be established for each Participant, to reflect such Participant's Deferred Compensation. Each Account shall be subdivided further and separate records shall be maintained showing the manner in which each such Account is invested. Roth Elective Deferrals will be credited and debited to the Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount maintained for each Participant. Separate records also shall be maintained with respect to each such Account showing the amount of Deferred Compensation thereto, distributions therefrom, and the amount of income, expenses, gains and losses attributable thereto. No contributions other than Roth Elective Deferrals and properly attributable earnings will be credited to the Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount. All such subaccounts are referred to herein as a Participant's "Account." In general, the interest of each Participant hereunder at any time shall consist of the amount in his Account, as determined under Section 10 of this Subchapter, plus credits (representing the Participant's Deferred Compensation, profits, income, and other increments attributable to such Deferred Compensation) and minus debits (representing the Participant's proportionate share of losses and other decrements or expenses under the Plan and any and all distributions under the Plan made to or in respect of that Participant). These records shall be maintained by the Plan on a calendar quarter-end basis only and available for a period of three (3) years.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Benefits
590:25-9-11.  Payment and distribution options
     The payment, method of payment and any distribution options shall be available in accordance with the benefit payment elections as set forth on the appropriate distribution request form. If the Participant elects to receive a deferred payout, the date selected for payouts to begin may be changed upon written notice to the Plan Administrator prior to the previously selected payout date subject to any applicable minimum distribution requirements. The method of payment may be changed upon written notice to the Plan Administrator. A Participant electing to commence distribution shall have the opportunity to designate the extent to which the distribution should be taken in whole or in part from Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals or the Participant's other subaccounts, as applicable. In the absence of such designation, the distribution shall be taken pro rata from the subaccounts within the Participant's Account.
590:25-9-15.  Taxation
     Benefits paid from the Deferred Compensation Plan are subject to the applicable Federal and State withholding rules and apply to all payments except those authorized for transfer to another §457 plan or rollover to an eligible retirement plan. A distribution from a Participant's Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount or Roth In-Plan Rollover Subaccount that is not a Qualified Distribution may be subject to additional taxation and/or penalties. Pursuant to Section 2 of Subchapter 15 of Chapter 25, the Board may withhold amounts necessary to cover federal and state taxes from such payments. Effective January 1, 2002, all payments will be reported on Form 1099-R.
590:25-9-16.  RolloversRollover contributions to thefrom otherplansplan
(a)    Eligible Rollover Contributions.Effective January 1, 2002, the plan will acceptA Participant who is entitled to receive an eligible rollover contributions and/or direct rollovers of distributions made after December 31, 2001, distribution from ananother eligible retirement plan may request to have all or a portion of the eligible rollover distribution paid to the Plan as eligible rollover contributions unless the distributing eligible retirement plan under section 457(b) of the Code which is maintained by a state, political subdivision of a state, or agency or instrumentality of a state or political subdivision of a state, unless the prior 457 account includes funds previously transferred or rolled-over which require tax accounting or distribution rules that are different from those contained in this Plan.
(b)    Notwithstanding any other provisions in the Plan to the contrary, effective June 1, 2023, the Plan shall accept Roth Rollover Contributions from a Roth account under an applicable retirement plan in accordance with Code Section 402A(e)(l) only if it is a direct rollover and only to the extent the rollover is permitted under the rules of Code Section 402(c).
(c)    Separate Accounts. The Plan shall establish and maintain for the Participant separate accounts for any:
(1)    Eligible rollover contributions or Roth Rollover Contributions paid to the Plan;
(2)    Eligible Roth rollover contributions paid to the Plan from any eligible retirement plan including an eligible governmental plan under Code Section 457(b); and
(3)    Eligible rollover contributions paid to the Plan from an eligible governmental plan under Code Section 457(b).
[OAR Docket #23-595; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 590.  Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System
CHAPTER 40.  Defined Contribution System
[OAR Docket #23-596]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions - Applicable to the 401(A) Plan and the 457(B) Plan
590:40-1-3. Definitions [AMENDED]
Subchapter 5. Eligibility and Participation - Applicable to the 401(A) Plan and the 457(B) Plan
Part 3. Contributions - Applicable to the 401(A) Plan and the 457(B) Plan
590:40-5-6. Employee additional contributions to the 457(b) plan [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Defined Contribution 457(B) Plan
Part 7. Benefits
590:40-9-33. Payment and distribution options [AMENDED]
590:40-9-37. Taxation [AMENDED]
590:40-9-38. RolloversRollover contributions to the from other plansplan [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System Board of Trustees; 74 O.S. Section 909 and 935.3.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 29, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
January 3, 2023, through February 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
February 16, 2023
ADOPTION:
February 16, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 23, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023, by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The amendments to 590:40-1-3 add definitions to the new types of investment accounts available to participants. The amendments to 590:40-5-6 address changes to Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals and Roth Elective Deferrals. The amendment to 590:40-9-33 allows the participant to designate the source of distributions. The amendment to 590:40-9-37 addresses taxes and penalties related to distributions from the participant's Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount. The amendments to 590:40-9-38 address the Plan accepting eligible rollovers from other eligible retirement plans.
CONTACT PERSON:
Kristi Ice, General Counsel, Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System, 5400 N. Grand Boulevard, Suite 400, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73112, 405-858-6703
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions - Applicable to the 401(A) Plan and the 457(B) Plan
590:40-1-3.  Definitions
     The following words,and terms, or phrases, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"401(a) plan" means the defined contribution money purchase plan that is qualified under Section 401(a) of the Code as a governmental plan.
"457(b) plan" means the defined contribution plan that is an eligible governmental plan under Section 457(b) of the Code.
"Account" or "Accounts" means any of the accounts established for a Participant under the Plans, as described in 74 O.S. Supp. 2014, §935.6, 590:40-7-1 and 590:40-9-10. The following Accounts may be established for a Participant within the 457(b) Plan:
(A)    A Pre-Tax Elective Deferral Subaccount to reflect the Participant's interest in the 457(b) Plan attributable to their Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals;
(B)    A Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount to reflect the Participant's interest in the 457(b) Plan attributable to their Roth Elective Deferrals;
(C)    A Rollover Contribution Account to reflect the Participant's interest in the 457(b) Plan attributable to their rollover contributions, made pursuant to Section 590:40-9-38. To the extent that Roth Rollover Contributions are made to the Plan, a separate subaccount under the Rollover Account shall be established to hold the Roth Rollover Contributions; and
(D)    A Transfer Contribution Account to reflect the Participant's interest in the 457(b) Plan attributable to amounts transferred to the Plan pursuant to 590:40-9-35. To the extent that such transferred amounts constitute amounts from a designated Roth Account, a separate subaccount under the Transfer Contribution Account shall be established to hold such amounts from a designated Roth Account.
"Beneficiary" means the persons or entities designated by the Participant on forms prescribed by OPERS.
"Board" or "Board of Trustees" means the Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System Board of Trustees.
"Code" means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
"Compensation" means:
(A)    Taxable gross income from the Employer and shall include amounts deferred pursuant to Code Sections 125, 402(h), 402(a)(8), 457(b), 414(h), and 403(b). For purposes of the Plans, only compensation from the Employer that is attributable to services performed for the Employer may be includable in gross income.
(B)    Compensation also means all salary and wages, including amounts deferred under the Plans, payable to a Participant for personal services performed for a participating employer.
(C)    Despite any provision to the contrary, the compensation taken into account for any Employee in determining the contribution or benefit accruals for any plan year shall be limited to the annual compensation limit under Section 401(a)(17) of the Code.
(D)    Compensation, as determined by the Board of Trustees, shall be limited to salary and wages as follows:
(i)    "Salary" means a predetermined or fixed amount of cash remuneration that is made payable by the participating employer to the employee in exchange for services rendered personally by the Employee for the Employer but excluding any type of overtime payments paid to an Employee for service rendered in excess of full-time;
(ii)    "Wages" means cash remuneration, dependent upon the hours of work, that is made payable by the Employer to the Employee in exchange for services rendered personally by the employee for the Employer excluding any type of overtime payments paid to an employee for service rendered in excess of full-time.
(E)    Subject to the limitations contained elsewhere in the Chapter, salary and wages include, by way of example and not by limitation, the following:
(i)    any longevity payments made to Employees based upon a standardized plan which recognizes length of service to the Employer,
(ii)    pay differential which is paid to Employees in return for special or hazardous shifts or in return for additional training or duties,
(iii)    amounts deducted from the Employee's paycheck for retirement and deferred compensation contributions,
(iv)    pre-tax cafeteria purchases which are not funded by the Employer or the employee's benefit allowance,
(v)    performance, skill, or mission critical based pay adjustments.
(F)    Any payments made by an Employer to an Employee which do not meet the definition of salary or wages as set forth in this section are not to be considered compensation for purposes of the Plan, including but not limited to the following:
(i)    payments which are for reimbursement for expenses incurred by the Employee,
(ii)    payments for maintenance or allowances, including, but not limited to, uniform allowances, clothing allowances, or housing allowances,
(iii)    any payments or amounts made available to an Employee for insurance benefits or benefits allowances, including any amounts paid directly to the Employee,
(iv)    illegal payments made to an Employee by an Employer,
(v)    payments made in error to an Employee,
(vi)    payments made by the Employer for services rendered by the Employee, which services are not part of the Employee's job duties and responsibilities of his or her job position with the Employer,
(vii)    payments in the form of tips or commissions paid to an Employee in the course of his or her employment,
(viii)    payments made to other than the Employee by the Employer which are not deducted from the Employee's paycheck,
(ix)    workers compensation benefit payments,
(x)    any payments made by an Employer to a non-Employee, such as compensation to board or commission members,
(xi)    payments made in anticipation of employment, such as signing bonuses,
(xii)    any payments which are excluded from retirement compensation by law.
(G)    It shall be the responsibility of the Employer to ensure that the appropriate contributions are deducted or paid correctly and in accordance with this definition.
"Contribution" means a contribution by the Employer or by a Participant to the 401(a) plan.
"Deferral" or "Deferred compensation" means that portion of the Participant's Compensation which is withheld and invested in the 457(b) plan.
"Defined Contribution System" or "DC System" means the program established under 74 O.S. Supp. 2014, §§ 935.1 through 935.11 and this Chapter that consists of the 401(a) plan and the 457(b) plan.
"Disability" or "Disabled" means a Participant who is unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of any medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or to be of long-continued and indefinite duration, or as defined by Code Section 72(m)(7). A Participant shall not be considered to be disabled unless proof of the existence of the disability is provided in such manner as OPERS may require.
"Emergency withdrawals" means withdrawals of funds because of an unforeseeable emergency and are only permitted under the 457(b) plan to the extent reasonably needed to satisfy the emergency need.
"Employee" means:
(A)    Any person who first becomes employed by any participating employer in OPERS, as defined by paragraph (25) of Section 902 of Title 74 of the Oklahoma Statutes, on or after November 1, 2015. Employee shall also include any statewide elected official or legislator whose first service as an elected official occurs on or after November 1, 2015. Employee shall not include:
(i)    Employees who are initially employed in the positions described in divisions (i), (ii), and (iii) of subparagraph (d) of paragraph (24) of Section 902 of Title 74 of the Oklahoma Statutes;
(ii)    County elected officials, or any employee of a county, county hospital, city or town, conservation district, circuit engineering district, and any public or private trust in which a county, city or town participates and is the primary beneficiary; and
(iii)    District attorneys, assistant district attorneys, or other employees of the district attorney's office.
(B)    Any person first licensed by the Department of Rehabilitative Services as a vending stand operator or managing operator on or after November 1, 2015, as defined by Section 929 of Title 74 of the Oklahoma Statutes, and who elects to participate in the Defined Contribution System shall be considered an Employee for purposes of this Chapter.
(C)    Any person employed on or after November 1, 2015, by the Legislative Service Bureau, State Senate or House of Representatives for the full duration of a regular legislative session and who elects to participate in the Defined Contribution System shall be considered an Employee for purposes of this Chapter.
"Employer" means the State of Oklahoma, its agencies, any duly constituted authority or instrumentality of the State of Oklahoma, and any participating employer in OPERS as defined by paragraph (25) of Section 902 of Title 74 of the Oklahoma Statutes.
"Employer contribution" means the amount contributed to the 401(a) plan by the Employer on behalf of each Participant.
"Fiscal Year" means the fiscal year of the State of Oklahoma, which is July 1 to June 30.
"Normal Retirement" means the first date upon which each of the following shall have occurred: separation from service and attainment of Normal Retirement Age under the applicable Plan.
"OPERS" means the Oklahoma Public Employees Retirement System.
"Participant" means an Employee who is eligible and participating in a Plan or who has funds invested in accordance with its provisions or any former Employee who has not received a distribution of his or her entire interest under the Plan. Participant also includes the Employee's surviving beneficiary and an alternate payee who has been awarded a separate account in accordance with Subchapter 11 of this Chapter.
"Plan Year" means the twelve month period ending on June 30.
"Plans" refers collectively to the 401(a) plan and the 457(b) plan.
"Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals" means pre-tax voluntary deferrals made to the Plan pursuant to a Participant's election.
"Qualified Distribution" means a distribution from a Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount after the Participant has satisfied a five-year holding period and has attained age 59 ½, died, or become disabled within the meaning of Code Section 72(m)(7), in accordance with Code Section 402A(d). Within the meaning of this definition, the five-year holding period is the period of five consecutive taxable years that begins with the first day of the first taxable year in which the Participant makes a designated Roth Elective Deferral under the Plan or to another retirement plan which amount was directly rolled over to the Plan and ends when five consecutive taxable years have been completed.
"Recordkeeper" means the company designated by the Board of Trustees to perform recordkeeping, administrative, and investment services to the DC System.
"Roth Elective Deferrals" means after-tax voluntary deferrals designated by the Participant as Roth Elective Deferrals that are being made in lieu of all or a portion of the Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals the Participant is otherwise eligible to make under the Plan.
"Roth Rollover Contribution" means an eligible rollover distribution from another applicable retirement plan in accordance with Code Section 402A(e)(1) only if it is a direct rollover, and only to the extent the rollover is permitted under the rules of Code Sections 402(c) and 402A(c).
"Termination of Service" means the bona fide separation, severance, or termination of the Participant's employment or service in which the Employer and Employee relationship is completely severed prior to Normal Retirement, Disability, or death.
"Trust" means the trusts established under Subchapters 7 and 9 of this Chapter.
"Trust Fund(s)" means the funds established under the Trusts created in Subchapters 7 and 9 of this Chapter, with the Board of Trustees as trustee, and held by the Board in accordance with these Plans and Trusts, to which deposits and contributions under these Plans and Trusts will be made and out of which benefits under these Plans and Trusts will be provided.
"Trustee" means the individuals appointed to the Board of Trustees to administer the Trust Funds in accordance with this Plan and includes persons selected by the Board of Trustees to act as a trustee of the Trust Fund(s).
"Valuation Date" means each business day of the calendar year, and on each such day, the Recordkeeper shall determine the value of the Trust Funds.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Eligibility and Participation - Applicable to the 401(A) Plan and the 457(B) Plan
PART 3.  CONTRIBUTIONS - APPLICABLE TO THE 401(A) PLAN AND THE 457(B) PLAN
590:40-5-6.  Employee additional contributions to the 457(b) plan
(a)     Additional contributions; deposit of funds. Participants may contribute additional voluntarydeferralsPre-Tax Elective Deferrals and Roth Elective Deferrals, above the 4.5% required contribution rate. All deferrals above the mandatory 4.5% contribution rate shall be considered voluntary deferrals. Participants may contribute 7% of compensation and it shall be matched by the Employer. Participants may contribute more than 7% of compensation, but any such amount over 7% shall not be eligible for Employer matching amounts. All voluntary deferrals shall be subject to the maximum deferral limits allowed under the Code and as set forth in Subchapter 9 of this Chapter. Voluntary deferrals shall be paid and remitted in the same manner as the mandatory contributions. All voluntary deferrals are intended to meet the requirements of Code Sections 457(b). All voluntary deferrals over the 4.5% mandatory contribution shall be placed by OPERS in the 457(b) plan as set forth by the Board of Trustees and in accordance with Subchapter 9 of this Chapter.
(b)     Change in deferral rate.
(1)    A Participant may change the voluntary contributiondeferral rate once per month by giving notice to OPERS of such change. Any request for a change in the amount of the voluntary contributiondeferral rate and any change in the corresponding Employer matching amount shall become effective the month after the notice is received and the change is approved by OPERS.
(2)    A Participant may change the deferral amount designated as Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals or Roth Elective Deferrals once per month by giving notice to OPERS of such change. Any request for a change in the amount designated as Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals or Roth Elective Deferrals shall become effective the month after the notice is received and the change is approved by OPERS.
(c)     Notice. Any notice required under this Section means communication on forms approved by OPERS or the Recordkeeper, through the website of OPERS or the Recordkeeper, or through a dedicated telephone service of OPERS or the Recordkeeper.
(d)     Default treatment of deferrals. Unless otherwise designated by the Participant, any voluntary deferrals under the Plan shall be treated as Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals.
(e)     Roth Elective Deferrals. Roth Elective Deferrals will be credited and debited to the Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount maintained for each Participant. OPERS will maintain a separate record of the amount of Roth Elective Deferrals in each Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount. No contributions other than Roth Elective Deferrals and properly attributable earnings will be credited to the Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Defined Contribution 457(B) Plan
PART 7.  BENEFITS
590:40-9-33.  Payment and distribution options
(a)    The payment, method of payment, and any distribution options shall be available under the benefit payment elections on the appropriate distribution request form. If the Participant elects to receive a deferred payout, the date selected for payouts to begin may be changed upon written notice to OPERS prior to the previously selected payout date subject to any minimum distribution requirements. The method of payment may be changed upon written notice to OPERS.
(b)    A Participant electing to commence distribution shall have the opportunity to designate the extent to which the distribution should be taken in whole or in part from Pre-Tax Elective Deferrals or the Participant's other subaccounts, as applicable. In the absence of such designation, the distribution shall be taken pro rata from the subaccounts within the Participant's Account.
590:40-9-37.  Taxation
     Benefits paid from the Plan are subject to the applicable federal and state withholding tax rules and apply to all payments except those authorized for transfer to another Code Section 457 plan or rollover to an eligible retirement plan. A distribution from a Participant's Roth Elective Deferral Subaccount that is not a Qualified Distribution may be subject to additional taxation and/or penalties. Pursuant to 590:40-9-51, the Board may withhold amounts necessary to cover federal and state taxes from such payments. All payments will be reported on Internal Revenue Service Form 1099-R.
590:40-9-38.  RolloversRollover contributions to thefrom other plansplan
(a)     Eligible Rollover Contributions. The Plan will acceptA Participant or Employee who is entitled to receive an eligible rollover contributions and/or direct rollovers of distribution from ananother eligible retirement plan may request to have all or a portion of the eligible rollover distribution paid to the Plan as eligible rollover contributions, unless the distributing eligible retirement plan account plan under Section 457(b) of the Code which is maintained by a state, political subdivision of a state, or agency or instrumentality of a state or political subdivision of a state, unless the prior Code Section 457 account includes funds previously transferred or rolled-over which require tax accounting or distribution rules that are different from those contained in this Plan.
(b)     Roth Rollover Contribution. Notwithstanding any other provisions in the Plan to the contrary, effective June 1, 2023, the Plan shall accept Roth Rollover Contributions from a Roth account under an applicable retirement plan in accordance with Code Section 402A(e)(l) only if it is a direct rollover and only to the extent the rollover is permitted under the rules of Code Section 402(c).
(c)     Separate Accounts. The Plan shall establish and maintain for the Participant separate accounts for any:
(1)    Eligible rollover contributions or Roth Rollover Contributions paid to the Plan;
(2)    Eligible Roth rollover contributions paid to the Plan from any eligible retirement plan including an eligible governmental plan under Code Section 457(b); and
(3)    Eligible rollover contributions paid to the Plan from an eligible governmental plan under Code Section 457(b).
[OAR Docket #23-596; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 650.  Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of Science and Technology
CHAPTER 11.  Internship Partnership Program [NEW]
[OAR Docket #23-598]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
650:11-1-1. Purpose [NEW]
650:11-1-2. Statutory citations [NEW]
650:11-1-3. Definitions [NEW]
650:11-1-4. Program administration [NEW]
650:11-1-5. Program description [NEW]
650:11-1-6. Eligibility [NEW]
650:11-1-7. Funding terms [NEW]
650:11-1-8. Application process [NEW]
650:11-1-9. Review process [NEW]
650:11-1-10. Award provisions [NEW]
650:11-1-11. Contract provisions [NEW]
650:11-1-12. Confidentiality [NEW]
650:11-1-13. Notification process [NEW]
650:11-1-14. Appeals process [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Center for the Advancement of Science and Technology; 74 O.S., § 5060.9 and § 5060.19.
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 1 ,2022 to December 5, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 6, 2022
ADOPTION:
December 6, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
December 6th, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
650:11-1-1. Purpose [NEW]
650:11-1-2. Statutory citations [NEW]
650:11-1-3. Statutory definitions [NEW]
650:11-1-4. Definitions [NEW]
650:11-1-5. Program administration [NEW]
650:11-1-6. Program description [NEW]
650:11-1-7. Eligibility [NEW]
650:11-1-8. Funding terms [NEW]
650:11-1-9. Application process [NEW]
650:11-1-10. Review process [NEW]
650:11-1-11. Award provisions [NEW]
650:11- 1-12. Contract provisions [NEW]
650:11-1-13. Confidentiality [NEW]
650:11-1-14. Notification process [NEW]
650:11-1-15. Appeals process [NEW]
Gubernatorial approval:
June 30, 2022
Register publication:
39 Ok Reg 749
Docket number:
22-560
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
This program, known as the Intern Partnership Program (IPP), shall provide undergraduate and graduate student interns a hands-on, on-the-job experience that leads to employment opportunities in Oklahoma-based private enterprise, while gaining value-added knowledge of real-world business culture and directly supporting the enterprise. This program shall support activities in existing and emerging private enterprises whose results have:
(1) a significant potential for stimulating economic growth within the State of Oklahoma, and,
(2) encourage and sustain partnerships among institutions of higher education, non-profit research organizations, and private enterprises by encouraging collaborative projects to create highly qualified pool of STEM employees to meet Oklahoma's science and technology workforce demands.
CONTACT PERSON:
Jennifer McGrail, Executive Director, OCAST, 755 Research Parkway, Suite 110, Oklahoma City, OK 73104-3620, 405-319-8401, Jennifer.McGrail@ocast.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
650:11-1-1.  Purpose
     The rules of this Chapter have been adopted for the purpose of assisting the Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of Science and Technology (OCAST) in the operation and management of Oklahoma's Intern Partnership Science Technology Engineering and Mathematics (STEM) Workforce Pipeline Program. This program, known as the Intern Partnership Program, shall provide undergraduate and graduate student interns a hands-on, on-the-job experience that leads to employment opportunities in Oklahoma-based private enterprise, while gaining value-added knowledge of real-world business culture and directly supporting the enterprise. This program shall support activities in existing and emerging private enterprises whose results have:
(1)    a significant potential for stimulating economic growth within the State of Oklahoma, and
(2)    encourage and sustain partnerships among institutions of higher education, non-profit research organizations, and private enterprises by encouraging collaborative projects to create highly qualified pool of STEM employees to meet Oklahoma's science and technology workforce demands.
650:11-1-2.  Statutory citations
     Citations to statutes in this Chapter refer to the most recent codification of the statute.
650:11-1-3.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Applicant organization(s)" means an Oklahoma-based entity that is a nonprofit research foundation or private enterprise of special importance to the Oklahoma economy and the employer of the individual(s) preparing the application.
"Application" means the proposal for an Intern Partnership award and all completed required forms from the Funding Opportunity Announcement as submitted to The Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of Science and Technology (OCAST).
"Contractor(s)" means the institution(s) or private enterprise(s) that is awarded an OCAST Intern Partnership Program contract.
"Eligible student" means an individual currently enrolled in an undergraduate or graduate program at an institution of higher education who is majoring in a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM) based discipline including, but not limited to, natural sciences, computer science, materials science, engineering, biomedical, biotechnical, data analytics, finance, mathematics, or a support area related to building successful Oklahoma high tech companies.
"Funding Opportunity Announcement" or "FOA" means a request containing the detailed information concerning the Intern Partnership Program application instructions, requirements.
"Intern Partnership" means a formal paid relationship between a graduate or undergraduate student and an Oklahoma-based private enterprise for a period of work experience offered by the enterprise for a limited period during which the student gains relevant skills and experience in a particular field.
"Mentor" means a professional with expertise and educational and/or professional background in the field of the intern learning experience who supports and advises someone with less experience to help them develop in their work.
"Project Manager" means the person in overall charge of the planning and execution of a particular project.
"STEM Workforce Pipeline" means to use science, technology, engineering and mathematics (STEM) student intern partnerships as a way to provide new workers for STEM related jobs in Oklahoma.
650:11-1-4.  Program administration
(a)     OSTRaD Board. OCAST shall administer the Intern Partnership Program under the governance of the statutorily created Oklahoma Science and Technology Research and Development Board (OSTRaD Board) [74 O.S., Section 5060.6].
(1)    The OSTRaD Board shall approve all specifications of the Intern Partnership Program and any changes made thereto.
(2)    All information regarding these programs shall be available at the principal offices of OCAST, as referenced in 650:1-3-1.
(b)     Intern Partnership Committee. The OSTRaD Board shall establish an Intern Partnership Committee (IPC). The IPC shall act in an advisory capacity to the OSTRaD Board and staff in the development of program specifications, organization, and evaluation of peer reviews, awarding of contracts and on-going evaluation of contract performance. Implementation of IPC recommendations shall require approval of the OSTRaD Board.
650:11-1-5.  Program description
     The Intern Partnership Program shall provide matching funds for Intern Partnership projects recommended by the IPC and approved by the OSTRaD Board and described in the FOA.
650:11-1-6.  Eligibility
(a)     Applicants.
(1)    Eligible organizational applicants for funding under the Intern Partnership Program shall be:
(A)    private enterprises of special importance to the Oklahoma economy [74 O.S., Section 5060.44].
(B)    nonprofit organizations (e.g., private foundations)
(2)    Eligible intern applicants for funding under the Intern Partnership Program shall be students:
(A)    currently enrolled in a two- or four-year college or university undergraduate or graduate program (Career Tech students concurrently enrolled in college programs are also eligible),
(B)    majoring in STEM-based disciplines, including natural sciences, computer science, materials science, engineering, biomedical/biotechnical, data analytics, finance/mathematics, or a support area related to building successful Oklahoma high- tech companies.
(b)     Preference. The OSTRaD Board may assign preference to a class(es) of applicants for any funding competition. Such preference shall be stated in the annual FOA.
(c)     Investigators. The investigator(s) preparing applications shall be employed by or affiliated with an eligible applicant organization(s).
650:11-1-7.  Funding terms
(a)     Competition dates. Dates for funding competitions shall be recommended by the IPC, approved by the OSTRaD Board and announced in the Funding Opportunity Announcement.
(b)     Allocations.
(1)    The IPC shall recommend, and the OSTRaD Board approve, the amount allocated for each funding competition.
(2)    If minimum and maximum levels for Intern Partnership Projects are established, they shall be recommended by the IPC, approved by the OSTRaD Board and announced in the Funding Opportunity Announcement.
(c)     Contract periods. The length of a contract shall not be less than three (3) months. The maximum contract period shall be recommended by the IPC and approved by the OSTRaD Board.
(d)     Additional funding terms. Any additional funding terms shall be recommended by the IPC, approved by the OSTRaD Board and announced in the Funding Opportunity Announcement.
650:11-1-8.  Application process
(a)     Funding Opportunity Announcements. The Intern Partnership Program Funding Opportunity Announcement shall be used to apply for funding under this program. Funding Opportunity Announcements shall be made by OCAST on the OCAST website, and copies of said announcement shall be made available at the main office of OCAST upon request. No application fee shall be required.
(1)     Application deadlines. Application submission date(s) and time(s), as established by the OSTRaD Board, shall be listed in the Funding Opportunity Announcement. Any application not submitted by the designated submission date and time shall be returned without consideration.
(2)     Completion/submission requirements. Requirements for application completion and submission shall be included in the Funding Opportunity Announcement.
(b)     Applications.
(1)     Challenge funding. The application shall specify the total amount of funds the organization will provide to meet the requirements of the challenge funding.
(2)     Required information as indicated in the FOA. The application shall include:
(A)    a description of the Intern Partnership project with a focus on providing a beneficial and positive learning experience for the intern, and its potential to enhance employment opportunities in Oklahoma,
(B)    biographical information for the project manager,
(C)    budget justification for all budget years, and
(D)    other information that may be required by the OSTRaD Board.
(3)     Documentation. It shall be the responsibility of the investigator(s) and the applicant organization(s) to ascertain and provide documentation of compliance with state and federal requirements or regulations as specified in the application in order to engage in the proposed Intern Partnership project.
(4)     Returned applications. Incomplete or inappropriately completed applications may be returned without review.
650:11-1-9.  Review process
(a)     Peer review. Applications for funding shall be reviewed by peer reviewers, a majority of whom reside outside of the State of Oklahoma, who are nominated and approved by the IPC.
(b)     Evaluation criteria. The review panel shall review and rank all applications for funding according to evaluation criteria specified in the Funding Opportunity Announcement.
650:11-1-10.  Award provisions
(a)     Funding subject to availability. Funding of applications recommended for approval by the IPC shall be subject to availability of resources and approval of the OSTRaD Board.
(b)     Matching funds; documentation.
(1)    Private enterprises, nonprofit organizations (e.g., private foundations). Documentation that not less than fifty percent (50%) of the total direct cost of the proposed project will be provided by sources other than OCAST and other state-appropriated money [74 O.S., Section 5060.44]. Such sources may be in the form of salary, cash, nonstate grant funds, and other sources of funding as defined by OCAST. No portion of the matching funds from a private enterprise or nonprofit organization may be provided by in-kind services performed by the enterprise. [74 O.S., Section 5060.44]
(2)    Funds from grants or contracts. Funds received from federal or private grants or contracts, to be used as matching funds, shall be allowed throughout the life of the contract.
(c)     Additional award provisions. Any additional award provisions shall be recommended by the IPC, approved by the OSTRaD Board, and announced in the Funding Opportunity Announcement.
650:11-1-11.  Contract provisions
(a)     Professional service contract. The mechanism for funding approved applications shall be a professional service contract between OCAST and the applicant organization(s).
(b)     Verification of matching funds. Professional service contracts shall be awarded contingent upon documentation that the matching funds and/or machinery or equipment to be matched by OCAST has been received by the applicant organization(s). The period of time allowed for verification of receipt of matching funds shall be recommended by the IPC, approved by the OSTRaD Board and announced in the Funding Opportunity Announcement.
(c)     Fiscal agent. If more than one applicant organization participates in a contract, one organization shall be designated as the fiscal agent.
(d)     Contractor obligations.
(1)     Records and accounts. The contractor, or designated fiscal agent, shall maintain records and accounts that properly document and account for the source and application of all project funds, and all such records and accounts shall be made available on demand by OCAST for inspection and use in carrying out its responsibilities for administration of the funds.
(2)     Access and examination. The contractor, or designated fiscal agent, shall as OCAST deems necessary, permit authorized representatives of OCAST and the State of Oklahoma full access, and the right to fully examine, all projects, records and accounts.
(3)     Audits. The contractor, or designated fiscal agent, shall comply with the audit policy of OCAST The contractor, or designated fiscal agent, shall provide OCAST timely reports on any audits that include funds received from OCAST In the event an audit results in the determination that the contractor, or designated fiscal agent, has expended contract funds on unallowable costs, the contractor, or designated fiscal agent, shall reimburse OCAST in full for all such costs.
650:11-1-12.  Confidentiality
(a)     Applications. There shall be no guarantee that the contents of any application will remain confidential.
(b)     Intent to submit forms, executive summaries. Unless specifically requested, OCAST may use the contents from Intent to Submit Forms and Executive Summaries from the proposal or subsequent annual progress reports for the required OCAST Annual Report or other publications without obtaining permission from the investigator(s) or applicant organization(s).
650:11-1-13.  Notification process
     Announcements of funding competitions for Intern Partnership projects shall be made through email notification of availability of Funding Opportunity Announcements and on the OCAST website.
(1)    Private enterprises, nonprofit organizations (e.g., private foundations). Notification of availability of Funding Opportunity Announcements shall be emailed to private enterprises and nonprofit organizations that have indicated they wish to receive OCAST proposal Funding Opportunity Announcements.
(2)     Requestors. Notification of availability of Funding Opportunity Announcements shall be emailed to all individuals who contact OCAST and request an application.
650:11-1-14.  Appeals process
     Appeals related to this Chapter shall be processed in accordance with the procedures referenced in O.A.C. 650:1-3-4.
[OAR Docket #23-598; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 650.  Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of Science and Technology
CHAPTER 13.  Research and Development Attraction Program
[OAR Docket #23-597]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
650:13-1-1. Purpose [NEW]
650:13-1-2. Statutory citations [NEW]
650:13-1-3. Definitions [NEW]
650:13-1-4. Program administration [NEW]
650:13-1-5. Program description [NEW]
650:13-1-6. Eligibility [NEW]
650:13-1-7. Funding terms [NEW]
650:13-1-8. Application process [NEW]
650:13-1-9. Review process [NEW]
650:13-1-10. Award provisions [NEW]
650:13-1-11. Contract provisions [NEW]
650:13-1-12. Confidentiality [NEW]
650:13-1-13. Notification process [NEW]
650:13-1-14. Appeals process [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Center for the Advancement of Science and Technology; 74 O.S., § 5060.9 and § 5060.19.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
September 15, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 1, 2022 through December 5, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
December 6, 2022
ADOPTION:
December 6, 2022
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
December 7, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The rules for the Research and Development Attraction program [74 O.S., Section 5003.10f, et seq] foster research and development in key industry clusters, leading to the creation of new products and services that are brought to market by Oklahoma-based companies, or brought to market by relocating companies financially sponsored by an Oklahoma-based capital provider and which conduct at least 51% of total business activity in the State of Oklahoma. The rules of this Chapter have been adopted for the purpose of complying with the provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S. Section 250 et seq. and for assisting the Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of Science and Technology (OCAST) in the operation and management of the Oklahoma Research and Development Attraction Program.
CONTACT PERSON:
Jennifer McGrail, Executive Director, OCAST, 755 Research Parkway, Suite 110, Oklahoma City, OK 73104-3620, 405-319-8401, Jennifer.McGrail@ocast.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
650:13-1-1.  Purpose
     The rules of this Chapter have been adopted for the purpose of complying with the provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act, 75 O.S. Section 250 et seq. and for assisting the Oklahoma Center for the Advancement of Science and Technology (OCAST) in the operation and management of the Oklahoma Research and Development Attraction Program [74 O.S., Section 5003.10f, et seq.] (Program), for the purpose of fostering research and development in key industry clusters, leading to the creation of new products and services that are brought to market by Oklahoma-based companies, or brought to market by relocating companies financially sponsored by an Oklahoma-based capital provider and which conduct at least 51% of total business activity in the State of Oklahoma.
650:13-1-2.  Statutory citations
     Citations to statutes in this Chapter refer to the most recent codification of the statute.
650:13-1-3.  Definitions
     The following words or terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Application" means a document attesting to the total cost of the project and demonstrating available and unrestricted private capital to meet at least fifty percent (50%) of the total project cost.
"Contractor(s)" means the private enterprise(s) that is awarded an OCAST Partnership Program contract.
"Funding Opportunity Announcement" or "FOA" means a request containing the detailed information concerning the Oklahoma Research and Development Attraction Program application instructions, requirements.
"Oklahoma-based" means a business that has its principal place of business in this state or a business that has, in the preceding twelve (12) months, raised an equity round not less than Five Hundred Thousand Dollars ($500,000.00) with an Oklahoma-based capital provider investing not less than ten percent (10%) of such equity round, that commits to spend all eligible Program funds in the State of Oklahoma, and that has filed a certificate of qualification with the Oklahoma Secretary of State.
"Oklahoma-based research entity" means an institution of higher education or another nonprofit organization that primarily provides research services, and which has its main physical campus in Oklahoma.
"Project Manager" means the person in overall charge of the planning and execution of a particular project.
"Research services" means research and development, technology exploration, technical development, product development, and commercialization intended to foster innovation in eligible small businesses.
"Small Business" means a business entity that employs not more than one hundred (100) persons.
650:13-1-4.  Program administration
     OCAST shall administer the Program under the governance of the statutorily created Oklahoma Science and Technology Research and Development Board (OSTRaD Board) [74 O.S., Section 5060.6].
(1)    The OSTRaD Board shall approve all specifications of the Program and any changes made thereto.
(2)    All information regarding the Program shall be available at the principal offices of OCAST, as referenced in O.A.C. 650:1-3-1.
650:13-1-5.  Program description
     Through the Program OCAST may award matching funds to eligible businesses to offset a portion of expenses incurred through a collaborative research and development project engagement with an Oklahoma institution of higher education or nonprofit research institution as approved by the OSTRaD Board and described in the FOA.
650:13-1-6.  Eligibility
(a)     Applicants.
(1)    Eligible applicants for funding under the Program shall be Oklahoma-based small businesses; A operating in one of the state's three strategic industry clusters, including aerospace and autonomous systems, life sciences, and energy.
(2)    Eligible applicants If applying to receive matching funds under the Program, an that files an application with OCAST attesting to the total cost of the project and demonstrating available and unrestricted private capital to meet at least fifty percent (50%) of the total project cost. Matching funds may be used only to purchase research services, as defined in this section, from an Oklahoma-based research entity.
(b)     Research and Development Partner. A research and development service provider which partners with the business must be an Oklahoma-based research entity.
(c)     Research and Development Project. The research and development project for which matching funds are provided must be conducted physically within the State of Oklahoma for the duration of the engagement with the Oklahoma-based research entity.
650:13-1-7.  Funding terms
(a)     Competition dates. The FOA for this Program will be made available to the public upon receipt of a notice of appropriation for the program by OCAST and the program FOA will open to begin receiving applications 30 days hence. The FOA will close when all funds appropriated for the Program have been exhausted.
(b)     Allocations. The Oklahoma Research and Development Attraction Act stipulates that OCAST may award matching funds, from non-state appropriations, up to fifty percent (50%) of the cost of the research and development project, not to exceed One Hundred Thousand Dollars ($100,000.00). An Oklahoma-based business may receive only one matching award under the Program per state fiscal year.
(c)     Contract periods. The length of a contract shall not be less than one (1) month. The maximum contract period shall be recommended by OCAST and approved by the OSTRaD Board.
(d)     Additional funding terms. Any additional funding terms shall be recommended by OCAST, approved by the OSTRaD Board, and announced in the FOA.
650:13-1-8.  Application process
(a)     Funding Opportunity Announcements. The Research and development Attraction Program FOA shall be used to apply for funding under this program. The FOA shall be announced by OCAST on the agency website, and copies of the FOA shall be made available at the main office of OCAST upon request. No application fee shall be required.
(1)     Application deadlines. Application submission date(s) and time(s), as established by the OSTRaD Board, shall be listed in the FOA. Any application not submitted to the OCAST online application portal (OGX) by the designated and published submission date and time shall not be accepted by OGX.
(2)     Completion/submission requirements. Requirements for application completion and submission shall be included in the FOA.
(b)     Applications.
(1)    The application submitted to OCAST shall attest to the total cost of the project and demonstrating available and unrestricted private capital to meet at least fifty percent (50%) of the total project cost. Matching funds may be used only to purchase research services, as defined in this section, from an Oklahoma-based research entity.
(2)     Required information as indicated in the FOA. The application shall include:
(A)    a description of the Research and Development Program project with a focus on providing,
(B)    biographical information for the project manager,
(C)    budget justification for all budget years, and
(D)    other information that may be required by the OSTRaD Board.
(3)     Documentation. It shall be the responsibility of the investigator(s) and the applicant organization(s) to ascertain and provide documentation of compliance with state and federal requirements or regulations as specified in the application in order to engage in the proposed Program partnership project.
(4)     Returned applications. Incomplete or inappropriately completed applications may be returned without review.
650:13-1-9.  Review process
(a)     Program Administration. When administering the Program under this section, OCAST shall select eligible projects to qualify for matching funds within the Oklahoma Research and Development Attraction Program based on factors including, but not limited to:
(1)    The amount of private capital the matching funds will induce to be spent in Oklahoma;
(2)    The total market size of the Oklahoma-based small businesses' product or service offering;
(3)    Third-party validation of the Oklahoma-based small businesses' intellectual assets, including but not limited to equity raised from venture capital or private equity firms, federal commercialization grants through the Small Business Innovation Research or Small Business Technology Transfer Programs, or competitive federal research awards through National Institutes of Health, National Science Foundation, Department of Defense, Department of Energy, and others;
(4)    The projected future job creation impact of the Oklahoma-based small business for the state;
(5)    Other economic benefits to the state, including through increased state and local revenues and growth in private investment.
(6)    The need of the Oklahoma-based small business to acquire specialized services and resources in Oklahoma;
(7)    The alignment of the project within Oklahoma's identified cluster strategies; and
(8)    The impact on Oklahoma-based research entities, including through increased revenue, exposure to new technologies, and increased attraction opportunities for students, researchers, and professional staff.
(b)     Application review. Applications for funding shall be reviewed by peer reviewers, some of whom may reside outside of the State of Oklahoma.
(c)     Evaluation criteria. The reviewers shall evaluate and rank all applications for funding according to criteria specified in the Funding Opportunity Announcement for this program.
650:13-1-10.  Award provisions
(a)     Funding subject to availability. Funding of applications recommended for approval shall be subject to availability of resources and approval of the OSTRaD Board.
(b)     Matching funds documentation.
(1)    Private enterprises, nonprofit organizations (e.g., private foundations). Documentation that not less than fifty percent (50%) of the total direct cost of the proposed project will be provided by sources other than OCAST and other state-appropriated money [74 O.S., Section 5003.10h]. Such sources may be in the form of salary, cash, nonstate grant funds, and other sources of funding as defined by OCAST. No portion of the matching funds from a private enterprise or nonprofit organization may be provided by in-kind services performed by the enterprise.
(2)    Funds from grants or contracts. Funds received from federal or private grants or contracts, to be used as matching funds, shall be allowed throughout the life of the contract.
(c)     Additional award provisions. Any additional award provisions shall be recommended by OCAST, approved by the OSTRaD Board, and announced in the Funding Opportunity Announcement.
650:13-1-11.  Contract provisions
(a)     Professional service contract. The mechanism for funding approved applications shall be a professional service contract between OCAST and the applicant organization(s).
(b)     Verification of matching funds. Professional service contracts shall be awarded contingent upon documentation that the funds to be matched by OCAST are in the position of the applicant organization and not encumbered in any other project or for any other purpose. The period allowed for verification of receipt of matching funds shall be recommended by OCAST and approved by the OSTRaD Board and announced in the FOA.
(c)     Fiscal agent. The Contractor shall be designated as the fiscal agent.
(d)     Contractor obligations.
(1)     Records and accounts. The Contractor shall maintain records and accounts that properly document and account for the source and application of all project funds. All such records and accounts shall be made available on demand to OCAST for inspection and use in carrying out its responsibilities for administration of the funds.
(2)     Access and examination. The Contractor shall, as OCAST deems necessary, permit authorized representatives of OCAST and the State of Oklahoma full access, and the right to fully examine, all projects, records and accounts.
(3)     Audits. The Contractor shall comply with the audit policy of OCAST. The Contractor shall provide OCAST timely reports on any audits that include funds received from OCAST in a format mutually agreed to by both parties. In the event an audit results in the determination that the Contractor has expended contract funds on unallowable costs, the Contractor shall reimburse OCAST in full for all such costs.
650:13-1-12.  Confidentiality
(a)     Applications. OCAST shall, to the extent possible, take precautions to maintain the confidentially of applications submitted to this Program. However, there shall be no guarantee that the contents of any application will remain confidential.
(b)     Intent to submit forms, executive summaries. Unless specifically requested, OCAST may use the contents from Executive Summaries and abstracts from the application or subsequent annual progress reports for the required OCAST Annual Report or other publications without obtaining permission from the investigator(s) or applicant organization(s).
650:13-1-13.  Notification process
     Announcements of funding competitions for this Program shall be made through email notifications, newsletters and by way of social media of the availability of a Funding Opportunity Announcement and on the OCAST website.
(1)    Private enterprises, nonprofit organizations (e.g., private foundations). Notification of the availability of an FOA shall be emailed to private enterprises and nonprofit organizations that have indicated they wish to receive OCAST FOAs.
(2)     Requestors. Notification of availability of FOAs shall be emailed to all individuals who contact OCAST and request an application or register for notifications on the OCAST website.
650:13-1-14.  Appeals process
     Appeals related to this Chapter shall be processed in accordance with the procedures referenced in O.A.C. 650:1-3-4.
[OAR Docket #23-597; filed 6-26-23]

TITLE 730.  Department of Transportation
CHAPTER 1.  Administrative Operations
[OAR Docket #23-590]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Department of Transportation
730:1-5-2. Personnel policies [AMENDED]
730:1-5-5. Collection of damage claims [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
69 O.S. Sections 301, 306, 1002; 74 O.S. Section 840-1-7; Oklahoma Transportation Commission.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 7, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 15, 2022 through December 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None.
ADOPTION:
February 6,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 14, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Oklahoma Ethics Commission Rules for Conflict of Interest, 2019 Annotated Ethics Rules, dated August 14, 2019.
Incorporating rules:
730:1-5-2
Availability:
8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday at the Oklahoma Ethics Commission 2300 N. Lincoln Blvd., G-27, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73105 405-521-3451
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Amending OAC 730:1-5-2 will bring rule in compliance with changes in the law. Amendment removes references to the Merit Protection Commission which no longer exists.
Revoking OAC 730:1-5-5 will revoke a rule that is no longer necessary and not required to be a rule. This rule is outdated and revoking this rule will avoid conflict with existing statutes and to bring code in compliance with existing law. Executive Order 2020-03 calls for agencies to remove unnecessary and outdated rules from the Administrative Code.
CONTACT PERSON:
Sydney Barrett, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st St, Oklahoma City, OK 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Department of Transportation
730:1-5-2.  Personnel policies
(a)     Personnel. Department personnel policies and procedures will conform to the Oklahoma Personnel Act and the Merit Rules for EmploymentHuman Capital Management Division of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services Rules for Employment.
(b)     Worker's compensation. The Department will provide as required by state law, worker's compensation insurance through the State Insurance Fund for Department personnel.
(c)     Payroll. The Department is authorized to take necessary action to provide for payroll withholdings relative to the purchase of United States Savings Bonds, State Group Health and Life Insurance program, other insurance programs, Credit Union, and other withholdings authorized by law.
(d)     Conflict of interest. Department employees shall not engage in any outside employment or enterprise which would constitute a conflict of interest, as defined by law, which would violate the statutes concerning conflict of interest for Transportation Commissioners and Department employees, or the rules of the Oklahoma Ethics Commission.
(e)     Age. No person will be employed in any capacity by the Department who is not eighteen years of age or older.
730:1-5-5.  Collection of damage claims  [REVOKED]
     Claims for damage to Department facilities with an estimated cost of less than two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500.00) may be collected by the Department based upon a repair estimate prepared by the appropriate field division and approved by the division engineer. The estimate shall, as a minimum, contain an estimate of the materials required and cost for each item, an estimated number of man hours and the hourly rate by classification and equipment hourly costs. The Department shall develop a form for use by the field division in making damage cost estimates. The form shall contain a statement signed by the division engineer that the damage will be repaired as soon as practical.
[OAR Docket #23-590; filed 6-23-23]

TITLE 730.  Department of Transportation
CHAPTER 30.  Highway Design
[OAR Docket #23-591]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Design Policies and Specifications
730:30-3-2. Standard specifications [AMENDED]
Subchapter 9. Permitting of Oversized, Overweight and Special Combination Vehicles [REVOKED]
730:30-9-2 through 730:30-9-16 [REVOKED]
Appendix C. Schedule of Annual License Fees [REVOKED]
Appendix D. Dual Lane Axles [REVOKED]
Appendix E. Oklahoma Department of Transportation Weight Supplement Sheet for Annual Envelope Permit Not to Exceed 120,000 [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
HB 4008; 69 O.S. Section 301, 306, 7001, 2022 HB 4008; Oklahoma Transportation Commission; 47 O.S. Section 2-106.1 and Sections 14-101 to 14-126.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 7, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 15, 2022 through December 31, 2022
PUBLIC HEARING:
None.
ADOPTION:
February 6,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
November 8, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Standard Specifications for Highway Construction, dated 2019 Incorporating rules:
730:30-3-2
Availability:
8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday at the U.S. Department of Transportation Federal Highway Administration, Oklahoma Division 5801 N. Robinson Ave., Ste. 300, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73118, 405-254-3300
GIST/ANALYSIS:
730.30-3-2 needs to be amended to update the rule to include the most recent version of the standard specifications manual used by the agency and to eliminate reference to an outdated version of the manual.
730.30-9-2 through 730:30-9016 and Appendix C, D & E require revocation because HB 4008 passed in 2022 moved the size and weights permit program from DPS to ODOT. With the legislative change, these ODOT size and weight rules became outdated and needs to be removed to avoid confusion because ODOT has proposed new rules for the size and weight program that updated due to statutory changes and combine ODOT and DPS rules and move them into a new location in the ODOT Code, 730, New Title 50.
CONTACT PERSON:
Sydney Barrett, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st St, Oklahoma City, OK 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Design Policies and Specifications
730:30-3-2.  Standard specifications
(a)    The Commission shall approve the standard specifications for construction on the State and Federal-aid Highway Systems. These standards shall be developed and kept current by the Department and be in general conformance with the standards adopted by the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials and the requirements of the United States Department of Transportation. The current standards, subject to future amendment, are entitled, "19992019 Standard Specifications for Highway Construction".
(b)    The Department is hereby authorized to issue special provisions, when necessary, to supplement the standard specifications.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  Permitting of Oversized, Overweight and Special Combination Vehicles  [REVOKED]
730:30-9-2.  Purpose  [REVOKED]
     The purpose of this Subchapter is to provide rules which will serve as a basis for the development of a system by the Commissioner of Public Safety for the issuance of permits for the controlled movement of reasonably oversize and/or overweight vehicles upon appropriate transportation facilities which are adequately designed to accommodate such vehicle sizes and with minimal disruption to the normal flow of traffic, creating damage to public facilities or impairing the public safety. It is the intent of the Oklahoma Transportation Commission to ensure, to the greatest extent possible, that the traveling public is protected from potential traffic hazards and the public interest and investment in state owned transportation facilities are protected through meaningful control of vehicle sizes and weights exceeding statutory limitations while providing adequate eligibility to permit, where in the public interest, the non-routine movements of oversize and/or overweight vehicles.
730:30-9-3.  Applicability  [REVOKED]
     The provisions of this Subchapter pertain to all routes of the State Highway System including, without limitation, the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways and all toll facilities (turnpikes) carrying an Interstate Highway, US Highway or State Highway designation, and such other roads, streets, or public ways as the Commissioner of Public Safety shall deem appropriate.
730:30-9-4.  Permit defined  [REVOKED]
     A permit, when issued by the Commissioner of Public Safety in accordance with the laws of the State of Oklahoma and provisions of this Subchapter shall, subject to the conditions and restrictions of the law and these rules, constitute the limited written permission of the State of Oklahoma for the movement of a specific vehicle and/or load which exceeds any size or weight limitations of Title 47 O.S. 1991, Chapter 14 and any lawful amendments thereto, or, with regard to the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, exceeds any of the provisions of Title 23 U.S.C., Section 127 or associated federal regulations.
730:30-9-5.  Assumption of liability and responsibility for damages to public facilities by permittee  [REVOKED]
(a)    The driver, owner, operator, and any person, firm, or corporation causing or responsible for any vehicle being on any public road, street, or highway of this state operating under the limited authority of an oversize, overweight or other special permit shall, by operation of the vehicle under such permit, assume full and absolute responsibility for any damage to any road, street, highway, bridge, overpass, pavement, or other transportation facility.
(b)    The issuance of an oversize or overweight permit shall, under no circumstances, be considered or construed to be a warranty, either express or implied, or a representation in any form by the State of Oklahoma or any agency or political subdivision of the State that any road, street, highway, or bridge provides adequate support or clearance for the permitted load or vehicle. No permit shall be valid except in strict conformance with the conditions precedent of this provision and all provisions contained in the permit. The Commissioner of Public Safety shall provide, on the face of each permit as determined by the Commissioner, notice of these conditions precedent for the use of the permit.
730:30-9-6.  General conditions and restrictions on permits  [REVOKED]
     Unless otherwise specifically required by law, the following provisions shall apply to the eligibility for permits issued by the Commissioner of Public Safety for the operation of oversize and/or overweight vehicles:
(1)    Vehicles bearing an out-of-state license are ineligible for a permit of any type for a movement between an origin and destination, both of which are located within Oklahoma (intrastate movement), unless said vehicle is covered under an agreement between the licensing state and the State of Oklahoma which prorates the licensing and/or registration fees for such vehicles, or unless such vehicle has been temporarily licensed for operation in this state. Evidence of compliance with the provisions of this subparagraph must be provided with the application for any such permit.
(2)    Only single trip permits may be requested by the vehicle owner or operator for non-divisible overweight vehicles and/or loads.
(A)    A non-divisible load means any load or vehicle exceeding applicable length or weight limits which, if separated into smaller loads or vehicles, would:
(i)    Compromise the intended use of the vehicle, i.e., make it unable to perform the function for which it was intended;
(ii)    Destroy the value of the load or vehicle, i.e., make it unusable for its intended purpose; or
(iii)    Require more than eight (8) work hours to dismantle using appropriate equipment. The applicant for a non-divisible load permit has the burden of proof as to the number of work hours required to dismantle the load.
(B)    Emergency response vehicles and casks designed and used for the transport of spent nuclear materials, and military vehicles transporting marked military equipment and material shall be considered for permits as non-divisible vehicles or loads.
(C)    Non-divisible loads not operating on the interstate Highway System mean loads which, in the opinion of the Commissioner of Public Safety, cannot be reasonably and efficiently dismantled and which may safely operate on the permitted route.
(D)    Permits may be issued only after proper consideration of:
(i)    allowable weights on, and dimensions of, bridges;
(ii)    potential damage to roadways;
(iii)    highways under construction;
(iv)    construction or other detours;
(v)    traffic volumes;
(vi)    interference with the normal flow of traffic; and
(vii)    existing or reasonably anticipated weather conditions such as excessive winds, rain, fog, snow or ice, or any other condition which, in the opinion of the issuing agency, or any law enforcement officer, may adversely affect the safe operation of permitted vehicles or the public safety.
(3)    Single trip permits for non-divisible overweight vehicles and/or loads may be requested only for vehicles which have been lawfully registered to carry the requested weight and only for the time reasonably necessary to accommodate the movement of said vehicle and/or load from its point of origin to its point of destination via the shortest practicable routing. Any return trip of said identical vehicle and/or load shall require an additional permit.
(4)    All permit applications and issued permits must clearly and specifically identify the name and address of the vehicle owner, the vehicle involved including make, model, license number and state of issuance, the number of trailers, their license numbers and state of issuance, a brief description of the load to be transported and, if overweight, the gross permitted vehicle weight, the number of axles, axle configurations, spacings and weights and, if oversize, all oversize dimensions, the lengths of any front or rear load overhang and, for the movement of unlicensed equipment or mobile homes, a serial or other identification number unique to said load.
(5)    No enforcement tolerances shall apply to any permitted vehicle and/or load.
(6)    Permitted vehicles shall neither access nor move upon any part of the National System of Interstates and Defense Highways or four-lane divided Federal Aid Primary System Highways, state highway or bridge unless the properly signed original permit or true and correct facsimile or copy thereof, specifically authorizing such movement, is in the driver's possession.
(7)    All vehicles and/or loads moving under provisions of a permit shall travel to the right of the center of the roadway and shall yield the right of way to other traffic. An exception occurs on bridges when the permit specifies traveling on the centerline of the roadway.
(8)    Permitted vehicles and/or loads, the movement of which requires an escort, shall not travel in convoy.
(9)    Failure of the vehicle owner or driver to comply with any applicable law, rule, regulation, ordinance, posted speed limit or any permit term, condition, limitation or requirement including, but not limited to routes of travel shall, in addition to all other legal remedies, immediately invalidate the permit.
(10)    Vehicles carrying loads of other vehicles or equipment whose reasonably emovable appendages require an oversize permit shall have such appendages removed prior to movement, thereby eliminating the need for an oversize permit.
(11)    Vehicles and/or loads which are both overweight and oversize shall require the issuance of a permit covering both the overweight and oversize movement; however, the permit fees shall apply as though both permits had been issued separately.
730:30-9-7.  Overweight permits - specific conditions and restrictions  [REVOKED]
(a)    Unless otherwise specifically required by law, in addition to the applicable General Conditions and Restrictions on Permits as contained in 730:30-9-6, no overweight vehicle and/or load and no combination of vehicles and/or loads shall be eligible for a permit unless all the following conditions are met:
(1)    the permit application is for a single trip only; and
(2)    the vehicle and/or load to which the application applies cannot be divided; and
(3)    the applicant has justifiably certified that the movement proposed in the application is necessary due to the existence of a specific public emergency requiring the use of the State Highway System and the Commissioner of Public Safety has concurred in the existence of such emergency; and
(4)    the route requested constitutes the shortest practicable routing available; and
(5)    the overweight vehicle and/or load to which the application applies does not require a fixed single axle loading in excess of 20,000 pounds or 600 pounds per inch and fractional part thereof of nominal tire tread width, whichever is the lesser.
(b)    Except as otherwise provided in this subchapter overweight permits shall be required for the movement of vehicles and/or loads exceeding 80,000 pounds or any of the provisions of federal Formula "B" or Table "B" when proposed for movement on the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways and for the movement of vehicles and/or loads exceeding 90,000 pounds or any of the provisions of the Oklahoma Weight and Axle Spacing Table shown in 47 O.S. 1991, Section 14-109(a)2, when proposed for movement on any other portion of the State Highway System.
(c)    In accordance with the Federal Highway Administration interpretation of 23 U.S.C. § 127 longer combination vehicles, (LCV's) which are defined in § 127(d)(4) as any combination of a truck tractor and two or more trailers or semitrailers which operates on the Interstate System at a gross vehicle weight greater than 80,000 pounds in accordance with Federal Weight Formula "B" shall be allowed to operate on the Interstate System in Oklahoma at a gross vehicle weight of not to exceed 90,000 pounds, if the LCV configuration was in regular or periodic operation as permitted by the Commissioner of Public Safety on or before June 1, 1991. LCV's shall be subject to all other requirements provided for by federal law, state law and this subchapter. The Federal Highway Administration requires that any LCV operating on the Interstate Highway in the State of Oklahoma at a gross vehicle weight in excess of 80,000 pounds, but not exceeding 90,000 pounds, first obtain from the Commissioner of Public Safety a special annual divisible load permit for such operation on the Interstate Highways.
(d)    The gross permitable axle weight on any axle which is capable of being lowered for use in supporting a load or retracted from such use by controls located in or accessible from the vehicle cab, shall not exceed the lesser of 8,000 pounds or the axle manufacturer's gross axle weight rating and no tire on any such axle shall be permitted to carry weights in excess of 240 pounds per inch and fractional part thereof of tread width. All tires on any such axle shall be compatible in size, width and air pressure with the tires on fixed load axles.
(e)    No operator shall move any load without a permit which is over the weight limits provided by law.
(f)    Maps for Load Posted Bridges on Oklahoma Highway System are available on the Department of Transportation web site and updated within two weeks of when changes occur. The map indicates, at the time of its updating, the locations of all load restricted bridges and highways on the state highway system. The map does not, in any event, constitute a warranty, either express or implied.
(g)    All applications shall be entered into the Department of Public Safety automated overload permitting system and shall indicate all proposed axles, axle spacings and weights, the inner bridge dimensions, gross vehicle weight, vehicle width, height and length, origin, destination and the proposed routing, and shall be referred in writing to the Department of Transportation for a specific load route review. Based upon the findings of that review, the Department of Transportation shall notify the Commissioner of Public Safety whether such a permit may be issued or whether such movement will pose an unacceptable risk of damage to the highways and/or bridges of this state or create a hazard to the public safety. Permits for proposed movements which pose an unacceptable risk in the opinion of the Department of Transportation shall be denied.
(h)    Overweight load route reviews shall be made by the Department's Bridge and Maintenance Divisions. Bridge reviews shall be performed in strict compliance with provisions of the current AASHTO Manual ForBridge Evaluation. The computed stresses for a bridge due to an overweight load proposed for permitting shall not, under any circumstances whatsoever, exceed those specified in said manual; provided, the Department of Transportation may reduce the AASHTO recommended allowable computed stress values where necessary to account for deterioration in any of the structural members of any bridge.
(i)    Based upon previously completed load route reviews, the Department has compiled and maintains anOverweight Truck Permit Map which is intended for use in permitting the movement of standard configurations of overweight trucks which have been previously studied and are shown on Standard Drawing OL-1. Said drawing indicates the maximum gross vehicle weight and axle group loading, minimum number of axles and inner bridge dimensions for all truck combinations shown. The Overweight Truck Permit Map and the Standard Drawing OL-1 are herein incorporated by reference and constitute an integral part of this Subchapter and will be updated by the Department not less than once every two years and furnished to the Commissioner of Public Safety in such quantities as he may reasonably require for the purpose of approving or rejecting applications for overweight permits for the movement of indicated vehicles and/or loads without requesting a load route review by the Department for the previously studied routes shown on the map. The Department reserves the right to add, delete or modify at any time, any routes or portions thereof shown on the map due to any change in the condition of highways relating to their ability to carry such loads, by oral or written notification to the Commissioner of Public Safety or his designated representative. Neither the Overweight Truck Permit Map or the Standard Drawing OL-1 constitutes a warranty, express or implied.
(j)    All requests for overweight permits must go through the Department of Public Safety automated overload permitting system. Requests must be received a minimum of five working days prior to the date requested for actual movement of the load. Additional time may be required where several bridges are involved. Routes shown in red on said map are incapable of supporting permitted overweight vehicles shown on the Standard Drawing OL-1. Permits may be issued for vehicles shown on Standard Drawing OL-1 on routes shown in green on said map.
(k)    Reducing bridge impact loading by restricting the speed of more conventional permit loads shall not be considered by the Department of Transportation where long hauls are to be made by permitted overweight vehicles. Restricted speed will be considered only for extremely short hauls where it can be shown that analternate means of transportation is not readily available.
(l)    The Department of Transportation will review specific routes and bridges for various combinations of oversize and overweight trucks including superloads to determine the probability of specific structures and pavements to support such loads; however, due to unknown factors, such as recent changes in conditions or any other unknown factor, neither the Commissioner of Public Safety nor the Department of Transportation shall warrant, guarantee or certify that a particular overweight load or superload can be safely moved over any route without incurring a substantial risk of structural failure to the paving surface or bridge structure due to the higher level of stress permitted for these oversize or overweight loads and no such warranty, guarantee or certification is hereby expressed or implied. The Department of Transportation reserves the right to require an evaluation of potential damage to the pavement on a specific route. A superload is defined as any overweight permit load that exceeds the Standard Drawing OL-1 trucks described in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this subsection. If the route has not been studied previously for the proposed superload, a detailed structural analysis will be required to check each bridge to be crossed by the proposed superload to determine if adequate safety factors exist in the bridge to assure that damage will not occur unless it can be shown by a comparative analysis that it will not exceed stresses developed by OL-1. Bridge stress and safety factors shall be in strict conformance with paragraph (h) of this subsection.
(m)    Superloads with dual lanes axles may be considered as separate side-by-side axles for analysis and permit purposes as shown by the Oklahoma Department of Transportation Standard Drawing OL-1. Superloads with dual lanes meeting the following requirements will be reviewed by the Oklahoma Department of Transportation for specific routes:
(1)    Each axle shall include a minimum of four (4) tires and not exceed 20,000 lbs. or 600 lbs. per inch and fractional part thereof of nominal tire tread width, whichever is the lesser. No more than one axle per lane will be allowed for dual lane configurations.
(2)    The lateral distance, "W", between consecutive dual wheels on each axle must be a minimum of 4'-0" regardless of the type of equipment being used.
(3)    The Gage, "G", or split inside distance separating axles between centers of inside dual wheels must be a minimum of 6'-0" measured between centers of inside dual wheels regardless of the type of equipment being used.
(4)    The permit application is for a single trip only.
(5)    The vehicle and/or load cannot be reasonably modified or dismantled for operation in compliance with all legally defined maximum dimensions.
(6)    The load does not exceed 16 feet in width when proposed for operation on the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways during any portion of the trip or 20'-0" on the state highway system.
(7)    The height of the vehicle and/or load will clear, by a minimum of two (2) inches, the minimum posted height limitation for any overhead structure. A Vertical Clearanceof Bridge Structures Map is produced by and available from the Oklahoma Department of Transportation, but the map does not, in any event, constitute a warranty, either expressed or implied.
(8)    The track of the vehicle and/or load does not require the use of highway shoulders and the turning radius of the vehicle and/or load does not require leaving the surface of roadway travel lanes, the travel lanes of interchange loops or ramps, to negotiate turns.
(9)    The towing vehicle has sufficient power to move the oversize load safely at reasonable highway speeds.
(10)    All applications received by the Commissioner of Public Safety for overweight permits shall indicate all proposed axle spacings including gage and wheel spacings, axle spacings and weights, the inner bridge dimensions, gross vehicle weight, vehicle width, height and length, origin, destination and proposed routing, and shall be referred to the Department of Transportation for a specific load route review. As a general rule, increasing the Gage, "G", and the wheel spacing, "W", will, in most cases, improve the load distribution and allow larger gross vehicle weights to pass over the bridges.
(11)    As a general rule, the allowance of dual lane axelsare intended for shorter hauls or, for instances when no other means is available, to move the load and the movement originates or terminates in the State of Oklahoma. In order to minimize disruption to traffic, preference should be given to the use of single lane equipment.
730:30-9-8.  Special crossing permits  [REVOKED]
(a)    Special Crossing Permits for Industrial Use (Crossing Permits) may be applied for regarding the use of specific locations where private roads cross non-access controlled state highways and the load exceeds 20,000 lbs /axle when the following conditions and requirements are met.
(1)    An initial Crossing Permit application for each such crossing shall be submitted through the Department of Public Safety to the Department of Transportation indicating, as a minimum, highway route number, station location, county, township and range, the proposed vehicle size, the number of axles and axle spacings, the maximum gross weight, maximum axle loadings and such additional information as the Commissioner of Public Safety may require.
(2)    The Crossing Permit application shall be accompanied by appropriate plans, specifications and details necessary for said crossing, and shall have been prepared by a Registered Professional Engineer. The plans must show structural adequacy for the proposed reinforced surface of the highway crossing, including a soils study as well as appropriate traffic warning and control devices necessary to insure the safety of the traveling public.
(3)    The Department of Transportation engineering staff shall make a comprehensive study of the proposal, make recommendations for any necessary revisions or modifications, and submit the request to the Transportation Commission for approval or rejection. If rejected, the Department will so notify the Commissioner of Public Safety.
(4)    If the request is approved by the Transportation Commission, the requesting party shall enter into an agreement with the Director of the Department of Transportation to pay all costs of or associated with the construction and maintenance of the crossing, including the perpetual daily maintenance of the heavy load crossing and any safety warning and traffic control devices. The requesting party shall file with the Department evidence of sufficient liability insurance in amounts equal to the maximum amounts of liability for state agencies provided in the Governmental Tort Claims Act, naming the State of Oklahoma, ex rel. Department of Transportation as an additional insured and shall further agree to hold harmless the State of Oklahoma, its agents and employees from any and all claims of damages whatsoever which arise from the industry's use of, or as a result of the existence of, the highway crossing, associated warning or traffic control devices or any impairment of public safety at the crossing location.
(5)    When construction of the crossing is completed and accepted, the Department of Transportation shall notify the Commissioner of Public Safety that an inspection has been made and the crossing satisfies the requirements of the plans and agreement and that the initial Crossing Permit may be issued.
(6)    Subsequent Crossing Permits issued by the Commissioner of Public Safety shall authorize a specific vehicle to cross the state highway at an identified and approved crossing location. Said permits shall further specify a maximum gross weight and the maximum axle loadings and minimum inner bridge dimensions, as well as the length and width of each vehicle and may specify times of day, weather conditions or other factors limiting the use of such crossings.
(b)    Failure on the part of the vehicle owner to comply with any of the Crossing Permit requirements or operation of the vehicle on or across a state highway at any non-permitted location shall constitute grounds for closing the crossing and the revocation of all special permits at that location. Any revocation of such permits shall be for a period of not less than 1 year.
730:30-9-9.  Oversize permits - specific conditions and restrictions  [REVOKED]
(a)    Unless otherwise specifically required by law, in addition to the applicable General Conditions and Restrictions on Permits as contained in 730:30-9-6, no oversize vehicle shall be eligible for a permit unless all of the following conditions are met:
(1)    the permit application is for a single trip only; however, in cases where an industry located near the Oklahoma State line routinely ships oversize loads directly across the nearby state line, or in other unusual instances, the Commissioner of Public Safety may issue multi-trip oversize permits for specific movements as set forth in 730:30-9-9(j); and
(2)    the vehicle and/or load is nondivisible as defined in 730:30-9-6(2); and
(3)    the load does not exceed 16 feet in width when proposed for operation on the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways during any portion of the trip; and
(4)    the height of the vehicle and/or load will clear, by a minimum of 2 inches, the maximum height limitation for any overhead structure shown on the Vertical Clearance of Bridge Structures Map produced by and available from the Oklahoma Department of Transportation, which map does not, in any event, constitute a warranty, either express or implied; and
(5)    the track of the vehicle and/or load does not require the use of highway shoulders and the turning radius of the vehicle and/or load does not require leaving the surface of roadway travel lanes or the travel lanes of interchange loops or ramps, to negotiate turns; and
(6)    the towing vehicle has sufficient power to move the oversize load safely at reasonable highway speeds.
(b)    Unless otherwise provided for in this subchapter the following trailer and semitrailer lengths may be permitted by the Commissioner of the Department of Public Safety:
(1)    Semitrailers exceeding 53 feet in length, but not exceeding 59 feet 6 inches in ength, operating in a truck tractor-semitrailer combination may operate without a permit on the National Network of highways as designated by the United States Secretary of Transportation, plus the reasonable access provided for in this section as such combination is authorized by 49 U.S.C. App. § 2311 and 23 CFR Part 658.
(2)    Semitrailers and trailers operating in a truck tractor-semitrailer and trailer combination shall not exceed 53 feet in length. No permit may be issued for any such combination in which a semitrailer or trailer exceeds 53 feet in length. In no event shall the total length of the cargo carrying units exceed 110 feet. Such combination vehicles may only operate on the Interstate and four lane divided federal-aid primary systems.
(3)    Semitrailers and trailers operating in a truck tractor-semitrailer-trailer and trailer combination shall not exceed 29 feet in length for any semitrailer or trailer which is a part of the vehicle combination, and no permit may be issued for such combination if any semitrailer or trailer exceeds 29 feet in length or the overall cargo carrying capacity exceeds 95 feet in length. Such combination vehicles may operate only on the Interstate System and four lane divided highways plus reasonable access.
(4)    In no case shall any trailer or semitrailer be placed ahead of another trailer or semitrailer which carries a 5,000 pound or more heavier load. The heaviest trailer or semitrailer shall be placed in front and the lightest at the rear. An empty trailer or semitrailer must not precede a loaded trailer or semitrailer.
(5)    Semitrailer or trailer lengths shall be measured from the front of the trailer to the rear of the trailer or any extension of the load beyond the rear of the trailer. Any appendages to the rear of the trailer shall be included in the trailer length measurement.
(c)    An automobile transporter, defined as a truck and semitrailer or truck tractor and semitrailer which has the fifth wheel assemblage located on a drop from behind and below the rear most axle of the power unit and which exceeds 70 feet in length but does not exceed 75 feet in length, inclusive of both the front and rear bumpers, may, under the authority of 23 CFR Section 658.13(d), operate on the National Network as designated by the United States Secretary of Transportation, plus reasonable access, without a permit. Automobile transporters may carry an extension of the load, not to exceed 3 feet beyond the front nor more than 4 feet beyond the rear of such transporter.
(d)    Truck or truck tractor and semitrailer or trailer combinations which exceed 102 inches but not exceeding 120 inches in width may operate under authority of a special annual overwidth permit. Such permit shall be valid for the movement of single trip overwidth loads exceeding 8½ feet on roads and highways having a surface width of 20 feet or more and for travel to and subsequent travel from the initial permitted movement. Such vehicles may be utilized to transport legal dimensioned loads only when a single trip overwidth permitted movement precedes or follows the legal load movement. Proof of the overwidth permitted movement shall be made available upon demand. Such permits shall be specific to the truck tractor.
(e)    Semitrailers exceeding 53 feet but not exceeding 59 feet 6 inches and which are transporting a legal load or no load may operate on roads and highways which are not part of the National Network of Highways under the authority of a special round trip overlength permit issued for the vehicle to proceed to and/or return from a single trip overlength (more than 53 foot long load or where the use of the longer trailer to move a non-divisible load would cause axle weights which would exceed the legal weight to conform to the legal limits) movement performed under permit. The permit shall state the specific route of the trip. Special round trip permits shall be trailer specific.
(f)    Permits for vehicles or loads thereon which exceed 13½ feet in height shall operate in accordance with Section 730:30-9-6 and 730:30-9-9 of this subchapter and no special annual permits shall be authorized for movement of any vehicle or load thereon exceeding such height on the state highway system.
(g)    Manufactured homes used in the course of construction, oil field, or seasonal farming activities may operate under authority of an annual special manufactured home permit, however, such manufactured home must comply with the provision of Oklahoma Statutes Title 47 Chapter 14 Section 103F.
(h)    Reasonable access as used in this section shall mean a distance of 5 miles measured by the most direct route of travel and not by a radius from the terminal or point of service.
(i)    Reasonable access as used in 730:30-9-9(b) may, in the discretion of the Commissioner and consistent with safety, include two lane segments of the National Network in instances where four lane divided federal-aid primary highways which are part of the National Network are separated by a two lane segment of such highway which is not greater than 15 miles in length as designated by the Department to the Commissioner of Public Safety. Use of such two lane segment shall only be for direct travel between the four lane divided segments of the National Network.
(j)    Applications for special oversize nondivisible load multi-trip permits for loads to be transported on a vehicle of legal dimensions shall be filed with the Commissioner of Department of Public Safety and shall specify the size of the vehicle with load; its weight; its configuration; the route or routes proposed or area of proposed operation; and such other information as the Commissioner may require. No special multi-trip permit shall be issued for a vehicle with load which is more than 10 feet 6 inches wide, more than 14 feet in height or more than 80 feet in length. The Commissioner shall document with the application the circumstances requiring the issuance of the special multi-trip permit. For industries located near the state line as set forth in 730:30-9-9(a)(1), and regulated public utilities, an annual permit may be issued. All other multi-trip permits shall be for a period of not longer than thirty (30) days and for operation only within the area or routes designated in the application. In no event shall such special oversize multi-trip permit include an authorization for overweight operations, operations on a roadway where the width of the load exceeds the lane width, or operation not in conformance with the provisions of 730:30-9-9(a)(4) and (5). The face of the permit shall state these restrictions.
730:30-9-10.  Unitized equipment  [REVOKED]
     Unless otherwise specifically required by law:
(1)    unitized equipment, for purposes of this Subchapter, is defined as a single unit vehicle and inseparable load; and
(2)    unitized equipment exceeding 8 feet 6 inches in width, excluding both tire bulge and approved safety devices when traveling on highways of twenty feet or more in width or exceeding 8 feet 6 inches in width, excluding both tire bulge and approved safety devices, when traveling on highways of less than twenty feet in width, constitutes an overwidth vehicle and is eligible for a permit; and
(3)    unitized equipment exceeding 13 feet 6 inches in height constitutes an overheight vehicle and is eligible for a permit; and
(4)    unitized equipment having a vehicle length of more than 45 feet, exclusive of any protrusion of its unitized equipment, constitutes an overlength vehicle and is eligible for a permit; and
(5)    unitized equipment with longitudinal protrusions extending beyond the vehicle a distance in excess of two-thirds (2/3) of the vehicle's wheelbase shall only operate on the state highway system under the authority of an annual oversize permit. Protrusion length shall be measured by adding the front and rear overhang distances. Protrusions shall be properly counterbalanced with such additional weight or by a transfer of weight as may be required for equal weight distribution; and
(6)    unitized equipment, when traveling by permit, shall tow no trailer or semitrailer.
730:30-9-11.  Special mobilized machinery, rubber tired truck cranes and rubber tired construction vehicles  [REVOKED]
     Unless otherwise specifically required by law:
(1)    all equipment of this class shall move upon the highways of Oklahoma only by an Annual Operating Permit in accordance with the provisions of 47 O.S. 1991, Section 1129 and any lawful amendments thereto; and
(2)    any such equipment which is to be moved on the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways and which is oversize and/or overweight by any of the provisions of 23 U.S.C., Section 127 or 47 O.S. 1991, Chapter 14, shall in addition to the Annual Operating Permit, operate under authority of an oversize and/or overweight permit, applied for and issued in accordance with the provisions of this Subchapter, or under authority of a Special Annual Oversize and/or Overweight Permit issued by the Department of Public Safety. Unless otherwise provided by law, the Commission shall determine the fee for such permit; and
(3)    the weight of any special mobilized machinery, rubber tired road construction equipment, or rubber tired truck crane manufactured before January 1, 1994 operating under authority of a special overweight permit which vehicle is overweight as to the overall gross weight only, shall not exceed 650 pounds multiplied by the nominal width of the tire multiplied by the number of tires. Such equipment manufactured after January 1, 1994 operating under the authority of a special overweight permit for overweight by axle, group of axles, or overall gross weight shall not exceed 650 pounds multiplied by the nominal width of the tire multiplied by the number of tires. These provisions shall be effective on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways. These provisions shall also apply to such equipment operating off the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways previously, however such vehicles shall not be required to obtain a special overweight permit for operation on non Interstate and Defense Highways.
730:30-9-12.  Special combination vehicles - permits [ REVOKED]
(a)    Unless otherwise specifically required by law, no special combination vehicle, as defined in 47 O.S. 1991, Section 14-121 and any lawful amendments thereto, shall be eligible for operation in this state except by authority of an Annual Operating Permit.
(b)    The Commissioner of Public Safety is required by law to promulgate rules for the issuance of such permits and no person, firm or corporation shall operate or authorize the operation of any such vehicle unless a valid Annual Operating Permit has been issued to the owner of such vehicle by the Permits Section of the Department of Public Safety, properly signed by the Commissioner of Public Safety or his authorized designee, and the original or certified copy thereof is available for inspection at all times in the vehicle cab. No other trailer configuration or multiple trailer combination shall be authorized or operated under said permit. Any violation of a permit provision shall constitute grounds for immediate permit suspension or revocation of said permit.
(c)    The content, requirements and limitations of Annual Operating Permits for special combination vehicles are subject to the provisions of this Subchapter and all such permits issued shall require the operation of such vehicles in accordance with the following provisions:
(1)    vehicles bearing an out-of-state license are ineligible for a permit of any type for a movement between an origin and destination, both of which are located within Oklahoma (intrastate movement), unless said vehicle is covered under an agreement between the licensing state and the State of Oklahoma which prorates the licensing and/or registration fees for such vehicles, or unless such vehicle has been temporarily licensed for operation in this state; and
(2)    no such vehicle combination shall operate under conditions of decreased visibility or when lateral winds in excess of 45 miles per hour are present or during periods when pavement surfaces are slick, icing, icy or snow packed; and
(3)    such vehicle combinations shall operate only upon the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or other four-lane divided highways which are part of a lawfully identified federal-aid system and may operate on other routes only for purposes of reasonable access, as hereinafter prescribed, between points of origin and destination; and
(4)    reasonable access to and from terminals and for fuel, food, repairs and rest shall not exceed 5 statute miles from the vehicle's point of access to, or exit from, those highways authorized for use in paragraph (3) of this subsection and as set forth in 730:30-9-9(h); and
(5)    the maximum weight on any single axle of such vehicle shall not exceed 20,000 pounds or 600 pounds per inch and fractional part thereof of nominal tire tread width, whichever is the lesser; and
(6)    except as otherwise provided in these rules the maximum gross vehicle weight for any such vehicle and/or load shall not exceed 80,000 pounds or any of the provisions of federal Formula "B" or Table "B" when operating upon any highway of the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or 90,000 pounds or any of the provisions of the Oklahoma Weight and Axle Spacing Table shown in 47 O.S. 1991, Section 14-109(a)2, when operating on other state highways as are authorized in paragraph (3) of this section for use by such vehicles; and
(7)    in no case shall any trailer or semitrailer be placed ahead of another trailer or semitrailer which carries a 5,000 pound or more heavier load. The heaviest trailer or semitrailer shall be placed in front and the lightest at the rear. An empty trailer or semitrailer must not precede a loaded trailer or semitrailer; and
(8)    no vehicle, trailer or semitrailer used in such combination vehicle shall exceed 8 feet 6 inches in width, exclusive of both tire bulge and approved safety devices, or 13 feet 6 inches in height, or 29 feet in length; and
(9)    vehicles or combinations thereof with cargo carrying capacity exceeding 95 feet shall not be eligible for such special combination vehicle permit.
(d)    All special Annual Operating Permit holders and drivers must comply with the latest Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations [49 CFR Parts 390-397] of the U. S. Department of Transportation.
(e)    The driver must at all times during operation of said vehicle be under the control and supervision of the holder of the special Annual Operating Permit.
(f)    Failure to comply with any of the provisions of this Section shall constitute grounds for the immediate suspension or revocation of the Annual Operating Permit in a manner prescribed by the Commissioner of Public Safety. Any suspension of said permit shall remain in effect for a period of not less than 6 months. Any revocation of said permit shall be for a period of not less than 1 year.
(g)    Special combination vehicle permits shall be truck tractor specific.
730:30-9-13.  Permits on toll facilities (turnpikes)  [REVOKED]
(a)    The Oklahoma Transportation Commission has no lawful authority to establish rules for the issuance of oversize or overweight permits for movement of vehicles upon toll facilities not a part of the State Highway System; however, the Commissioner of Public Safety may apply the provisions of this Subchapter to such facilities, subject to approval by the Oklahoma Turnpike Authority.
(b)    All highway approaches to, or exits from, toll facilities which are not a part of the State Highway System but which have been constructed with public funds by the Oklahoma Department of Transportation, shall be subject to the provisions of this Subchapter.
730:30-9-14.  Movements of military oversize and/or overweight vehicles  [REVOKED]
(a)    The routine peacetime non-emergency movement of oversize and/or overweight military vehicles or equipment shall comply with the provisions of this Subchapter. Marked military vehicles and equipment shall be considered as nondivisible for the purposes of permitting. Marked military equipment which may be transported as a nondivisible load is equipment or material directly related to a combat or defense mission. It does not include general purpose items such as household furniture or office equipment even though marked and owned by the military. Marked military vehicle includes only vehicles actually owned and operated by the military and does not include vehicles operating under lease or contract to the military.
(b)    The Commissioner of Public Safety may establish rules in general consonance with the rules contained herein for life threatening emergencies, covering the issuance of military oversize and/or overweight vehicle movements under wartime conditions or in the event the President of the United States and/or the Governor of Oklahoma declares an emergency to exist which requires that such movements be allowed.
730:30-9-15.  Movements of oversize and/or overweight vehicles during a life threatening emergency  [REVOKED]
(a)    For purpose of thus subchapter, "Disaster" includes flood, tornado, fire, or any other large scale emergency situation that causes or threatens to cause the loss of life or destruction or damage to property of such magnitude as to seriously endanger the public health, safety, or welfare, or causes or threatens destruction of or major damage to any transportation system.
(b)    During major emergencies, authorization may be obtained from the Department of Public Safety Permit Office for the emergency movement of necessary vehicles and/or loads which exceed the maximum legal dimensions and weight limitations, to or within the emergency area without a standard oversize or overweight permit; however, normal permit requirements shall be observed unless otherwise authorized. During regular office hours, the Department of Public Safety Permit Office shall be contacted for assistance in routing. When the Permit Office is closed, the Communications Center of the Department of Public Safety (405/425-2424) will contact Permit officials for permit authorization. All movements made on emergency authorization are required to obtain the applicable permit or permits on the next Department of Public Safety working day.
(c)    Following the emergency, unless otherwise authorized, the vehicles and/or loads shall be moved from the disaster area under normal permit, conditions and authority. The Commissioner may issue an emergency authorization or permit for movement to an emergency and return on the same route to the point of origin. The permit or authorization for vehicles going to the emergency may also allow night, weekend, or holiday travel. The permit or authorization to return to the point of origin may also allow daytime weekend or holiday travel.
(d)    In the event an area has been declared a disaster area by the President or Governor, manufactured homes may be authorized to move into the area without a standard permit; provided, the 16 feet maximum width limitation shall apply when traveling on routes of the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways. The manufactured homes must be owned by the victims of the disaster or otherwise brought into the area for public relief purposes. If the units are furnished by the Federal Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), the Permit Office of the Department of Public Safety will generally authorize movement in conformance with the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials' National Policy; the Permit Office may include such additional restrictions in its authorization as are considered necessary. Movements under this emergency authorization are required to obtain the appropriate permit or permits on the next business day.
(e)    The emergency movement of vehicles and/or loads to railroad derailments may be authorized on state highways during periods when normal permits are restricted, provided:
(1)    a loss of life is threatened, or hazardous materials are involved, or a mainline railroad or other major rail line or transportation facility is blocked; and
(2)    during normal working hours, the emergency service company shall obtain standard permits by contacting a Department of Public Safety Permit Office. If the emergency occurs when the Permit Office is closed, the emergency service company may, if authorized, self issue a provisional permit under established rules. If not authorized, a representative shall contact the Department of Public Safety Communications Center (405/425-2424) to request emergency movement authorization. The information required before authorization will be granted includes the location of the incident, time of occurrence, description of equipment needed and the origin and requested routing of the movement. If loss of life is threatened or any major transportation facility is blocked, Permit Officials may waive the requirement for certain items of such information.
730:30-9-16.  Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit  [REVOKED]
(a)    The Commissioner of the Department of Public Safety may issue an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit in accordance with 47 O.S. § 14-103G, to a specific vehicle, for the movement of non-divisible oversize or overweight vehicles or loads as defined in 47 O.S. § 14-107(3). Unless otherwise noted, permits issued under this rule are subject to the conditions described.
(1)    Vehicle Permit Dimensions
(A)    A vehicle transporting an oversize or overweight non-divisible load oprating under an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit may not exceed any of the following:
(i)    12 feet in width;
(ii)    14 feet in height;
(iii)    110 feet in length;
(iv)    120,000 pounds gross weight.
(B)    Except as provided in section (c) of this rule, the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit will be issued for these dimensions and weights.
(2)    A vehicle transporting an oversize or overweight non-divisible load operating under an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit may not transport a load that has more than 25 feet of front overhang, or more than 30 feet of rear overhang.
(3)    The fee for an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit is $4,000, and is non-refundable.
(4)    The Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall be valid for a period of one year beginning on the date of issue stated on the permit.
(5)    An Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit authorizes operation of the permitted vehicle only on the state highway system.
(6)    The permitted vehicle is not permitted travel on any part of the Interstate Highway System. Further, the permitted vehicle may only be operated on routes shown as "green" routes on the current Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map. The Commissioner shall provide a copy of this rule and a copy of the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map to the permittee when the permit is issued. The permittee assumes the responsibility for assuring that the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map in its possession is current. The most current edition of the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map may be found on the Oklahoma Department of Transportation's website. The permittee also assumes responsibility for obtaining the Vertical Clearance of Bridge Structures Map from the Department of Transportation and assuring the map is correct. The most current edition of the map may be found on the Oklahoma Department of Transportation website. The permittee is also responsible for determining the location of any construction restriction. Construction restrictions may be found on the Department of Public Safety Size and Weight Permit website.
(7)    The vehicle or vehicle combination operating under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit must be registered in accordance with 47 O.S. § 1151A(4), for not less than the maximum weight allowed by the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit.
(8)    A permit issued under section 14-103G or this rule is non-transferable.
(9)    A permit issued under section 14-103G or this rule may be transferred from one vehicle to another vehicle in the permittee's fleet provided:
(A)    the permitted vehicle is destroyed or otherwise becomes permanently inoperable, to an extent that it will no longer be utilized, and the permittee presents proof that the negotiable certificate of title or other qualifying documentation has been surrendered; or
(B)    the certificate of title to the permitted vehicle is transferred to someone other than the permittee, and the permittee presents proof that the negotiable certificate of title or other qualifying documentation has been transferred from the permittee.
(b)    The Commissioner may issue an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit to a specific motor carrier, for the movement of a vehicle transporting an oversize or overweight non-divisible load as defined in 47 O.S. § 14-107(3). Unless otherwise noted, permits issued under this section are subject to the conditions described in section (a) (1-8) of this rule. A permit issued under section 14-103G or this rule may be transferred from one vehicle to another vehicle in the permittee's fleet provided:
(1)    that no more than one vehicle per permit is operated at a time; and
(2)    the original certified permit is carried in the vehicle that is being operated under the terms of the permit.
(c)    The Commissioner may issue an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit for vehicles transporting turbine blades used for the purpose of wind power generation. Unless otherwise noted, permits issued under this section are subject to the conditions described in section (a) (1-8). A vehicle operating under this permit may not exceed a cargo length of one hundred sixty (160) feet when transporting the turbine blades. The permit shall be valid only when the vehicle is transporting the blades.
(d)    An Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit issued under section (a), (b) or (c) of this rule will be sent to the permittee via registered mail, or at the permittee's request and expense, by overnight delivery service. This permit will be replaced only if:
(1)    the permittee did not receive the original permit within seven business days after its date of issuance;
(2)    a request for replacement is submitted to the department within 10 business days after the original permit's date of issuance; and
(3)    the request for replacement is accompanied by a notarized statement signed by a principle or officer of the permittee acknowledging that the permittee understands the permit may not be duplicated or altered, and that if the original permit is located, the permittee must return either the original or replacement permit to the Department of Public Safety Size and Weights Permit Office.
(e)    A request for replacement of a permit issued under section (a), (b) or (c) of this rule will be denied if the Commissioner can verify that the permittee received the original.
(f)    Lost, misplaced, damaged, destroyed, or otherwise unusable permits will not be replaced. A new permit will be required.
(g)    No duplication or alteration of the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit is authorized. The permit shall be issued on title quality or better paper and shall have a raised gold or similar seal. Any duplication or alteration of the permit by any means voids the permit.
(h)    Operation of a vehicle under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit authorized by 47 O.S. § 14-103G or this rule on an Interstate Highway or a route not listed as a "green" route on the current Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map, except as provided in section (n) of this rule, voids the permit.
(i)    Operation of a vehicle under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit during the hours of darkness in violation of 47 O.S. § 14-101(D) voids the permit.
(j)    Operation of a vehicle under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit in excess of any limit set forth in section (a) (1) or (2) of this rule voids the permit, except as provided herein. If the violation of section (a) (1) does not exceed one thousand (1,000) pounds on any axle, or group of axles or the gross weight of the vehicle, the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall not be valid for that move only and the permit remains valid for additional moves. The one thousand (1,000) pound allowance is cumulative among the axles and groups of axles so that the total allowance in no event shall exceed one thousand (1,000) pounds.
(k)    Axle Weight Limitations
(1)    No axle on a vehicle operating under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall exceed any of the following:
(A)    Steer axle 600 lbs. x the nominal inch per tire tread width x number of tires, not to exceed a maximum of 15,000 lbs.
(B)    Single axle 20,000 lbs. per axle.
(C)    Tandem (2) axle groups 40,000 lbs. / 20,000 per axle, not less than 4 tires per axle.
(D)    Triple (3) axle groups 60,000 lbs. / 20,000 per axle, not less than 4 tires per axle.
(2)    Except as provided for in subsection (j), operation of a vehicle under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit in excess of the weights set forth in this section and Appendix E voids the permit.
(l)    Annual Envelope Vehicle Permits are valid only on the State highway system. Operation of the equipment on city streets or county roads may require additional authorization from local officials.
(m)    Operators of vehicles operating under an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall comply with the holiday restrictions of 47 O.S. § 14-101E.
(n)    Operators of vehicle operating under the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall comply with the curfew restrictions in Oklahoma, Tulsa and Cleveland Counties which are set forth in Department of Public Safety rule OAC 595:30-3-4(1). Violation of these curfew restrictions voids the permit.
(o)    Operators of vehicles operating under Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall comply with the weather restrictions set forth in OAC 595:30-3-4(5).
(p)    The Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit is not valid for the operation of unitized equipment or special mobilized machinery. Use of the permit for the movement of unitized equipment or special mobilized machines voids the permit.
(q)    Operators of vehicles operating under an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall comply with the escort requirements set forth in Department of Public Safety rule OAC 595:30-3-18(b).
(r)    The operator of any vehicle shall, upon request, surrender a void permit to any commissioned law enforcement officer. Upon receipt of a surrendered permit, the officer shall return the permit to the Department of Public Safety Size and Weights Permit Office.

APPENDIX C.  Schedule of Annual License Fees  [REVOKED]
730_30C1.tif

APPENDIX D.  Dual Lane Axles  [REVOKED]
730_30D1.tif

APPENDIX E.  Oklahoma Department of Transportation Weigh Supplement Sheet for Annual Envelope Permit Not to Exceed 120,000  [REVOKED]
730_30E1.tif
[OAR Docket #23-591; filed 6-23-23]

TITLE 730.  Department of Transportation
CHAPTER 35.  Maintenance and Control of State Highway System
[OAR Docket #23-592]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Maintenance
730:35-1-4. Maintenance responsibilities [AMENDED]
Subchapter 13. Freeway Signage SupplementSupplemental Guide Signs
730:35-13-1 through 730:35-13-4 [AMENDED]
Appendix D. Preferred Guideline Criteria for Signing Traffic Generators on Freeways or Expressways [REVOKED]
Appendix E. Traffic Generators That Do Not Normally Warrant Signing [REVOKED]
Appendix F. Tourist Oriented Directional Signing (TODS) [REVOKED]
AUTHORITY:
69 O.S. Section 301, 303, 304, 1502 and HB 3243 effective No. 1, 2022 repealing 74 O.S. Sections 2284-2285; Oklahoma Transportation Commission
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 7, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 15, 2022 through December 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None.
ADOPTION:
February 6,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 14, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices, 2009 Edition with Revision No. 1, 2, and 3, dated July 2022;
AASHTO Guidelines for Supplemental Guide Signs, 5th Edition, dated August 2016;
Oklahoma Tourist Oriented Directional Signs Policy, 1st Edition, dated July 26, 2011.
Incorporating rules:
730:35-13-1 through 730:35-13-4
Availability:
8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday at the U.S. Department of Transportation Federal Highway Administration, Oklahoma Division 5801 N. Robinson Ave., Ste. 300, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73118, 405-254-3300
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed amendments to Chapter 35 are needed to bring the rules into compliance with existing law and to remove outdated language that unnecessarily constricts ODOT's authority to perform certain maintenance and traffic control responsibilities as allowed by statute. Amendments are also needed to correctly cite to the provisions of applicable federal guidelines used by the department and to remove outdated references. The amendments will allow ODOT to better assist municipalities with certain kinds of traffic control installation and maintenance.
CONTACT PERSON:
Sydney Barrett, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st St, Oklahoma City, OK 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Maintenance
730:35-1-4.  Maintenance responsibilities
(a)    The Department shall pay the cost or perform the act of constructing, improving, or maintaining roads, including frontage roads, public roads, local roads, and interchange ramps or any sections thereof, which have been designated by the Transportation Commission as part of the state highway system.
(b)    The Department may pay the cost of maintaining all official traffic signs and pavement markings except for parking space markings, from right-of-way line to right-of-way line.
(c)    Within a municipality, the Department shall maintain the roadway pavement and pavement structure only. The Department may pay the cost of construction or reconstruction of drainage systems, curbs, sidewalks, and driveways when necessary to construct or reconstruct an existing highway within a municipality. The Department shall not perform maintenance on or pay the cost of accident or spill clean upcleanup, sweeping, mowing the right-of-way, drainage systems, and facilities including inlets, curbs, sidewalks, and driveways, electronic traffic control devices or highway system lights.
(d)    The Department may participate in the cost of construction or replacement of highway lighting systems and electronic traffic control devices on highways within municipal limits.
(e)    At places where citymunicipal streets or county roads intersect with the state highway system, the Department, when requested, shall furnish a "Stop Ahead" sign to be installed on the county road in advance of the highway intersection. Thethe citymunicipality or county shall be responsible for maintaining all advance warning signs and for roadside maintenance activities outside the highway right-of-way line including sight distance clearance on the citymunicipal street or county road leading to the stop intersection.
SUBCHAPTER 13.  Freeway Signage SupplementSupplemental Guide Signs
730:35-13-1.  Purpose
     The purpose of this subchapter is to establish criteria for determining when a destination qualifies as a traffic generator for which supplemental guide signs may be erected on freeways and expressways. Tourist oriented directional signs may be erected on freeways, expressways orrural conventional roadways. To carry out the purpose, the Department adopts and utilizes the MUTCD, "Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices", as well as the most recent edition of the AASHTO Guidelines for Supplemental Guide Signs.
730:35-13-2.  Criteria and limitations for traffic generator signs
(a)    Before a sign for a traffic generator is installed, sufficient space should exist to accommodate the placement of the sign without interfering or conflicting with required signing. Supplemental guide signs for traffic generators should not be installed at freeway-to-freeway interchanges.
(1)    Not more than one supplemental guide sign should be provided in each direction along any freeway. Signs for a traffic generator shall be located in advance of the intersecting road that provides the shortest and most direct route to the facility.
(2)    Under exceptional circumstances, when the prime criteria shown in Appendix D of this Chapterthe AASHTO Guidelines for Supplemental Guide Signs is exceeded by at least 50 percent, consideration may be given to displaying the information at a second freeway exit. This must be documented and justified by a traffic engineering study. This shall not occur without written concurrence from the State Traffic Engineer.
(3)    Supplemental guide signs shall not be erected for a traffic generator that would require a motorist to travel on the intersecting road beyond a second freeway.
(4)    Signing for a seasonal generator or an event may be displayed when warranted. When located within five (5) miles of the interchange, and when the Transportation Department determines it is justified to sign for seasonal events or specific events at auditoriums, convention halls, arenas, stadiums, and fairgrounds, supplemental guide signs may be erected. Such signing shall be removed at the end of the season or event.
(5)    Only two traffic generators may be displayed on a single, permanent or seasonal supplemental guide sign. When more than two traffic generators meet the signing criteria, generators having the greatest demand for signing should be shown.
(6)    Signing for a traffic generator should not be displayed on a supplemental guide sign until signing has been installed at the ramp terminals and trailblazing signing installed along the intersecting road leading to the generator. Trailblazer signs off the state highway system shall be erected and maintained by local governments and shall conform to the MUTCD, "Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices." Trailblazer signing that is not properly installed or maintained shall be justification for removal of the advance guide signs on the freeway system.
(b)    Signs for a traffic generator may be erected on a freeway or expressway when all of the criteria specified in Appendix D of this Chapter are met for the particular generator.
730:35-13-3.  Traffic generators that do not normally warrant signing
     Except under unusual circumstances, supplemental signing should not be considered for the generators shown in Appendix E of this ChapterTable 1 of the AASHTO Guidelines for Supplemental Guide Signs. Signs for these generators shall only be considered after a traffic engineering study and shall not be erected without written concurrence from the ChiefState Traffic Engineer.
730:35-13-4.  Tourist oriented directional signs (TODS)
(a)    The Oklahoma Tourism Signage Advisory Task Force as created by 74 O.S. § 1891 performs screening and issues recommendations to the Department concerning directional signs for tourism and travel-related attractions and enterprises in this state.
(ba)    Tourist-oriented directional signsTODS are guide signs with one or more sign panels that display the business identification of and directional information for eligible business, service, and activity facilities.
(cb)    The specific criteria for Tourist Oriented Directional SignsTODS are included in The Oklahoma Tourist Oriented Directional Signs Policy. All signage must be in compliance with the MUTCD, "Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices", for consistency and uniformity. This program is handled through an application process administered by the Traffic Engineering Division. Requesting facilities are required to pay for approved signs.

APPENDIX D.  Preferred Guideline Criteria for Signing Traffic Generators on Freeways or Expressways  [REVOKED]
730_35D1.tif

APPENDIX E.  Traffic Generators that do Not Normally Warrant Signing  [REVOKED]
730_35E1.tif

APPENDIX F.  Tourist Oreiented Directional Signing (TODS)  [REVOKED]
730_35F1.tif
[OAR Docket #23-592; filed 6-23-23]

TITLE 730.  Department of Transportation
CHAPTER 45.  Public Transporation Project Development Assistance
[OAR Docket #23-593]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
730:45-1-3. Administration [AMENDED]
730:45-1-4. Use of funds [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
69 O.S. Sections 301, 322, 323, 324, 4002, 4005, 4031, 4032, 4033, 4034 and 4035; Oklahoma Department of Transportation
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 7, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 15, 2022 through December 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None.
ADOPTION:
February 6,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 14, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Rule changes are needed because legislation was passed that changed the name of an ODOT program. Rules are changed in order to referent the correct name of the ODOT program. Also, the rule require clarification regarding how the program dollars could be spent.
CONTACT PERSON:
Sydney Barrett, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st St, Oklahoma City, OK 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
730:45-1-3.  Administration
     Responsibility for administering these financial assistance programs is hereby vested in the Transit Programs BranchOffice of Mobility and Public Transit and in the office of the Deputy Director. Expenditures of both federal and state funds will be made in accordance with the State Management Plans developed by the Transit Programs BranchOffice of Mobility and Public Transit.
730:45-1-4.  Use of funds
     The Department is hereby authorized to expend any available federal grants and state funds in strict accordance with applicable federal and state laws, rules and regulations, and to expend legislative appropriations for non-highway purposes to lawfully assist in the development, administration and operation of local and statewide public transportation services, including but not limited to publicly and privately owned inter-city and intra-city bus services, passenger rail services, and para-transit services. The Department is also authorized to expend the aforementioned funds to provide direct public transportation technical assistance, to compile and disseminate relevant transit information including but not limited to inventories of existing transit equipment, facilities and services, statistics on systems' operations, information on technical innovations, legislationlegislatively enacted programs, and alternative solutions to statewide transit issues.
[OAR Docket #23-593; filed 6-23-23]

TITLE 730.  Department of Transportation
CHAPTER 50.  Size and Weight Permits
[OAR Docket #23-594]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions [NEW]
Subchapter 3. Size and Weight Permit Definitions, Application Process and Liabilities [NEW]
Subchapter 5. Size and Weight Permit Load [NEW]
Subchapter 7. Special Combination Vehicles [NEW]
Subchapter 9. National and Regional Permits [NEW]
Appendix A. Dual Lane Axles [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
69 O.S. 2021, §§ 301, 303, 304, 47 O.S. §§ 14-101 to 14-126; 2022 Legislative HB 4008; Oklahoma Transportation Commission.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 7, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
November 15, 2022 through December 15, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
None.
ADOPTION:
February 6,2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 14, 2022
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
Incorporated standards:
Manual for Bridge Evaluation, 3rd Edition, 2017, with 2018, 2020, and 2022 Interim Revisions and November 2021 Errata
Incorporating rules:
730:50-5-4
Availability:
8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday at the U.S. Department of Transportation Federal Highway Administration, Oklahoma Division 5801 N. Robinson Ave., Ste. 300, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73118, 405-254-3300
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed new rules are needed because 2022 HB 4008 was passed to move the size and weights permit program that appears in 47 O.S. §14-101 to §14-126 from DPS to ODOT. As a result, DPS and ODOT size and weight rules needed to be consolidated and modified to appear only in Title 730. This creates a new Title 730, Chapter 50 Size and Weight Permits, which combines and updates all former size and weights rules that existing in Title 730 and Title 595 and places them in one Title and one Chapter of the OAC. DPS and ODOT have taken action to revoke all older size and weights rules so these rules are needed to carry out the requirements of the updated statutes governing size and weight permits.
CONTACT PERSON:
Sydney Barrett, Assistant General Counsel, Oklahoma Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st St, Oklahoma City, OK 73105
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTION 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
730:50-1-1.  Purpose
(a)    The Department of Transportation issues permits for oversize, overweight vehicles. The purpose of this chapter is to set forth the guidelines and procedures for obtaining size and weight permits. Through the process of granting oversize and overweight vehicle permits, it is the intent of the Oklahoma Transportation Department to ensure, to the greatest extent possible, that the traveling public is protected from potential traffic hazards and the public interest and investment in state owned transportation facilities are protected through meaningful control of vehicle sizes and weights exceeding statutory limitations while providing adequate eligibility to permit, where in the public interest, the non-routine movements of oversize and/or overweight vehicles.
(b)    For purposes of this chapter, the term "oversize, overweight" shall mean oversize or overweight or both oversize and overweight.
730:50-1-2.  Applicability; adoption by reference
(a)    Permits authorizing the movement of oversize, overweight vehicles upon all public-roads and highways within the State of Oklahoma are issued in harmony with the Size, Weight and Load laws contained in Title 47, Oklahoma Statutes, Chapter 14, and the rules in this Chapter.
(b)    This Chapter shall apply to all public roads and highways of this state which are subject to the permit provisions of the Oklahoma Statutes, and which direct the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation in the issuance of such permits. The provisions of this Chapter pertain to all routes of the State Highway System including, without limitation, the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways and all toll facilities (turnpikes) carrying an Interstate Highway, US Highway or State Highway designation, and such other roads, streets, or public ways as the Director of the Department of Transportation shall deem appropriate.
730:50-1-3.  Permit parameters
     A permit, when issued by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation in accordance with the laws of the State of Oklahoma and provisions of this Chapter shall, subject to the conditions and restrictions of the law and these rules, constitute the limited written permission of the State of Oklahoma for the movement of a specific vehicle and/or load within the State which exceeds any size or weight limitations of Title 47 O.S. 2021, Chapter 14 and any lawful amendments thereto, or, with regard to the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, exceeds any of the provisions of Title 23 U.S.C., Section 127 or associated federal regulations.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Size and Weight Permit Definitions, Application Process and Liabilities
730:503-1.  When a permit is required
     A permit is required when a vehicle or load which exceeds legal size or weight limits, or both, is to be moved upon the roads and highways of this state. [47 O.S. §14-101 et seq.]
730:50-3-2.  A permit is a legal document, permit types
(a)     Permit defined. A permit is a legal document authorizing the permittee to move a vehicle or load, which is oversize, overweight, or both, upon the public roads and highways of this state when the route constitutes the safest practical routing. A permit, subject to the conditions and restrictions of the law and these rules, constitutes the limited written permission of the State of Oklahoma for the movement of a specific vehicle and/or load which exceeds any size or weight limitations of Title 47 O.S. 2021, Chapter 14 and any lawful amendments thereto, or, with regard to the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, exceeds any of the provisions of Title 23 U.S.C., Section 127 or associated federal regulation. The permit shall be carried in the driver's possession and consist of:
(1)    the information furnished by the applicant contained in the permit,
(2)    the conditions and restrictions stated in the permit, and
(3)    the applicable provisions of this Chapter, Oklahoma law, or any combination of provisions.
(b)     Annual permits. Annual permits, as authorized by 47 O.S. §14-101 et seq. and this Chapter, shall be on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation. Annual permits shall comport to 23 U.S.C. §127 for interstate applications, and to other state statutes relating to size and weight of vehicles and combinations of vehicles, and to the provisions of this Chapter for all roads and highways of this state. Annual permits shall be for a duration of one calendar year from the date of issuance. Annual permits for the movement of vehicles, loads, or both which exceed the size or weight provisions, or both, of 47 O.S. §14-101 et seq., but do not exceed the provisions of this Chapter or state statutes relating to maximum allowable permit limits, shall be applied for and issued, using the procedures established in this Chapter, through the Size and Weight Permit Division of the Department of Transportation. Annual permits shall not be restricted to non-divisible vehicles or loads and shall be specific to the towing vehicle of any vehicle operating as a combination of vehicles.
(1)    Fees for annual permits shall be in accordance with the fee schedule contained in 47 O.S. §14-101 et seq. and will be published on the Department of Transportation website.
(2)    Annual permits shall be subject to suspension, revocation or cancellation by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation or an authorized representative upon due process, as outlined in this Subchapter.
(c)     Single trip permits. Single trip permits, as authorized in OAC 730:50-5-3(2) of this Chapter, shall be on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation. Single trip permits shall be applied for and issued, using the procedures established in this Chapter, through the Size and Weight Permit Division of the Department Transportation. All single trip permits shall comport to this Chapter and related state statutes and shall be for a duration of up to, but not to exceed, five (5) consecutive calendar days. Single trip permits shall be issued for non-divisible vehicles or loads, as defined in 23 C.F.R. § 658, which exceed the provision of state statutes but do not exceed the provisions of this Chapter or state statutes relating to maximum allowable permit limits. All or any permits may be revoked by any duly qualified law enforcement officer of the Department of Public Safety or an authorized employee the Department of Transportation after having identified any violation of any of the provisions of the permit. The revocation shall be final, and no further movement of the vehicle or load shall be authorized until the vehicle or load is authorized by a proper permit.
(d)     Multi-trip oversize permits. A multi-trip oversize permit may be issued for a specific motor vehicle, which can be identified by a vehicle identification number or serial number, for movement as set forth in this Chapter at 730:50-5-6(a)(1) and (j).
(e)     Annual envelope vehicle permit. An annual envelope vehicle permit shall be issued by the Department of Transportation in conformity with the requirements of this subchapter in addition to the provisions set forth in 730:50-5-13:
(1)    An annual envelope permit shall not be used in conjunction with any other permit.
(2)    An annual envelope permit shall be void if used for the movement of houses or modular or manufactured homes.
(3)    An annual envelope permit shall be void if laminated.
(4)    Reasonable access to and from terminals for fuel, food, repairs and rest shall not exceed five (5) statute miles from the roadways authorized by the Oklahoma Department of Transportation.
(6)    A vehicle being moved under an envelope permit shall not be moved on turnpikes except on non-interstate turnpikes. Non-interstate turnpikes are:
(A)    Indian Nation
(B)    Cimarron
(C)    Cherokee
(D)    Chickasaw
(E)    Creek
(F)    Muskogee
(G)    Kilpatrick
(H)    Kickapoo
(7)    The operator of a vehicle in excess of nine (9) feet and six (6) inches in width which is moving under an envelope permit shall use a valid PikePass or use PlatePay to travel on any turnpike listed in paragraph (6).
(f)     Special over-height trailer permit for limited travel. A Special Over-height Trailer Permit for Limited Travel (SOTPLT), in accordance with 47 O.S. § 14-103(B)(1), shall be issued in a manner and on a form prescribed by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation.
(1)    An SOTPLT shall be for a duration as determined by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation, but under no circumstance shall the permit exceed one (1) calendar year.
(A)    The fee for a single trip SOTPLT shall be Forty Dollars ($40.00) and shall be nonrefundable.
(B)    The fee for a thirty (30) day SOTPLT shall be Five Hundred Dollars ($500.00) and shall be nonrefundable.
(C)    The fee for a one (1) year SOTPLT shall be Two Thousand Dollars ($2000.00) and shall be nonrefundable.
(2)    An SOTPLT shall not be restricted to non-divisible loads and shall be specific to the trailer being permitted.
(3)    In addition to these requirements:
(A)    An SOTPLT shall not be used in conjunction with any other permit.
(B)    A trailer being moved under an SOTPLT shall not access nor be moved on any part of the National System of Interstates and Defense Highways or four-lane divided Federal Aid Primary System Highways, state highways or turnpikes.
(4)    An SOTPTL shall comply with 730:50-5-18(b)(3), unless otherwise waived by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation.
(5)    An SOTPLT applicant shall submit a detailed application to the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation containing:
(A)    Physical features of the route, including but not limited to:
(i)    applicable speed limits,
(ii)    specifications and description of any bridges,
(iii)    infrastructure,
(iv)    public or private utility overhead wire lines,
(v)    traffic control devices,
(vi)    road signage, and
(vii)    any potential for pedestrian traffic.
(B)    The duration of time the SOTPLT permit is needed.
(C)    Trailer information including, but not limited to, VIN, tag number, height and specifications of the trailer.
(D)    A certification from the permittee stating the permittee has contacted the effected City Street Department and/or County Commissioner and referenced any possible restrictions or obstacles within their jurisdiction that may impact the permittee's ability to travel.
(g)    Any violation of any part of this section shall result in the permit being voided.
(h)     Prima facie evidence. Undertaking the movement of the vehicles and loads specified in the permit is deemed prima facie evidence of an unequivocal allegation that the permit is accepted by the permittee. Acceptance of the permit by the permittee will be deemed prima facie evidence of an unequivocal allegation by the permittee that:
(1)    Permittee is in compliance with all operational requirements;
(2)    All dimension and weight limitations specified in the permit will not be exceeded;
(3)    All operation, registration, and license requirements have been met;
(4)    All financial responsibility obligations and other legal requirements have been met. The permittee assumes all responsibility for injury to any person or for damage to public or private property, including the permittee's own, or to the load being transported, caused directly or indirectly by the transportation of vehicles and loads authorized under the permit.
730:50-3-3.  Requesting, obtaining, and paying for a permit
(a)     Requesting and obtaining a permit. A permit shall be applied for and obtained from the Size and Weight Permit Division of the Department of Transportation, by contacting a permit office either in person, by telephone, or from the Department of Transportation website. A permit for movement of a manufactured home shall be applied for and obtained in accordance with 68 O.S.§2813 and 47 O.S. §14-103D. The permit office shall make a determination as to whether the permit can be issued based upon the size of load, weight of load, the route to be traveled, the clearance of overhead structures, weather conditions, and traffic conditions.
(b)     In-person permit application. All permit offices are open Monday through Friday, except on state holidays. Location and office hours of permit offices are.:
(1)    Oklahoma City (main office), 200 N.E. 21st Street, Oklahoma City, OK 73105 Office hours: 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. (noon) and 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
(2)    Offices at Oklahoma Highway Patrol district headquarters:
(A)    Enid, 5725 West Garriott Road. Office hours: 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. (noon) and 1:00 p.m. to 4.00 p.m.
(B)    Tulsa, 9191 East Skelly Drive. Office hours: 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. (noon) and 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
(3)    Field Offices:
(A)    Elk City, Merritt Road at the west junction of U.S. Highway 66 and State Highway 6. Office hours: 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. (noon), and 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
(B)    Woodward, 2411 Williams Ave. Suite 112A. Office hours: 8:00 a.m. to 12:0 p.m. (noon), and 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
(c)     Telephone permit application. Telephone applications may be made by calling 405-425-7012 Monday through Friday, except on state holidays, between 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. (noon) and 1:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m.
(d)     Website permit application. Website applications may be made through oklahoma.gov/odot/size-and-weight.html.
(e)     Payment for a permit. Payment for a permit is to be made by one of the following methods:
(1)     Cash (exact change is required). Please do not mail cash.
(2)     Certified cashier's check. Make checks payable to "Oklahoma Department of Transportation."
(3)     Money order. Make money orders payable to "Oklahoma Department of Transportation."
(4)     Personal or company check. Make checks payable to "Oklahoma Department of Transportation." If a personal or company check is not honored by the bank upon which it is drawn, the Department of Transportation reserves the right to refuse all further checks from the person or company who issued the check.
(5)     Credit card. Discover, MasterCard, American Express or Visa will be accepted for payment.
(6)     Monthly billing account. [See 730:50-3-4 regarding establishing monthly billing accounts.]
730:50-3-4.  Establishing a monthly billing account
     The Size and Weight Permit Division may authorize monthly billing accounts for individuals, companies, and corporations to defer payment of special permits issued for oversize and overweight vehicles. A monthly billing account will be established in accordance with the following provisions:
(1)     Posting of bond.
(A)    A bond must be posted in an amount sufficient to cover the monthly billing. The minimum amount of such bond shall be Five Thousand Dollars ($5,000.00).
(B)    The bonding company must be approved by the Oklahoma Insurance Commissioner to do business in Oklahoma and maintain such approval during the term of the bond.
(C)    The bond must be on a form prepared by the Department of Transportation. The completed original form must be submitted to the Department of Transportation for final approval. The form may be obtained by contacting the Size and Weight Permit Division of the Department of Transportation.
(D)    The surety company must notify the Department of Transportation by written notice a minimum of thirty (30) days prior to cancellation or reduction of the amount of coverage and state the effective date of the change in coverage. The surety company shall send the notice by certified mail to the Size and Weight Permit Division.
(E)    It is the responsibility of the company holding the bond to give the monthly billing account number only to persons qualified to use the account. Establishing an account implies full agreement to the terms of the account and any related activities thereof. Sharing your password with anyone, is a violation of our agreement, as it may compromise the account holder's confidential information and could result in outside charges on your account for which you will be responsible and liable. The charges incurred on your account are the responsibility of the owner as described in the profile, no matter who makes the actual charge. Once the bond has been approved by the Department of Transportation, notification of the monthly billing account number will be given. Information concerning accounts may be obtained by calling (405) 522-9004 or 405-522-2290.
(2)     Payment of account. Each monthly billing account will be invoiced at the first of each month. Payment must be received by the Department of Transportation at 200 N.E. 21st Street, Oklahoma City, OK, 73105 by the fifteenth (15th) day of the invoice month. Accounts which are not paid will not be issued permits until the account is paid. Accounts not paid by the twenty-second (22nd) day of the invoice month can no longer purchase permits regardless of payment method. Accounts not paid by the first (1st) of the following month will be sent to the bonding company for collection. The Department of Transportation may close any account for which the deferred payment is habitually delinquent.
730:50-3-5.  Assumption of liability and responsibility for damages to public facilities by permittee
(a)    The driver, owner, operator, and any person, firm, or corporation causing or responsible for any vehicle being on any public road, street, or highway of this state operating under the limited authority of an oversize, overweight or other special permit shall, by operation of the vehicle under such permit, assume full and absolute responsibility for any damage to any road, street, highway, bridge, overpass, pavement, or other transportation facility.
(b)    The issuance of an oversize or overweight permit shall, under no circumstances, be considered or construed to be a warranty, either express or implied, or a representation in any form by the State of Oklahoma or any agency or political subdivision of the State that any road, street, highway, or bridge provides adequate support or clearance for the permitted load or vehicle. No permit shall be valid except in strict conformance with the conditions precedent of this provision and all provisions contained in the permit. The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation shall provide, on the face of each permit as determined by the Executive Director, notice of these conditions precedent for the use of the permit.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Size and Weight Permit Load
730:50-5-1.  Conditions and restrictions
     The following conditions and restrictions shall apply to the issuance of permits for the operation of oversize and overweight vehicles:
(1)     Travel time. Movement shall be permitted in accordance with the dates and times provided in 47 O.S. §14-101 and in this sub-section.
(A)    Oklahoma County. Movement of oversize permitted loads is not allowed on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways in Oklahoma County from 7:00 a.m. to 9:00 a.m., and from 3:30 p.m. to 6:30 p.m., Monday through Friday.
(B)    Tulsa County. Movement of oversize permitted loads is not allowed on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways in Tulsa County from 7:00 a.m. to 9:00 a.m., and from 3:30 p.m. to 6:30 p.m., Monday through Friday.
(C)    Cleveland County. Movement of oversize permitted loads is not allowed on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways in Cleveland County from 7:00 a.m. to 9:00 a.m., and from 3:30 p.m. to 6:30 p.m., Monday through Friday. The two (2) mile section of Interstate 35 between State Highway 9 East (Exit 108) and State Highway 9 West (Exit 106) shall be exempt from this restriction.
(2)     Required sign and flags. All oversized vehicles and loads require the regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging, as provided in 730-50-5-15.
(3)     Exceptions. The restrictions in this paragraph shall not apply to special combination vehicles, longer combination vehicles, and vehicles which are overweight only.
(4)     Weather, traffic, road, and atmospheric conditions. Extreme caution in the operation of permitted vehicles and loads shall be exercised during hazardous conditions, including, but not limited to, snow, ice, sleet, fog, mist, rain, dust, smoke, excessive wind, or any weather, traffic, or road condition which would adversely affect traction or braking capabilities. When conditions become dangerous, the company or the operator shall discontinue operations, and operations shall not resume until the vehicle and load can be moved with reasonable safety. The state may restrict or prohibit operations during periods, when, in the state's judgment, weather, traffic, road, or other conditions exist which make such operations unsafe or inadvisable. [See OAC 730:50-5-9(c)(2) regarding driving conditions.]
(5)     Overweight load route review. Requests for permits for overweight loads which require a load route review shall be submitted to ensure they are received by the Oklahoma Department of Transportation Bridge Division a minimum of five (5) working days prior to the date of movement [730:50-5-4(k)].
(6)     Brakes, drawbars, and lighting requirements. Equipment requirements for this Paragraph are found in 47 O.S. §§12-201 through 12-415, and in the Federal Motor Carriers Safety Regulations, Part 393, Subchapters B, C, F, and H.
(7)     Accuracy of information. It is the responsibility of the applicant to ensure accuracy of information contained in company profile and on the application when submitting for a permit. Sharing your password with anyone is a violation of our agreement, as it may compromise the account holder's confidential information and could result in outside charges on your account for which you will be responsible and liable. The charges incurred on your account are the responsibility of the owner as described in the profile, no matter who makes the actual charge. Permits will not be revised to alter the load description or the vehicle or load dimensions. Multi-trip or annual permits cannot be changed. Any other revisions shall be at the discretion of the permit office and only one (1) revision will be allowed per permit.
730:50-5-2.  Method of placing permit in suspension where conditions exist beyond the control of the permittee
(a)    A permit may be placed in suspension by the permit holder for a maximum of two (2) weeks for inclement weather, road conditions due to weather and equipment breakdown. To place a permit in suspension the permit holder shall:
(1)    Contact the permit office within the trip dates. If the permit expires when the permit office is closed, contact the permit office the next working day;
(2)    Provide the permit number and trip dates;
(3)    Before the permit may be reinstated due to equipment breakdown proper documentation must be submitted to swpermits@odot.ok.gov.
(b)    If the permit office is not contacted by the permit holder to remove the suspension of the permit within two (2) weeks of placing the permit in suspension, the permit shall become void, and the permit shall be required to apply for a new permit. Only one (1) suspension shall be granted by the Department of Transportation per permit.
730:50-5-3.  General conditions and restrictions on permits
     Unless otherwise specifically required by law, the following provisions shall apply to the eligibility for permits issued by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation for the operation of oversize and/or overweight vehicles:
(1)    Vehicles bearing an out-of-state license are ineligible for a permit of any type for a movement between an origin and destination, both of which are located within Oklahoma (intrastate movement), unless said vehicle is covered under an agreement between the licensing state and the State of Oklahoma which prorates the licensing and/or registration fees for such vehicles, or unless such vehicle has been temporarily licensed for operation in this state. Evidence of compliance with the provisions of this subparagraph must be provided with the application for any such permit.
(2)    Only single trip permits may be requested by the vehicle owner or operator for non-divisible overweight vehicles and/or loads.
(A)    A non-divisible load means any load or vehicle exceeding applicable length or weight limits which, if separated into smaller loads or vehicles, would meet any one of the following criteria:
(i)    Compromise the intended use of the vehicle, i.e., make it unable to perform the function for which it was intended;
(ii)    Destroy the value of the load or vehicle, i.e., make it unusable for its intended purpose; or
(iii)    Require more than eight (8) work hours to dismantle using appropriate equipment. The applicant for a non-divisible load permit has the burden of proof as to the number of work hours required to dismantle the load.
(B)    Emergency response vehicles and casks designed and used for the transport of spent nuclear materials, and military vehicles transporting marked military equipment and material shall be considered for permits as non-divisible vehicles or loads.
(C)    Non-divisible loads not operating on the interstate Highway System mean loads which, in the opinion of the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation, cannot be reasonably and efficiently dismantled and which may safely operate on the permitted route.
(D)    Permits may be issued only after proper consideration of:
(i)    allowable weights on, and dimensions of, bridges;
(ii)    potential damage to roadways;
(iii)    highways under construction;
(iv)    construction or other detours;
(v)    traffic volumes;
(vi)    interference with the normal flow of traffic; and
(vii)    existing or reasonably anticipated weather conditions such as excessive winds, rain, fog, snow or ice, or any other condition which, in the opinion of the issuing agency, or any law enforcement officer, may adversely affect the safe operation of permitted vehicles or the public safety.
(3)    Single trip permits for non-divisible overweight vehicles and/or loads may be requested only for vehicles which have been lawfully registered to carry the requested weight and only for the time reasonably necessary to accommodate the movement of said vehicle and/or load from its point of origin to its point of destination via the shortest practicable routing. Any return trip of said identical vehicle and/or load shall require an additional permit.
(4)    All permit applications and issued permits must clearly and specifically identify the name and address of the vehicle owner, the vehicle involved including make, model, license number and state of issuance, the number of trailers, their license numbers and state of issuance, a brief description of the load to be transported and, if overweight, the gross permitted vehicle weight, the number of axles, axle configurations, spacings and weights and, if oversize, all oversize dimensions, the lengths of any front or rear load overhang and, for the movement of unlicensed equipment or mobile homes, a serial or other identification number unique to said load.
(5)    No permit tolerances shall apply to any permitted vehicle and/or load.
(6)    Permitted vehicles shall neither access nor move upon any part of the National System of Interstates and Defense Highways or four-lane divided Federal Aid Primary System Highways, state highway or bridge unless the properly signed original permit or true and correct facsimile or copy thereof, specifically authorizing such movement, is in the driver's possession.
(7)    All vehicles and/or loads moving under provisions of a permit shall travel to the right of the center of the roadway and shall yield the right of way to other traffic. An exception occurs on bridges when the permit specifies traveling on the centerline of the roadway.
(8)    Permitted vehicles and/or loads, the movement of which requires an escort, shall not travel in convoy.
(9)    Failure of the vehicle owner or driver to comply with any applicable law, rule, regulation, ordinance, posted speed limit or any permit term, condition, limitation or requirement including, but not limited to routes of travel may, in addition to all other legal remedies, immediately invalidate the permit.
(10)    Every effort shall be made to remove appendages that are attached to vehicles carrying loads of other vehicles or equipment if removal is both reasonable and will avoid the need for an oversize permit.
(11)    Vehicles and/or loads which are both overweight and oversize shall require the issuance of a permit covering both the overweight and oversize movement; however, the permit fees shall apply as though both permits had been issued separately.
730:50-5-4.  Overweight permits; specific conditions and restrictions
(a)    Unless otherwise specifically required by law, in addition to the applicable General Conditions and Restrictions on Permits as contained in 730:50-5-3 of this Chapter, no overweight vehicle and/or load and no combination of vehicles and/or loads shall be eligible for a permit unless all the following conditions are met:
(1)    the permit application is for a single trip only; and
(2)    the vehicle and/or load to which the application applies cannot be divided; and
(3)    the applicant has justifiably certified that the movement proposed in the application is necessary due to the existence of a specific public emergency requiring the use of the State Highway System and the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation has concurred in the existence of such emergency; and
(4)    the route requested constitutes the shortest practicable routing available; and
(5)    the overweight vehicle and/or load to which the application applies does not require a fixed single axle loading in excess of 20,000 pounds or 600 pounds per inch and fractional part thereof of nominal tire tread width, whichever is the lesser.
(b)    Except as otherwise provided in this subchapter overweight permits shall be required for the movement of vehicles and/or loads exceeding 80,000 pounds or any of the provisions of federal Formula "B" or Table "B", when proposed for movement on the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways and for the movement of vehicles and/or loads exceeding 90,000 pounds or any of the provisions of federal Formula "B" or Table "B", when proposed for movement on any other portion of the State Highway System.
(c)    In accordance with the Federal Highway Administration interpretation of 23 U.S.C. § 127 longer combination vehicles, (LCV's) which are defined in § 127(d)(4) as any combination of a truck tractor and two or more trailers or semitrailers which operates on the Interstate System at a gross vehicle weight greater than 80,000 pounds in accordance with Federal Weight Formula "B" shall be allowed to operate on the Interstate System in Oklahoma at a gross vehicle weight of not to exceed 90,000 pounds, if the LCV configuration was in regular or periodic operation as permitted by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation. LCV's shall be subject to all other requirements provided for by federal law, state law and this subchapter. The Federal Highway Administration requires that any LCV operating on the Interstate Highway in the State of Oklahoma at a gross vehicle weight in excess of 80,000 pounds, but not exceeding 90,000 pounds, first obtain from the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation a special annual divisible load permit for such operation on the Interstate Highways.
(d)    The gross permittable axle weight on any axle which is capable of being lowered for use in supporting a load or retracted from such use by controls located in or accessible from the vehicle cab, shall not exceed the lesser of 8,000 pounds or the axle manufacturer's gross axle weight rating and no tire on any such axle shall be permitted to carry weights in excess of 240 pounds per inch and fractional part thereof of tread width. All tires on any such axle shall be compatible in size, width and air pressure with the tires on fixed load axles.
(e)    No operator shall move any load without a permit which is over the weight limits provided by law.
(f)    Maps for Load Posted Bridges on Oklahoma Highway System are available on the Department of Transportation web site and updated within two weeks of when changes occur. The map indicates, at the time of its updating, the locations of all load restricted bridges and highways on the state highway system. The map does not, in any event, constitute a warranty, either express or implied.
(g)    All applications shall be entered into the Department of Transportation automated overload permitting system and shall indicate all proposed axles, axle spacings and weights, the inner bridge dimensions, gross vehicle weight, vehicle width, height and length, origin, destination, and the proposed routing, and shall be referred in writing to the Department of Transportation for a specific load route review. Based upon the findings of that review, the Department of Transportation shall notify the applicant whether such a permit may be issued or whether such movement will pose an unacceptable risk of damage to the highways and/or bridges of this state or create a hazard to the public safety. Permits for proposed movements which pose an unacceptable risk in the opinion of the Department of Transportation shall be denied.
(h)    Overweight load route reviews shall be made by the Department of Transportation's Bridge and Maintenance Divisions. Bridge reviews shall be performed in strict compliance with provisions of the current AASHTO Manual for Bridge Evaluation. The computed stresses for a bridge due to an overweight load proposed for permitting shall not, under any circumstances whatsoever, exceed those specified in said manual; provided, the Department of Transportation may reduce the AASHTO recommended allowable computed stress values where necessary to account for deterioration in any of the structural members of any bridge.
(i)    Based upon previously completed load route reviews, the Department of Transportation has compiled and maintains an Overweight Truck Permit Map which is intended for use in permitting the movement of standard configurations of overweight trucks which have been previously studied and are shown on Standard Drawing OL-1. Said drawing indicates the maximum gross vehicle weight and axle group loading, minimum number of axles and inner bridge dimensions for all truck combinations shown. The Overweight Truck Permit Map and the Standard Drawing OL-1 are herein incorporated by reference and constitute an integral part of this subchapter and will be updated by the Department of Transportation not less than once every two years for the purpose of approving or rejecting applications for overweight permits for the movement of indicated vehicles and/or loads without requesting a load route review by the Department of Transportation for the previously studied routes shown on the map. The Department of Transportation reserves the right to add, delete or modify at any time, any routes or portions thereof shown on the map due to any change in the condition of highways relating to their ability to carry such loads, by oral or written notification to the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation or his designated representative. Neither the Overweight Truck Permit Map or the Standard Drawing OL-1 constitutes a warranty, express or implied.
(j)    All requests for overweight permits must go through the Department of Transportation automated overload permitting system. Requests must be received a minimum of five working days prior to the date requested for actual movement of the load. Additional time may be required where several bridges are involved. Routes shown in red on said map are incapable of supporting permitted overweight vehicles shown on the Standard Drawing OL-1. Permits may be issued for vehicles shown on Standard Drawing OL-1 on routes shown in green on said map.
(k)    Reducing bridge impact loading by restricting the speed of more conventional permit loads shall not be considered by the Department of Transportation where long hauls are to be made by permitted overweight vehicles. Restricted speed will be considered only for extremely short hauls where it can be shown that an alternate means of transportation is not readily available.
(l)    The Department of Transportation will review specific routes and bridges for various combinations of oversize and overweight trucks including superloads to determine the probability of specific structures and pavements to support such loads; however, due to unknown factors, such as recent changes in conditions or any other unknown factor, the Department of Transportation shall not warrant, guarantee or certify that a particular overweight load or superload can be safely moved over any route without incurring a substantial risk of structural failure to the paving surface or bridge structure due to the higher level of stress permitted for these oversize or overweight loads and no such warranty, guarantee or certification is hereby expressed or implied. The Department of Transportation reserves the right to require an evaluation of potential damage to the pavement on a specific route. A superload is defined as any overweight permit load that exceeds the Standard Drawing OL-1 trucks described in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this subsection. If the route has not been studied previously for the proposed superload, a detailed structural analysis will be required to check each bridge to be crossed by the proposed superload to determine if adequate safety factors exist in the bridge to assure that damage will not occur unless it can be shown by a comparative analysis that it will not exceed stresses developed by OL-1. Bridge stress and safety factors shall be in strict conformance with paragraph (h) of this subsection.
(m)    Superloads with dual lanes axles may be considered as separate side-by-side axles for analysis and permit purposes as shown by the Oklahoma Department of Transportation Standard Drawing OL-1. Superloads with dual lanes meeting the following requirements will be reviewed by the Oklahoma Department of Transportation for specific routes:
(1)    Each axle shall include a minimum of four (4) tires and not exceed 20,000 lbs. or 600 lbs. per inch and fractional part thereof of nominal tire tread width, whichever is the lesser. No more than one axle per lane will be allowed for dual lane configurations.
(2)    The dual lane configuration has a minimum out to out width of 16'-0" regardless of the type of equipment being used.
(3)    The Gage, "G", between consecutive dual wheels on each axle must be a minimum of 4'0" regardless of the type of equipment being used.
(4)    The Passing Distance "P", or split inside distance separating axles between centers of inside dual wheels must be a minimum of 4'-0" measured between centers of inside dual wheels regardless of the type of equipment being used.
(5)    The minimum longitudinal axle spacing must be 4'6".
(6)    The permit application is for a single trip only.
(7)    The vehicle and/or load cannot be reasonably modified or dismantled for operation in compliance with all legally defined maximum dimensions.
(8)    The load does not exceed 16 feet in width when proposed for operation on the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways during any portion of the trip or 20'-0" on the state highway system.
(9)    The height of the vehicle and/or load will clear, by a minimum of two (2) inches, the minimum posted height limitation for any overhead structure. A Vertical Clearance of Bridge Structures Map is produced by and available from the Oklahoma Department of Transportation, but the map does not, in any event, constitute a warranty, either expressed or implied.
(10)    The track of the vehicle and/or load does not require the use of highway shoulders and the turning radius of the vehicle and/or load does not require leaving the surface of roadway travel lanes, the travel lanes of interchange loops or ramps, to negotiate turns.
(11)    The towing vehicle has sufficient power to move the oversize load safely.
(12)    All applications received by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation for overweight permits shall indicate all proposed axle spacings including gage and wheel spacings, axle spacings and weights, the inner bridge dimensions, gross vehicle weight, vehicle width, height and length, origin, destination and proposed routing, and shall be referred to the Department of Transportation for a specific load route review. As a general rule, increasing the Gage, "G", and the Passing Distance "P", will, in most cases, improve the load distribution and allow larger gross vehicle weights to pass over the bridges.
(13)    As a general rule, the allowance of dual lane axles is intended for shorter hauls or, for instances when no other means is available, to move the load and the movement originates or terminates in the State of Oklahoma with the exception given to the panhandle region of the state. In order to minimize disruption to traffic, preference should be given to the use of single lane equipment.
730:50-5-5.  Special crossing permits
(a)    Special Crossing Permits for Industrial Use (Crossing Permits) may be applied for regarding the use of specific locations where private roads cross non-access controlled state highways and the load exceeds 20,000 lbs./axle when the following conditions and requirements are met.
(1)    An initial Crossing Permit application for each such crossing shall be submitted through the Department of Transportation indicating, as a minimum, highway route number, station location, county, township and range, the proposed vehicle size, the number of axles and axle spacings, the maximum gross weight, maximum axle loadings and such additional information as the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may require.
(2)    The Crossing Permit application shall be accompanied by appropriate plans, specifications and details necessary for said crossing, and shall have been prepared by a Registered Professional Engineer. The plans must show structural adequacy for the proposed reinforced surface of the highway crossing, including a soils study as well as appropriate traffic warning and control devices necessary to ensure the safety of the traveling public.
(3)    The Department of Transportation engineering staff shall make a comprehensive study of the proposal, make recommendations for any necessary revisions or modifications, and submit the request to the Transportation Commission for approval or rejection.
(4)    If the request is approved by the Transportation Commission, the requesting party shall enter into an agreement with the Director of the Department of Transportation to pay all costs of or associated with the construction and maintenance of the crossing, including the perpetual daily maintenance of the heavy load crossing and any safety warning and traffic control devices. The requesting party shall file with the Department of Transportation evidence of sufficient liability insurance in amounts equal to the maximum amounts of liability for state agencies provided in the Governmental Tort Claims Act, naming the State of Oklahoma, ex rel. Department of Transportation as an additional insured and shall further agree to hold harmless the State of Oklahoma, its agents and employees from any and all claims of damages whatsoever which arise from the industry's use of, or as a result of the existence of, the highway crossing, associated warning or traffic control devices or any impairment of public safety at the crossing location.
(5)    When construction of the crossing is completed and accepted, the Department of Transportation will make an inspection to ensure the crossing satisfies the requirements of the plans and agreement and that the initial Crossing Permit may be issued.
(6)    Subsequent Crossing Permits issued by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation shall authorize a specific vehicle to cross the state highway at an identified and approved crossing location. Said permits shall further specify a maximum gross weight and the maximum axle loadings and minimum inner bridge dimensions, as well as the length and width of each vehicle and may specify times of day, weather conditions or other factors limiting the use of such crossings.
(b)    Failure on the part of the vehicle owner to comply with any of the Crossing Permit requirements or operation of the vehicle on or across a state highway at any non-permitted location shall constitute grounds for closing the crossing and the revocation of all special permits at that location. Any revocation of such permits shall be for a period of not less than 1 year.
730:50-5-6.  Oversize permits; specific conditions and restrictions
(a)    Unless otherwise specifically required by law, in addition to the applicable General Conditions and Restrictions on Permits as contained in 730:50-5-3, no oversize vehicle shall be eligible for a permit unless all of the following conditions are met:
(1)    the permit application is for a single trip only; however, in cases where an industry located near the Oklahoma State line routinely ships oversize loads directly across the nearby state line, or in other unusual instances, the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may issue multi-trip oversize permits for specific movements as set forth in 730:50-5-6(j); and
(2)    the vehicle and/or load is non-divisible as defined in 730:50-5-3(2)(A); and
(3)    the load does not exceed 16 feet in width when proposed for operation on the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways during any portion of the trip; and
(4)    the height of the vehicle and/or load will clear, by a minimum of 2 inches, the maximum height limitation for any overhead structure shown on the Vertical Clearance of Bridge Structures Map produced by and available from the Oklahoma Department of Transportation, which map does not, in any event, constitute a warranty, either express or implied; and
(5)    the track of the vehicle and/or load does not require the use of highway shoulders and the turning radius of the vehicle and/or load does not require leaving the surface of roadway travel lanes or the travel lanes of interchange loops or ramps, to negotiate turns; and
(6)    the towing vehicle has sufficient power to move the oversize load safely at reasonable highway speeds.
(b)    Unless otherwise provided for in this subchapter the following trailer and semi- trailer lengths may be permitted by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation:
(1)    Semi-trailers exceeding 53 feet in length, but not exceeding 59 feet 6 inches in length, operating in a truck tractor- semi-trailer combination may operate without a permit on the National Network of highways as designated by the United States Secretary of Transportation, plus the reasonable access provided for in this section as such combination is authorized by 49 U.S.C. App. § 2311 and 23 CFR Part 658.
(2)    Semi-trailers and trailers operating in a truck tractor- semi-trailer and trailer combination shall not exceed 53 feet in length. No permit may be issued for any such combination in which a semi-trailer or trailer exceeds 53 feet in length. In no event shall the total length of the cargo carrying units exceed 110 feet. Such combination vehicles may only operate on the Interstate and four lane divided federal-aid primary systems.
(3)    Semi-trailers and trailers operating in a truck tractor-semi-trailer and trailer combination shall not exceed 29 feet in length for any semi-trailer or trailer which is a part of the vehicle combination, and no permit may be issued for such combination if any semi-trailer or trailer exceeds 29 feet in length or the overall cargo carrying capacity exceeds 95 feet in length. Such combination vehicles may operate only on the Interstate System and four lane divided highways plus reasonable access.
(4)    In no case shall any trailer or semi-trailer be placed ahead of another trailer or semi-trailer which carries a 5,000 pound or more heavier load. The heaviest trailer or semi-trailer shall be placed in front and the lightest at the rear. An empty trailer or semi-trailer must not precede a loaded trailer or semi-trailer.
(5)    Semi-trailer or trailer lengths shall be measured from the front of the trailer to the rear of the trailer or any extension of the load beyond the rear of the trailer. Any appendages to the rear of the trailer shall be included in the trailer length measurement.
(c)    Truck or truck tractor and semi-trailer or trailer combinations which exceed 102 inches but not exceeding 120 inches in width may operate under authority of a special annual overwidth permit. Such permit shall be valid for the movement of single trip overwidth loads exceeding 8½ feet on roads and highways having a surface width of 20 feet or more and for travel to and subsequent travel from the initial permitted movement. Such vehicles may be utilized to transport legal dimensioned loads only when a single trip overwidth permitted movement precedes or follows the legal load movement. Proof of the overwidth permitted movement shall be made available upon demand. Such permits shall be specific to the truck tractor.
(d)    Semi-trailer exceeding 53 feet but not exceeding 59 feet 6 inches and which are transporting a legal load or no load may operate on roads and highways which are not part of the National Network of Highways under the authority of a special round trip overlength permit issued for the vehicle to proceed to and/or return from a single trip overlength (more than 53 foot long load or where the use of the longer trailer to move a non-divisible load would cause axle weights which would exceed the legal weight to conform to the legal limits) movement performed under permit. The permit shall state the specific route of the trip. Special round trip permits shall be trailer specific.
(e)    Permits for vehicles or loads thereon which exceed a height of thirteen and one-half (13 1/2) feet on any county road, or fourteen (14) feet on any turnpike, interstate, U.S. or state highway shall operate in accordance with Section 730:50-5-4 and 730:50-5-6 of this subchapter and no special annual permits shall be authorized for movement of any vehicle or load thereon exceeding such height on the state highway system.
(f)    Manufactured homes used in the course of construction, oil field, or seasonal farming activities may operate under authority of an annual special manufactured home permit, however, such manufactured home must comply with the provision of Oklahoma Statutes Title 47 Chapter 14 Section 103F.
(g)    Reasonable access as used in this section shall mean a distance of 5 miles measured by the most direct route of travel and not by a radius from the terminal or point of service.
(h)    Reasonable access as used in 730:50-5-6(b) may, in the discretion of the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation and consistent with safety, include two lane segments of the National Network in instances where four lane divided federal-aid primary highways which are part of the National Network are separated by a two lane segment of such highway which is not greater than 15 miles in length as designated by the Department of Transportation to the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation. Use of such two-lane segment shall only be for direct travel between the four lane divided segments of the National Network.
(i)    Applications for special oversize non-divisible load multi-trip permits for loads to be transported on a vehicle of legal dimensions shall be filed with the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation and shall specify the size of the vehicle with load; its weight; its configuration; the route or routes proposed or area of proposed operation; and such other information as the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may require. No special multi-trip permit shall be issued for a vehicle with load which is more than 10 feet 6 inches wide, more than 14 feet in height or more than 80 feet in length. The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation shall document with the application the circumstances requiring the issuance of the special multi-trip permit. For industries located near the state line as set forth in 730:50-5-6(a)(1), and regulated public utilities, an annual permit may be issued. All other multi-trip permits shall be for a period of no longer than thirty (30) days and for operation only within the area or routes designated in the application. In no event shall such special oversize multi- trip permit include an authorization for overweight operations, operations on a roadway where the width of the load exceeds the lane width, or operation not in conformance with the provisions of 730:50-5-6(a)(4) and (5). The face of the permit shall state these restrictions.
730:50-5-7.  Unitized equipment
     Unless otherwise specifically required by law:
(1)    unitized equipment, for purposes of this Subchapter, is defined as a single unit vehicle and inseparable load; and
(2)    unitized equipment exceeding 8 feet 6 inches in width, excluding both tire bulge and approved safety devices when traveling on highways of twenty feet or more in width or exceeding 8 feet 6 inches in width, excluding both tire bulge and approved safety devices, when traveling on highways of less than twenty feet in width, constitutes an overwidth vehicle and is eligible for a permit; and
(3)    unitized equipment exceeding a height of thirteen and one-half (13 1/2) feet on any county road, or fourteen (14) feet on any turnpike, interstate, U.S., or state highway; and unitized equipment having a vehicle length of more than 45 feet, exclusive of any protrusion of its unitized equipment, constitutes an overlength vehicle and is eligible for a permit; and
(4)    unitized equipment with longitudinal protrusions extending beyond the vehicle a distance in excess of two-thirds (2/3) of the vehicle's wheelbase shall only operate on the state highway system under the authority of an annual oversize permit. Protrusion length shall be measured by adding the front and rear overhang distances. Protrusions shall be properly counterbalanced with such additional weight or by a transfer of weight as may be required for equal weight distribution; and
(5)    unitized equipment, when traveling by permit, shall tow no trailer or semi- trailer.
730:50-5-8.  Special mobilized machinery, rubber-tired truck cranes and rubber-tired construction vehicles
     Unless otherwise specifically required by law:
(1)    all equipment of this class shall move upon the highways of Oklahoma only by an Annual Operating Permit in accordance with the provisions of 47 O.S. 2021,
Section 1129 and any lawful amendments thereto; and
(2)    any such equipment which is to be moved on the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways and which is oversize and/or overweight by any of the provisions of 23 U.S.C., Section 127 or 47 O.S. 2021, Chapter 14, shall in addition to the Annual Operating Permit, operate under authority of an oversize and/or overweight permit, applied for and issued in accordance with the provisions of this subchapter, or under authority of a Special Annual Oversize and/or Overweight Permit issued by the Department of Transportation. Unless otherwise provided by law, the Commission shall determine the fee for such permit; and
(3)    the weight of any special mobilized machinery, rubber-tired road construction equipment, or rubber-tired truck crane manufactured before January 1, 1994, operating under authority of a special overweight permit which vehicle is overweight as to the overall gross weight only, shall not exceed 650 pounds multiplied by the nominal width of the tire multiplied by the number of tires. Such equipment manufactured after January 1, 1994 operating under the authority of a special overweight permit for overweight by axle, group of axles, or overall gross weight shall not exceed 650 pounds multiplied by the nominal width of the tire multiplied by the number of tires. These provisions shall be effective on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways. These provisions shall also apply to such equipment operating off the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways previously, however such vehicles shall not be required to obtain a special overweight permit for operation on non-Interstate and Defense Highways.
730:50-5-9.  Special combination vehicles - permits
(a)    Unless otherwise specifically required by law, no special combination vehicle, as defined in 47 O.S. 2021, Section 14-121 and any lawful amendments thereto, shall be eligible for operation in this state except by authority of an Annual Operating Permit.
(b)    The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation is required by law to promulgate rules for the issuance of such permits and no person, firm or corporation shall operate or authorize the operation of any such vehicle unless a valid Annual Operating Permit has been issued to the owner of such vehicle by the Permits Section of the Department of Transportation, properly signed by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation or his authorized designee, and the original or certified copy thereof is available for inspection at all times in the vehicle cab. No other trailer configuration or multiple trailer combination shall be authorized or operated under said permit. Any violation of a permit provision shall constitute grounds for immediate permit suspension or revocation of said permit.
(c)    The content, requirements, and limitations of Annual Operating Permits for special combination vehicles are subject to the provisions of this subchapter and all such permits issued shall require the operation of such vehicles in accordance with the following provisions:
(1)    vehicles bearing an out-of-state license are ineligible for a permit of any type for a movement between an origin and destination, both of which are located within Oklahoma (intrastate movement), unless said vehicle is covered under an agreement between the licensing state and the State of Oklahoma which prorates the licensing and/or registration fees for such vehicles, or unless such vehicle has been temporarily licensed for operation in this state; and
(2)    no such vehicle combination shall operate under conditions of decreased visibility or when lateral winds in excess of 45 miles per hour are present or during periods when pavement surfaces are slick, icing, icy or snow packed; and
(3)    such vehicle combinations shall operate only upon the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, or other four-lane divided highways which are part of a lawfully identified federal-aid system and may operate on other routes only for purposes of reasonable access, as hereinafter prescribed, between points of origin and destination; and
(4)    reasonable access to and from terminals and for fuel, food, repairs and rest shall not exceed 5 statute miles from the vehicle's point of access to, or exit from, those highways authorized for use in paragraph (3) of this subsection and as set forth in 730:50-5-6(h); and
(5)    the maximum weight on any single axle of such vehicle shall not exceed 20,000 pounds or 600 pounds per inch and fractional part thereof of nominal tire tread width, whichever is the lesser; and
(6)    except as otherwise provided in these rules the maximum gross vehicle weight for any such vehicle and/or load shall not exceed 80,000 pounds or any of the provisions of federal Formula "B" or Table "B" when operating upon any highway of the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or 90,000 pounds or any of the provisions of federal Formula "B" or Table "B", when operating on other state highways as are authorized in paragraph (3) of this section for use by such vehicles; and
(7)    in no case shall any trailer or semi-trailer be placed ahead of another trailer or semi-trailer which carries a 5,000 pound or more heavier load. The heaviest trailer or semi-trailer shall be placed in front and the lightest at the rear. An empty trailer or semi-trailer must not precede a loaded trailer or semitrailer; and
(8)    no vehicle, trailer or semi-trailer used in such combination vehicle shall exceed 8 feet 6 inches in width, exclusive of both tire bulge and approved safety devices, or 14 feet in height, or 29 feet in length; and
(9)    vehicles or combinations thereof with cargo carrying capacity exceeding 95 feet shall not be eligible for such special combination vehicle permit.
(d)    All special Annual Operating Permit holders and drivers must comply with the latest Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations [49 CFR Parts 390-397] of the U.S. Department of Transportation.
(e)    The driver must at all times during operation of said vehicle be under the control and supervision of the holder of the special Annual Operating Permit.
(f)    Failure to comply with any of the provisions of this Section shall constitute grounds for the immediate suspension or revocation of the Annual Operating Permit in a manner prescribed by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation. Any suspension of said permit shall remain in effect for a period of not less than 6 months. Any revocation of said permit shall be for a period of not less than 1 year.
(g)    Special combination vehicle permits shall be truck tractor specific.
730:50-5-10.  Permits on toll facilities (turnpikes)
(a)    The Oklahoma Transportation Commission has no lawful authority to establish rules for the issuance of oversize or overweight permits for movement of vehicles upon toll facilities not a part of the State Highway System; however, the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may apply the provisions of this subchapter to such facilities, subject to approval by the Oklahoma Turnpike Authority.
(b)    All highway approaches to, or exits from, toll facilities which are not a part of the State Highway System, but which have been constructed with public funds by the Oklahoma Department of Transportation, shall be subject to the provisions of this subchapter.
730:50-5-11.  Movements of military oversize and/or overweight vehicles
(a)    The routine peacetime non-emergency movement of oversize and/or overweight military vehicles or equipment shall comply with the provisions of this subchapter. Marked military vehicles and equipment shall be considered as non-divisible for the purposes of permitting. Marked military equipment which may be transported as a non-divisible load is equipment or material directly related to a combat or defense mission. It does not include general purpose items such as household furniture or office equipment even though marked and owned by the military. Marked military vehicle includes only vehicles actually owned and operated by the military and does not include vehicles operating under lease or contract to the military.
(b)    The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may establish rules in general consonance with the rules contained herein for life threatening emergencies, covering the issuance of military oversize and/or overweight vehicle movements under wartime conditions or in the event the President of the United States and/or the Governor of Oklahoma declares an emergency to exist which requires that such movements be allowed.
730:50-5-12.  Movements of oversize and/or overweight vehicles during a life-threatening emergency
(a)    For purpose of this subchapter, "Disaster" includes flood, tornado, fire, or any other large scale emergency situation that causes or threatens to cause the loss of life or destruction or damage to property of such magnitude as to seriously endanger the public health, safety, or welfare, or causes or threatens destruction of or major damage to any transportation system.
(b)    During major emergencies, authorization may be obtained from the Department of Transportation Permit Office for the emergency movement of necessary vehicles and/or loads which exceed the maximum legal dimensions and weight limitations, to or within the emergency area without a standard oversize or overweight permit; however, normal permit requirements shall be observed unless otherwise authorized. During regular office hours, the Department of Transportation Permit Office shall be contacted for assistance in routing. When the Permit Office is closed, the Communications Center of the Department of Public Safety (405/425-2424) will contact Permit officials for permit authorization. All movements made on emergency authorization are required to obtain the applicable permit or permits on the next Department of Transportation working day.
(c)    Following the emergency, unless otherwise authorized, the vehicles and/or loads shall be moved from the disaster area under normal permit, conditions, and authority. The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may issue an emergency authorization or permit for movement to an emergency and return on the same route to the point of origin. The permit or authorization for vehicles going to the emergency may also allow night, weekend, or holiday travel. The permit or authorization to return to the point of origin may also allow daytime weekend or holiday travel.
(d)    In the event an area has been declared a disaster area by the President or Governor, manufactured homes may be authorized to move into the area without a standard permit; provided, the 16 feet maximum width limitation shall apply when traveling on routes of the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways. The manufactured homes must be owned by the victims of the disaster or otherwise brought into the area for public relief purposes. If the units are furnished by the Federal Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), the Permit Office of the Department of Transportation will generally authorize movement in conformance with the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials' National Policy; the Permit Office may include such additional restrictions in its authorization as are considered necessary. Movements under this emergency authorization are required to obtain the appropriate permit or permits on the next business day.
(e)    The emergency movement of vehicles and/or loads to railroad derailments may be authorized on state highways during periods when normal permits are restricted, provided:
(1)    a loss of life is threatened, or hazardous materials are involved, or a mainline railroad or other major rail line or transportation facility is blocked; and
(2)    during normal working hours, the emergency service company shall obtain standard permits by contacting a Department of Transportation Permit Office. If the emergency occurs when the Permit Office is closed, the emergency service company may, if authorized, obtain a permit through the Oklahoma permitting system under established rules. A representative shall contact the Department of Public Safety Communications Center (405/425-2424) to request emergency movement authorization. The information required before authorization will be granted includes the permit number, location of the incident, time of occurrence, description of equipment needed and the origin and requested routing of the movement. If loss of life is threatened or any major transportation facility is blocked, Permit Officials may waive the requirement for certain items of such information.
730:50-5-13.  Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit
(a)    The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may issue an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit in accordance with 47 O.S. § 14-103G, to a specific vehicle, for the movement of non-divisible oversize or overweight vehicles or loads as defined in 47 O.S. § 14-107(4). Unless otherwise noted, permits issued under this rule are subject to the conditions described.
(1)    Vehicle Permit Dimensions
(A)    A vehicle transporting an oversize or overweight non-divisible load operating under an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit may not exceed any of the following:
(i)    12 feet in width;
(ii)    14 feet in height;
(iii)    110 feet in length;
(iv)    120,000 pounds gross weight.
(B)    Except as provided in section (c) of this rule, the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit will be issued for these dimensions and weights.
(2)    A vehicle transporting an oversize or overweight non-divisible load operating under an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit may not transport a load that has more than 25 feet of front overhang, or more than 30 feet of rear overhang.
(3)    The fee for an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit is $4,000, and is non- refundable.
(4)    The Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall be valid for a period of one year beginning on the date of issue stated on the permit.
(5)    An Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit authorizes operation of the permitted vehicle only on the state highway system.
(6)    The permitted vehicle is not permitted travel on any part of the Interstate Highway System. Further, the permitted vehicle may only be operated on routes shown as "green" routes on the current Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map. The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation shall provide a copy of this rule and a copy of the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map to the permittee when the permit is issued. The permittee assumes the responsibility for assuring that the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map in its possession is current. The most current edition of the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map may be found on the Oklahoma Department of Transportation's website. The permittee also assumes responsibility for obtaining the Vertical Clearance of Bridge Structures Map from the Department of Transportation and assuring the map is correct. The most current edition of the map may be found on the Oklahoma Department of Transportation website. The permittee is also responsible for determining the location of any construction restriction. Construction restrictions may be found on the Department of Transportation Size and Weight Permit website.
(7)    The vehicle or vehicle combination operating under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit must be registered in accordance with 47 O.S. § 1151A(4), for not less than the maximum weight allowed.
(8)    A permit issued under section 14-103G or this rule is non-transferable.
(9)    A permit issued under section 14-103G or this rule may be transferred from one vehicle to another vehicle in the permittee's fleet provided:
(A)    the permitted vehicle is destroyed or otherwise becomes permanently inoperable, to an extent that it will no longer be utilized, and the permittee presents proof that the negotiable certificate of title or other qualifying documentation has been surrendered; or
(B)    the certificate of title to the permitted vehicle is transferred to someone other than the permittee, and the permittee presents proof that the negotiable certificate of title or other qualifying documentation has been transferred from the permittee.
(b)    The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may issue an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit to a specific motor carrier, for the movement of a vehicle transporting an oversize or overweight non-divisible load as defined in 47 O.S. § 14-107(4). Unless otherwise noted, permits issued under this section are subject to the conditions described in section (a) (1-8) of this rule. A permit issued under section 14-103G or this rule may be transferred from one vehicle to another vehicle in the permittee's fleet provided:
(1)    that no more than one vehicle per permit is operated at a time; and
(2)    the original certified permit is carried in the vehicle that is being operated under the terms of the permit.
(c)    The Executive Director of the Department of Transportation may issue an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit for vehicles transporting turbine blades used for the purpose of wind power generation. Unless otherwise noted, permits issued under this section are subject to the conditions described in section (a) (1-8). A vehicle operating under this permit may not exceed a cargo length of one hundred sixty (160) feet when transporting the turbine blades. The permit shall be valid only when the vehicle is transporting the blades.
(d)    An Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit issued under section (a), (b) or (c) of this rule will be sent to the permittee via registered mail, or at the permittee's request and expense, by overnight delivery service. This permit will be replaced only if:
(1)    the permittee did not receive the original permit within seven business days after its date of issuance;
(2)    a request for replacement is submitted to the Department of Transportation within 10 business days after the original permit's date of issuance; and
(3)    the request for replacement is accompanied by a notarized statement signed by a principle or officer of the permittee acknowledging that the permittee understands the permit may not be duplicated or altered, and that if the original permit is located, the permittee must return either the original or replacement permit to the Department of Transportation Size and Weights Permit Office.
(e)    A request for replacement of a permit issued under section (a), (b) or (c) of this rule will be denied if the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation can verify that the permittee received the original.
(f)    Lost, misplaced, damaged, destroyed, or otherwise unusable permits will not be replaced. A new permit will be required.
(g)    No duplication or alteration of the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit is authorized. The permit shall be issued on title quality or better paper and shall have a raised gold or similar seal. Any duplication or alteration of the permit by any means voids the permit.
(h)    Operation of a vehicle under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit authorized by 47 O.S. § 14-103G or this rule on an Interstate Highway or a route not listed as a "green" route on the current Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit Map, except as provided in section (n) of this rule, voids the permit.
(i)    Operation of a vehicle under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit during the hours of darkness in violation of 47 O.S. § 14-101(F) voids the permit.
(j)    Operation of a vehicle under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit in excess of any limit set forth in section (a) (1) or (2) of this rule voids the permit, except as provided herein. If the violation of section (a) (1) does not exceed one thousand (1,000) pounds on any axle, or group of axles or the gross weight of the vehicle, the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall not be valid for that move only and the permit remains valid for additional moves. The one thousand (1,000) pound allowance is cumulative among the axles and groups of axles so that the total allowance in no event shall exceed one thousand (1,000) pounds.
(k)    Axle Weight Limitations
(1)    No axle on a vehicle operating under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall exceed any of the following:
(A)    Steer axle 600 lbs. x the nominal inch per tire tread width x number of tires, not to exceed a maximum of 15,000 lbs.
(B)    Single axle 20,000 lbs. per axle.
(C)    Tandem (2) axle groups 40,000 lbs. / 20,000 per axle, not less than 4 tires per axle.
(D)    Triple (3) axle groups 60,000 lbs. / 20,000 per axle, not less than 4 tires per axle.
(2)    Except as provided for in subsection (j), operation of a vehicle under the authority of an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit in excess of the weights set forth in this section or Appendix A voids the permit.
(l)    Annual Envelope Vehicle Permits are valid only on the State highway system. Operation of the equipment on city streets or county roads may require additional authorization from local officials.
(m)    Operators of vehicles operating under an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall comply with the holiday restrictions of 47 O.S. § 14-101G.
(n)    Operators of vehicle operating under the Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall comply with the curfew restrictions in Oklahoma, Tulsa and Cleveland Counties which are set forth in Department of Transportation rule OAC 730:50-5-1(1). Violation of these curfew restrictions voids the permit.
(o)    Operators of vehicles operating under Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall comply with the weather restrictions set forth in 730:50-5-1(4).
(p)    The Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit is not valid for the operation of unitized equipment or special mobilized machinery. Use of the permit for the movement of unitized equipment or special mobilized machines voids the permit.
(q)    Operators of vehicles operating under an Annual Envelope Vehicle Permit shall comply with the escort requirements set forth in Department of Transportation rule 730:50-5-18(b).
(r)    The operator of any vehicle shall, upon request, surrender a voided permit to any commissioned law enforcement officer. Upon receipt of a surrendered permit, the officer shall return the permit to the Department of Transportation Size and Weights Permit Office.
730:50-5-14.  Government agencies
(a)    Military moves.
(1)     Special permission. All movements by the Armed Forces and the National Guard must be in compliance with the size and weight limits contained in 47 O.S. §§ 14-103 and 14-109, unless an authorization has been issued by the Size and Weight Permit Division, or an emergency has been officially declared by the President or the Governor. In the event an official emergency is declared, telephone contact should be made with the Oklahoma City Size and Weight Permit Office by calling toll free 405-425-7012 during regular office hours or the Oklahoma Highway Patrol Communications Center by calling 405-425-2323 at other times.
(2)     No-cost authorization. If it is necessary to move a vehicle or load which cannot be reasonably dismantled or disassembled and transported within the legal size and weight limits, an application for authorization to make the movement must be submitted to the Oklahoma City Permit Office. Application may be on Department of Defense standard forms, by letter, or by electronic communications. If the Oklahoma City Permit Office determines the move can be made in safety without damaging the highway system, a no-cost authorization will be issued.
(3)     No-Cost authorization. The Oklahoma City Permit Office will review requests for routine military convoy movements, which are submitted on standard military forms, and issue a Military No-Cost Authorization for all approved oversize and overweight vehicles and loads which are included. These authorizations do not relieve the Armed Forces or National Guard from overall responsibility for the convoy movement.
(b)    City, county, state, and federal agencies.
(1)     Compliance. City, county, state, and federal agencies must comply with the provisions of 730:50-5-14(a)(1).
(2)     No-cost authorization. If it is necessary to move a vehicle or load which cannot be reasonably dismantled or disassembled and transported within the legal size and weight limits, an application for authorization to make the movement must be submitted to the Oklahoma City Permit Office. If the Oklahoma City Permit Office determines the move can be made safely without damaging the highway system, a no-cost authorization will be issued.
(3)     ODOT and OTA No-Cost Authorization. The Oklahoma Department of Transportation and the Oklahoma Turnpike Authority are required to obtain oversize overweight fleet permits at no cost for agency fleet vehicles moving to, from and engaged in highway maintenance and construction activities.
730:50-5-15.  "Oversize Load" sign and warning flags
(a)     "Oversize Load" sign. All oversize vehicles and loads moving under permit must have the regulation "Oversize Load" sign attached to the front of the towing vehicle and on the rear of the load or towed vehicle, whichever extends the farthest. The "Oversize Load" signs shall not be displayed on a vehicle that is of legal dimensions. Regulation "Oversize Load" signs must meet the following requirements:
(1)     Color. The sign shall consist of a yellow background with black lettering.
(2)     Size. The sign shall be at least five (5) feet long and at least fourteen (14) inches high. The letters shall legible from a distance of at least fifty (50) feet and shall be at least eight (8) inches high using a one and one-eighth (1 1/8) inch wide brush stroke.
(3)     Placement of sign. The sign mounted on the rear of the load or the towed vehicle whichever extends the farthest must be as high as practicable from ground level. For manufactured homes, the sign must be no lower than five (5) feet from ground level. If an escort vehicle is required, the regulation "Oversize Load" sign shall be mounted either on the roof or on the front of the escort vehicle, if movement is on two-lane highways or super two-lane roadways, or on the rear or on the roof of the escort vehicle, if movement is on multi-lane roadways.
(4)     Wording. The wording shall state "Oversize Load".
(5)     Sign material. The sign shall be made of a durable material.
(b)     Warning flags. All overwidth and overlength vehicles and loads moving under permit, excluding extra-length vehicle combinations, shall be marked by warning flags. All loads which overhang the rear of the vehicle or trailer by four (4) feet or more shall be marked by warning flags. Warning flags must meet the following requirements:
(1)     Color. Each flag shall be a solid red or fluorescent orange.
(2)     Size. Each flag shall be at least eighteen (18) inches by eighteen (18) inches.
(3)     Placement of flags. Flags shall be placed at the four (4) corners of the vehicle or load and on the extremities of the vehicle or load, if applicable, in the following manner:
(A)     Front. Two (2) flags required: a flag shall be fastened to each front corner or extremity of the vehicle or load, whichever extends the farthest, if the width requires the vehicle or load to be permitted.
(B)     Rear.
(i)     Overwidth. Two (2) flags required: a flag shall be fastened to each rear corner or extremity of the vehicle or load, whichever extends the farthest, if the width requires the vehicle or load to be permitted.
(ii)     Overlength. If the rear overhang of the load extends beyond the end of the vehicle by four (4) feet or more:
(I)    One (1) flag required: a flag shall be fastened at the extreme rear of the load if the width of the load projection is two (2) feet or less.
(II)    Two (2) flags required: a flag shall be fastened to each rear corner of the load if the width of the load projection is more than two (2) feet.
(C)     Side. Flags required: A flag shall be fastened in such a manner so as to mark any extremity of size which is wider than the front or rear of the vehicle or load, whichever is wider.
730:50-5-16.  Requirements for escort vehicles and escort vehicle operators
(a)     General requirements for escort vehicles. Any vehicle to be used as an escort vehicle must be either a pickup truck of not less than one-quarter (1/4) ton rated load capacity or an automobile of not less than 2,000 pounds. The escort vehicle must be properly licensed under the statutes of the State of Oklahoma [47 O.S. § 1101 et seq.] or properly licensed in another state If commercially licensed, an escort for an intrastate move must obtain a temporary registration from the Oklahoma Tax Commission Motor Vehicle Registration Division.
(b)     Identification of escort vehicles. The owner of an escort vehicle must have displayed on each side of the escort vehicle the name, city and state of the escort vehicle company or operator, or the owner of the escort vehicle, or both. Such identifying markings must be:
(1)    Plainly legible and visible to the motoring public.
(2)    Readily legible during daylight hours from a distance of fifty (50) feet while the vehicle is stationary.
(3)    Kept and maintained in a manner to preserve legibility.
(4)    In a color or colors which sharply contrast with the background on which they are placed.
(c)     Equipment of escort vehicles. An escort vehicle must carry the following items of equipment at all times when escorting an oversize/overweight vehicle or load:
(1)     Flags. Red flags shall be at least twelve (12) inches square and shall be attached to standards angled upward to the left and right at forty-five (45) degrees and mounted on the top of the cab. No flags shall be displayed unless the escort vehicle is actually engaged in escorting.
(2)     Mirrors. The vehicle shall be equipped with an outside rear-view mirror on each side of the vehicle.
(3)     Radio. Escort and towing vehicles shall be equipped with a two-way radio which is capable of transmitting and receiving voice messages over a minimum distance of one (1) mile and which is compatible with radios in the escorted vehicle and any other escort vehicle(s).
(4)     Fire extinguisher. One (1) ten-pound or two (2) five-pound ABC fire extinguishers. Extinguishers shall be checked annually to ensure they are operational.
(5)     Flares or reflectors. Four (4) LED type flares, three (3) traffic cones or three
(3)    portable triangle reflector units.
(6)     Sign. The regulation "Oversize Load" sign, as provided in 730:50-5-15(a), except that sign shall be at least ten (10) inches high, shall be mounted either on the front or the roof of front escort vehicles and on the rear or on the roof of the rear escort vehicle while escorting an oversize vehicle or load. The sign shall be clearly visible without an obstruction. No signs shall be displayed unless the escort vehicle is actually engaged in escorting.
(7)     Warning lights. One AAMVA-approved rotating or flashing amber beacon or a flashing amber light bar system shall be mounted on top of the escort vehicle and shall be of sufficient intensity when illuminated to be visible from five hundred (500) feet in normal sunlight, and shall rotate, oscillate, or flash through 360 degrees. Blue lights are strictly prohibited and, red, or white rotating lights are not authorized under Oklahoma statutes. In addition:
(A)    Headlights of escort vehicles shall be lighted at all times during movement.
(B)    Warning lights in conformance with 47 O.S. § 12-220(B) may be used in conjunction with the headlights.
(C)    No warning lights shall be displayed unless the escort vehicle is actually engaged in escorting.
(8)     Measuring pole. A current height measuring pole made of non-conductive, flexible, non-fragile material when escorting a load or vehicle which is fifteen (15) feet and nine (9) inches or more in height.
(9)     Traffic control sign. Two (2) "STOP" and "SLOW" paddle signs at least 18" inches in diameter with letters at least 6" high with a reflective surface which meets standards set by the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices.
(10)     Safety clothing. A hard hat and a jacket or vest, both of which meet standards set by the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices, for each person who may be assigned to traffic control, setting reflectors or any other duties conducted on or near a roadway.
(11)     Flashlight. At least one operating handheld flashlight that is visible for at least 500 feet.
(12)     Spare tire. A full-size spare tire for the escort vehicle, tire jack and lug wrench.
(d)     Prohibitions when operating escort vehicles. The escort vehicle shall not:
(1)    Carry any item, equipment, or load in or upon the vehicle which:
(A)    Exceeds the height, length, or width of the vehicle, overhangs the escort vehicle; or otherwise impairs its immediate recognition as an escort vehicle by the motoring public.
(B)    Impairs the view of the operator of the escort vehicle or the escorted vehicle.
(C)    Obstructs the view of signs or flags used by the escort vehicle or causes safety risks to the motoring public.
(D)    Impairs the performance of the escort vehicle.
(2)    Tow any trailer or other vehicle, except that an escort vehicle operator not required to be certified by the Department may tow a trailer when escorting a manufactured home. Such trailer shall not exceed eight and one-half (8 1/2) feet in width and twenty (20) feet in length with siding not to exceed four (4) feet in height measured from the bed of the trailer. The trailer may only be used to transport supplies and equipment necessary to carry out the mission of escort vehicle operators [47 O.S. § 14-120.1(C)] and shall not be used to carry other supplies, equipment, or cargo.
(3)    The operator of the escort vehicle shall not perform as a tillerman or steerman while performing escort operations. A passenger in the escort vehicle may act as a steerman. For purposes of this paragraph, "tillerman" means a person who is physically located on the CMV, has a valid commercial driver license and who operates by remote control or other means any axle of the CMV; "steerman" means a person who is not physically located on the CMV, not required to have a valid commercial driver license, and who operates by remote control or other means any axle of the CMV.
(e)     Duties of escort vehicle operators.
(1)     Traffic control. In the performance of duties as the operator of an escort vehicle, the operator is authorized to direct traffic to stop, slow down or proceed in situations where such direction is necessary to allow traffic or the escorted vehicle or load to continue moving safely. Pilot/Escort operators must be trained and certified to perform the above duties according to MUTCD (Section 6E.01 Qualifications for Flaggers.
(A)    The operator of the escort vehicle shall require the escorted vehicle or load to stop, and the escorted vehicle shall move as far off of the roadway as practicable and stop to allow other traffic to pass, under the following conditions:
(i)    When the escorted vehicle or load becomes disabled.
(ii)    When the movement of the escorted vehicle or load on a particular section of roadway presents a safety risk or unreasonable risk to or unreasonably interferes with the efficient movement of other traffic, based upon such factors as the widths of the escorted vehicle or load, roadway, volume of traffic, limited visibility, or mountainous terrain.
(iii)    When driving conditions for the escorted vehicle or load are hazardous for any reason including weather.
(B)    When the escorted vehicle or load stops, the escort vehicle operator shall direct other traffic past the escorted vehicle or load as necessary until such time as the escorted vehicle or load can reenter the roadway and continue moving without presenting a safety risk or unreasonably interfering with efficient movement of other traffic.
(C)    Escort vehicle operators when performing escort duties shall have their driver's license and escort certification on their person and present them for inspection at the request of any law enforcement officer.
(2)     Escort vehicle operation.
(A)    The operator of an escort vehicle must comply with all applicable traffic laws of this state and with the requirements of this Chapter when escorting a vehicle on all routes of the state highway system, including but not limited to the Dwight D. Eisenhower National System for Interstate and Defense Highways, all turnpikes, and such other roads, streets, or public ways that the Oklahoma Department of Transportation shall deem appropriate.
(B)    On two-lane highways, the first escort vehicle will travel far enough to the front and the second escort vehicle, if required, will travel far enough to the rear of the escorted vehicle or load to timely warn approaching motorists. On multi-lane highways, the first escort vehicle will travel far enough to the rear of the escorted vehicle or load to timely warn motorists approaching from the rear.
(C)    The operator of an escort shall not:
(i)    possess, use, or be under the influence of alcohol, or have any measurable alcohol concentration within four (4) hours before or at any time while operating or in actual physical control of any escort vehicle.
(ii)    use alcohol or be under the influence of alcohol within 4 hours before going on duty or while operating or having actual physical control of an escort vehicle; or
(iii)    use alcohol, be under the influence of alcohol, or have any measured alcohol concentration or detected presence of alcohol, while on duty, or operating, or in physical control of an escort vehicle.
(iv)    Operate an escort vehicle and be in possession of wine, beer, or distilled spirits.
(v)    be on duty and possess, be under the influence of, or use, any of the following drugs or other substances:
(I)    Any Title 63 O.S. §2-204 Schedule I substance;
(II)    An amphetamine or any formulation thereof;
(III)    A narcotic drug or any derivative thereof; or
(IV)    Any other substance, to a degree which renders the driver incapable of safely operating a motor vehicle.
(f)     Insurance. Each certified escort vehicle operator who operates in interstate commerce, and on and after August 1, 2012, each certified escort vehicle operator, shall maintain a valid insurance policy issued by an insurance company currently authorized to issue policies of insurance covering risks in the State of Oklahoma, and proof of insurance shall be carried in the escort vehicle at all times. The insurance policy shall protect the public against loss of life, bodily injury to persons, and damage to property, as evidenced by a current certificate of insurance, including any applicable endorsement, which indicates that the operator, or the operator's employer, has in full force and effect insurance coverage for bodily injury or property damage, or both, as a result of the operation of the escort vehicle or of the actions of escort vehicle operator, or of both, causing the bodily injury or property damage, or both, arising out of an act or omission by the escort vehicle operator relating to the escort duties required by this chapter. The insurance shall be no less than $1,000,000 combined single limit or $1,000,000 per occurrence, or both, of commercial liability coverage, as applicable, and must be maintained at all times during the term of the certification.
730:50-5-17.  Certification of operators of escort vehicles for hire
(a)     Requirements. Every person who drives an escort vehicle for hire to escort a permitted over-dimensional load or vehicle in this state must be certified by the Department of Transportation. To be certified, the person must meet the following requirements:
(1)    Be at least eighteen (18) years of age.
(2)    Possess a valid driver license from the state or jurisdiction in which the person is a resident.
(3)    Submit an application for certification to the Size and Weight Permit Division of the Department of Transportation on the form provided by the Department of Transportation. The application must contain all required information including a driving record issued within the immediately preceding thirty (30) days.
(4)    Attend a course in escort vehicle certification, as prescribed by the Department of Transportation, and successfully pass the escort vehicle certification examination.
(b)     Course and examination. The course will be taught by the Oklahoma State University Center for Local Government Technology. Courses will be taught at locations throughout the state. Class size shall be determined by Oklahoma State University Center for Local Government Technology. Locations, times, and enrollment information are available by calling (405) 744-6049, or online at clgt.okstate.edu.
(c)     Certification. The Department of Transportation will grant a certification card to any person who completes an escort vehicle course prescribed by the Department of Transportation, passes the escort vehicle certification examination with a score of seventy-five percent (75%) or higher, and satisfies all other requirements.
(1)    The term of the certification shall be for a maximum period of five (5) years, subject to subsection (d), and shall expire automatically five (5) years after the date of issuance. Upon expiration of the certification, the operator must again comply with the requirements in (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of this Section before the Department of Transportation will issue a new certificate.
(2)    Operators must notify the Department of Transportation, Size and Weight Permit Division in writing within thirty (30) days of any change of address or name.
(d)     Denial or withdrawal of certification. The following circumstances shall result in denial or withdrawal of certification:
(1)    Failure to satisfy the requirements of or failure to give required or correct information on the application for certification as an escort vehicle operator, or the commission of any fraud in making the application.
(2)    Violation of rules established by the certifying state.
(3)    Suspension, revocation, cancellation, or denial of the driver license of the certified operator. The certified operator shall notify the Department of Transportation, Size and Weight Permit Division, within five (5) days of any such suspension, revocation, cancellation, or denial, and shall provide the Division a copy of the Order from the Department of Public Safety documenting the suspension, revocation, cancellation, or denial of the driver license.
(e)     Hearing. Any party aggrieved by the denial or withdrawal of certification under this Section may request a hearing, in writing, with the Department of Transportation by sending the hearing request to the Office of General Counsel, 200 N.E. 21st, Oklahoma City, OK 73105.
(f)     Certification by other states. An escort vehicle operator shall possess an Oklahoma certification, unless the escort vehicle operator is a resident of a state other than Oklahoma which has a reciprocal agreement with Oklahoma recognizing escort vehicle operator certifications issued by that state [47 O.S., §14-120.1(E)] and is in possession of a currentescort vehicle operator certification issued by that state. Under all circumstances, an escort vehicle operator who is an Oklahoma resident shall have an Oklahoma certification.
730:50-5-18.  Oversize vehicles and loads
(a)     General. Permitted oversize vehicles and loads shall be subject to the following conditions and restrictions:
(1)    The applicant for a permit must provide the length, height, and width of the vehicle or combination of vehicles and load requiring a permit.
(2)    Date and time of travel shall be permitted as provided for in 47 O.S. §14-101 and in 730:50-5-1.
(3)    Certain highways and areas may be designated for use or prohibited from use for a limited time, due to events which would impede traffic conditions.
(4)    An escort vehicle or vehicles will be required as provided in (b) of this Section or as provided in 730:50-5-19 for manufactured homes.
(b)     Escorts for oversize loads.
(1)    Loads greater than twelve (12) feet in width but not more than fourteen (14) feet in width are required to be accompanied by a front escort vehicle on two-lane highways and on super two-lane highways and by a rear escort on multi-lane highways with the required "Oversize Load" sign and flagging on the front of the towing vehicle and on the rear of the load or the towed vehicle, whichever extends the farthest.
(2)    Loads more than fourteen (14) feet in width are required to be accompanied by two escort vehicles, one in the front and one in the rear, on two-lane highways or super two-lane highways. A rear escort is required on all multi-lane highways. All loads more than sixteen (16) feet in width are required to be accompanied by two escort vehicles, one in the front and one in the rear, on all roads and highways. The required "Oversize Load" sign and flagging is required on the front of the towing vehicle and on the rear of the load or the towed vehicle, whichever extends the farthest.
(3)    Loads with an overall height of fifteen (15) feet and nine (9) inches or more are required to be accompanied by two escort vehicles, one in the front and one in the rear. The required "Oversize Load" sign and flagging is required on the front of the towing vehicle and on the rear of the load or the towed vehicle, whichever extends the farthest. All public utilities and railroads along the route must be contacted in advance of the move by the permittee. Measuring Pole (Height Pole) shall be meet the requirements as provided by 730:50-5-16(8).
(4)    A truck-tractor/semi-trailer combination which is more than eighty (80) feet in overall length is required to be accompanied by one front escort on two-lane highways. A combination other than a truck-tractor/semi-trailer which is more than eighty (80) feet in overall length is required to be accompanied by one front escort on two-lane highways or super two-lane highways.
(5)    A truck-tractor/semi-trailer combination or any other combination of vehicles which is more than one hundred (100) feet in overall length is required to be accompanied by two escort vehicles, one in the front and one in the rear, on two- lane highways and super two-lane highways.
730:50-5-19.  Manufactured homes and industrialized housing
(a)     General provisions for manufactured homes. Permits for movement of manufactured homes and industrialized housing shall require the "Oversize Load" sign and flagging in accordance with 730:50-5-15. Other requirements are:
(1)    Oversize movement is subject to the provisions of 47 O.S. §14-101 and 730:50-5-1(1).
(2)    The towing vehicle must be at least fourteen (14) feet from bumper to bumper, or have a wheelbase of at least one hundred eighteen (118) inches to tow a manufactured home or industrialized housing at least twelve (12) feet but not more than sixteen (16) feet in width. All towing vehicles must have dual wheels on the drive axles. If the manufactured home is less than twelve (12) feet wide, the towing vehicle must be a truck of at least three-quarter (3/4) ton capacity. If the manufactured home is twelve (12) feet wide or more, the towing vehicle must be of at least two (2) ton capacity.
(3)    Red flags and the "Oversize Load" sign are required as provided in 730:50-5-15.
(b)     Manufactured homes not more than ten (10) feet wide. Manufactured homes not more than ten (10) feet wide and with an overall length which exceeds seventy (70) feet are required to have an overwidth permit. The towing vehicle must be a truck with a rated capacity of three-quarter (3/4) ton or more. The regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging are required, as provided in 730:50- 5-15. An "Oversize Load" sign shall be placed on the front of the towing vehicle and the rear of the manufactured home.
(c)     Manufactured homes at least twelve (12) feet wide but not more than fourteen (14) feet wide. For manufactured homes at least twelve (12) feet wide but not more than fourteen (14) feet wide, the towing vehicle must be a truck of at least two (2) ton rated capacity, with dual rear wheels. A front escort is required on all two-lane and super two-lane roads and highways. A rear escort is required on all multi-lane highways. The regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging are required, as provided in 730:50-3-15. An "Oversize Load" sign shall be placed on the front of the towing unit and the rear of the manufactured home. The towing vehicle must maintain a minimum speed of 40 mph on all multi-lane highways if conditions are favorable. The load must not extend more than one foot on each side at the eaves.
(d)     Manufactured homes more than fourteen (14) feet wide but not more than eighteen (18) feet wide. Manufactures homes more than fourteen (14) feet wide but not more than eighteen (18) feet wide will be issued permits in accordance with 47 O.S. §14-103A. The towing vehicle must be a truck of at least two (2) ton rated capacity, with dual rear wheels. Both front and rear escorts are required on all two-lane and super two-lane roads and highways. A rear escort is required on all multi-lane highways. The regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging are required, as provided in 730:50-5-15. An "Oversize Load" sign shall be placed on the front of the towing unit and the rear of the manufactured home. Manufactured homes of this width will not be permitted to travel on any turnpike but will be permitted on the Dwight D. Eisenhower System of Interstate and Defense Highways. The towing vehicle must maintain a minimum speed of 40 mph on all multi-lane highwaysif conditions are favorable. The load must not extend more than one foot on each side at the eaves.
(e)     Manufactured homes more than eighteen (18) feet wide. Manufactured homes more than eighteen (18) feet will be issued permits in accordance with 47 O.S. § 14-103A. Manufactured homes more than eighteen (18) feet shall not be permitted for movements on the Dwight D. Eisenhower System of interstate and defense highways. The towing vehicle must be a tandem-axle truck of not less than two hundred twenty (220) horsepower. Both front and rear escorts are required on all two-lane and super two-lane roads and highways. A rear escort is required on all multi-lane highways. The regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging are required on the front of the towing unit and the rear of the manufactured home. Manufactured homes of this width will not be permitted to travel on any turnpike. The towing vehicle must maintain a minimum speed of 40 mph on all multi-lane highways if conditions are favorable. The load must not extend more than one foot on each side at the eaves.
730:50-5-20.  Portable buildings
     Movement of portable buildings requires the following:
(1)    The towing vehicle for portable buildings not exceeding fourteen (14) feet in width shall be any type of truck. For portable building exceeding fourteen (14) feet in width, but not exceeding sixteen (16) feet in width, the towing vehicle must be a ¾-ton truck.
(2)    Portable buildings must meet the same provisions for escorts and the regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging, as provided in 730:50-5-15, as are required for manufactured homes [see 730:50-5-19 regarding these provisions].
730:50-5-21.  Industrialized housing, houses, and buildings
     Permits for house or building movement will be issued in accordance with 47 O.S. §14-103C.
(1)    The maximum width will not exceed thirty-two (32) feet at the base and thirty-four (34) feet at the top. The height shall not exceed twenty-one (21) feet on any state or federal highway.
(2)    Travel shall be on highways and at times and dates determined by the Department of Transportation and consistent with public convenience and safety, as specified on the permit. Permits will be issued in accordance with 47 O.S. §14- 101 et seq.; provided, the structures shall not be moved on Saturday or Sunday.
(3)    Loads which are fourteen (14) feet or more in width, or in excess of eighty (80) feet in overall length must have two escorts with a flag person.
(4)    House movers will be required to notify any railroad company across whose railroad a house or building is to be moved of the date, time of the anticipated crossing and obtain the train schedule. In all cases when overhead lines are present and the load is fifteen (15) feet and nine (9) inches or more in height, the house mover will be required to notify any affected utility or railroad company in advance of the anticipated move, so overall safety measures can be taken, and flag person(s) can be provided.
(5)    Any structure in excess of sixteen (16) feet in width, the towing unit shall be a tandem-axle truck of no less than two hundred twenty (220) horsepower.
730:50-5-22.  Agriculture permits
     Agriculture permits shall be governed by 47 O.S. §14-118(e).
(1)    Transporting of raw forest products shall not be permitted on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways and shall require:
(A)    An annual permit with a fee of Twenty-five Dollars ($25.00)
(B)    Truck and trailer information shall be given to the Size and Weight Permit Division of the Department of Transportation.
(C)    The regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging are required, as provided in 730:50-5-15.
(2)    Transporting of round baled hay requires:
(A)    An annual permit with a fee of Twenty-five Dollars ($25.00).
(B)    Truck and trailer information shall be given to the Size and Weight Permit Division of the Department of Transportation.
(C)    The regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging are required, as provided in 730:50-5-15.
(3)    Transporting of soil conservation equipment requires:
(A)    An annual permit with a fee of Twenty-five Dollars ($25.00).
(B)    Truck and trailer information shall be given to the Size and Weight Permit Division of the Department of Transportation.
(C)    Travel on the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways shall not be permitted.
(D)    The regulation "Oversize Load" sign and flagging are required, as provided in 730:50-5-15.
730:50-5-23.  Unitized equipment
(a)    To obtain unitized equipment permit or endorsement to an oversize permit, the following information is required:
(1)    make and model of vehicle,
(2)    vehicle length (truck),
(3)    wheelbase measurement,
(4)    protrusion measurements (front and rear),
(5)    measurement of lowest point of protrusion above road surface.
(b)    The protrusion shall bear luminous tape sufficient to warn the public of the extent of the protrusion.
730:50-3-24.  Special mobilized machinery
(a)    Permits for special mobilized machinery as defined in 47 O.S. §1-165 and authorized by 47 O.S. §14-118 shall be issued upon application and approval, when such application is accompanied by a certificate of registration or receipt of ad valorem fees paid for such special mobilized machinery. Permit holders shall operate in accordance with the safety requirements of the Oklahoma statutes relating to motor vehicle operations and required equipment found in 47 O.S., Chapters 11, 12, and 74 and any related provision of this subchapter.
(b)    Permits for oversize and/or overweight special mobilized machinery shall be issued upon proper application and approval, under authority of 47 O.S., §§ 14- 103, 14-118 and this Chapter. Machines that exceed twelve (12) feet in width and fifteen (15) in height shall not be authorized an annual oversize permit. All oversize equipment shall display the regulation "Oversize Load" sign on the front and rear of the equipment.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  Special Combination Vehicles
730:50-7-1.  General provisions
(a)     Defined. Special combination vehicles are defined and subject to 47 O.S. § 14-121, and the Department of Transportation rules pertaining to the movement of oversized and/or overweight vehicles and loads within this state. Annual permits issued shall be specific to the power unit.
(b)     Return to Department of Transportation. Any operator that disposes of or removes a Special Combination Vehicle from operation shall return the issued permit for that particular vehicle to the Department.
(c)     Service of notice. Any notice required by law or by the rules of the Department of Transportation to be served upon any holder of a Special Combination Vehicle Permit shall be served personally or mailed to the last known address of such person as reflected by the records on file with the Department of Transportation. Notice is deemed complete ten (10) days after mailing. It is the duty of every permit holder to notify the Department of Transportation, Size and Weight Division, in writing, as to any change in the address of such person or his principal place of business.
730:50-7-2.  Issuance of permits
     The requirements for issuance of special combination vehicle permits are the following:
(1)     Where to apply. Application shall be made to the Director of the Size and Weight Permit Division, Department of Transportation, 200 N.E. 21st Street, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73105, on a form prescribed by the Department.
(2)     Cost. A completed and signed application will be accompanied by a tender of an annual fee of Two Hundred Forty Dollars ($240.00) for each permit issued.
(3)     Number. One permit is required for each special combination vehicle.
(4)     Expiration. Permits will expire one year from the date of issuance.
(5)     Refunds. Refunds for unused portions of issued permits will not be made.
(6)     Renewal. The filing of an application for permit or renewal of same does not authorize operation. Operation may only commence after the issuance of a permit by the Department of Transportation.
730:50-7-3.  Denial, modification, suspension, and revocation of permits
(a)     Failure to qualify. The Department of Transportation may deny or cancel a permit of any applicant or current permit holder who fails to qualify for the issuance of a permit as provided in this Chapter, Oklahoma Tax Commission rules or State Law.
(b)     Violation. The Department of Transportation may deny, cancel, modify, suspend or revoke a permit of any holder who has committed a violation of any of the provisions of this Chapter.
(c)     Minor disqualification. Where the Department of Transportation determines that minor disqualification and/or violation exists which may be readily rectified by the applicant, holder or driver, the Department of Transportation may informally notify such party by mail or telephone of such minor disqualification or violation, with a request for compliance within a specified period of time. If such party fails to rectify the minor disqualification or violation, the Department of Transportation may proceed according to other provisions of this Chapter, and 730:50-5-9(f) which states: Failure to comply with any of the provisions of this Section shall constitute grounds for the immediate suspension or revocation of the Annual Operating Permit in a manner prescribed by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation. Any suspension of said permit shall remain in effect for a period of not less than six (6) months. Any revocation of said permit shall be for a period of not less than one (1) year. [OAC 730:50-5-9(f)].
(d)     Denial. In addition to all other provisions of this subchapter any Special Combination Vehicle Permit may be denied, suspended, revoked, or modified, in whole or in part when:
(1)    The applicant makes a false statement on the application for a permit.
(2)    The applicant fails to provide valid and applicable information on the application for a permit.
(3)    The applicant fails to submit the applicable permit fee as required.
(4)    The Department of Transportation determines that the applicant cannot comply with the requirements of this Chapter, Oklahoma Tax Commission rules or State Law.
(5)    The applicant failed to comply with or obtain a previous Special Combination Vehicle Permit.
(e)     Procedures. In the event that the Department of Transportation has determined that a permit should be denied, suspended, revoked or canceled for any reason, the following procedures shall apply. [75 O.S. §301 et seq.]:
(1)    The Department of Transportation shall send written notice containing all information required [75 O.S §309] to the concerned applicant or permit holder. Notice will be made as provided in 47 O.S §2-116. Notice will set forth the specific reasons for and the particular action which will be taken.
(2)    The notice shall provide that the Department of Transportation action shall become effective twenty (20) days after mailing unless the licensee timely files a written request for a hearing with the Department of Transportation's Size and Weight Permit Division. Such request shall be timely when filed prior to the effective date of the Department of Transportation action.
(3)    If a timely hearing is requested, such hearing shall be scheduled not less than seven (7) days nor more than fifteen (15) days from the date the Department of Transportation receives the request. The hearing will be held at the Department of Transportation Size and Weight Permit Division in Oklahoma City or at another location set by the Department of Transportation and agreeable to all parties.
(4)    A hearing officer shall be designated by the Executive Director of the Department of Transportation and each party shall be afforded an opportunity to be heard and to present evidence. [75 OS Section 304, et seq.]
(5)    The scope of the hearing shall be confined to the specific reasons for the particular action, all of which will be set forth in the notice letter.
(6)    The hearing officer shall render a decision thereon based upon the law and evidence presented.
(7)    The decision of the hearing officer becomes final after ten (10) days from the date of its entry, unless written request under the provisions of 75 O.S §317, is timely made.
(8)    If applicant or permit holder fails to appear at the scheduled hearing without good cause, the hearing officer shall record the nonappearance and enter an order reflecting the effective date.
(9)    If the Department of Transportation representative fails to appear without good cause, the hearing officer shall record the nonappearance and enter an order of dismissal of the Department of Transportation action; such order of dismissal shall be without prejudice if the basis for the action constitutes noncompliance or a continuing violation of the rules of this Chapter.
(10)    Where a timely written request for a rehearing, reopening or reconsideration of the case is received, the Department of Transportation action shall be stayed until a final order has been entered, except as provided in (11) of this Subsection.
(11)    Department of Transportation action shall become effective immediately where:
(A)    An original application for a permit is denied for failure to qualify.
(B)    The Department of Transportation finds that the health, safety, or welfare of the public imperatively requires such action and a finding to the effect is incorporated in its order. [75 O.S §314].
(12)    Each party shall be notified of each action taken by the hearing officer.
730:50-7-4.  Equipment requirements
     Each licensee shall insure that the operation of special combination vehicles complies with the following rules in addition to other equipment requirements established by state or federal laws or rules:
(1)     Power. All truck-tractors shall be powered to provide adequate acceleration and hill climbing ability under normal operating conditions, and to operate on level grades at speeds compatible with other traffic. The ability to maintain a minimum speed of 40 mph under normal operating conditions on any grade over which the combination is operated is required.
(2)     Traction. All truck-tractors shall have adequate traction to maintain a minimum speed of 20 mph under normal operating conditions on any grade over which the combination is operated and to be able to resume a speed of 20 mph after stopping on any such grade and, except in extreme road or weather conditions, to negotiate at any speed all grades encountered.
(3)     Tires. Stiff sidewall tires are recommended. Adequate tread and safe condition is required.
(4)     Fifth wheel. A heavy duty fifth wheel is required. All fifth wheels must be clean and lubricated with a light duty grease at all times while operating in this state.
(5)     Pick-up plates. Pick-up plates must be of equal strength to the fifth wheel.
(6)     King pin. The kingpin must be of a solid type and permanently fastened. Screw out or folding type kingpins are prohibited.
(7)     Pintle hook and eye. All hitch connections must be of a no-slack type, preferably air actuated ram. Air actuated hitches which are isolated from the primary air transmission system are recommended.
(8)     Drawbar. The length of the drawbars (a beam which serves as a point of connection for some trailers) shall be consistent with the clearance required between trailers for turning and backing maneuvers.
(9)     Axles. Axles must be those designed for the width of the body.
(10)     Brakes. All braking systems must comply with state and federal requirements. In addition, fast air transmission and release valves must be provided on all trailers, semi-trailers and converter dolly axles. A brake force limiting valve, sometimes called a "slippery road" valve may be provided on the steering axle if Federal Motor Carrier Safety regulations would so allow. Indiscriminate use of engine retarder brakes is prohibited.
(11)     Mud flaps or splash guards. As required by state law. [47 O.S. §12-405.3]
730:50-7-5.  Operation of special combination vehicles
     The procedures established below shall be followed when operating a special combination vehicle in this state:
(1)     Minimum distance. A minimum distance of 500 feet shall be maintained between Special Combination Vehicles and other vehicles except when overtaking and passing. Except when passing another vehicle in the same direction, or when emergency conditions exist, a Special Combination Vehicle shall remain at all times in the right hand outside lane.
(2)     Disabled vehicle. In the event a Special Combination Vehicle is disabled for any reason other than an accident, it shall be parked as far off the travelled roadway as possible and proper warning devices displayed as required by state law.
(3)     Explosives, poisons and radioactive materials. Transportation by Special Combination Vehicles of Class A and B explosives, Class A poisons and Class 1, 2 and 3 radioactive material or any other Material deemed to be unduly hazardous by the Department of Transportation is prohibited. This prohibition does not include the transportation of gasoline, fuel, oil or heating oil, or such petroleum products.
730:50-7-6.  Stability
     All multiple trailer combinations must be stable at all times during normal braking and normal operation. A multiple trailer combination when traveling on a level, smooth, paved surface must follow in the path of the towing vehicle without shifting or swerving more than three inches to either side when the towing vehicle is moving in a straight line.
730:50-7-7.  Weight
     The total weight on any single axle shall not exceed 20,000 pounds. The total axle weight on any tandem axle shall not exceed 34,000 pounds. The total weight on any group of two or more consecutive axles shall not exceed the amounts shown in 23 U.S.C Section 27. All Special Combination Vehicles must be properly registered.
730:50-7-8.  Load sequence
     The heaviest trailer or semi-trailer should be placed in front and the lightest at the rear whenever possible and practicable. In no case shall either trailer or semi-trailer be placed ahead of another trailer or semi-trailer which carries an appreciably heavier load. An empty trailer or semi-trailer shall not precede a loaded trailer or semi-trailer.
SUBCHAPTER 9.  National and Regional Permits
730:50-9-1.  Regional Permits
(a)    The Department of Transportation adopts by reference the agreement entered into between the Department of Transportation and the Western Association of State and Highway Transportation Officials (WASHTO), as well as the Guide for Uniform Laws and Regulations Governing Truck Size and Weight Among the WASHTO States, for the future issuance of multi-state permits for single-trip non-divisible loads in accordance with said agreement.
(b)    The Department of Transportation adopts by reference the agreement entered into between the Department of Transportation and SASHTO, as well as the Agreement on Multi-State Permitting of Oversize and Overweight Vehicles to consider a single, routine, uniform mechanism for processing multi-state single trip permits for oversize and/or overweight vehicle combinations which are within the standards and specifications of the agreement.

APPENDIX A.  Dual Lane Axles  [NEW]
730_50A1R.tif
[OAR Docket #23-594; filed 6-23-23]

TITLE 777.  Statewide Virtual Charter School Board
CHAPTER 10.  Statewide Virtual Charter Schools
[OAR Docket #23-570]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 3. Statewide Virtual Charter School Sponsorship
777:10-3-3 [AMENDED]
777:10-3-4 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Statewide Virtual Charter School Board; 70 O.S., §§3-145 et seq.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 9, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 16, 2022, through January 18, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 24, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 29, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The rule changes consist of adding clarification language; adding language regarding requirements of the sponsorship contract; adding language regarding tiered school oversight process; clarification language regarding performance framework for designated alternative education sites.
CONTACT PERSON:
Rebecca L. Wilkinson, Executive Director, SVCSB, 2501North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK 73105-4599, 405-522-0717, Rebecca.Wilkinson@svcsb.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308 (E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Statewide Virtual Charter School Sponsorship
777:10-3-3.  Applications to sponsor statewide virtual charter schools; renewal and termination of contracts for sponsorship of statewide virtual charter schools
(a)     Sponsorship application cycle and timelines. To ensure that timely processing, review, and consideration of applications for sponsorship occurs within the time periods specified by 70 O.S. § 3-134, and to ensure that the application process is completed with sufficient time for new schools to comply with all statutory reporting requirements for the beginning of the next school year, (e.g., statutory state finance reporting deadlines for state aid purposes) the timeline for the application cycle for the following school year is as follows:
(1)    Completion of charter school training required by 70 O.S. § 3-134(A) prior to submission of letter of intent to submit an application;
(2)    Submission of a full application for statewide virtual charter school sponsorship in January, eighteen (18) months prior to the first year of proposed operation;
(3)    Public presentation of application/proposal for sponsorship at the next regularly scheduled Statewide Virtual Charter School Board meeting;
(4)    Review of application and recommendation by a team of experts in education;
(5)    Statewide Virtual Charter School Board decision on application for sponsorship at a subsequent Board meeting;
(6)    Submission of an amended application within thirty (30) calendar days of receipt of notification of rejection;
(7)    Board decision on amended application, if applicable, within thirty (30) calendar days of receipt of amended application; and
(8)    Negotiation and execution of a contract for sponsorship.
(b)     Sponsorship application requirements. In addition to meeting the requirements of 70 O.S. § 3-134, new applications to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board for sponsorship of a statewide virtual charter school must include the following information in the sponsorship proposal:
(1)    For initial consideration for sponsorship, every applicant shall submit a set of policies and procedures governing administration and operation of the proposed statewide virtual charter school. The policies and procedures governing administration and operation of the proposed statewide virtual charter school shall be incorporated into the terms of the contract of the virtual charter school, and shall include, but are not limited to, all of the following subject areas:
(A)    Each of the following provisions required by 70 O.S. § 3-135:
(i)    A description of the charter school program offered by the school which complies with the purposes outlined in 70 O.S. § 3-136;
(ii)    Student admission and enrollment policies and procedures;
(iii)    Management and administration of the charter school;
(iv)    Requirements and procedures for program and financial audits;
(v)    All of the requirements set forth in 70 O.S. § 3-136, including, but not limited to, compliance with all regulations of the State Department of Education pertaining to health, safety, civil rights, and insurance and financial reporting and auditing requirements;
(vi)    Assumption of liability by the charter school; and
(vii)    Employment rights and personnel policies of the school required to be included in employee contracts pursuant to 70 O.S. § 3-135(B);
(B)    Duties and responsibilities of the charter school governing body;
(C)    Student grade placement, promotion, retention, and graduation requirements;
(D)    Use and maintenance of charter school property and facilities, including:
(i)    Virtual provider technology protocols that ensure conformity to the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Sections 504 and 508 provisions for electronic and information technology, W3C's Web Content Accessibility guidelines, and Oklahoma's Information Technology Accessibility Standards to include minimum and recommended specifications for hardware, software, operating system, and Internet service, course delivery, and technical support;
(ii)    Facility safety and emergency and crisis management;
(iii)    School calendar, sample daily schedule as applicable to online learning at proposed school, school instructional hours, school holidays, dismissals and closures, attendance requirements;
(E)    Contracts with prospective contractors, including, but not limited to, any educational management organization, in which all products and services as well as all management fees are specifically listed and explained; and
(F)    Any other topics deemed necessary by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board to assess the applicant's capability to administer and operate the charter school in compliance with all applicable provisions of federal and state laws and regulations to which charter schools are required to comply.
(2)    Each applicant shall:
(A)    Articulate the vision and purpose of the school.
(B)    Articulate the mission of the school, specifying how the school will embrace and accomplish its vision and purpose.
(C)    Describe the key design elements and performance indicators of the school program that align with and support the school's mission and will be implemented to ensure student success.
(D)    Describe how the school will ensure education access and equity for all eligible students.
(E)    Describe how the governing body and governing documents ensure that a functioning organization with competent governance will be sustained, including:
(i)    lines of authority;
(ii)    leadership roles and responsibilities;
(iii)    proposed governing by-laws;
(iv)    meeting schedules for governing body;
(v)    a list of advisory bodies;
(vi)    external organizations applicable to school management;
(vii)    make-up of governing body, including proof of Oklahoma residency for a majority of Board members.
(viii)    start-up plan including a detailed listing and reporting frequency of academic, operational, and financial measures;
(ix)    recruitment, hiring and personnel policies, professional and staff development and training, technology capacity, system accessibility, student records and data management, student recruitment policies and procedures, admission and enrollment policies and procedures (including minimum and maximum enrollment for each contract year and proposed school calendar and sample daily schedule), promotion and graduation policies and procedures, attendance policies and procedures, student conduct and discipline plan, school safety and emergency response plan, parent and family education and engagement plan;
(x)    school effectiveness measurement criteria; and
(xi)    location and description of school facilities.
(F)    Describe how the governing body will ensure a sound and stable financial condition for the school, including:
(i)    description of the roles and responsibilities of the treasurer and financial officers, and how each has demonstrated experience in school finance or the equivalent thereof;
(ii)    financial policies, including financial controls, and compliance with audit requirements;
(iii)    financial plan for the first five years of operation including, but not limited to, any financial support from a third-party including loans, deficit protection, and other financial leverage;
(iv)    start-up and five-year budgets and cash flow projections. The documents provided must account for the school's anticipated enrollment, as well as, a budget if the school only realizes a portion of the school's anticipated enrollment;
(v)    anticipated fundraising plan, if applicable;
(vi)    insurance coverage/plan; and
(vii)    verifiable proof of secured funds for each source of revenue, and documentation to support any agreement, donation, or loan that supports the budget.
(G)    Describe how the governing body will ensure the delivery of a high-quality education program that meets academic performance for grade level and subject matter growth and proficiency, graduation, and college career readiness, including, but not limited to:
(i)    grade levels served;
(ii)    plan for program delivery and program evaluation;
(iii)    curriculum and instructional model, including learning environment, curriculum overview, curriculum materials, instructional strategies, equipment and technology requirements, alignment with Oklahoma academic standards, which must include historical data and evaluation of the selected curriculum and instructional model, accreditations earned, and NCAA course certification status;
(iv)    student assessment, including plan to measure and report student progress, and benchmarks for student learning, district/school assessments, Oklahoma School Testing Program;
(v)    plan for support structures (e.g. online tutoring, home mentors, and technical support services in place 24x7) in addition to teacher support;
(vi)    plan for support of diverse learners, (students at-risk for poor learning outcomes, academically behind learners, English Language Learners (ELL), and other students identified through testing and assessments requiring targeted remediation, intervention, and/or support);
(vii)    co-curricular and extracurricular activities;
(viii)    student performance; and
(ix)    school culture.
(H)    Include a concise plan that details expected school growth and how the school will evolve to meet the needs of school growth.
(I)    Demonstrate the applicant's experience in pre-kindergarten through 12th grade school operation.
(3)    Each applicant shall provide documentation of its school's ability to meet each of the following requirements specific to the virtual delivery of education services:
(A)    That each statewide virtual charter school is adequately prepared to deliver services to all enrolled students on the school's first day of operation and for all required instructional hours for every school year through a stable virtual platform;
(B)    That each statewide virtual charter school has consistent lawful procedures in place governing admission, transfers, enrollment, and withdrawal of students;
(C)    That each statewide virtual charter school has consistent lawful procedures in place governing admission, child find responsibilities, evaluation, and re-evaluation of students with disabilities, as well as applicable procedural safeguards and policies and procedures to ensure provision of free appropriate online and other educational and related services, supplementary aids and services, modifications, accommodations, supports for personnel, and other technical supports provided in the least restrictive environment to students with disabilities and/or other special needs in compliance with applicable federal and state laws and regulations, including:
(i)    Students who require or may require individualized education programs pursuant to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA); and
(ii)    Students who require or may require accommodations, regular or special education and related aids, or other services under a plan developed in accordance with the requirements of Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 and Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act;
(D)    That each statewide virtual charter school has consistent procedures in place governing the admission, identification, evaluation, re-evaluation, parental notification, and provision of educational programs and services in compliance with applicable federal and state laws and regulations to students with special needs or unique abilities, including, but not limited to:
(i)    Students who are English Language Learners/Limited English Proficient and who require services as necessary to overcome language barriers and ensure that they can participate meaningfully in the district's education programs; and
(ii)    Students who meet the definition of "gifted and talented children" set forth in 70 O.S. § 1210.301;
(E)    That each statewide virtual charter school complies with state and federal law in protection and handling of student records and data, including, but not limited to, protocols for secure storage and transmission of student records and data, parent/legal guardian access to student records and data and privacy of student records and data in compliance with all provisions of the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 (FERPA) and the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), and ensures student records and data are exclusively the property of the school and the state of Oklahoma;
(F)    That each statewide virtual charter school has consistent procedures and technology in place necessary to monitor and report student attendance, student participation in online school activities, and any necessary instruction in accordance with the requirements of state law;
(G)    That each statewide virtual charter school has fair and consistent procedures in place to implement necessary and appropriate practices to promote and enforce student discipline that include sufficient due process protections for students facing accusations of conduct which may result in suspension and/or expulsion of a student;
(H)    That each statewide virtual charter school has consistent procedures and technology in place to ensure delivery of services and that each virtual charter school provider has an adequate plan in place for communicating emergency procedures to students in the event of technical failures of equipment and/or loss of connectivity;
(I)    That each statewide virtual charter school has consistent procedures and technology in place to ensure consistent and adequate communication with parents/guardians of students and provide student progress and academic reports to parents/guardians of students; and
(J)    That each statewide virtual charter school has provided a full description and explanation of the grade levels in which the provider intends to provide instruction and, for each charter school that offers secondary level coursework for grades nine (9) through twelve (12), whether the charter school will offer coursework as necessary to comply with the graduation requirements of 70 O.S. § 11-103.6 and accompanying regulations.
(4)    Each applicant shall provide a written plan for compliance with all state and federal financial recording and reporting requirements for state and federal funds that are applicable to public school districts, including, but not limited to, compliance with:
(A)    The School District Transparency Act at 70 O.S. § 5-135.4 et seq.;
(B)    The Oklahoma Public School Audit Law at 70 O.S. §22-101 et seq.;
(C)    Annual itemized expenditure budget and request for appropriated funds and estimate of revenues required by 70 O.S. § 5-128.1; and
(D)    Statutes and regulations pertaining to the Oklahoma Cost Accounting System (OCAS).
(5)    Each application shall include a contact name, mailing address of record, phone number, and email address of the governing body at which all written notices required by 70 O.S. § 3-134 shall be served. In the event that a change in contact information occurs during the application process, the governing body shall provide the Board with updated contact information in writing within five (5) business days of the date that the change occurs.
(c)     Filing, review, approval, and denial of charter school applications for sponsorship. All applications for sponsorship shall be submitted by the governing body of the prospective charter school to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board by filing an original and ten (10) copies, as well as an electronic version of the application with the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board. Upon receipt of an application for sponsorship, the Board shall stamp the application to record the date of receipt, and shall promptly submit written confirmation of the receipt of the application to the contact name and address of record of the governing body listed on the application.
(1)     Application format.
(A)    The text and attachments shall use standard one-inch margins, be clearly paginated, and use a readable font not smaller in type than 11 point.
(B)    A cover page shall be labeled Application for Initial Authorization and include the following information:
(i)    Name of proposed school;
(ii)    Address of proposed school;
(iii)    Contact information: name, title, phone, email address;
(iv)    Application submission date; and
(v)    Name of applicant(s) and requested sponsor.
(C)    A cover letter not to exceed two (2) pages shall provide a brief overview of the proposed school.
(D)    A clearly labeled table of contents shall be included setting forth all major sections (Foundation for the School Charter, Organizational Capacity, Financial Management, Education Program and Performance, Growth Plan), appendices, and page numbers.
(E)    Tables, graphs, and other data provided in the application shall be clearly presented and explained and shall be relevant to the text.
(F)    The application shall include signed and notarized statements from the Head of the School and the governing body members, as applicable, showing their agreement to fully comply as an Oklahoma public charter school with all statute, regulations, and requirements of the United States of America, State of Oklahoma, Statewide Virtual Charter School Board, and Oklahoma Department of Education. Specifically cite agreement to abide by the Oklahoma Open Meeting Act and the Oklahoma Open Records Act, and to guarantee access to education and equity for all eligible students regardless of their race, ethnicity, economic status, academic ability, or other factors as established by law. In addition, the head of school and governing body members, as applicable, will guarantee to establish the components necessary to begin school operations in the State of Oklahoma on July 1 of the first year, including a public administration facility, state-approved school financial system, state-approved student information system, and secured applicable connections to state reporting systems.
(G)    The application shall include documentation of applicant's completion of charter school training.
(2)     Initial review and recommendation. Prior to consideration of the application by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board, a review panel may be formed by the Executive Director for the purpose of developing a recommendation on the application to the Board for consideration. The panel, chaired by the Executive Director, may include representatives with expertise in the area of accountability, online education, school governance, accreditation, education services, technology, school finance, federal programs, education law, curriculum, instruction, special education, and student information.
(3)     Application review and criteria. In reviewing an application for sponsorship of a statewide virtual charter school, the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board shall determine whether the applicant's proposal for sponsorship complies with the provisions of 70 O.S. § 3-134 and other applicable provisions of the Oklahoma Charter Schools Act. In addition, the Board may consider any other factors demonstrating the applicant's capacity to successfully comply with the goals set forth in its vision and mission statements and applicable state, federal, tribal, and/or local statutes and regulations. Such factors may include, but are not limited to the following:
(A)    Whether the applicant can demonstrate previous experience in operation of one or more successful virtual charter schools;
(i)    If the applicant cannot demonstrate previous experience in operation of one or more successful virtual charter schools, whether applicant has sufficient resources in place to ensure compliance with applicable state, federal, tribal, and/or local statutes and regulations.
(ii)    If the applicant can demonstrate previous experience in operation of one or more successful virtual charter schools, whether applicant has a history of non-compliance with applicable state, federal, tribal, and/or local statutes and regulations either in the State of Oklahoma or in other jurisdictions.
(B)    Whether the applicant has provided evidence demonstrating financial stability in the pre-launch and operational years of the proposed school;
(C)    Whether the criteria designed to measure the effectiveness of the charter school proposed by the applicant is reasonably calculated to provide accurate benchmarks for evaluation of teacher effectiveness and student learning; and
(D)    Whether the charter school has adequate human resources, facilities, systems, and structures in place as necessary to evaluate the needs of and provide effective services to students with disabilities, English Language Learners, and gifted and talented students.
(4)     Acceptance or denial of sponsorship applications. The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board shall review and consider the application in accordance with the timeline established pursuant to (a) of this Section, provided that a final decision on the application shall be made no later than ninety (90) calendar days from the date of receipt of the application by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board. The Board shall promptly submit written notification of the decision of the Board, including reasons for rejection of the application, if applicable, to the applicant via certified mail, return receipt requested, to the address of record of the governing body designated on the application.
(5)     Reconsideration of sponsorship applications. In the event of a denial of an application for sponsorship, the applicant may submit a revised application for reconsideration in accordance with the following procedures:
(A)    The revised application for reconsideration shall be filed with the Board within thirty (30) calendar days after the date of receiving notification of the rejection. The revised application shall meet all of the application requirements set forth in this Section. In the event that delivery of written notification required by paragraph two (2) of this subsection is refused by the applicant or returned as undeliverable due to the applicant's failure to update the contact of record in accordance with the requirements of (b)(4) of this Section, the date of receipt of notification of the rejection shall be considered the date of the meeting at which the Board took action on the proposed application.
(B)    Within five (5) business days of the date of receipt of the application for reconsideration, the Board shall promptly set the application for consideration at a meeting of the Board and submit notification of the date, time, and place of the meeting to the applicant to the contact of record. The meeting to consider the application shall occur within thirty (30) calendar days of the date of receipt of the application.
(C)    The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board shall take action to accept or reject the revised application within thirty (30) calendar days of its receipt by the Board.
(6)     Appeal of denial of sponsorship applications. The procedures for filing appeals to the State Board of Education shall be governed by 70 O.S. § 3-145.3 and the policies and rules adopted by the State Board of Education, with a copy of the appeal mailed to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(d)     Requirements of the sponsorship contract. Contracts for sponsorship between the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board and the governing body of a statewide virtual charter school shall include terms that meet all of the following requirements:
(1)    The contract shall incorporate the provisions of the charter of the school in accordance with the requirements of 70 O.S. § 3-135, and the charter shall comply with the provisions of 70 O.S. § 3-136.
(2)    The contract shall contain terms addressing all of the requirements set forth in 70 O.S. § 3-135.
(3)    The contract shall contain terms setting forth measurable goals and objectives for student performance.
(4)    The contract shall contain terms specifying standards for fiscal accounting and management that ensure the compliance of the charter school with all applicable provisions of state and federal statutes and regulations pertaining to requests for appropriations and recording and reporting receipt and expenditures of public funds, including, but not limited to:
(A)    Terms providing that the charter school shall conduct annual financial audits in accordance with the requirements of the Oklahoma Public School Audit Law;
(B)    Terms providing that the charter school shall comply with all State Department of Education deadlines necessary for budgeting, calculation of appropriations, and/or disbursements of state aid, and/or federal aid;
(C)    Terms providing that the charter school shall comply with all deadlines for recording and reporting of state aid revenue and expenditures;
(D)    Terms providing that the charter school shall comply with all requirements of the Oklahoma Cost Accounting System (OCAS);
(E)    Terms providing that the charter school shall comply with all provisions of the School District Transparency Act at 70 O.S. § 5-135.4 et seq;
(F)    Terms providing that the charter school will provide any and all records of the school including, but not limited to, financial records upon request by the sponsor;
(G)    Terms providing that the charter school will provide any and all school records including, but not limited to, financial records of educational management organization upon request by the sponsor;
(H)    Terms providing that the charter school shall comply with Constitutional appropriation requirements, including but not limited to, including a non-appropriation clause in multi-year contracts with vendors conditioning such agreements upon continued legislative appropriations;
(HI)    Terms providing that the school is subject to requests for audit by the State Auditor's office;
(IJ)    Terms providing that the charter school and its governing board shall be subject to the same conflict of interest requirements as members of local school boards including, but not limited to, Sections 5-113 and 5-124 of Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes. No governing board member, school staff member, or contractor/vendor shall receive pecuniary gain, incidentally or otherwise, from the earnings of the educational management organization or school.
(5)    The policies and procedures governing administration and operation of the statewide virtual charter school shall be incorporated into the terms of the contract.
(6)    The term of the initial contract shall be effective for five (5) years from the first day of operation in accordance with the provisions of 70 O.S. § 3-137.
(7)    The term of the contract shall designate at least one contact name and address of record of the governing body of the charter school to which all notices required by the terms of the contract and/or this Section shall be served, including the name, title, mailing address, email address, and phone number of all individual(s) authorized to receive service of notices required by this Section and pursuant to the terms of the contract.
(8)    The contract shall contain any other terms necessary to ensure compliance with applicable provisions of state and/or federal law.
(e)     Renewals of contracts for sponsorship of statewide virtual charter schools. Renewal of a contract with a statewide virtual charter school sponsored by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of the Oklahoma Charter Schools Act.
(1)     Requests for renewal of contract for sponsorship. Requests for renewal of the contract for sponsorship shall be submitted by the governing body of the charter school in accordance with the following procedures:
(A)    At least one (1) year prior to expiration of the initial contract term, but no earlier than eighteen (18) months prior to the date of expiration of the contract; the governing body of the charter school may submit a proposal for renewal of the contract to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board by filing an original and seven (7) copies, as well as an electronic version of the proposal with the Board.
(B)    The Board shall schedule the request for renewal as an item on the agenda for the next regular meeting of the Board, or at a subsequent meeting if the proposal for renewal is not received until after the agenda for the next meeting has already been set. The Board shall timely submit written notice of the date, time, and location of the meeting at which the proposal for renewal will be considered and/or heard by regular mail to the governing body of the charter school at the address of record set forth in the sponsorship contract. In addition, the Board may send a courtesy copy of the notice by facsimile, and/or email. If the Board will act on the proposal for renewal at a subsequent meeting of the Board, similar notice of such meeting shall be sent to the governing body of the charter school.
(C)    The Board shall review the proposal for renewal and take action on the request for renewal no later than eight (8) months prior to the date of expiration of the contract.
(D)    The Board may base its decision to deny the charter school governing body's request for renewal upon any of the grounds for nonrenewal or termination set forth in 70 O.S. § 3-137 and/or (f)(1) of this Section.
(2)     Format for renewal application. The renewal application shall include:
(A)    Text and attachments using standard one-inch margins, clearly paginated, and using a readable font not smaller in type than 11 point.
(B)    A cover page labeled Application for Reauthorization, including the following information:
(i)    Name of school;
(ii)    Address of school;
(iii)    Contact information: name, title, phone, email address;
(iv)    Date application approved by governing body; and
(v)    Application submission date.
(C)    A cover letter no more than two (2) pages in length providing a brief overview of the school's mission, key school design elements, performance indicators and related data, and major challenges and accomplishments over the term of the current contract.
(D)    A clearly labeled table of contents setting forth all major sections, appendices, and page numbers.
(E)    Clearly labeled attachments provided in the appendix.
(F)    Clearly labeled tables, graphs, and other data provided in this application in addition to an explanation of their relevance to the text.
(G)    A signed and notarized statement from the Head of the School and the governing body members, as applicable, showing their consideration and approval of the reauthorization application and their agreement to fully comply, as an Oklahoma public charter school with all statute, regulations, and requirements of the United States of America, State of Oklahoma, Statewide Virtual Charter School Board, and Oklahoma Department of Education. Specifically cite agreement to abide by the Oklahoma Open Meeting Act and the Oklahoma Open Records Act, and to guarantee access to education and equity for all eligible students regardless of their race, ethnicity, economic status, academic ability, or other factors.
(H)    A single page entitled Introduction to the School containing, at a minimum, the following list of information:
(i)    Name of school;
(ii)    Location of school;
(iii)    Year opened;
(iv)    Year renewed, if applicable;
(v)    Maximum enrollment;
(vi)    Current enrollment;
(vii)    Grade span;
(viii)    Most recent accountability report information from the State of Oklahoma;
(ix)    Attendance rate;
(x)    Graduation rate;
(xi)    Recurrent enrollment;
(xii)    Dropout rate;
(xiii)    Percentage of at-risk students enrolled; and
(xiv)    Any other information the school deems necessary to include.
(3)     Information in renewal request.
(A)    In addition to the information found in the performance report, and the school's response to the performance report, if any, this reauthorization application is the school's opportunity to address each of the following components highlighting what the school believes is most important in each area:
(i)    Faithfulness to the foundation of the charter;
(ii)    Organizational capacity;
(iii)    Financial management;
(iv)    Education program and performance;
(v)    Strategic planning; and
(vi)    Corrective Action Plan (if required).
(B)    Appendices. Provide documents and related information for the term of the contract beyond those provided in the performance report and response, including examples of community and parent support of the school.
(4)     Performance report and site visit. The sponsor of the school will issue a school performance report in accordance with State statute. The school shall have forty-five (45) calendar days to respond to the performance report and submit any corrections or clarifications for the report. In evaluating a school's renewal request, the Board may consider the performance report, results of a site visit, and evidence provided in the school's presentation to the Board.
(5)     Notice of intent of non-renewal of contract for sponsorship. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph one (1) of this subsection, the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board may elect to not renew a contract for sponsorship in accordance with the following procedures:
(A)    No later than eight (8) months prior to the date of expiration of the contract. The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board shall submit written notice of its intent of non-renewal via certified mail, return receipt requested to the governing body of the charter school at the address of record set forth in the contract. The notice shall include:
(i)    A statement of any and all factual and legal grounds upon which the Board's intent to non-renew the contract is based; and
(ii)    A statement of the date, time, and location of the meeting at which the Board intends to take action on the proposed non-renewal, which shall be held no earlier than thirty (30) calendar days from the date of the notice of intent to non-renew the contract is sent to the charter school.
(B)    The Board may base its decision to non-renew the contract for sponsorship upon any of the grounds for nonrenewal or termination set forth in 70 O.S. § 3-137 and/or (f)(1) of this Section.
(C)    The procedures for filing appeals to the State Board of Education shall be governed by 70 O.S. § 3-145.3 and the policies and rules adopted by the State Board of Education, with a copy of the appeal mailed to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(f)     Terminations of contracts for sponsorship of statewide virtual charter schools. The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board may terminate the contract with a statewide virtual charter school in accordance with the following procedures:
(1)    Grounds for termination of a contract for sponsorship: At any time during the term of the contract, the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board may terminate the contract on one or more of the following grounds:
(A)    Failure to meet the requirements for student performance set forth in the terms of the contract;
(B)    Failure to meet the standards of fiscal accounting and management set forth in the terms of the contract;
(C)    Violations of applicable state, federal, tribal, or local laws, statutes, and/or regulations;
(D)    Other good cause as established by the Board, which may include, but shall not be limited to:
(i)    Failure by the governing body of the charter school, its charter school administrators, charter school personnel, and/or charter school contractors to meet reporting deadlines necessary for compliance with state or federal statutes or regulations;
(ii)    Failure by the governing body of the charter school, its charter school administrators, charter school personnel, and/or charter school contractors to accurately report student enrollment counts;
(iii)    Failure by the governing body of the charter school, its charter school administrators, charter school personnel, and/or charter school contractors to accurately report and/or classify student accountability data;
(iv)    Identification and/or designation of the charter school by the State Board of Education as consistently in need of improvement in accordance with subsection (g)(6) of Section 1003 of Title I of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (ESEA), pursuant to 70 O.S. § 1210.544;
(v)    Any material breach of the terms set forth in the contract for sponsorship; and
(vi)    Any action or failure to act by the governing body of the charter school, its charter school administrators, charter school personnel, and/or charter school contractors that presents or results in an immediate and serious danger to the health, safety, and welfare of its students.
(2)     Notice of intent to terminate contract. At least ninety (90) calendar days prior to termination of a contract for sponsorship of a statewide virtual charter school, the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board shall submit written notice of its intent to terminate the contract via certified mail, return receipt requested to the governing board of the charter school at the address of record set forth in the contract. The notice shall include:
(A)    A statement of any and all factual and legal grounds upon which the Board's intent to terminate the contract is based;
(B)    A statement of the date, time, and location of the meeting at which the Board intends to take final action on the proposed termination, which shall be held no earlier than forty-five (45) calendar days from the date the notice of intent to terminate is mailed to the charter school; and
(C)    A statement that the governing board of the school may request a hearing before the Board to present evidence in opposition to the proposed termination by delivering a written request to the Board within fourteen (14) calendar days of receipt of notice of the intent to terminate the contract that includes:
(i)    A response to the factual and legal grounds for termination set forth in the notice; and
(ii)    A summary of evidence that the school intends to submit in support of its response.
(D)    Within ten (10) calendar days of the date of receipt of the request for hearing, the Board shall schedule a hearing and submit written notice of the date, time, and location of the hearing by regular mail to the charter school's address of record set forth in the sponsorship contract. The Board may send a courtesy copy of the notice by facsimile, and/or email.
(3)     Hearing on termination. In the event that a hearing is requested pursuant to the provisions of (2)(C) of this subsection, the Board shall promptly schedule a hearing at which the statewide virtual charter school may present argument and/or evidence in opposition to the proposed termination. The Board shall prescribe the time allotted for oral argument and presentation of evidence. Upon completion of the hearing, the Board may consider the merits of the argument and presentation of evidence and take action on the proposed termination, or it may schedule action on the proposed termination for a subsequent board meeting to provide the board with further opportunity for deliberation.
(4)     Appeals of termination. The procedures for filing appeals to the State Board of Education shall be governed by 70 O.S. § 3-145.3 and the policies and rules adopted by the State Board of Education, with a copy of the appeal mailed to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(g)     Negotiation and execution of contracts for sponsorship. To facilitate and/or expedite negotiations for new contracts for sponsorship, the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board may adopt a model contract for sponsorship of a statewide virtual charter school for use by the Board and potential statewide virtual charter schools sponsored by the Board. Adoption of a model contract shall not prohibit the Board from further negotiation of contract terms or addition of terms to the contract for sponsorship prior to execution of the contract so long as such terms are in compliance with applicable state, federal, local, and/or tribal law and the provisions of this Section.
(h)     Execution of the contract. The final contract for sponsorship shall not be executed until approved by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board at a regular or special meeting. The Board may delegate authority to the Chairman to execute the approved contract for sponsorship on behalf of the Board.
777:10-3-4.  Oversight and evaluation of virtual charter schools by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board
(a)     Tiered school oversight process. The performance framework sets forth the performance indicators for authorization of virtual charter schools in the State. Schools shall meet or show evidence of significant progress toward meeting the required standard accountability indicators as a condition of continued authorization.
(1)    The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board provides a tiered school oversight process that includes a system of monitoring and oversight functions to ensure the school's compliance with all applicable laws, regulations, rules, and terms of the charter contract.
(2)    The tiered school oversight process shall provide for review, notices, warnings, probation, and closure of schools that fail to meet the standard accountability indicators. If a school does not take action to comply, the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board may proceed with steps at an appropriate level of concern.
(3)    The tiered school oversight process is designed to allow the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board to take appropriate action at any level based on each unique situation that may be identified through the performance framework or identified through another process.
(A)    The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board shall perform an annual review and evaluation of the performance of all virtual charter schools. The performance framework includes the indicators assessed and required in statute, rules, and the charter contract. The performance framework is presented annually to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board and the school's governing board in an open meeting. These indicators may identify potential concerns for further review and research.
(B)    Using the results of the performance framework, Statewide Virtual Charter School Board staff reviews and research identified potential concerns to determine the nature and severity of the concern and possible corrective actions. The school is expected to take action to remedy identified deficiency(ies).
(C)    Unresolved deficiency(ies) identified in the review and research stage of the tiered school oversight process will generate a notice of concern, issued by Statewide Virtual Charter School Board staff and sent to members of the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board and the school's governing board. Terms and timeline to resolve deficiency(ies) will be included in the notice of concern. The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board may offer support and resources.
(D)    A formal warning action to address unresolved deficiency(ies) or other serious concern(s) may be taken by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board in an open meeting. The warning shall include deficiency(ies), terms and timeline for resolution and requires the school to take action. Support and resources may be made available and/or required.
(E)    Probation is a formal action taken by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board in an open meeting and as a final opportunity for a school to resolve a deficiency(ies). A final plan from the virtual charter school is required.
(F)    Closure is a formal action taken by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board in open meeting on school who fails to resolve a deficiency(ies). It is a final action and requires the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board and the school's governing board to follow the Closure Plan.
(ab)     Oversight and annual performance review. The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board will provide ongoing oversight of the charter schools through data and evidence collection, site visits, attendance of governing board meetings, compliance checks, and school performance reviews. At the end of each year, schools will be subject to an annual performance review consisting of a compilation of performance ratings and findings based on the performance framework standards. Results will be shared with key stakeholders. The charter school will have forty-five (45) calendar to respond to the annual performance review in writing and such response will become part of the public record.
(bc)     Performance framework. The performance framework for designated virtual charter schools establishes accountability criteria and assesses schools in the areas of academic, financial, and organizational capacities.
(1)    Oklahoma performance measures will be used to assess the school's academic performance, including overall achievement, overall growth, subgroup achievement, subgroup growth, and post-secondary readiness. Academic performance accountability indicators and measurements in each category and grade level are listed below. Sub-group measures will only be applicable if the school has a minimum of ten (10) students in the sub-group.
(A)    Are students achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(B)    Are students achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(C)    Are students enrolled in the school for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(D)    Are students enrolled in the school for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(E)    Are students enrolled in the school for four (4) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(F)    Are students enrolled in the school for four (4) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(G)    Are students in the special education subgroup achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(H)    Are students in the special education subgroup achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(I)    Are students in the special education subgroup enrolled for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(J)    Are students in the special education subgroup enrolled for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(K)    Are students in the special education subgroup enrolled for four (4) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school of the charter contract term.
(L)    Are students in the special education subgroup enrolled for four (4) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(M)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(N)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(O)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup enrolled for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(P)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup enrolled for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(Q)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup enrolled for four (4) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(R)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup enrolled for four (4) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) state assessments is equal to or above the state level of proficiency; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(S)    Based on state expectations for student graduation within four years, does the school meet the expectations for student graduation? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The school's most recent graduation rate is equal to or greater than the most recent graduation rate for the State of Oklahoma; or
(ii)    The school's most recent graduation rate as reported by the State Department of Education, increased twenty percent (20%) or more of the difference between the graduation rate of the baseline year and 100% over the past two (2) years.
(T)    Based on the extended-year adjusted graduation rate, does the school meet the expectations for student graduation? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports a majority of extended-year students graduating.
(U)    Did the school meet the expectation for graduating eligible seniors (students within six (6) credits of graduation) during the most recent year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The percent of eligible seniors, students within six (6) credits of graduation, enrolled on the first day of the school year and graduating in the current school year is equal to or greater than the current graduation rate for the State of Oklahoma.
(V)    Do the school's students demonstrate College and Career Readiness? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    College:
(I)    Achieved minimum required test score for entry without taking remediation:
a. High School Transcript of a 2.0 (C average) or higher; or
b. American College Testing (ACT); or
c. Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT); or
d. Other recognized college entrance exams such as Accuplacer or the Classical Learning Test; and
(II)    Acceptance to a college or university; and
(III)    Successful completion and submission of a college FAFSA form.
(ii)    Career:
(I)    Accepted to the Military; or
(II)    Evidence of sustainable employment; or
(III)    Completed an authorizer or state approved Career and Technical Education Certificate.
(W)    Is the school's college remediation rate equal to or less than the state remediation rate? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The three-year average remediation rate of high school graduating classes indicates the school's college remediation rate is equal to or less than the state remediation rate.
(2)    Oklahoma performance measures will be used to assess the school's fiscal viability, including audit findings, quarterly financials, regulatory reporting, and compliance with all applicable statutes, laws and regulations. Financial performance accountability indicators and measurements in each category are listed below.
(A)    Did the school's most recent annual financial statement audit have findings? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): There were no findings of significant deficiencies, material noncompliance, or known fraud on the school's most recent independent financial audit.
(B)    Did the most recent annual report on internal control over financial reporting disclose any significant or material deficiencies? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): There were no findings of significant deficiencies, material weaknesses or instances of noncompliance on the most recent annual report on internal control over financial reporting.
(C)    Did the school consistently submit appropriate quarterly financial reports to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board over the most recent year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Appropriate reports were submitted in the Oklahoma Cost Accounting System (OCAS) format, verified by the school treasurer, on time, and indicating financial stability of the school.
(D)    Was the school subject to an audit by the State Auditor and Inspector and, if so, were there any findings? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): There were no findings of significant deficiencies, material noncompliance or known fraud on the school's most recent audit by the State Auditor and Inspector.
(E)    Did the school consistently meet financial reporting expectations over the most recent year, as required by the State Department of Education and confirmed by the Office of Financial Accounting, and Oklahoma Cost Accounting System (OCAS)? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The State Department of Education confirms financial reporting expectations were fulfilled over the most recent year.
(F)    Was the school's most recent fiscal year OCAS data submitted to the State Department of Education, properly certified by the school leader, and accepted by the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school submitted OCAS data for the most recent fiscal year to the State Department of Education, certified by the school leader, and accepted State Department of Education.
(G)    Did the school submit timely the most recent annual financial statement audit to the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school submitted timely the most recent financial statement audit to the State Department of Education.
(H)    Did the State Department of Education require a corrective action plan as part of their follow-up to the financial statement audit submission? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): No corrective action plan was required in the response from the State Department of Education to the most recently submitted annual financial statement audit.
(I)    If a corrective action plan was required by the State Department of Education, did the plan sufficiently address the issues and was the plan accepted by the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The corrective action plan required by the State Department of Education sufficiently addressed the issues and was accepted by the State Department of Education.
(J)    If a corrective action plan was required by the State Department of Education for the prior fiscal year, can it be confirmed that the corrective action measures were followed in the most recent fiscal year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The corrective action plan required by the State Department of Education for the prior fiscal year was followed by the school in the most recent fiscal year.
(K)    Did the school have a negative fund balance at the end of the most recent fiscal year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school did not have a negative general fund balance as of the end of the prior fiscal year.
(L)    Did the Days Cash on Hand ratio fall below thirty (30) days during the fiscal year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school maintained a Days Cash on Hand ratio of thirty (30) days or more at the end of each fiscal quarter.
(M)    Did the school fail to pay any commitments, warrants, or debts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the school paid all commitments, warrants, and debts.
(N)    Did the school maintain a fund balance of greater than ten percent (10%) of the prior fiscal year's total expenditures? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school maintained a fund balance greater than ten percent (10%) of the prior fiscal year's total expenditures measured at the end of each fiscal quarter.
(O)    Is the school's enrollment (average daily membership) for the first nine (9) weeks greater than or equal to eighty-five percent (85%) of last year's enrollment? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The first quarter statistical report indicates enrollment did not decline by more the than fifteen percent (15%) in comparison to the end of year enrollment from the prior year.
(P)    Does the school's governing board review periodic financial statements including a statement of financial position (balance sheet), statement of activities (income statement), and statement of cash flows? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the governing board reviews the school's periodic financial statements at the public governing board meetings.
(Q)    Does the school's governing board review and approve changes to the budget as significant changes to revenues and expenditures occur? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school's governing board reviews and approves changes to the budget at the public governing board meetings throughout the year as revenues and expenditures change significantly.
(R)    Does the school's governing board review financial forecasting models prior to annual budget adoption? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports
that the school's governing board participates in annual review of financial forecasting prior to budget adoption during a public governing board meeting.
(S)    Does the school's governing board review the audited financial statements and address all findings? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school's governing board reviews the audited financial statements and addresses all findings in a public governing board meeting.
(3)    Oklahoma performance measures will be used to assess the school's organizational performance including organizational structure, governance, record of compliance, attendance, recurrent enrollment, accreditation, and student support. Organizational performance accountability indicators and measurements in each category are listed below.
(A)    Is the school faithful to its mission and implementing key design elements and performance metrics within the approved charter contract? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports faithfulness to the school's mission and implementation of key design elements of school.
(B)    Does the school follow appropriate procedures to ensure all students have equitable access to services and opportunities for success? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Data confirms appropriate procedures to ensure student access and equity.
(C)    Does the school have approved and appropriate policies and procedures that ensure student and staff safety and success, and does the school communicate those policies and procedures to students/families and staff? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports approved and appropriate policies and procedures are implemented and communicated.
(D)    Does the school adhere to applicable state and federal laws and regulations? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the school adheres to state and federal laws and regulations.
(E)    Does the school adhere to the terms of the charter contract? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the school adheres to the charter contract.
(F)    Does a stable governing board exist? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports history of board stability exists.
(G)    Does the governing board recruit, select, orient, and train members with skills and expertise to enable them to govern the school appropriately? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Board agendas and minutes document board member activities.
(H)    Does the charter school comply with the Open Meeting Act and Open Records Act? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the charter school consistently complies with requirements of the Open Meeting Act and Open Records Act.
(I)    Does the charter school provide transparency through Statewide Virtual Charter School Board access to school records? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The charter school has provided the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board with all requested school records.
(J)    Does the educational management organization provide transparency through Statewide Virtual Charter School Board access to school records? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The educational management organization has provided the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board with all requested school records.
(K)    Did the school consistently meet the reporting expectations as required by the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The State Department of Education confirms reporting expectations fulfilled.
(L)    Did the school consistently meet the reporting expectations as required by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Reporting expectations fulfilled as required - ninety percent (90%) or above in both on-time and accuracy categories.
(M)    Does the school website meet the standards for transparency and documentation as mandated by the Oklahoma School District Transparency Act and requested by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school has consistently met requirements for school website as mandated by the Oklahoma School District Transparency Act and requested by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(N)    Did the school receive accreditation from the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school received accreditation with no deficiencies noted from the State Department of Education.
(O)    Does the school meet the expectations for student attendance? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the school met State expectations for student attendance.
(P)    Does recurrent enrollment of students meet expectations? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school's student recurrent enrollment rate meets the expectations indicated by the methodology used for public schools in Oklahoma.
(Q)    Does the school provide support structures for students and families that are accessible twenty-four (24) hours per day and seven (7) days per week, such as teacher support, individualized learning plans, guidance/counseling program, online tutoring, and technical support? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Students and families have access to multiple support structures twenty-four (24) hours per day and seven (7) days per week.
(R)    Does the school and governing board engage in strategic planning that results in establishment of school goals and verifiable school improvement? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school and governing board engage in strategic planning resulting in establishment of school goals and verifiable school improvement.
(4)    A Performance Framework Index will be calculated based on the following categories:
(A)    Academic (A) Calculation - (Score) * (Weight) = A with a weight of 40%.
(B)    Financial (F) Calculation - (Score) * (Weight) = F with a weight of 35%.
(C)    Organizational (O) Calculation - (Score) * (Weight) = O with a weight of 25%.
(D)    As set forth in 70 O.S. § 3-137, Performance Framework scores will guide reauthorization procedures.
(i)    A Performance Framework Index (PFI) score of 75% or higher calculated over the course of the charter contract term will result in renewal of authorization for a five (5) year term should the governing board of the charter school choose to submit a letter requesting reauthorization.
(ii)    A Performance Framework Index (PFI) score of 60-74% or higher calculated over the course of the charter contract term is expected. However, an application for renewal of authorization is required for consideration by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(iii)    A Performance Framework Index (PFI) score of less than 60% calculated over the course of the charter contract term places the charter school at risk of non-approval of the renewal for authorization. An application for reauthorization is required for consideration by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(E)    In the event data is not available, the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board will designate corresponding score with "Not Applicable".
(cd)     Performance framework for designated alternative education sites. The performance framework for designated virtual charter school alternative education sites establishes accountability criteria and assesses schools in the areas of academic, financial, and organizational capacities. Designated alternative education sites are those that conform to the program requirements set forth in 70 O.S. § 1210-568 and are designated as alternative education sites by the State Board of Education.
(1)    Oklahoma performance measures will be used to assess the school's academic performance, including overall achievement, overall growth, subgroup achievement, subgroup growth, and post-secondary readiness. Academic performance accountability indicators and measurements in each category and grade level are listed below. Sub-group measures will only be applicable if the school has a minimum of ten (10) students in the sub-group.
(A)    Are students achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(B)    Are students achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(C)    Are students enrolled in the school for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(D)    Are students enrolled in the school for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(E)    Are students enrolled in the school for three (3) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(F)    Are students enrolled in the school for three (3) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(G)    Are students in the special education subgroup achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(H)    Are students in the special education subgroup achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(I)    Are students in the special education subgroup enrolled for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(J)    Are students in the special education subgroup enrolled for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(K)    Are students in the special education subgroup enrolled for three (3) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(L)    Are students in the special education subgroup enrolled for three (3) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the special education subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(M)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(N)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(O)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup enrolled for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(P)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup enrolled for two (2) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(Q)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup enrolled for three (3) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Reading/English Language Arts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(R)    Are students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup enrolled for three (3) or more consecutive academic years achieving proficiency on statewide assessments in Math? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) totaled and averaged for all state schools designated as alternative education sites will be the baseline for comparison. The school's percentage of students scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is equal to or above the baseline; or
(ii)    The percentage of students in the economically disadvantaged subgroup scoring proficient or above at each grade level on the OSTP state assessments is improved five percent (5%) or greater compared to the prior school year of the charter contract term.
(S)    Based on the extended-year adjusted graduation rate, does the school meet the expectations for student graduation? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports a majority of extended-year students graduating.
(T)    Did the school meet the expectation for graduating eligible seniors (students within six (6) credits of graduation) during the most recent year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The percent of eligible seniors, students within six (6) credits of graduation, enrolled on the first day of the school year and graduating in the current school year is equal to or greater than the current graduation rate for the State of Oklahoma.
(U)    Do the school's students demonstrate College and Career Readiness? Meets standard accountability indicator(s):
(i)    College:
(I)    Achieved minimum required test score for entry without taking remediation:
a.1.  High School Transcript of a 2.0 (C average) or higher; or
b.2AccuplacerAmerican College Testing (ACT); or
c.3American College Testing (ACT)Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT); or
d.4Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)Other recognized college entrance exams such as Accuplacer or the Classical Learning Test; and
(II)    Acceptance to a college or university; and
(III)    Successful completion and submission of a college FAFSA form.
(ii)    Career:
(I)    Accepted to the Military; or
(II)    Evidence of sustainable employment; or
(III)    Completed an authorizer or state approved Career and Technical Education Certificate.
(V)    Are students completing courses required for grade advancement each year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The percentage of students earning at least six (6) credits per year is equal to or greater than forty percent (40%).
(W)    Are students benefiting from postsecondary and workforce readiness activities, testing, and enrollment? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the percent of students participating in one or more postsecondary and/or workforce readiness activity, testing, and/or enrollment is equal to or greater than forty percent (40%).
(X)    Are students demonstrating growth on nationally recognized social emotional standards? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the percent of students demonstrating growth on nationally recognized social emotional standards is equal to or greater than forty percent (40%).
(Y)    Are students attending individual, small group, and/or guidance counseling sessions? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the percent of students participating in counseling session is equal to or greater than forty percent (40%).
(Z)    Are students participating in displaying, creating, and/or publishing art opportunities? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the percent of students participating, creating, and/or publishing art opportunities is equal to or greater than forty percent (40%).
(AA)    Are students participating in extracurricular activities, work study, and/or service learning? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the percent of students participating in extracurricular activities, work study, and/or service learning is equal to or greater than forty percent (40%).
(BB)    Are students completing required individual career academic plan (ICAP) activities? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the percent of students completing requires ICAP activities is equal to or greater than forty percent (40%).
(CC)    Are students participating in life skill activities that extend beyond the curriculum, put relevant life skills into practice, and promote healthy living? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the percent of students participating in life skills activities is equal to or greater than forty percent (40%).
(2)    Oklahoma performance measures will be used to assess the school's fiscal viability, audit findings, financials, regulatory reporting, and compliance with all applicable statutes, laws and regulations. Financial performance accountability indicators and measurements in each category are listed below.
(A)    Did the school's most recent annual financial statement audit have findings? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): There were no findings of significant deficiencies, material noncompliance, or known fraud on the school's most recent independent financial audit.
(B)    Did the most recent annual report on internal control over financial reporting disclose any significant or material deficiencies? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): There were no findings of significant deficiencies, material weaknesses or instances of noncompliance on the most recent annual report on internal control over financial reporting.
(C)    Did the school consistently submit appropriate quarterly financial reports to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board over the most recent year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Appropriate reports were submitted in the Oklahoma Cost Accounting System (OCAS) format, verified by the school treasurer, on time, and indicating financial stability of the school.
(D)    Was the school subject to an audit by the State Auditor and Inspector and, if so, were there any findings? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): There were no findings of significant deficiencies, material noncompliance or known fraud on the school's most recent audit by the State Auditor and Inspector.
(E)    Did the school consistently meet financial reporting expectations over the most recent year, as required by the State Department of Education and confirmed by the Office of Financial Accounting, and Oklahoma Cost Accounting System (OCAS), Audits? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The State Department of Education confirms financial reporting expectations were fulfilled over the most recent year.
(F)    Was the school's most recent fiscal year OCAS data submitted to the State Department of Education, properly certified by the school leader, and accepted by the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school submitted OCAS data for the most recent fiscal year to the State Department of Education, certified by the school leader, and accepted State Department of Education.
(G)    Did the school submit timely the most recent annual financial statement audit to the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school submitted timely the most recent financial statement audit to the State Department of Education.
(H)    Did the State Department of Education require a corrective action plan as part of their follow-up to the financial statement audit submission? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): No corrective action plan was required in the response from the State Department of Education to the most recently submitted annual financial statement audit.
(I)    If a corrective action plan was required by the State Department of Education, did the plan sufficiently address the issues and was the plan accepted by the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The corrective action plan required by the State Department of Education sufficiently addressed the issues and was accepted by the State Department of Education.
(J)    If a corrective action plan was required by the State Department of Education for the prior fiscal year, can it be confirmed that the corrective action measures were followed in the most recent fiscal year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The corrective action plan required by the State Department of Education for the prior fiscal year was followed by the school in the most recent fiscal year.
(K)    Did the school have a negative fund balance at the end of the most recent fiscal year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school did not have a negative general fund balance as of the end of the prior fiscal year.
(L)    Did the Days Cash on Hand ratio fall below thirty (30) days during the fiscal year? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school maintained a Days Cash on Hand ratio of thirty (30) days or more at the end of each fiscal quarter.
(M)    Did the school fail to pay any commitments, warrants, or debts? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the school paid all commitments, warrants, and debts.
(N)    Did the school maintain a fund balance of greater than ten percent (10%) of the prior fiscal year's total expenditures? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school maintained a fund balance greater than ten percent (10%) of the prior fiscal year's total expenditures measured at the end of each fiscal quarter.
(O)    Is the school's enrollment (average daily membership) for the first nine (9) weeks greater than or equal to eighty-five percent (85%) of last year's enrollment? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The first quarter statistical report indicates enrollment did not decline by more thethan fifteen percent (15%) in comparison to the end of year enrollment from the prior year.
(P)    Does the school's governing board review periodic financial statements including a statement of financial position (balance sheet), statement of activities (income statement), and statement of cash flows? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the governing board reviews the school's periodic financial statements at the public governing board meetings.
(Q)    Does the school's governing board review and approve changes to the budget as significant changes to revenues and expenditures occur? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school's governing board reviews and approves changes to the budget at the public governing board meetings throughout the year as revenues and expenditures change significantly.
(R)    Does the school's governing board review financial forecasting models prior to annual budget adoption? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school's governing board participates in annual review of financial forecasting prior to budget adoption during a public governing board meeting.
(S)    Does the school's governing board review the audited financial statements and address all findings? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school's governing board reviews the audited financial statements and addresses all findings in a public governing board meeting.
(3)    Oklahoma performance measures will be used to assess the school's organizational performance including organizational structure, governance, record of compliance, attendance, recurrent enrollment, accreditation, and student support. Organizational performance accountability indicators and measurements in each category are listed below.
(A)    Is the school faithful to its mission and implementing key design elements and performance metrics within the approved charter contract? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports faithfulness to the school's mission and implementation of key design elements of school.
(B)    Does the school follow appropriate procedures to ensure all students have equitable access to services and opportunities for success? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Data confirms appropriate procedures to ensure student access and equity. Examples of data include, but not limited to, an equity committee; an equity audit of policies, procedures, culture, instruction, professional learning, and stakeholder perceptions and goals related to equity, inclusion, anti-racism, and identity safety; and an equity plan and policies.
(C)    Does the school have approved and appropriate policies and procedures that ensure student and staff safety and success, and does the school communicate those policies and procedures to students/families and staff? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports approved and appropriate policies and procedures are implemented and communicated.
(D)    Does the school adhere to applicable state and federal laws and regulations? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the school adheres to state and federal laws and regulations.
(E)    Does the school adhere to the terms of the charter contract? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the school adheres to the charter contract.
(F)    Does a stable governing board exist? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports history of board stability exists.
(G)    Does the governing board recruit, select, orient, and train members with skills and expertise to enable them to govern the school appropriately? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Board agendas and minutes document board member activities.
(H)    Does the charter school comply with the Open Meeting Act and Open Records Act? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the charter school consistently complies with requirements of the Open Meeting Act and Open Records Act.
(I)    Does the charter school provide transparency through Statewide Virtual Charter School Board access to school records? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The charter school has provided the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board with all requested school records.
(J)    Does the educational management organization provide transparency through Statewide Virtual Charter School Board access to school records? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The educational management organization has provided the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board with all requested school records.
(K)    Did the school consistently meet the reporting expectations as required by the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The State Department of Education confirms reporting expectations fulfilled.
(L)    Did the school consistently meet the reporting expectations as required by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Reporting expectations fulfilled as required - ninety percent (90%) or above in both on-time and accuracy categories.
(M)    Does the school website meet the standards for transparency and documentation as mandated by the Oklahoma School District Transparency Act and requested by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school has consistently met requirements for school website as mandated by the Oklahoma School District Transparency Act and requested by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(N)    Did the school receive accreditation from the State Department of Education? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school received accreditation with no deficiencies noted from the State Department of Education
(O)    Does the school meet the expectations for student attendance? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports the school met State expectations for student attendance.
(P)    Does recurrent enrollment of students meet expectations? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): The school's student recurrent enrollment rate meets the expectations indicated by the methodology used for public schools in Oklahoma.
(Q)    Does the school provide support structures for students and families that are accessible twenty-four (24) hours per day and seven (7) days per week, such as teacher support, individualized learning plans, guidance/counseling program, online tutoring, and technical support? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Students and families have access to multiple support structures twenty-four (24) hours per day and seven (7) days per week.
(R)    Does the school and governing board engage in strategic planning that results in establishment of school goals and verifiable school improvement? Meets standard accountability indicator(s): Evidence supports that the school and governing board engage in strategic planning resulting in establishment of school goals and verifiable school improvement.
(4)    A Performance Framework Index will be calculated based on the following categories:
(A)    Academic (A) Calculation - (Score) * (Weight) = A with a weight of 40%.
(B)    Financial (F) Calculation - (Score) * (Weight) = F with a weight of 35%.
(C)    Organizational (O) Calculation - (Score) * (Weight) = O with a weight of 25%.
(D)    According to 70 O.S. § 3-137, Performance Framework scores will guide reauthorization procedures.
(i)    A Performance Framework Index (PFI) score of 75% or higher calculated over the course of the charter contract term will result in renewal of authorization for a five (5) year term should the governing board of the charter school choose to submit a letter requesting reauthorization.
(ii)    A Performance Framework Index (PFI) score of 60-74% or higher calculated over the course of the charter contract term is expected. However, an application for renewal of authorization is required for consideration by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(iii)    A Performance Framework Index (PFI) score of less than 60% calculated over the course of the charter contract term places the charter school at risk of non-approval of the renewal for authorization. An application for reauthorization is required for consideration by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board.
(E)    In the event data is not available, the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board will designate corresponding score with "Not Applicable".
(de)     Submission of school data. To aid the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board in assessing whether the schools are meeting the expectations of the performance framework, schools are required to submit school data to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board through an online data collection system.
(1)    Schools must submit the requested documentation according to the instructions for the submission by the due date indicated in the online data collection system:
(A)    Current charter contract and any amendments;
(B)    Management contracts;
(C)    Lease/purchase agreements;
(D)    Annual budget;
(E)    Audit documents (audit, response, corrective action);
(F)    School performance review report response;
(G)    Annual report on school's mission and key design elements and performance indicator data;
(H)    College and career readiness report, including, but not limited to, individual career academic plans, college preparation coursework, college remediation data, dual (concurrent) college enrollment, military service commitments, internships, and industry certification and career technology programs;
(I)    Annual evaluation of each educational management organization providing services to the governing body or school;
(J)    Senior graduation report;
(K)    Current inventory report;
(L)    Quarterly financial statements;
(M)    Handbooks (student family handbook, employee handbook, other handbooks);
(N)    School calendar;
(O)    Student support documentation;
(P)    Internal assessment plan;
(Q)    School policies including, but not limited to, attendance, employment, enrollment/lottery, finance and procurement, code of ethics, and conflict of interest;
(R)    Current governing board rosters, including personal contact information;
(S)    Insurance verification;
(T)    Enrollment counts (August 1 for year one (1) schools; first day of school, monthly, and final for all schools);
(U)    Surety bond verification;
(V)    Accreditation application and status;
(W)    First Quarter Statistical Report summary;
(X)    Board meeting calendar;
(Y)    Board meeting agendas and all supporting board meeting documents submitted prior to the board meeting;
(Z)    Board meeting approved minutes;
(AA)    Final state aid and federal allocations;
(BB)    Revenue and Expenditure Report;
(CC)    Four (4) year cohort and extended-year graduation rate documents;
(DD)    Annual Statistical Report summary;
(EE)    Strategic planning documents;
(FF)    Oklahoma School Testing Program (OSTP) documentation;
(GG)    Child counts;
(HH)    Enrollment file;
(II)    Estimate of Needs (if applicable);
(JJ)    Supplemental Estimate of Needs (if applicable);
(KK)    School, governing board, and/or educational management organization litigation documents;
(LL)    State accountability report;
(MM)    School organizational chart;
(NN)    End of fiscal year student exit status report;
(OO)    Current by-laws;
(PP)    Final Employee Compensation Report;
(QQ)    College remediation data;
(RR)    School District Budgeting Act (SDBA) Budget Summary and Budget Message (if applicable);
(SS)    SDBA public hearing documentation and published notice (if applicable);
(TT)    Shared Services Agreements (if applicable);
(UU)    Monthly and all other state aid funding reports;
(VV)    Final OSTP Participation Report.
(WW)    ACT Profile Report; and
(XX)    Plan for Improvement (if applicable).
(2)    In the event submission through the online system is not possible, the school must hand-deliver hard-copy documentation to the office of the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board by the due date.
(3)    Failure to submit the documentation is grounds for termination of the contract if not cured within thirty (30) calendar days of the deadline.
(4)    Receipt of document submissions does not necessarily indicate approval of the content of the data.
(ef)     School website compliance. In order to aid in transparency, charter schools sponsored by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board will be subject to website compliance checks at any time. Each school shall maintain a website in compliance with 70 O.S. § 5-135.4 and 74 O.S. § 24-3106.2 with the following information available:
(1)    Governing board members (board member information, and office held if any);
(2)    Schedule of governing board meetings as submitted to the Oklahoma County Clerk;
(3)    Board meeting agendas;
(4)    Board meeting approved minutes;
(5)    School accountability reports;
(6)    Financial documents or a link to the Oklahoma Cost Accounting System (OCAS), in compliance with Oklahoma statute;
(7)    Total compensation package of the superintendent;
(8)    Virtual charter school Attendance Policy, in compliance with Oklahoma statute; and
(9)    Most recent audit in compliance with Oklahoma statute.; and
(10)    Enrollment capacity
(fg)     School orientation. Each statewide virtual charter school shall develop a student orientation that must be completed by each student prior to final enrollment in the school. The school shall maintain a record of completion of orientation by each student. The orientation shall contain, at a minimum, the following components:
(1)    Enrollment requirements;
(2)    Daily schedule and work expectations;
(3)    School policies, including student engagement and attendance requirements;
(4)    Student and Family Handbooks;
(5)    Communication streams (website, school and teacher connection, school administration and governing board contact);
(6)    Academic expectations;
(7)    Assessment requirements;
(8)    Social expectations;
(9)    Technology management;
(10)    Academic program management;
(11)    Student support programs and services; and
(12)    Programs specific to the school.
(gh)     Annual audits. The virtual charter schools shall change audit firms, at a minimum, every three (3) years to ensure annual audits are completed by at least two (2) different firms over the term of the charter contract. If the term of the charter contract is less than five (5) years, the school shall change audit firms at least every two (2) years, or otherwise, to ensure annual audits are completed by two (2) different firms over the term of the charter contract.
(hi)     Compliance audits. In addition to the annual financial audits, the virtual charter schools authorized by the SVCSB shall be subject to compliance audits conducted by the SVCSB at any time during the charter contract term.
[OAR Docket #23-570; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 777.  Statewide Virtual Charter School Board
CHAPTER 15.  Horizon: Digitally Enhanced CampusOklahoma Supplemental Online Course Certification
[OAR Docket #23-571]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Oklahoma Supplemental Online Course Certification [NEW]
777:15-1-2. [AMENDED]
777:15-1-3. [AMENDED]
777:15-1-5. [AMENDED]
777:15-1-6. [AMENDED]
777:15-1-7. [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Horizon Online Learning Platform and Courses [NEW]
777:15-3-1. [NEW]
777:15-3-2. [NEW]
777:15-3-3. [NEW]
777:15-3-4. [NEW]
Subchapter 5. Horizon Consortium [NEW]
777:15-5-1. [NEW]
777:15-5-2. [NEW]
777:15-5-3. [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Statewide Virtual Charter School Board; 70 O.S., §§3-145 et seq.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 9, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 16, 2022, through January 18, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
January 24, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 29, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 30, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed revision of the rule includes clean-up language; adding definition of receiver district ally; clarification language regarding course review requirements; added subsection regarding Horizon online learning platform and courses; added subsection regarding Horizon Consortium.
CONTACT PERSON:
Rebecca L. Wilkinson, Executive Director, SVCSB, 2501North Lincoln Boulevard, Oklahoma City, OK 73105-4599, 405-522-0717, Rebecca.Wilkinson@svcsb.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Oklahoma Supplemental Online Course Certification
777:15-1-2.  Definitions
     The following words and terms, when used in this Chapter, shall have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Course provider" means an entity that meets eligibility requirements and provides an online course to Oklahoma school districts.
"Course review" means the process conducted by content and pedagogical experts to ensure courses recommended for certification by the SVCSB meet the established standards.
"Oklahoma Online Course Catalog" means a publicly available listing of courses certified (or pending review) by the SVCSB available through approved Course Providers.
"Online course" means an educational course in which instruction and content are delivered primarily over the Internet. A student and teacher are in different locations for a majority of the student's instructional period, most instructional activities take place in an online environment, the online instructional activities are integral to the academic program, consistent communication between a student and a teacher and among students is emphasized, and a student is not required to be located on the physical premises of a public school district. An online course is the equivalent of what would typically be taught in one semester.
"Receiver district" means an Oklahoma public school district that has students enrolled in the district who take one or more online courses.
"Receiver district ally" means an individual(s) in the receiving district who monitors student progress in the Horizon Online Platform and serves as a liaison between Horizon faculty and staff, the student, and other stakeholders, including parents.
777:15-1-3.  Application for course certification
(a)    To have a course(s) listed in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog (OOCC), Course Providers must first be approved as vendors through the Oklahoma Management and Enterprise System (OMES) and enter into a contract with the state.
(b)    Once the online provider is registered as a state vendor, OMES and the SVCSB will negotiate and enter into a contract with the approved vendor to provide online courses at a state rate.
777:15-1-5.  Course review requirements
(a)    Online Course Providers must supply the following to have courses listed in the OOCCat the time of course review:
(1)    The name of the institution or organization providing the online content;
(2)    Course title and subject code (using appropriate course title and subject code as established by the Oklahoma State Department of Education's approved Subject Codes for the appropriate academic year);
(3)    Brief course description;Number of students who may be admitted to the course per instructor;
(4)    Grade level(s)Explanation of the alignment between Oklahoma content standards and course content and assignments;
(5)    Subject areaProtocols established to monitor student engagement and course progression,including guidelines to address non-responsive students;
(6)    Unit(s) of creditDescription of procedures for reporting students' course progression, grade and other student information to the local school district;
(7)    Course costInstructor credentials and qualifications; and
(8)    Course designations (e.g., dual-credit, AP, NCAA-eligible, Quality Matters certified);Course NCAA eligibility status.
(9)    Course prerequisites; and
(10)    Instructor credential and qualifications.
(b)    At the time of the course review, guest access to the course will be required for the reviewers. If substantive changes are made to a course since its last certification, it must be submitted for review regardless of its current status in the review cycle. Substantive changes would include altering the intended course outcomes, significantly changing instructional strategies or assessment protocols used in the course as a whole, or any revision that impacts standards alignment. Only courses certified (or pending review) by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board will be accepted into the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog.
(c)    Course Providers whose courses have undergone review and approval by a recognized third-party entity must provide the results of those reviews. Depending on the results of the external review, a course may be recommended for state certification with no additional review or with a modified review process (e.g., review only for alignment to state standards).
(d)    Course Providers of Advanced Placement (AP) courses must provide the results of their College Board AP Course Audit and Authorization. No other course evaluation will be conducted for AP Courses. If a course is authorized by the College Board as an AP course, it is automatically listed as "state-certified" in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog. Online Providers must provide evidence annually of AP Authorization Renewal.
777:15-1-6.  Course review and certification process
(a)    All approved vendors will have the online courses they submitted published in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog and reviewed according to the schedule adopted by the SVCSB.
(b)    Course reviews will be conducted by content experts and pedagogical experts selected by the SVCSB. Courses will be evaluated using rubrics to determine alignment with the current academic standards approved by the State of Oklahoma (or nationally/ internationally accepted content standards set for courses whose content is not included in state standards) and national standards for quality in online course design. Course Providers whose courses have undergone review and approval by a recognized third-party entity must provide the results of those reviews. Depending on the results of the external review, a course may be recommended for state certification with no additional review or with a modified review process (e.g., review only for alignment to state standards). Online Course Providers of Advanced Placement (AP) courses must provide the results of the AP Course Audit and Authorization. No other course evaluation will be conducted for AP Courses. Online Providers must provide evidence annually of AP Authorization Renewal.
(c)    If results of the initial review suggest that a course will not be recommended for certification, the Course Provider will be contacted with the review results and will have fifteen (15) calendar days to revise material or provide additional information pertinent to the review. These revisions will be examined by the course reviewers and, if appropriate, the rubric scores will be modified. Once the course review is complete, results of the evaluation will be presented to the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board (SVCSB). The SVCSB will consider the evidence and vote whether to certify or not certify the course. The decision will be made on a simple majority vote. If the SVCSB votes to not certify a course, the course will be removed from the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog and the Course Provider will be notified of the reasons the course was not certified. The Course Provider may revise the course and resubmit for additional Course Review and certification consideration. Resubmitted courses will be reviewed after all submitted courses have undergone an initial review. Courses approved will be certified for a five-year period. After which, Course Providers must apply for renewal. Certified courses will be identified as such and have their course review ratings published in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalogavailable on the OSOCP website. Courses pending review will be identified as such in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog.
777:15-1-7.  Certified courses remaining in good standing
(a)    To remain in good standing and have a course(s) continuously listed in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog through the entirety of the approval period, Course Providers agree to:
(1)    Maintain their vendor status.
(2)    Notify the SVCSB of any additions, deletions or changes to certified coursesby completing the online form located on the OSOCP website.
(3)    Serve all enrolled students, regardless of number enrolled in a section so that Receiver Districts have reliable course options for students.
(4)    Provide online instructors who are 1) certified in Oklahoma or another state to teach in the content area of the course offered; or 2) a faculty member at an accredited institution of higher education, possessing the specific content expertise necessary to teach the course. Additionally, the Course Provider shall supply certification or applicable credentialing documentation to the SVCSB as part of the course review process and within ten (10) working days upon the hire of any new instructors for any certified course. The Course Provider shall be responsible for such obligation regardless of whether instructors are employees of the Course Provider, independent contractors, or employees of a third-party course vendor. Course Providers shall take all steps necessary to verify the qualifications of non-employee instructors.
(5)    Notify SVCSB in writing within ten (10) working days if for any reason an online instructor no longer meets the requirements to teach a course offered. The name and credentials of the replacement instructor must also be provided at that time.
(6)    Refer only to courses currently certified and listed in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog as "Statewide Virtual Charter School Board approved."
(7)    Own, secure, and/or maintain licensure and copyright for all courses offered in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog.
(8)    Course Providers of Advanced Placement (AP) courses must provide evidence annually of AP Authorization Renewal.
(9)    Refrain from significantly modifying or changing courses without prior notice and approval from the SVCSB. Course Providers shall provide written notice of any planned modification in sufficient detail for SVCSB Course Reviewers to determine whether the course continues to satisfy all requirements. Failure to obtain written approval may result in removal of the course from the approved catalog.
(10)    Ensure that each certified course is maintained throughout the duration that the course is offered and continues to meet the current academic standards approved by the State of Oklahoma; national standards for quality in online course design; and Oklahoma's Information Technology Accessibility Standards.
(11)    Employ the appropriate course title and subject code as established by the Oklahoma State Department of Education's approved Subject Codes for the appropriate academic year for the purpose of data collection.
(12)    Report aggregate student success data to the SVSCB in the requested format and by the timeline set. The SVCSB does not collect individual student information. By August 1 of each year, the Course Provider will report the following aggregate student success data to the SVCSB:
(A)    Total number of unique Oklahoma students;
(B)    Total number of courses taken by Oklahoma students;
(C)    Number of students in each course (both overall number and Oklahoma students); and
(D)    Successful completion rate (number and percent) of each course (i.e., X#/60% of students enrolled in X successfully completed the course). Include both overall rates and Oklahoma-specific rates.
(b)    Course providers will be notified if a course(s) is found to be noncompliant and will have fifteen (15) business days after notification to bring the course(s) into compliance. If the course(s) is still noncompliant at the end of this period, the course certification will be revoked and the course will be removed from the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Horizon Online Learning Platform and Courses
777:15-3-1.  Purpose
     The Statewide Virtual Charter School Board shall manage the Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus (Horizon) online learning platform to provide high quality online learning opportunities for Oklahoma students that are aligned with the subject matter standards adopted by the State Board of Education pursuant to Section 11-103.6 of Title 70 of the Oklahoma Statutes. The Board shall implement online courses, with an emphasis on science, technology, engineering, and math (STEM) courses, foreign language courses and advanced placement courses. The online platform shall be available to all Oklahoma school districts.
777:15-3-2.  Online courses
(a)    Courses made available through the Horizon online learning platform may include, but not be limited to the following:
(1)    Online courses developed by the Statewide Virtual Charter School Board;
(2)    Online courses developed by Oklahoma public school districts;
(3)    Courses provided by online vendors; and
(4)    Concurrent enrollment courses provided through partnerships with Oklahoma institutions of higher education.
(b)    Courses made available through Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus have the following criteria:
(1)    Courses made available through Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus shall be published in the Oklahoma Online Course Catalog (OOCC) as defined in 70 O.S. § 3-145.3;
(2)    Courses made available through Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus shall be reviewed to ensure quality and alignment to adopted state standards as defined in 70 O.S.§ 3-145.3;
(3)    Unless otherwise noted at the time of enrollment, all curricular materials (i.e., textbooks are embedded within the online course; and
(4)    Courses will explicitly state communication protocols to include:
(A)    How to contact the instructor via phone, email, or online messaging tools;
(B)    How to contact technical support via email, or online messaging tools;
(C)    How to contact Horizon administration via phone or email;
(D)    Expectations for student communication beyond asynchronous participation (e.g.,periodic video sessions, attendance at virtual office hours).
777:15-3-3.  Receiver district roles and responsibilities
(a)     Student Transcripts. Students who participate in online courses through the Horizon platform remain full-time students in the receiving district. Horizon provides the instruction and communicates student progress and final grades to the receiving district, which is solely responsible for transcribing the course to the student's transcript.
(b)     Enrollment Protocols. Districts will follow the established Horizon protocols to enroll students in Horizon online courses. Contact information for district allies, parents, and students must be verified through the Horizon online learning platform by the third week of the school year to prevent students from being dropped from their Horizon courses. Information to be provided at the time of enrollment includes, but it is not limited to:
(1)    Student legal name;
(2)    Student e-mail;
(3)    Student grade level;
(4)    IEP/504 status;
(5)    Parent contact information; and
(6)    Receiving district ally(ies).
(c)     Advanced Placement (AP) Courses. Horizon provides teachers-of-record for Advanced Placement courses but does not administer the AP exams. Districts are responsible for AP exam registration and test site provision. Additionally, districts are required to link their school to the designated Horizon AP course within the College Board portal. This must be completed by the third week of the school year for students to remain enrolled in the Horizon AP course.
(d)     Payment. Districts may drop students within the first 15 days of instruction without incurring any fees. Horizon will invoice districts after the 15-day grace period. Payment shall be made within 45 days of invoice.
(e)     Academic Calendar. Courses with Horizon teachers-of-record will follow the Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus academic calendar.
(f)     Policies and Procedures. Districts agree to abide by guidelines set forth in the Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus Guidelines for Districts document and direct students to adhere to the policies in the Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus Student Handbook, including the student Code of Conduct.
777:15-3-4.  Online instructor responsibilities
(a)     Qualifications. Teachers-of-record for instructor-embedded courses shall be:
(1)    certified in Oklahoma or another state to teach in the content area of the course offered; or
(2)    a faculty member at an accredited institution of higher education, possessing the specific content expertise necessary to teach the course.
(b)     Professional Development in Online Instruction. Horizon faculty will undergo annual training to develop and maintain instructional effectiveness in an online environment. Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus will provide this training to Horizon faculty and those who serve as teachers-of-record within the Receiving District.
(c)     Communication. Horizon faculty will communicate directly with parents and school allies through the communication tools embedded within the Horizon online learning platform. At a minimum, faculty will reach out to these constituents monthly. Should concerns arise, these will be conveyed immediately and consistently. On dates school is in session, Horizon faculty will respond within 24 hours to all messages received.
(d)     Virtual Office Hours and Synchronous Video Sessions. Horizon faculty will maintain at least one virtual office hour each week. A minimum of one synchronous video learning session each quarter with learner participation is also expected.
(e)     Progress Monitoring. Horizon faculty will monitor activity in the online course platform daily and provide detailed and meaningful feedback to students on a timely basis. Progress reports will be prepared and submitted each nine weeks and upon request by Horizon or by the receiving district. Faculty will submit formal grades at end-of-semester and end-of-year for each student for transcription purposes.
(f)     Confidentiality. Horizon faculty shall maintain strict security of all student data and records, in accordance with applicable federal and State laws, rules, regulations and policies.
(g)     Policies and Procedures. Horizon faculty agree to adhere to the policies stated in the Horizon: Digitally Enhanced Campus Faculty Handbook.
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Horizon Consortium
777:15-5-1.  Purpose
     The Horizon Consortium is a network of school districts who provide access to online content and professional development through license agreements sponsored by Horizon. Title 70, Section 1210.704 of the Oklahoma Statutes mandates the provision of a statewide online learning platform to provide high quality online learning opportunities for Oklahoma students that are aligned with the subject matter standards adopted by the State Board of Education. Additionally, Title 70, Section 3-145.3 of the Oklahoma Statutes mandates state negotiation with online vendors to provide a state rate price to school districts for supplemental online courses. Further, Oklahoma Administrative Code 777:15-1-4 requires that the price offered does not exceed the lowest price at which the course is offered by use or sale to any state, public school, or school district in the United States.
777:15-5-2.  Horizon responsibilities
(a)     Contract Negotiation. Horizon will negotiate contracts with online vendors and purchase for consortium member districts all licenses. Horizon will invoice member districts the negotiated consortium state rate according to the License Commitment Form submitted by the member district.
(b)     Consortium Discounts. Horizon may deduct an additional percentage for each license purchased by consortium member districts.
(c)     Professional Development. Horizon will collaborate with member districts to coordinate professional development opportunities provided by Horizon and the online vendors. The accompanying professional development fees will be paid by Horizon.
(d)     Data Access. Horizon maintains the right to access district and student usage and success reporting data including the following: course access, student usage, course completion rates, student course disabled data, and progress by time. This data will only be used for comparative analysis and to validate modifications made throughout the school year. Individual student names will not be used in any reporting.
777:15-5-3.  District responsibilities
(a)     Access to Curriculum. Student access to curriculum content will be provided to all consortium member schools through a licensing agreement with contracted vendors or through Horizon-owned courses. Member districts will determine the individual students, their ages, and curriculum needs in providing access to virtual online content.
(b)     Compliance. Compliance with all state/federal mandates will be the responsibility of member districts.
(c)     Technology Provisions. Member districts must provide, at their expense, any required servers, equipment, and computers to be used by students when accessing content on-site.
(d)     Software Access and Training. Horizon assumes no responsibility for the use of software access as applied by member districts. Professional Development and training are provided to member districts by Horizon and online vendors. Member districts will ensure participation by appropriate personnel.
(e)     Student Transcripts. Member districts are responsible for transcription of online course credits for its students. Horizon is not responsible for awarding credits.
(f)     Communication. Member districts will provide a primary and secondary point-of-contact for all communications with Horizon.
(g)     Payment. Member districts will place initial orders by June 30. Horizon will invoice member districts by July 15. Payment shall be made within 45 days of the invoice date. Additional licenses can be purchased throughout the contract period upon written request of member districts via submission of an additional License Commitment Form. Payment for additional licenses shall be made within 45 days of invoice date.
[OAR Docket #23-571; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 780.  Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education
CHAPTER 10.  Administration and Supervision
[OAR Docket #23-588]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 5. Finance
780:10-5-8 [NEW]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma State Board of Career and Technology Education; 70 O.S. 2011, § 14-103, § 14-104, as amended.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 17, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 23, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 29, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22.
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 5. Finance
780:10-5-8 [NEW]
Gubernatorial approval:
December 20, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 766
Docket number:
23-303
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed amendment in subchapter 5 reflect the current emergency rule that is in effect and being proposed to be made permanent. The proposed rule is to implement a program to use federal funds distributed to the State of Oklahoma pursuant to the American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021) ("ARPA"), to help recruit, educate, and stabilize Oklahoma's health care workforce. The Oklahoma Legislature designated the Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education (ODCTE), in conjunction with the Health Care Workforce Training Commission as an entity through which federal ARPA funding will be distributed to grantees for specific healthcare workforce projects, including, but not limited to, capital improvements to nursing schools, as outlined in S.B. 9xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted).
CONTACT PERSON:
Marie Saatkamp, Human Resources Specialist, Oklahoma Department of CareerTech, 1500 W. Seventh Ave., Stillwater, OK 74074, 405-743-5455, marie.saatkamp@careertech.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 5.  Finance
780:10-5-8.  Project funding for American Rescue Plan Act Monies
(a)     Purpose. The purpose of the Health Care Workforce Development Grant program is to use federal funds distributed to the State of Oklahoma pursuant to the American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021) ("ARPA"), to help recruit, educate, and stabilize Oklahoma's health care workforce. The Oklahoma Legislature designated the Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education (ODCTE), in conjunction with the Health Care Workforce Training Commission as a pass-through entity through which federal ARPA funding will be distributed to grantees for specific healthcare workforce projects, including, but not limited to, capital improvements to nursing schools. Funding shall be available to not more than thirteen technology center school districts for instruction in nursing programs, as outlined in S.B. 9xx, 58th Leg., 2d Spec. Sess. (Okla. 2022) (enacted). Such funding shall be used as recommended and approved by the Joint Committee on Pandemic Relief on June 7, 2022.
(b)     Invoices. All funding shall be on a reimbursement basis. In order to obtain reimbursement, grantees shall electronically send periodic invoice packets to the ODCTE Chief Financial Officer or their designee for approval.
(1)    Invoice packets must include the following:
(A)    Completed and signed request for reimbursement form to be provided by ODCTE.
(B)    Copies of paid Vendor invoices for all purchases.
(C)    OCAS Detailed Expenditure report reflecting purchase order date, warrant date and amount paid, utilizing appropriate project coding.
(D)    A brief justification of all expenses (one to two sentences explaining how the purchase benefits the project); and
(2)    Invoices shall not be submitted to CareerTech for reimbursement before performance is completed by the vendor and accepted by the grantee, including physical receipt of goods. A grantee must sign the invoice or receipt to verify that the item or service has been received.
(c)     Internal controls. Grantees must establish and maintain effective internal controls over the federal award that provide reasonable assurance that they are managing the awards in compliance with federal statues, regulations, and the terms and conditions of the award. Some of the applicable federal compliance, reporting, and contract requirements include:
(1)    American Rescue Plan Act, Pub. L. No. 117-2 (Mar. 11, 2021), as amended;
(2)    U.S. Treasury Final Rule, Coronavirus State and Local Fiscal Recovery Funds, 87 Fed. Reg. 4338 (Jan. 27, 2022), and all other applicable federal rules, policies, guidance, procedures, and directives including reporting and compliance guidance, as amended;
(3)    Uniform Guidance (Part 200 of Title 2 of the C.F.R.), including Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards, as amended; and
(4)    Single Audit Act Amendments of 1996, Pub. L. No. 104-156 (July 5, 1996), as amended.
(d)     Monitoring. The Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education shall monitor the grants to ensure that funds are expended in accordance with state and federal regulations to help recruit, educate and stabilize Oklahoma's health care workforce, as recommended and approved by the Joint Committee on Pandemic Relief on June 7, 2022. Periodic performance reports shall be sent to the Health Care Workforce Training Commission. If bidding was done by the grantee, bidding documentation with justification for why the vendor was chosen will be examined during monitoring by CareerTech.
(e)     Repayment of funds. The grantee shall repay the award or portion of the award if: any funds received were issued in error; are based on incorrect representations; or any costs forming the basis of an award under this program have been or will be covered by other federal grants or awards or federally forgiven loans received by the grantee. The final determination of whether there has been a duplication of benefits and the amount to be repaid, if any, will be made by ODCTE.
(f)     Maintenance of records. The grantee shall maintain and make available to the State of Oklahoma and/or U.S. Treasury, upon request, all documents and financial records sufficient to establish compliance with ARPA. Records and supporting documentation must be maintained for a period of five (5) years after all funds have been expended or returned to U.S. Treasury, whichever is later. However, if any litigation, claim, or audit begins before the end of that five-year period, all records must be retained until all litigation, claims, or audit findings involving the records have been resolved and the final action has been taken. Moreover, all records relating to real property shall be retained until three (3) years after final disposition of the property.
[OAR Docket #23-588; filed 6-23-23]

TITLE 780.  Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education
CHAPTER 20.  Programs and Services
[OAR Docket #23-589]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. General Provisions
780:20-1-1.1 [AMENDED]
780:20-1-3 [AMENDED]
Subchapter 3. Secondary, Full-Time and Short-Term Adult Careertech Programs
780:20-3-2 [AMENDED]
780:20-3-3 [AMENDED]
780:20-3-4 [AMENDED]
780:20-3-5 [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Oklahoma State Board of Career and Technology Education; 70 O.S. 2011, § 14-103, § 14-104, as amended.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
January 24, 2023
COMMENT PERIOD:
February 17, 2023 through March 20, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
March 23, 2023
ADOPTION:
March 23, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
March 29, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22.
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposed amendments include clarifications including to update language (manager vs administrator), include definition of active TSA chapter, include definition of full-time program at technology center. Additional changes would remove the barrier from 7th grade Agriculture Education students from being FFA members, and clarify block scheduling for Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education (BMITE) programs.
CONTACT PERSON:
Marie Saatkamp, Human Resources Specialist, Oklahoma Department of CareerTech, 1500 W. Seventh Ave., Stillwater, OK 74074, 405-743-5455, marie.saatkamp@careertech.ok.gov
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  General Provisions
780:20-1-1.1.  Leadership, administration, instruction and training
     The educational infrastructure ensures that the necessary standards are in place for providing effective instruction and training. These standards include but are not limited to the following: Instructional Planning and Organization; Instructional Materials Utilization; Qualified Instructional Personnel; Enrollment and Student/Teacher Ratio; Equipment and Supplies; Instructional Facilities; Safety Training and Practices; Advisory Committee Relations; Leadership Development; Coordination Activities; Student Accounting and Reports.Leadership and administration, instruction and training, support services, measurement and analysis, personnel, operations and system impact. The instructional program defines where, how, and when instruction is provided.
780:20-1-3.  Framework and Definition of Work-based Learning
(a)    Work-based learning is a type of job training that combines on-the-job and classroom instruction. In CareerTech education, work-based learning is an educational strategy and framework that utilizes the delivery of a continuum of learning that is work-based and involving sustained, meaningful interactions with industry or community professionals that foster in-depth, firsthand engagement with the tasks required in a given career field. Experiences may be delivered in workplaces, in the community, at educational institutions and/or virtually, as appropriate, and include a range of activities such as workplace tours, job shadowing, school-based enterprises, internships and apprenticeships.
(b)    A full continuum of work-based learning experiences, progressing in intensity, is accessible to every student at some point during the program of study. Examples include but are not limited to business and industry field trips, job shadowing, internships and apprenticeships, service learning, live work, learning, cooperative education and school-based enterprises, as well as entrepreneurial experiences. Work-based learning experiences are age appropriate and aligned with relevant national, state and/or local standards. Work-based learning experiences develop and reinforce relevant technical, academic and employability knowledge and skills. Work-based learning experiences are intentionally aligned with each student's education and career goals.
(c)    Work-based learning experiences are provided through delivery methods that maximize meaningful interaction with business professionals. Requirements and procedures for work-based learning experiences that address access, selection, liability, supervision, rights and responsibilities, safety, transportation, learning objectives and evaluations are formalized and shared in advance of work-based learning experiences with employers, students and parents/guardians (as appropriate). All work-based learning experiences comply with relevant federal, state and local laws and regulations. Students engage in reflection and document learning resulting from work-based learning experiences, such as through a portfolio or presentation.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Secondary, Full-Time and Short-Term Adult Careertech Programs
780:20-3-2.  Programs: admissions, operations, enrollment, and length
(a)     Nondiscrimination; admission guidelines. Students shall be provided access to CareerTech programs and facilities without regard to race, color, national origin, sex, or disability.
(1)     Agricultural Education. Agricultural Education programs are designed for junior high and high school grades eight through twelve and shall be provided by comprehensive school districts. Technology center school districts shall be prohibited from operating Agricultural Education programs or FFA chapters in any location. Each student enrolled in an agricultural education program shall participate in a supervised agricultural experience project. For each agricultural education program which is funded by the Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education, the local school district shall provide transportation services, for the agricultural education program and FFA program related duties and activities. (FFA is an integral part of the agricultural education program.)
(2)     Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education. Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education programs are designed to prepare students in grades 6 through 12 and adults for pathways to careers in business, marketing and information technology.
(3)     Family and Consumer Sciences Education.
(A)     Comprehensive Family and Consumer Sciences Education. Family and Consumer Sciences programs are designed for students grades 6 through 12 to experience hands-on experiential and problem based learning to explore opportunities for careers, post-secondary transitions and pathways in family and consumer sciences related areas.
(B)     Occupational Family and Consumer Sciences Education. Occupational Family and Consumer Sciences programs are designed to prepare students in grades 11 and 12 and/or adults for careers in specific family and consumer sciences occupations.
(4)     Health Careers Education.
(A)     CareerTech health careers. Health Careers Education programs are designed to prepare junior high students, high school students and adults for employment in a health career of their choice.
(B)     Requirements for applicants. Applicants for admission to Health Careers Education programs must meet requirements as set by the individual program, state statutes, and any other requirements of the appropriate licensing or accrediting agency.
(5)     Science Technology Engineering and Mathematics (STEM).
(A)    Science Technology Engineering and Mathematics programs are designed to prepare students grades 5-12 for hands-on and problem basedproblem-based curriculum that allows students to explore opportunities for careers, post-secondary transitions and pathways in Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics (STEM).
(B)    Science Technology Engineering and Mathematics academy programs in technology centers are designed for grades 10-12ten through twelve. A Focus Field of Study must be submitted, approved by the Oklahoma State Department of Education and kept on file with the occupational division for technology center programs that includes tenth grade.
(C)    An Active Technology Student Association (TSA)/CTSO is an integral part of the STEM education program. An active TSA chapter includes but is not limited to the elections of an officer team, a program of work that is planned and executed yearly by the TSA chapter, chapter students attend TSA Fall Leadership Conference, and chapter students compete in TSA competitive events at the TSA State Leadership Conference. Full-time STEM instructors shall have no other extracurricular duties or responsibilities other than those required through the TSA student organization and normal school supervisory duties.
(6)     Trade and Industrial Education/TechConnect. Trade and Industrial Education/TechConnect programs in comprehensive schools are designed for students in grades 6 through 10 for hands-on experience and problem basedproblem-based learning that allows students to explore opportunities for careers, post-secondary transitions and pathways in Trade and Industrial Education. The state program administrator must approve exceptions. Trade and Industrial Education programs in technology centers are designed for students in grades 11 and 12 and/or adults. In technology center programs, tenth-grade students, or over-age students in a grade lower than the eleventh, may be enrolled upon approval of the sending school.
(b)     Program operations.
(1)     Recommendation for program approval. The appropriate CareerTech program administrator manager shall recommend approval of a program when criteria for the approval of new programs are met, and funds are available.
(2)     Program composition. Programs shall offer hands-on experience or supervised occupational experiences in the laboratory or clinical setting as well as classroom instruction to provide opportunities for students to achieve career objectives.
(3)     Course titles. CareerTech course offerings must be in agreement with the course titles listed in the current Standards for Accreditation of Oklahoma Schools, published by the State Department of Education. These same course titles (or abbreviated titles) should be the class titles entered on the student's transcript.
(4)     Units of credit. The units of credit shall be determined by the number of periods the student is in class plus on-the-job training, clinical training, or internship served. (Refer to the Standards for Accreditation of Oklahoma Schools.)
(5)     Full-time programs. A full-time program in a comprehensive school shall consist of five CareerTech instruction class periods and one planning period for a six-period day, and six CareerTech instruction class periods and one planning period for a seven-period day. Exceptions to this rule shall include the following:
(A)     Two planning periods. Teachers who supervise students' agricultural experience programs shall have a minimum of two periods to plan, supervise, and coordinate the activities of student learners (see 780:20-3-1(e) and 780:20-3-2(b)(7)(A)). For schools on non-traditional schedules, teachers shall have the equivalent of a minimum of 90 minutes per day for planning and supervision of students. It is recommended that the last hour of the school day be utilized as one of the planning periods. Schools offering Agricultural Education courses the final period of the day must provide a written explanation to the program administrator.
(B)     Teaching of related courses. Full-time program teachers of Marketing Education, Career Transitions Education, Science Technology Engineering and Mathematics, and TechConnect may be allowed to teach one related course, subject to the approval of the appropriate ODCTE state program administratormanager.
(C)     Trade and Industrial Education/TechConnect. Two three-hour block courses shall constitute a full-time program in Trade and Industrial Education in a Technology Center.
(D)     Health Careers Education. Teachers of Health Careers may be allowed to teach one or two related courses with at least one conference period (if the school is on a standard six or seven-period teaching day), subject to the approval of the Health Careers Education program administrator.
(E)     Science Technology Engineering and Mathematics. Teachers of Science Technology Engineering and Mathematics may be allowed to teach one related course, subject to approval of the appropriate cluster administrator STEM division program manager. Science and math courses included in the STEM state program can be counted as a STEM course, not a related course, with the approval of the cluster administrator.
(6)     Adult Training and Development. Adult Training and Development (short-term adult) programs in comprehensive schools may be organized under the supervision of the CareerTech teacher and must be occupationally specific. These programs are organized on request or as the need indicates. They may vary in length.
(7)     Program operations by occupational division.
(A)     Agricultural Education.
(i)     Secondary programs. The agricultural education instructor is a full-time, 12-month employee and shall teach only approved agricultural education courses. Agricultural education instructor shall have no other extra curricular duties or responsibilities other than those required through the FFA student organization and normal school supervisory duties. Coaching, administration, or other similar full-time duties will not be approved. In the case of a non-funded agriculture education program, the program must follow state policy and guidelines to remain in good standing and be able to utilize the CareerTech student organization, FFA.
(ii)     Summer program. The agricultural education instructor shall formulate a summer program of work and a calendar of activities, which are to be submitted to the local education agency at the completion of the school year.
(iii)     Activities. Summer activities shall include supervision of students' activities; educational field days and tours; in-service and professional development activities; and, working with adults, agricultural organizations, and industries.
(iv)     Summer leave. Agricultural Education teachers are entitled to two weeks of summer leave. In lieu of these two weeks of vacation, three weeks each year may be allowed for professional improvement. Summer leave should be coordinated with the local administration. If there is a question in regard to summer leave, the program administrator should be contacted for approval.
(v)     Full-time adult programs. Full-time adult Agricultural Business Management programs vary in length and are designated for and intended to meet the needs of adults engaged in agriculture and agricultural business operations.
(B)     Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education.
(i)     Full-time programs in comprehensive schools. A full-time program in comprehensive school shall consist of five instructional class periods (five credits) and one planning period for a six-period day or six instructional class periods (six credits) and one planning period for a seven-period day that is offered to students in grades 6 through 12. Block schedules, including trimesters, will be approved if they provide one full unit/credit per course and offer a full schedule of approved courses with one planning period. Instructors shall teach only approved business, marketing and information technology education courses that are aligned with an approved occupational outcome. State-approved syllabi identify the required length of courses - one-half or full unit of credit. Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education instructors shall have no other extracurricular duties or responsibilities other than those required through the BPA or DECA student organizations and normal school supervisory duties.
(ii)     Full-time programs in technology centers. A full-time program in a technology center shall consist of two three-hour block periods of instruction for students in grades 10-12 and adults, have an occupational outcome, and include a work-based learning component. Any exceptions must be approved in writing by the state program administrator.
(iii)     Technology/equipment. Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education programs shall provide technology that is appropriate for the defined occupational objectives and is reflective of a modern business environment. A written program plan integrating curriculum, training materials, and technology shall be maintained to guide program development and maintain relevance to the marketplace.
(iv)     Part-time comprehensive school programs. Comprehensive school Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education programs that are less than full-time will be funded as a half-time program and will be approved by permission of the state program administrator. A part-time program shall include a minimum of three approved business, marketing or information technology education courses with one planning period.
(v)     Unfunded programs. Non-funded Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education programs must follow state policies and guidelines and maintain an active BPA or DECA student organization chapter in order to remain in good standing.
(C)     Comprehensive Family and Consumer Sciences Education.
(i)     Full-time programs. A full-time program shall consist of only approved family and consumer sciences classes with one planning period in the daily schedule. Family and consumer sciences instructors shall have no other extra curricular duties or responsibilities other than those required through the FCCLA student organization and normal school supervisory duties. Each single teacher program shall offer at least two complete programs of study in a three-year period. A multi-teacher district shall offer one more program of study than the number of teachers per building. Coaching, administration, or other similar full-time duties must be approved by the state program manager in writing prior to implementation.
(ii)     Part-time programs. Programs that are less than full-time will be funded as a half-time program and will be approved only through permission of the program administrator. A part-time program shall include a minimum of two family and consumer sciences classes and a conference period for a six period day and three family and consumer sciences classes and a conference period for a seven or eight period day.
(iii)     Unfunded programs. In the case of an approved unfunded family and consumer sciences program, the program must follow state policy and guidelines to remain in good standing. Only approved programs shall have a Family, Career and Community Leaders of America chapter.
(D)     Occupational Family and Consumer Sciences Education.
(i)     Full-time occupational programs in comprehensive schools. A full-time occupational family and consumer sciences education program in the comprehensive school will include two or more classes, two to three periods in length for 11th- and 12th-grade students.
(ii)     Full-time occupational programs in technology centers. A full-time occupational family and consumer sciences education program in a technology center will include two classes, three periods in length for 11th- and 12th-grade students and adults.
(iii)     Length; order. Two years of occupational training may be offered.
(E)     Health Careers Education.
(i)     Comprehensive Schools. Programs in 7th, 8th, and 9th grade or high schools vary in length and may be offered in one, two or three blocks of time. Secondary programs in technology centers may be one or two academic years in length and vary in hours per day.
(ii)     Technology Centers. Programs vary in length and in hours per day according to accrediting bodies and program requirements.
(F)     Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics (STEM).
(i)     Full-time program. In a six periodsix-period day, instructor shall teach five approved CareerTech STEM courses and/or one approved related course. In a seven periodseven-period day, instructor shall teach six approved CareerTech STEM courses and/or one approved related course. In an eight periodeight-period day, instructor shall teach seven approved CareerTech STEM courses and/or one approved related course. Block schedules, including trimesters, will be approved if they provide one full unit/credit per course and offer a full schedule of approved courses with one planning period.
(ii)     Part-time comprehensive school programs. Comprehensive school CareerTech science, technology, engineering and mathSTEM education programs that are less than full-time will be funded as a half-time program and will be approved only through the permission of the state program administratormanager. A part-time program shall include a minimum of three approved CareerTech science, technology, engineering and math STEM education 8000 level courses.
(iii)     Unfunded programs. Non-funded Science, Technology, Engineering and Math Education programs must follow state policies and guidelines and maintain an active CareerTech student organization chapter in order to remain in good standing.
(iv)     Technology Center. A full-time program shall consist of two three/four-hour block courses in STEM Education.
(G)     Trade and Industrial Education. TechConnect (grades 6-10): The appropriate approved courses need to be taught from one of the following career pathways: Tech Connect Agriculture, Food and Natural Resources; Tech Connect Architecture & Construction; Tech Connect Arts; A/V Technology and Communications; Tech Connect Information Technology; Tech Connect Law, Public Safety and Security; Tech Connect Manufacturing; Tech Connect Transportation, Distribution and Logistics; Tech Connect Diversified Programs.
(H)     Integrated Academics. Academics taught in the technology center shall be delivered in the context of the program in which each student is enrolled. If academic instruction is offered for credit through the sending school, it shall be structured so as to meet current legislation and State Department of Education guidelines. Students must meet, within the structure of the academic class, the attendance requirements of their comprehensive schools in order to receive academic credit. Further, the legislated limit of 10 days of absence from the academic class for school-related activities applies.
(c)     Enrollment for full-time programs.
(1)     Guidelines compliance. Program enrollments shall comply with the established guidelines of the appropriate occupational division. Exceptions must have written approval by the appropriate program administratormanager prior to the second week of class. Consideration shall be given to the availability of work stations, clinical experiences and individual student needs.
(2)     Enrollments specific to occupational divisions and programs.
(A)     Agricultural Education.
(i)     Student enrollment limits. If a department has adequate space, equipment, and laboratory sites, a maximum of 25 students may be enrolled in each agricultural education class with the exception of lab classes, such as Horticulture and Ag Mechanics, and they shall be limited to 15 per class. Exceptions to these numbers must have written approval by the appropriate program administrator.
(ii)     Maximum class enrollment. The maximum enrollment in each agricultural mechanics and horticulture class shall be 15 students per class period.
(iii)     Course prerequisite. Introduction to Agricultural Science is the prerequisite for all other agricultural education courses with the exception of eighth-grade Agricultural Orientation.
(iv)     Employment in Agribusiness. The Agricultural Education course, Employment in Agribusiness, is considered a Cooperative Program in which students can earn scholastic credit if the course meets all requirements listed under section (780:20-3-1 section e). It must be taught and supervised by the agricultural education instructor. Note: The work-site experience must be directly related to the curriculum offered in the program.
(B)     Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education.
(i)     Programs in comprehensive schools. Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education courses may enroll a maximum of 25 students at a ratio of one work station per student. A maximum of 25 students per teacher-coordinator shall be enrolled in a capstone course or internship course. Only two sections of internship will be allowed per program. Students enrolling in an internship program must have completed a minimum of 120 hours or be concurrently in an approved business, marketing, and information technology education program.
(ii)     Programs in technology centers. Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education courses may enroll a maximum of 25 students at a ratio of one work station per student. Consideration should be given to the size of the facility and access to appropriate training stations.
(C)     Family and Consumer Sciences Education.
(i)     Comprehensive Family and Consumer Sciences programs. If a department has adequate space, equipment and laboratory sites, maximum enrollment for the following courses shall be:
(I)    Non-laboratory courses-30 students
(II)    Laboratory courses-24 students
(III)    Work-based learning - The School and Community Partnership course is a work-based course in which students gain work-site experience and elective credit. The work-site experience must relate directly to an Oklahoma family and consumer sciences career cluster. Enrollment in this course is limited to 24 students. Additional rules in 780:20-3-1(e) and (h) may apply.
(ii)     Occupational Family and Consumer Sciences Education. A minimum of 10 and a maximum of 20 students shall be enrolled in each section of occupational family and consumer sciences education.
(D)     Health Careers Education.
(i)     Comprehensive Schools. A minimum of ten and a maximum of eighteen students shall be enrolled in each course/section of a comprehensive school health careers education program.
(ii)     Technology Centers.
(I)     Full time high school health careers programs. A minimum of ten and 8a maximum of eighteen students per instructor shall be enrolled in a Health Careers Education program. Those programs utilizing student-centered learning as the primary method of instruction shall have a maximum of fifteen students per instructor. Program enrollment may also be limited by national and/or state accrediting bodies, by equipment, classroom and/or laboratory facilities and by clinical site availability.
(II)     Full-time adult-only health careers programs. A minimum of eight and a maximum of twelve students per instructor shall be enrolled in a full-time adult-only Health Careers Education program. Program enrollment may also be limited by national and/or state accrediting bodies, by equipment, classroom and/or laboratory facilities and by clinical site availability.
(E)     Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics. Student Enrollment Limits. The maximum enrollment for each period of a STEM program shall be 24 students. Consideration should be given to the size of the facility.
(F)     Trade and Industrial Education and TechConnect.
(i)     Maximum enrollment. The maximum enrollment for each Trade and Industrial Education, TechConnect program section shall be 20 students, with the exceptions of cosmetology, which may have a maximum of 22 students, and Industrial Cooperative Education (ICE) programs, which may have 50 students per career transitions teacher. Consideration should be given to the size of the facility.
(ii)     Alternate program enrollment. The Trade and Industrial Education Division shall establish a reduced maximum enrollment for any program not meeting adequate size or layout of teaching facilities, number of training stations, appropriate quality and quantity of tools, and equipment and supplies. Individual student needs, student safety and supervision shall also be considered when determining maximum student enrollment.
(iii)     Inclusion of on-the-job students. Students involved in on-the-job training shall be included in the maximum enrollment for the program unless each school has an on-the-job training coordinator.
(d)     Length of programs. CareerTech programs shall be 10 or 12 calendar months as approved by the appropriate program administratormanager. Exceptions must be approved by the Department.
780:20-3-3.  Materials and facilities
(a)     Materials. CareerTech teachers in all CareerTech programs shall use instructional materials that align with state approved standards and competencies.
(b)     Equipment.
(1)     Responsibility. The local education agency is responsible for providing equipment and supplies to support the CareerTech program in order to assure quality training. Equipment must meet or exceed all appropriate safety standards.
(2)     Modern equipment. Equipment shall be indicative of that currently used in business and industry and in conformity with modern technology.
(3)     Maintenance; replacement. A policy for maintenance and replacement shall be developed by the local education agency.
(4)     Inventory of state-owned equipment. It is the responsibility of the local education agency to provide appropriate maintenance and repair of state-owned equipment and to maintain an accurate accountability of state-owned equipment tagged in accordance with rule 780:10-9-2(c).
(c)     Facilities.
(1)     CareerTech programs facilities. The local education agency shall provide CareerTech programs with facilities to assure safe and orderly, quality instruction to meet each program's objectives. The guidelines used shall be from the Oklahoma Department of Education "Planning for Education: Space Guidelines for Planning/Educational Facilities" booklet 70 O.S. 3-104. The appropriate program administratormanager shall be consulted regarding plans for new and remodeled facilities.
(2)     Health Careers Education. Clinical facilities shall be adequate in number and quality to provide the experiences necessary to meet the requirements of the respective accrediting agency and program requirements. Clinical facilities should have adequate staff to provide safe patient care and student should not be used as paid or unpaid facility staff during clinical hours.
780:20-3-4.  Instructors
(a)     Certification on file.
(1)    All CareerTech secondary teachers shall have (on file in the local education agency) an appropriate teaching certificate issued by the Certification Section of the State Department of Education.
(2)    Technology Center Standard Certification for Teachers and Instructors in Technology Centers School Districts, not otherwise certified under paragraphs 210 O.A.C. 20-9-91 (1-4). Consistent with the provisions of 70 O.S. 2011, § 6-189, as amended, to be eligible for consideration for a technology center standard teaching certificate under this provision, an applicant must submit documentation to the Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education verifying that the individual has received an associate's college degree (2-year degree) or above, an industry recognized credential for an occupation that includes the subject matter to be taught at the technology center, and appropriate professional development. The State Board of Education, upon recommendation of the Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education, may issue a technology center standard teaching certificate to an applicant who submits a completed application for certification containing the requirements listed herein along with the applicable certification fee, and has on file with the State Department of Education a current criminal history record check. The applicant shall be responsible for the costs of the criminal history record checks. The technology center standard teaching certificate shall be valid only for the subject area(s) aligned to the applicant's degree, credential and/or work experience. For purposes of this provision, the term "industry recognized credential" shall have its ordinary and usual meaning and shall reflect industry-based skills, standards and certifications.
(b)     Administrative responsibility. It shall be the responsibility of school administration to assure that a CareerTech teacher applicant meets CareerTech certification requirements before placing the applicant under contract. Certification requirements are found in the Teacher Certification Guide for School Staff Assignments on the Oklahoma State Department of Education website.
(1)     Occupational division approval. All CareerTech teachers must have the CareerTech certification application approved by the ODCTE certification specialist.
(2)     Occupational division renewal of certification. All CareerTech teachers must complete the specific occupational division's requirements for CareerTech certification renewal and be approved by the appropriate program administratorOklahoma Department of CareerTech certifications specialist.
(c)     Health Careers Education.
(1)     Faculty requirements. Faculty shall hold current credentials as a licensed, certified and/or registered health care professional and must meet the requirements of the local education agency, Health Careers Education Division, and the respective accrediting agency.
(A)     Technology Centers: High School Health Careers Programs. Faculty holding a baccalaureate degree will be required to have additional coursework specific to Career and Technology teacher education. These requirements will be posted on the Health Careers Education website. Faculty shall have a degree plan on file with the Health Careers Education division and provide documentation in the form of transcripts demonstrating yearly progress toward obtaining required coursework.
(B)     Technology Centers: Adult Only Health Careers Programs. Faculty shall hold a minimum of an Associates' degree or be on a degree plan making yearly progress toward completion. State and national accreditation standards may indicate additional faculty requirements towards advanced degrees. Faculty hired before 2010 will be exempt from this rule.
(2)     On-file applications. Faculty shall have an application on file in the Health Careers Education office, including a Statement of Qualifications form, all current transcripts and, a copy of professional credential or credential verification, and, if appropriate, current teaching certificate or application for teaching certificate.
(3)     Clinical experience. Faculty must have a minimum of two years' work experience in a clinical setting within the last five years prior to their first teaching experience. The Health Careers Education Program Manager must approve any variations.
(d)     Science Technology Engineering and Mathematics (STEM). Faculty requirements for Teachers Teaching Math and/or Science Academic Courses. Must meet the requirements of the Oklahoma State Department of Education for that specific academic course/area. All related courses must meet the Oklahoma State Department of Education and/or ODCTE requirements for the course/area.
(e)     Professional development. New instructors shall participate in preservice professional development activities as required by the appropriate divisions. All secondary and full-time adult CareerTech instructors and staff shall participate in professional in servicein-service as required by the appropriate divisions summer conference.
780:20-3-5.  Career and Technology Student Organizations
(a)     Student organizations as an integral part of the CareerTech program. The Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education is the responsible entity for governance and administration of the career and technology student organizations and therefore has the authority to develop and enforce policy of the student organizations consistent with CareerTech program design and operation. Each secondary CareerTech program shall have an active and appropriate student organization as an integral part of its program.
(b)     Membership in appropriate organization. Each student who participates in student organization activities shall be a member of the student organization designed for the occupational program in which the student is enrolled.
(c)     Organizations. Career and technology student organizations shall include:
(1)    DECA (Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education)
(2)    BPA (Business, Marketing and Information Technology Education and STEM), Business Professionals of America.
(3)    FFA (Agricultural Education)
(4)    FCCLA (Family and Consumer Sciences Education), Family, Career and Community Leaders of America
(5)    HOSA (Health Careers Education and STEM)
(6)    TSA (STEM, Business Information Technology Education, Health Careers Education, Trade and Industrial Education), Technology Students Association
(7)    SkillsUSA (Trade and Industrial Education and STEM)
(d)     Accountability; loss of program funding. The school and the career and technology student organization chapter will be held accountable for the actions of the student organization members and the advisor participating in any career and technology student organization activity. Failure to comply with the official rules of such activities may, after an opportunity to present reasons why said action should not occur, result in the loss of the state funding for that CareerTech program.
(e)     FFA Membership Eligibility. Any student in Grades 8-12 must be regularly enrolled in a year long course of study in Agricultural Education at school in order to be eligible to participate in any FFA activity. For the purpose of this section; at school is defined as physically present and supervised in a classroom by a certified agricultural education instructor. Exceptions are granted to students who attend a school with block schedule and who, therefore, may have completed a year-long course of study in Agricultural Education in one semester. Students in the seventh grade are not eligible for the FFA membership in Oklahoma. Annual local, state, and national FFA dues must also be paid in order to be eligible to participate in any FFA activity.
[OAR Docket #23-589; filed 6-23-23]

TITLE 800.  Department of Wildlife Conservation
CHAPTER 1.  Operations and Procedures
[OAR Docket #23-572]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 15. Hunter Education Rules
800:1-15-2. Hunter education certification requirements [AMENDED]
800:1-15-3. Instructors [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Title 29 O.S., Section 3-103, 4-112A, 5-401; Article XXVI, Section 1 and 3 of the Constitution of Oklahoma; Department of Wildlife Conservation Commission.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 1, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022 - January 7, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
Date: January 5, 2023
Time: 7:00 p.m.
Oklahoma City - OK Department of Wildlife Conservation, 1801 N. Lincoln Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK
ADOPTION:
February 6, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 9, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCES:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
These rule changes change the minimum course requirement from 8 hours to 6 hours and allows the hunter education coordinator to recertify lapsed hunter education instructors as opposed to forcing lapsed instructors to go through the recertification process.
CONTACT PERSON:
Nels Rodefeld, Chief of Communication & Education Division, phone: 405-521-3855 or Rhonda Hurst, APA Liaison, phone: 405-522-6279; 1801 N. Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 15.  Hunter Education Rules
800:1-15-2.  Hunter education certification requirements
(a)    While attending a hunter education course, students are required to meet a set of requirements.
(1)    Students must have a minimum of eight (8)six (6) hours of instruction per course, no more than 2 hours of which may be range instruction.
(2)    Students must score at least 70% on all examinations.
(3)    Students shall not exhibit disruptive classroom behavior or refuse to abide by hunter education curriculum.
(4)    The student examination(s) shall be written, except an oral examination may be given to those who have difficulty reading, or are unable to complete the examination due to mental or physical reasons.
(5)    All students, regardless of age, shall receive their hunter education certification upon completing the course and passing the examination.
(6)    Replacement or duplicate certification cards shall be issued by the Department.
(b)    The course shall include, but is not limited to, the following topics: basic firearm safety and handling, firearms cleaning and storage, muzzle loading, bowhunting, wildlife management and conservation, hunter responsibility, survival and wilderness first aid, wildlife identification, laws and regulations.
(c)    Requirements for students failing to pass the examination.
(1)    Those students failing to pass the examination with a score of 70% or better or failing to demonstrate an attitude of responsibility toward hunting safety will be required to retake the entire hour course and examination at a later date.
(2)    However, if the volunteer instructor and/or Oklahoma Game Warden determine that the failing student(s) didn't understand the questions on the examination, the volunteer instructor or the Game Warden may elect to go over missed questions with the student. If the student can correctly answer the question(s) they missed, the student may be issued their student card so long as the total score equals or exceeds 70%.
(d)    Students may participate in a Home Study or internet version of the class. If the student completes the required material at home, they are given four (4)two (2) hours credit to apply toward the eight hour six hour minimum certification requirement. For Home Study classes students must complete the remaining of four (4) hours under direct supervision of a certified instructor, and students who score at least 70% on the exam and comply with the requirements of paragraph (a), will receive their student certification. The internet version will be available to students 10 years of age and older and will be available through the Department's Web site.
(e)    State residents who are exempt from hunter education as defined in Title 29; Section 4-112(A) are eligible for proficiency testing only.
800:1-15-3.  Instructors
(a)    Game Wardens are the official Department Hunter Education representative in their assigned area. All Wildlife Department employees may serve as instructors and the Department may allow members of the general public to serve as volunteer instructors for the Hunter Education Certification courses at its discretion.
(b)    Game Wardens conduct the Hunter Education courses independently or they may request assistance from other Game Wardens, or a volunteer instructor certified by the Department.
(c)    Volunteer instructors may conduct Hunter Education courses without the assistance of a Game Warden so long as the county Game Warden or Warden Supervisor and the Program Coordinator are notified of the time and location of the course in advance. One Department certified instructor shall be present for the duration of all courses conducted by volunteer instructors.
(d)    Volunteer instructors must be at least 21 years of age, possess a Hunter Education Certificate approved by the Department, be interviewed by a Game Warden or other approved Department employee, and undergo a background investigation.
(1)    The background investigation and interview will be completed within sixty (60).
(2)    After an interview and investigation is completed, the applicant will be notified of the Department's decision with thirty (30) days.
(e)    Volunteers shall serve at the discretion of the Department.
(1)    Review of complaints shall be handled by the coordinator. If the complaint warrants review of volunteer status, the accused volunteer will be given notice of the allegation against him or her and an opportunity to be heard within a reasonable time.
(2)    After investigation of a complaint, the coordinator will report findings to the Director. The Director will make the final decision regarding volunteer status.
(f)    All volunteer instructors shall comply with the following requirements:
(1)    Complete all Departmental report forms prior to conducting a Hunter Education course.
(2)    Attend and complete the Orientation/Teaching Methods/Techniques Instructor Workshop or be recommended by a Game Warden or Department employee, who is an instructor, for certification prior to conducting a Hunter Education course.
(3)    Report to the Program Coordinator of the Oklahoma Hunter Education Program and the Game Warden or Warden Supervisor in the county where the volunteer is teaching a course.
(4)    Follow the procedures outlined in the Instructor's Procedures Manual while conducting a Hunter Education course.
(5)    Within a two-year period, either complete additional training through the Department or outside courses approved by the Department or teach a minimum of one class per year or submit a letter of support from a Game Warden.
(A)    Volunteers who fail to meet this requirement will be classified as inactive and will be ineligible to conduct Hunter Education courses.
(B)    Volunteers may be reactivated by notifying the Program Coordinator.
[OAR Docket #23-572; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 800.  Department of Wildlife Conservation
CHAPTER 25.  Wildlife Rules
[OAR Docket #23-573]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Hunter/Trapping on Oklahoma Tourism and Recreation Lands
800:25-1-8. Deer and Waterfowl Hunting on Keystone State Park [NEW]
Subchapter 3. Hunting on Corps of Engineers Lands
800:25-3-2. Areas open to archery equipment and shotguns with pellets only [AMENDED]
800:25-3-3. Areas open to archery equipment only [AMENDED]
Subchapter 7. General Hunting Seasons
Part 1. General Provisions
800:25-7-3. General provisions [AMENDED]
Part 5. Upland Game
800:25-7-20. Squirrel (fox and gray) [AMENDED]
Part 13. Deer
800:25-7-53. Deer - gun [AMENDED]
800:25-7-54. Legal firearms and archery specifications [AMENDED]
Part 19. Season on Areas Owned or Managed by the Oklahoma Department of Wildlife Conservation and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
800:25-7-124. McClellan-Kerr WRP [AMENDED]
Subchapter 24. Import of Cervids
800:25-24-3. Requirements [AMENDED]
Subchapter 30. Wildlife Depredation on Agricultural Crops
800:25-30-2. Procedures [AMENDED]
Subchapter 37. Nuisance Wildlife Control Program
Part 3. Wildlife and feral Hog Nuisance and Depredation Rules
800:25-37-12. General Provisions [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Title 29 O.S., Section 3-103, 5-401; Article XXVI, Section 1 and 3 of the Constitution of Oklahoma; Department of Wildlife Conservation Commission.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 1, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022 - January 7, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
Date: January 5, 2023
Time: 7:00 p.m.
Oklahoma City - OK Department of Wildlife Conservation, 1801 N. Lincoln Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK
ADOPTION:
February 6, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 9, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
LEGISLATIVE DISAPPROVAL:
Disapproved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22 disapproving 800:25-24-3 paragraph (2) of subsection (c).
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 7. General Hunting Seasons
Part 1. General Provisions
800:25-7-3. General provisions [AMENDED]
Part 13. Deer
800:25-7-53. Deer-gun [AMENDED]
800:25-7-5. Legal firearms and archery specifications [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
August 22, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 20
Docket number:
22-716
Superseded rules:
Subchapter 24. Import of Cervids
800:25-24-3. Requirements [AMENDED]
Gubernatorial approval:
October 12, 2022
Register publication:
40 Ok Reg 511
Docket number:
22-977
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
Subchapter 1 - These rules will open portions of Keystone State Park for deer and waterfowl controlled hunts.
Subchapter 3 - These rules will open certain Corps of Engineers lands at Ft Gibson Lake and Webbers Falls Lock and Dam 16 to hunting with archery equipment and shotguns with pellets, will restrict hunting to archery equipment and shotguns with pellets, for safety reasons, on certain Corps of Engineers Lands at Webbers Ralls Lock and Dam 16, and will close hunting on certain Corps of Engineers lands at Eufaula Lake.
Subchapter 7 -These rules will require anyone hunting with an air powered arrow rifle to possess a valid air powered arrow rifle permit, will extend squirrel season through February 28, make it legal to hunt with an air powered arrow rifle during any open rifle season, establish criteria for legally transporting an arrow rifle in a motorized vehicle, define legal bullets for rifles and handguns, remove minimum barrel length for handguns, provide definition for an air powered arrow rifle legal for hunting, prohibit hunting with an air powered arrow rifle during archery and muzzleloader seasons, and open the WRP of McClellan-Kerr to additional hunting opportunity.
Subchapter 24 - These rules will define restrictions on transport of cervid carcass parts from any area designated as a Selective Surveillance Area.
Subchapter 30 - These rules add beehives to the list of agricultural crops subject to procedures for handling wildlife depredation complaints.
Subchapter 37 - These rules add bears to the list of big game animals for which complaints must comply with the provisions defined in Title 800:25-30.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bill Dinkines, Chief of Wildlife Division, phone: 405-521-2739 or Rhonda Hurst, APA Liaison, phone: 405-522-6279; 1801 N. Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Hunter/Trapping on Oklahoma Tourism and Recreation Lands
800:25-1-8.  Deer and Waterfowl Hunting on Keystone State Park
     The following hunting seasons apply to Keystone State Park:
(1)    Deer - Controlled hunts only
(2)    Waterfowl - Controlled hunts only.
SUBCHAPTER 3.  Hunting on Corps of Engineers Lands
800:25-3-2.  Areas open to archery equipment and shotguns with pellets only
     The following Corps of Engineers areas are open to archery equipment and shotguns with pellets only:
(1)    Canton Lake: A 80-acre unit above Highway 58A in the Sandy Cove Area.
(2)    Keystone Lake:
(A)    A 460-acre unit including land north and south of the Cowskin North Recreation Area.
(B)    A 200-acre unit on the west side of the north end of the Highway 64 bridge.
(C)    A 530-acre unit north of the New Mannford Ramp area.
(D)    A 480-acre unit east of the Cimarron Park area.
(E)    A 100-acre unit north and south of the Pawnee Cove Access Point.
(F)    A 200-acre unit in the Old Mannford Ramp area.
(G)    A 280-acre unit on the south side of the road ending at Washington Irving North.
(H)    A 120-acre unit west and south of the Sinnett Cemetery and south of the old Keystone road.
(I)    A 200-acre unit south of Highway 51 on Bakers Branch.
(J)    A 135-acre area on the west side of Walnut Creek (old Walnut Creek #3).
(3)    Hugo Lake: Except, archery only during all deer seasons.
(A)    A 2,373-acre unit in the Kiamichi Park Area. Open for hunting for all species that can be legally taken during legal open seasons by archery equipment and shotgun with pellets, except closed the first Tuesday through Sunday in October and the first Tuesday through Sunday in December.
(B)    A 418-acre unit in the Salt Creek Area.
(C)    A 478-acre unit in the Wilson Point Area.
(D)    A 481-acre unit in the Virgil Point Area.
(E)    A 280-acre unit in the Sawyer Bluff Area.
(F)    A 60-acre unit in the Rattan Landing Area.
(G)    A 500-acre unit in the embankment area above Hugo Dam.
(H)    A 475-acre unit lying South of the physical creek of Salt Creek on Hugo Lake.
(4)    Tenkiller Ferry Lake: A 110-acre unit north of the asphalt road and east of Highway 10A.
(5)    Copan Lake: Except, archery equipment only during all deer seasons.
(A)    A 650-acre unit below the dam.
(B)    A 100-acre unit east and southeast of Copan Point Park.
(C)    Three islands north of Washington Cove Park.
(6)    Fort Gibson Lake:
(A)    A 300-acre unit on the north side of North Bay.
(B)    A 800-acre unit on the south side of the Chouteau Creek, starting at Highway 69 and running east and south to Highway 33.
(C)    A 320-acre unit across the lake from the Chouteau Bend Recreation Area.
(D)    A 480-acre unit on the west side of Mallard Bay.
(E)    A 103 -acre unit in Section 13 of the Blue Bill Point housing addition.
(F)    A 160-acre unit west of the town of Murphy.
(G)    A 650-acre unit on Pryor Creek beginning on the east side of Highway 69 in Sections 29, 30 & 31.
(H)    A 190-acre unit in the south ½ of Section 12, north of the Blue Bill Recreation Area.
(I)    A 120-acre unit west of the town of Hulbert.
(J)    A 515-acre unit on the south side of Mallard Bay.
(K)    A 488-acre unit on the south side of Whitehorn Cove Concession.
(7)    Sardis:
(A)    A 950-acre unit in the Potato Hills Area.
(B)    A 100-acre unit in the Sardis Cove Area.
(8)    Webbers Falls Lock and Dam 16:
(A)    A 37-acre unit on the peninsula north of the lock and dam.
(B)    A 150-acre unit in the Hopewell Park Area.
(C)    A 150-acre unit in the Brewer's Bend Area only open for hunting 1 December through 28 February.
(D)    A 50-acre unit south of the Spaniard Creek Area.
(E)    A 60-acre unit off Lock View access road and south of the project office.
(F)    A 750-acre unit North of Three Forks Harbor to Grand River Bridge.
(G)    A 265-acre unit from Grand River Bridge to Highway 16 Bridge near Okay.
(9)    Lake Texoma:
(A)    A 380-acre unit below Denison Dam.
(B)    A 160-acre unit in the Willow Springs Area.
(C)    A 100-acre unit in the Buncombe Creek West Area
(D)    A 110-acre unit on the Limestone Creek Area.
(E)    A 250-acre unit on the Treasure Island, North Island Group.
(F)    A 512-acre unit in the McLaughlin Creek Southwest Area.
(G)    A 1,100-acre unit in the Washita Point Area.
(H)    A 300-acre unit south of the Butcher Pen Area.
(I)    A 800-acre unit on either side of Highway 70 on the east side of the lake.
(J)    A 650-acre unit in the Lakeside West and South Area.
(K)    A 420-acre unit in the Lebanon Area.
(L)    A 226-acre unit on the west side of Wilson Creek.
(M)    A 130-acre unit in the Caney Creek Area.
(O)    A 170-acre unit in the Oakview North Area.
(P)    A 115-acre unit in the North Platter Flats Area.
(Q)    A 95-acre unit in the Newberry Creek South Area.
(10)    Kaw Lake:
(A)    A 280-acre unit in the Traders Bend Area.
(B)    A 320-acre unit in the Sarge Creek Cove Area.
(C)    A 220-acre unit in the Burbank Landing Area.
(D)    A 110-acre unit between Sandy Park Swim Beach and Osage Cove.
(E)    A 100-acre unit in the Bear Creek Cove, open for hunting only from 15 September through 15 February.
(F)    A 186-acre unit south of Camp McFadden and north of a housing addition.
(11)    Eufaula Lake:
(A)    Open for archery equipment 1 October through 28 February and open for shotguns with pellets from 1 November through 28 February.
(i)    A 165 -acre unit in the Highway 31 Landing Area.
(ii)    A 128 -acre unit in Holiday Cove Recreation Area.
(iii)    A 200-acre unit in Hickory Point Recreation Area.
(iv)    A 90 -acre unit in the Gentry Creek Recreation Area.
(B)    Open for hunting for all species that can be legally taken during legal open seasons by archery equipment and shotguns with pellets.
(i)    A 275-acre unit known as Duchess Creek Island.
(ii)    A 47-acre unit in Juniper Park.
(iii)    A 99-acre unit in the Coal Creek area.
(iv)    A 69-acre unit southwest of the city of Crowder.
(v)    A 116-acre unit east of the city of Crowder.
(vi)    A 95-acre unit in the Rock Creek Heights area.
(vii)    A 63-acre unit around Highway 9 Marina.
(viii)    A 411-acre unit in the area of Highway 9A.
(ix)    A 247-acre unit known as Bunny Creek.
(x)    A 251-acre unit in Sandy Bass Bay.
(xi)    A 32-acre unit in Dam Site area.
(xii)    A 95-acre unit below Eufaula Dam, north of the river
(xiii)    A 443-acre unit in the Longtown Creek area known as Round Tree Landing.
(C)    Open for hunting for all species that can be legally taken during legal open seasons by archery equipment and shotguns with pellets, except for the 2nd Friday through Monday in December: A 395-acre unit in the Brooken Cove Recreational Area.
(D)    Open for hunting for all species that can be legally taken during legal open seasons by archery equipment and shotguns with pellets only, except closed the 3rd Friday of October through the 1st weekend of November: A 533-acre unit in the Gaines Creek Recreational Area.
(12)    Chouteau Lock and Dam 17: All lands beginning from the MK&T Railroad below Chouteau Lock and Dam 17 and continuing upstream to Newt Graham Lock and Dam 18, except that Pecan Park is open to hunting with archery equipment only and the Chouteau Lock and Dam 17 has a 600 yard "No Hunting" buffer area around both the lock and dam, and that Coal Creek Access Point and Afton Landing Park are closed to all hunting.
(13)    Hulah Lake:
(A)    A 200-acre unit in the Turkey Creek Point Area.
(B)    A 60-acre unit below Hulah Dam.
(C)    A 375-acre unit in the Caney Bend Area.
(14)    Wister Lake: A 400-acre unit east of the uncontrolled spillway and Glendale Dike.
(15)    Oologah Lake:
(A)    A 80-acre unit on the east side of Blue Creek Park.
(B)    A 180 acre-unit on the south side of Spencer Creek Park.
(C)    A 120-acre unit east of Double Creek Park.
(16)    Waurika Lake: All lands presently designated as open to public hunting, except fall turkey hunting is archery only.
(17)    Newt Graham Lock and Dam 18: All lands beginning from Newt Graham Lock and Dam 18 and continuing upstream to Interstate 44, except that the Newt Graham Lock and Dam 18 has a 600 yard 'No Hunting' buffer area around it, and that Bluegill Access Point, Highway 33 Access Point and Bluff Landing Public Use Area are closed to all hunting.
(18)    Pine Creek Lake: Except, archery only during all deer seasons.
(A)    A 280-acre unit below Pine Creek Dam.
(B)    A 225-acre unit within Little River Park open November 1 - January 15.
(C)    A 190-acre unit within Pine Creek Cove open November 1 - January 15.
(D)    A 530-acre unit upstream and downstream of the dike, SW of Pine Creek Cove.
(E)    A 500-acre unit north of Little River Park and South of the old highway.
800:25-3-3.  Areas open to archery equipment only
     The following Corps of Engineers areas are open to archery equipment only:
(1)    Birch Lake: A 450-acre unit in the Birch cove, Outlet Park and Twin cove areas.
(2)    Kaw Lake:
(A)    A 400-acre unit in the Washunga Bay Area.
(B)    A 600-acre unit in the McFadden Cove Area and below the dam embankment access road.
(C)    A 236-acre unit in the Osage Cove Area open from 1 December to 31 December.
(D)    A 60-acre unit south of Kaw City and west of Pioneer Park.
(3)    Fort Gibson:
(A)    A 515-acre unit on the south side of Mallard Bay.
(BA)    A 360-acre unit on the north side of the mouth of North Bay.
(CB)    A 50-acre unit south of Jackson Bay Area.
(DC)    A 150-acre area on the northeast end of Ranger Creek.
(E)    A 488-acre unit on the south side of Whitehorn Cove Concession.
(FD)    A 100-acre unit in the Snug Harbor area.
(GE)    A 320-acre unit on the south side of North Bay.
(HF)    A 320-acre unit on the north side of Long Bay.
(IG)    A 70-acre area on the upper end of Pryor Creek adjacent to the east side of Highway 69.
(JH)    A 36-acre area in Section 6, T16N, R20E.
(KI)    A 77-acre area on the north shore of Ranger Creek.
(LJ)    A 166-acre area west of Taylor Ferry South Park in Sections 20 & 21, T17N, R19E.
(4)    Copan Lake:
(A)    A 50-acre unit north of Copan Point Park.
(B)    A 50-acre unit north of the Post Oak area.
(C)    A 5-acre unit west of Post Oak Park between the old and new Highway 10.
(D)    A 340-acre unit north of the Washington Cove Park.
(5)    Heyburn Lake: A 120-acre unit on the south side of the Dam Site Area and west of the outlet channel.
(6)    Skiatook Lake:
(A)    A 138-acre unit in the Osage Park Area.
(B)    A 150-acre unit area below Skiatook Dam.
(C)    A 120-acre unit in Hominy Landing.
(7)    Hulah Lake: A 40-acre unit south of the Hulah State Park office.
(8)    Pine Creek Lake:
(A)    Open for hunting for all species that can be legally taken during legal open seasons by archery equipment, except for the 2nd Tuesday through Sunday in November; A 200-acre unit north of Highway 3 and south of the old highway.
(B)    A 120-acre unit west of Little River Park.
(9)    Fort Supply:
(A)    A 183-acre unit in the south portion of Fort Supply Park.
(B)    A 46-acre unit in the Project Office Area.
(10)    Arcadia Conservation Education Area: (Open by ODWC sanctioned controlled hunt through the City of Edmond Game and Fish Commission only.)
(A)    A 500-acre unit ½ mile North of Memorial Road on Midwest Boulevard
(B)    230-acre unit at Douglas and 150th street.
(11)    Keystone Lake: A 570-acre area south of the town of Prue (old Walnut Creek #1).
(12)    Lake Texoma:
(A)    A 610-acre unit in the Burns Run Area
(B)    A 550-acre unit in the Alberta Creek Area.
(C)    A 60-acre unit in the Colbert Boat Club Area.
(D)    A 40-acre unit in the Oak Hills Area.
(E)    A 100-acre unit in the Willafa Woods Area.
(F)    A 50-acre unit in the Buncombe Creek South Area.
(13)    Hugo Lake:
(A)    A 13 acre unit located across from Wilson Point in Section 18, east of Highway 147.
(B)    A 40 acre unit located north of County Road E2040 in Section 6 and east of Highway 147.
SUBCHAPTER 7.  General Hunting Seasons
PART 1.  GENERAL PROVISIONS
800:25-7-3.  General provisions
(a)    Any person hunting any wildlife in open areas during the youth deer gun, bear muzzleloader, deer muzzleloader, deer gun, holiday antlerless deer gun (in open zones), elk gun (in open counties) or September antelope gun (in open areas) seasons with a shotgun and rifled slug, or any rifle or handgun larger than a .22 caliber long rifle, must possess a valid bear, deer, elk, or antelope license, unless otherwise exempt. Any person hunting feral hogs in open areas during the deer gun, deer primitive, elk, bear or antelope season with a shotgun and rifled slug, or any rifle or handgun larger than a .22 caliber rimfire, must possess a filled or unfilled deer, elk, bear, or antelope license appropriate for that season unless otherwise exempt.
(b)    No person while in the field may possess or attempt to harvest any wildlife, except waterfowl and crane, with shotgun utilizing shot larger than #4 buckshot. Any person hunting any wildlife with an air powered arrow rifle during any open season when rifles are a legal means of take must possess a valid air powered arrow rifle permit.
(c)    Any person participating in primitive firearms season, deer gun seasons, elk season, antelope season and bear gun season must conspicuously wear both a head covering and an outer garment above the waistline, both totaling 500 square inches or more of clothing, both consisting of daylight fluorescent orange color totaling not less than 400 square inches [Title 29 O.S., Section 5-205, Part A]. All other hunters, except those hunting waterfowl, dove, crow or crane, or while hunting furbearing animals at night must wear either a head covering or upper garment of fluorescent orange clothing during the deer primitive firearms season, deer gun seasons, elk season, antelope season and bear primitive firearms season, or bear gun season in zones where these seasons are open.
(d)    For purposes of pheasant, turkey, deer, elk, bear and antelope regulations, 'final destination' shall be the hunter's residence or place of consumption.
(e)    No person may possess any game bird, animal or other wildlife, or portions thereof that have been taken by another person unless such game bird, animal or other wildlife, contain information giving the taker's name, customer identification number, date taken and the number and kind of game bird, animal or wildlife. In addition, information on deer, elk, antelope, bear and turkey must include the confirmation number as proof that the animal's harvest has been properly reported. The person's name and address receiving said wildlife must also appear on the written information.
(f)    No person shall concentrate, drive, molest, hunt, take, capture or kill; or attempt to take any wildlife by the aid of any fire or smoke whether man-made or natural.
(g)    No person may hunt, chase, capture, shoot at, wound or kill any moose or Rocky Mountain bighorn sheep, except as otherwise provided by statute or Commission rule.
(h)    Private landowner regulations regarding any items covered by these rules may be more restrictive, but not less restrictive than these rules.
(i)    Dogs may be used in taking all game species in these rules except bear, deer, elk, antelope and turkey. Exceptions to this rule would be the use of a leashed dog to track downed game after notification to the game warden of location and having no means of take on person while tracking.
(j)    Except as otherwise provided for by law or Commission rule, nothing shall prohibit the year-round pursuit of game, which may be lawfully hunted with the use of hunting dogs, for dog training or sport only. However, unless otherwise provided, no person in pursuit of game with hunting dogs outside of the regular harvest season shall have in their possession the means to harvest such game.
(k)    Harvest tagging of game - All persons taking a deer, elk, antelope, bear, or turkey must immediately secure their name, customer identification number, date and time of harvest to the carcass.
(l)    Harvest reporting of game - All deer, elk, antelope, bear, or turkey taken must be reported by the hunter to the Department within 24 hours of leaving the hunt area. Instructions for reporting of harvest will be provided in the Oklahoma Fishing and Hunting Regulations and on the Department's website. Once reported, a carcass tag or online confirmation number will be issued. This tag or confirmation number must remain with the carcass to its final destination or through processing and/or storage at a commercial processing or storage facility. Evidence of sex must remain naturally attached to the carcass until the harvest has been properly reported.
PART 5.  UPLAND GAME
800:25-7-20.  Squirrel (fox and gray)
     The following hunting dates, bag limits, hunting hours and legal means of taking apply to squirrel:
(1)     Dates and open areas. The dates for the squirrel season shall be May 15 - January 31February 28 and the season is open statewide.
(2)     Bag limit. The bag limit shall be 25 daily aggregate, 50 in possession after first day.
(3)     Hunting hours. The hunting hours shall be one-half hour before sunrise to sunset.
(4)     Legal means of taking. The legal means of taking squirrel shall be shotgun (conventional or muzzleloading), legal raptors, bow and arrow, hand-propelled missile, air-propelled missile, slingshot, handgun or rifle (conventional or muzzleloading), except as otherwise provided.
PART 13.  DEER
800:25-7-53.  Deer - gun
     The following hunting dates, bag limits and legal means of taking apply to hunting deer with gun:
(1)     Dates. The dates for the deer gun season shall be the Saturday prior to Thanksgiving and run for sixteen (16) consecutive days in management zones as designated by Commission resolution.
(2)     Bag limit. Up to six (6) deer including no more than one (1) antlered deer. A separate license is required for each deer to be hunted or harvested. All deer taken are included in the combined season statewide bag limit. Individual Management Zone antlerless bag limits and antlerless days will be determined by resolution and published in the Hunting Guide. An unfilled deer gun antlered license may be used to harvest an antlerless deer in designated areas on the last day of the deer gun season.
(3)     Legal means of taking. The legal means of taking deer with gun shall be as follows:
(A)    Rifles (conventional or muzzleloading), handguns, shotguns or bow and arrows, see 800:25-7-54. All public lands within the state are open to rifles, handguns, shotguns or bows unless otherwise specified.
(B)    Muzzleloading firearms that are legal for the primitive (muzzleloading) season shall also be legal in all areas open to rifles, except black powder firearms loaded from the breech are also legal. Metallic and/or optical sights may also be used on muzzleloading firearms during the deer gun season. Muzzleloading pistols (single shot or revolver) with characteristics that are described for rifles are permissible.
(C)    Hunters choosing to hunt with primitive (muzzleloading) firearms must possess appropriate deer gun license and comply with fluorescent clothing and bag limit requirements as set for the Deer Gun Season.
(D)    Laser sights are illegal.
(E)    Air powered arrow rifles shall be legal during any open rifle season. No arrow rifle may be transported in a motorized vehicle unless projectile has been removed from the barrel assembly and arrow rifle has been decocked.
(4)     Zone Management Hunts.
(A)    Dates and open areas: The Commission may, by resolution, establish an antlerless deer gun season at any time in designated management zones or on designated Wildlife Management Areas, as published in the current Oklahoma Hunting Guide and Regulations, during any dates as established by the Commission.
(B)    Bag Limit: Zone Management Hunt bag limits will be established by resolution. Antlerless deer taken during a Zone Management Hunt are considered bonus deer and do not count against the statewide deer bag limit. Unfilled deer gun licenses for the deer gun season or controlled hunts are not valid for Zone Management Hunts.
(C)    Legal means of taking: Same as deer gun season.
(5)     The harvest of antlerless mule deer shall be prohibited during the deer gun seasons.
800:25-7-54.  Legal firearms and archery specifications
     The following are the legal firearms specifications for rifles, muzzleloading firearms, shotguns, handguns and bows:
(1)     Rifles. Centerfire rifles only and firing ammunition with a soft-nosed or hollow point bullet are legal if firing at least a 55-grain weight bullet. Hollow point bullets are legal. Fully automatic firearms are prohibited.
(2)     Muzzleloading firearms. Muzzleloading rifles and shotguns that are legal for the muzzleloading season shall also be legal in all areas open to rifles, except black powder firearms loaded from the breech are also legal. Muzzleloading pistols (singleshot or revolver) with characteristics that are described for 40 caliber rifles are permissible as a secondary firearms, but may be used only for killing a downed animal.
(3)     Shotguns. Any centerfire shotgun firing a single rifled slug.
(4)     Handguns. Any centerfire handgun firing a single soft-nosed or hollow point bullet with at least a 55-grain weight. Minimum barrel length is four inches. Fully automatic firearms are prohibited.
(5)     Bows, arrows, and bolts. A legal bow is defined as any bow of thirty (30) pounds or more draw weight, any recurve, longbow, or self-bow of forty (40) pounds or more draw weight or any crossbow having a draw weight of 100 pounds or more and being equipped with safety devices. Crossbow bolts must be a minimum of 14 inches in length. Legal arrows and bolts for deer shall be fitted with broadhead hunting type points not less than 7/8 inches wide, including mechanical broadheads meeting these dimensions when fully open. Devices that permit a bow to be held mechanically at full or partial draw are permitted. Laser sights are prohibited. Hand-held releases are permitted.
(6)     Arrow rifle. A device that fires an arrow or bolt solely by the use of unignited compressed gas as the propellant. Legal arrow rifles will maintain a minimum of 2000psi and have a visible pressure gauge to prove proper pressure. Legal arrows and bolts shall be a minimum of 18 inches in length with fletching for stability and fitted with a broadhead hunting type point not less than 7/8 inches wide, including mechanical broadheads meeting these dimensions when fully open. Arrow rifles are only to be used during open rifle seasons and are not permitted during archery or muzzleloader seasons.
PART 19.  SEASONS ON AREAS OWNED OR MANAGED BY THE OKLAHOMA DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE CONSERVATION AND THE U.S. FISH AND WILDLIFE SERVICE
800:25-7-124.  McClellan-Kerr WRP
     The following hunting and trapping seasons apply to the McClellan-Kerr WRP: The discharge of firearms for purposes other than hunting is prohibited.
(1)    Quail: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.during the first nine days of deer gun season.
(2)    Pheasant: Closed season.
(3)    Prairie chicken: Closed season.
(4)    Turkey -Fall:
(A)    Archery: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.1 tom limit.
(B)    Gun: Closed season.Same as statewide season dates, 1 tom limit.
(5)    Turkey - Spring: Same as statewide season dates.
(6)    Squirrel: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.during the first nine days of deer gun season.
(7)    Rabbit: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.during first nine days of deer gun season.
(8)    Crow: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.
(9)    Dove: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.
(10)    Rail and gallinule: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.
(11)    Common snipe: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.during first nine days of deer gun season.
(12)    Woodcock: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.during first nine days of deer gun season.
(13)    Deer - archery: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.
(14)    Deer - primitive firearms: Closed season.Same as statewide season dates.
(15)    Deer - gun: Closed season.Same as statewide season dates.
(16)    Trapping: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.
(17)    Pursuit with hounds: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.during first nine days of deer gun season.
(18)    Predator/furbearer calling: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.during first nine days of deer gun season.
(19)    Waterfowl: Same as statewide season dates, except closed October 15-January 31.
SUBCHAPTER 24.  Import of Cervids
800:25-24-3.  Requirements
(a)    The following relate to the importation of live cervids into Commercial Hunting areas.
(1)    The import of cervidae for the purpose of deposition in a Commercial Hunting area that are originating in any county or Canadian province where Chronic Wasting Disease exists in free-ranging native herds shall be prohibited, except the State Veterinarian may allow an import from a Canadian province with Chronic Wasting Disease after notification to the Oklahoma Department of Wildlife Conservation and based on a review of the following factors:
(A)    distance of the farmed cervidae facility from the Chronic Wasting Disease area,
(B)    existence of double fencing between the farmed cervidae facility and free-ranging native herds,
(C)    farmed cervidae facility biosecurity measures,
(D)    participation of the farmed cervidae facility in any Canadian Chronic Wasting Disease herd certification programs, and
(E)    any other relevant factors.
(2)    All other cervidae imports into Commercial Hunting areas shall only be from a source herd that is in a Chronic Wasting Disease surveillance and certification program for a minimum of five (5) years monitored and the program meets the standards of cervidae importation into Oklahoma;
(3)    import of cervidae into Commercial Hunting areas shall be accompanied by a Certificate of Veterinary Inspection and an approved Cervidae Import Permit; and
(4)    import of cervidae into a Commercial Hunting area shall follow all other disease testing required by the Oklahoma Statutes or rules promulgated by the Department of Agriculture, Food, and Forestry.
(b)    The following restrictions apply to the statewide importation of cervid carcasses or carcass parts.
(1)    No person shall import, transport, or possess any cervid carcass or part of a cervid carcass from outside the boundaries of Oklahoma. The following items are the only exceptions:
(A)    Antlers or antlers attached to clean skull plate or cleaned skulls (all tissue removed);
(B)    Animal quarters containing no spinal materials or meat with all parts of the spinal column removed;
(C)    Cleaned teeth;
(D)    Finished taxidermy products;
(E)    Hides or tanned products.
(c)    Upon detection and confirmation of Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD) in a free-ranging cervid(s) inside of Oklahoma or within 5 miles of the state's border, the following restrictions apply to the movement of a cervid carcass and cervid carcass parts from within the boundaries of any area designated a Selective Surveillance Area (SSA) as defined in the ODWC and Oklahoma Department of Agriculture, Food, and Forestry jointly approved 2019 Chronic Wasting Disease Response Strategy ("CWD Strategy") or the most current CWD Strategy update.
(1)    No person shall transport any cervid carcass or part of a cervid carcass from within an active SSA to outside of an active SSA. The following items are the only exceptions:
(A)    Antlers detached from the skull plate and antlers attached to clean skull plate or cleaned skulls (all tissue removed);
(B)    Animal quarters containing no spinal materials or meat with all parts of the spinal column removed;
(C)    Cleaned teeth;
(D)    Finished taxidermy products;
(E)    Hides or tanned products.
SUBCHAPTER 30.  Wildlife Depredation on Agricultural Crops
800:25-30-2.  Procedures
     The following are the procedures for handling wildlife depredation complaints on agricultural crops including beehives, fruits, nuts or berries.
(1)    All complaints of damage to agricultural crops involving game species will be referred to Wildlife Division in the state headquarters office.
(2)    Immediately following receipt of a complaint, the appropriate field level employee will be contacted to investigate the damage. A copy of the completed complaint form will be sent to the regional supervisor.
(3)    All requests for assistance in controlling non-game and other wildlife species designated in the current Memorandum of Understanding between the Oklahoma Department of Wildlife Conservation and U.S. Department of Agriculture, Animal Damage Control Division (ADC) will continue to be referred to ADC.
(4)    In accordance with Federal regulations 50 CFR 21.43 Depredation order for blackbirds, cowbirds, grackles, crows and magpies, a Federal permit shall not be required to control yellow-headed, red-winged, and Brewer's blackbirds, all cowbirds, all grackles, American, fish, and northwestern crows, and all magpies, when found committing or about to commit depredations upon ornamental or shade trees, agricultural crops, livestock, or wildlife, or when concentrated in such numbers and manner as to constitute a health hazard or other nuisance. Provided:
(A)    That none of the birds killed pursuant to this section, nor their plumage, shall be sold or offered for sale, but may be possessed, transported, and otherwise disposed of or utilized.
(B)    That any person exercising any of the privileges granted by this section shall permit at all reasonable times, any Federal or State game or deputy game agent, warden, protector, or other game law enforcement officer free and unrestricted access over the premises on which such operations have been or are being conducted; and shall furnish promptly to such officer whatever information he may require, concerning said operations.
(C)    That nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize the killing of such birds contrary to any State laws or regulations; and that none of the privileges granted under this section shall be expected unless the person possesses whatever permit as may be required for such activities by the State concerned.
SUBCHAPTER 37.  Nuisance Wildlife Control Program
PART 3.  WILDLIFE AND FERAL HOG NUISANCE AND DEPREDATION RULES
800:25-37-12.  General Provisions
     In addition to the statutory provisions of Title 29 OS 4-135, the following general provisions shall apply to the issuance of a Nuisance and Depredation Permit:
(1)    The Department of Wildlife Conservation (Department) shall create a complaint/permit form, which must be completed and signed by the landowner/lessee and an authorizing Department employee before a permit can be issued.
(2)    If the complaint form is approved, the Department shall issue a nuisance/depredation permit. A copy of the permit must be kept on the person of the permittee and all individuals authorized in writing to help the permittee while conducting nuisance wildlife control. The permit will detail:
(A)    date of complaint received and effective dates of control activities;
(B)    location;
(C)    method of control;
(D)    landowner/lessee information and signature;
(E)    name and address of designated agent(s);
(F)    the signature of authorizing Oklahoma Department of Wildlife Conservation employee.
(3)    Each permit holder shall:
(A)    be in possession of a valid Hunting License or proof of exemption, and a valid Fishing & Hunting Legacy permit or proof of exemption and/or a valid Trapping License or proof of exemption. Landowners and/or lessees controlling nuisance wildlife on land owned or leased by them shall be exempt from the Hunting License, Trapping License and the Fishing & Hunting Legacy permit.
(B)    be at least 16 years of age for wildlife control at night with firearms.
(C)    any person who's hunting or trapping license privileges are revoked and is not legally able to purchase a hunting or trapping license, shall not be allowed to possess, or operate under the authority of a depredation permit.
(4)    Big game (deer, antelope, bear, elk) complaints must comply with the provisions of 800:25, Subchapter 30.
[OAR Docket #23-573; filed 6-20-23]

TITLE 800.  Department of Wildlife Conservation
CHAPTER 30.  Department of Wildlife Lands Management
[OAR Docket #23-574]
RULEMAKING ACTION:
PERMANENT final adoption
RULES:
Subchapter 1. Use of Department Managed Lands
800:30-1-16. Shooting ranges [AMENDED]
800:30-1-20. Restricted public use areas [AMENDED]
AUTHORITY:
Title 29 O.S., Section 3-103, 5-401; Article XXVI, Section 1 and 3 of the Constitution of Oklahoma; Department of Wildlife Conservation Commission.
SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND CABINET SECRETARY:
November 1, 2022
COMMENT PERIOD:
December 1, 2022 - January 7, 2023
PUBLIC HEARING:
Date: January 5, 2023
Time: 7:00 p.m.
Oklahoma City - OK Department of Wildlife Conservation, 1801 N. Lincoln Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK
ADOPTION:
February 6, 2023
SUBMISSION OF ADOPTED RULES TO GOVERNOR AND LEGISLATURE:
February 9, 2023
LEGISLATIVE APPROVAL:
Approved May 31, 2023 by SJR 22
FINAL ADOPTION:
May 31, 2023
EFFECTIVE:
September 11, 2023
SUPERSEDED EMERGENCY ACTIONS:
n/a
INCORPORATIONS BY REFERENCE:
n/a
GIST/ANALYSIS:
The proposal would allow for target shooting 30 minutes after official sunset.
The ODWC is in the process of constructing and renovating shooting ranges on ODWC owned and managed land, some of those ranges will contain an archery range. This establishes rules for those archery ranges.
These rules change the camping restrictions on Okmulgee WMA to allow angler camping during the period of October1-February 15.
CONTACT PERSON:
Bill Dinkines, Chief of Wildlife Division, phone: 405-521-2739; Nels Rodefeld, Chief of Communication & Education Division, 405-521-3855 or Rhonda Hurst, APA Liaison, phone: 405-522-6279; 1801 N. Lincoln Blvd, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma.
PURSUANT TO THE ACTIONS DESCRIBED HEREIN, THE FOLLOWING RULES ARE CONSIDERED FINALLY ADOPTED AS SET FORTH IN 75 O.S., SECTIONS 250.3(5) AND 308(E), WITH AN EFFECTIVE DATE OF SEPTEMBER 11, 2023:
SUBCHAPTER 1.  Use of Department Managed Lands
800:30-1-16.  Shooting ranges
(a)    On all Department owned or managed lands, the discharge of firearms for purposes other than while hunting is restricted to the specific target or shooting ranges provided for public use.
(1)    Shooting ranges are open year-round, unless specified otherwise in the Oklahoma Fishing and Hunting Guide or signs at the range.
(2)    Shooting hours are official sunrise to thirty minutes after official sunset, daily.
(3)    Any person using the shooting range under the age of 16 must be immediately supervised by an adult (18 years old or older).
(4)    All firearms shooting single projectiles or any pellets larger than conventional BB (.180" dia.) must be shot at approved berms and target areas only. Air-borne clay targets may be shot using pellets no larger than conventional BB (.180" dia.).
(5)    All rifle, pistol, shotgun, and muzzleloader targets will consist of paper or clay targets only.
(6)    All paper targets must be removed before leaving the shooting area.
(7)    Centerfire rifles and pistols .50 caliber and larger are prohibited.
(8)    Fully automatic firearms are prohibited.
(9)    Fireworks, explosive devices, exploding targets, tracer and incendiary rounds are prohibited.
(10)    Eye and ear protection shall be worn while shooting.
(11)    Shooters, and accompanying adult, must possess a valid Oklahoma hunting license, or combination hunting/fishing license unless exempt.
(12)    Do not shoot while another shooter is down range.
(b)    For Department shooting ranges that include an archery area, the following shall apply:
(1)    Archery range is open year-round, unless specified otherwise in the Oklahoma Fishing and Hunting Guide or signs at the range.
(2)    Shooting hours are official sunrise to thirty minutes after official sunset, daily.
(3)    Any person using the archery range under the age of 16 must be immediately supervised by an adult (18 years or older.)
(4)    Archers using the elevated platform must wear a safety harness meeting the standards of the Treestand Manufacturers Association and be attached to the platform at all times.
(5)    Archers may only shoot at stationary targets.
(6)    Archers must draw and release arrows from the tower or directly below the tower ONLY.
(7)    All nocked arrows must point down range at all times.
(8)    The archery tower is limited to 4 shooters at a time, no spectators are allowed on the archery tower.
(9)    Do not shoot while another archer is down range.
(10)    Broadheads may only be used in designated lanes.
(11)    Shooters and accompanying adults must possess a valid Oklahoma hunting license or combination hunting/fishing license unless exempt.
(12)    Archery targets designed specifically for archery are allowed on the archery range. Archery targets must be removed after use.
(13)    No firearms allowed on the archery range.
(bc)    Exemptions to (a) or (b) of this Section may only be granted by the Director of the Oklahoma Department of Wildlife Conservation upon prior submission of a written application setting forth the location, date, nature and purpose of such activity.
800:30-1-20.  Restricted public use areas
(a)    The following Wildlife Management Areas are closed to all non-hunting activities except hunter camping (areas where camping is allowed) during the period October 1 - February 15: Beaver River, Beaver River - McFarland Unit, and Canton, and Okmulgee. The following Wildlife Management Areas are closed to all non-hunting activities except for hunter and/or angler camping (areas where camping is allowed) and fishing during the period of October 1 - February 15: Arbuckle Springs, Fort Supply, Lexington (Lake Dahlgren), and Okmulgee.
(b)    The following Wildlife Management Areas are closed to all non-hunting activities except hunter camping (on areas where camping is allowed) during the period October 1 - January 31and spring turkey season: Atoka, Cherokee, Cookson, Cross Timbers, James Collins, McGee Creek, Osage, Pushmataha, Sans Bois and Spavinaw.
(c)    Lake Dahlgren shall be closed to all other activities during Lexington Wildlife Management Area designated controlled hunt dates.
(d)    The following Conservation Education Areas are closed to all non-hunting and non-fishing activities during the period of October 1 - January 15 unless authorized by ODWC; camping and fires of any kind are not permitted unless authorized by ODWC: Arcadia Conservation Education Area.
(e)    The following Wildlife Management Areas are closed to the possession of a dog(s) from 1 hour before official sunrise to 1 hour after official sunset during the deer firearms, primitive, and youth seasons, except under the provision of the Americans with Disabilities Act: Honobia Creek WMA, Pine Creek WMA, and Three Rivers WMA.
(f)    Areas identified as safety zones will have restricted access and use as designated by the signs posted.
[OAR Docket #23-574; filed 6-20-23]


Executive Orders
As required by 75 O.S., Sections 255 and 256, Executive Orders issued by the Governor of Oklahoma are published in both the Oklahoma Register and the Oklahoma Administrative Code. Executive Orders are codified in Title 1 of the Oklahoma Administrative Code.
Pursuant to 75 O.S., Section 256(B)(3), "Executive Orders of previous gubernatorial administrations shall terminate ninety (90) calendar days following the inauguration of the next Governor unless otherwise terminated or continued during that time by Executive Order."

TITLE 1.  EXECUTIVE ORDERS
1:2023-21.  
Executive Order 2023-21
WHEREAS, the current structure of Oklahoma's workforce delivery system suffers from a fragmentation of responsibilities and funding between several state agencies, including but not limited to, the Department of Commerce, the Department of Rehabilitation Services, the Oklahoma Employment Security Commission, the State Regents for Higher Education and associated institutions of higher education, the State Department of Career and Technology Education, and the State Department of Education, as well as further fragmentation due to the involvement of various local governmental entities; and
WHEREAS, the Oklahoma Office of Workforce Development ("OOWD") currently houses Oklahoma Works, the State's workforce development initiative, and administers the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act ("WIOA") Title 1 financially-assisted programs and activities under the U.S. Department of Labor. OOWD is currently an operating division of the Oklahoma Department of Commerce (ODOC"); and
WHEREAS, federal funding received by the State pursuant to WIOA Titles I, II, III and IV are currently distributed to multiple state agencies, resulting in administrative duplication and a lack of coordination; and
WHEREAS, best practices as observed in other states includes designated a single point of funding and accountability to receive all federal WIOA funding; and
WHEREAS, in order to maximize our economic effectiveness, save taxpayer dollars, and assure that Oklahoma continues to be competitive with other states and countries, it is essential that Oklahoma's WIOA funding and programming be coordinated and administered in accordance with national best practices; and
WHEREAS, Oklahoma has the talent, employers, and conditions necessary to be a top performer in workforce development nationally and Oklahomans deserve a coordinated workforce system that enables jobseekers to find careers and employers to staff needed talent.
THEREFORE, I, J. Kevin Stitt, Governor of the State of Oklahoma, pursuant to the power and authority vested in me by Sections 1 and 2 of Article VI of the Oklahoma Constitution, and to the fullest extent permitted under Oklahoma and federal law, hereby order that the Oklahoma Office of Workforce Development, its functions and employees, shall be transferred to and become an operating division housed under the Oklahoma Employment Security Commission, effective immediately, except to the extent the Executive Director of the Oklahoma Employment Security Commission determines otherwise.
It is further ordered that the Oklahoma Employment Security Commission is hereby designated as the single point of funding and accountability for WIOA programming in Oklahoma, and that all State agencies, employees, boards, departments, councils, and any other State entity or actor involved in WIOA funding and programming take whatever administrative action necessary to ensure that all federal WIOA funding received from the federal government be received and administered by OESC.
It is further ordered that OESC coordinate the administration of all WIOA funding and programming with the Oklahoma Workforce Commission in order to maximize the efficiency and effectiveness of the State's workforce development efforts.
As a result of the transfer ordered herein, pursuant to Rules 260:25-15-11 and 260:25-15-12 of the Oklahoma Administrative Code, all accrued annual and sick leave of employees of OOWD shall be transferred from ODC to OESC effective immediately, except to the extent the Executive Director of the Oklahoma Employment Security Commission determines otherwise.
This Executive Order shall be distributed to the Secretary of Commerce, Secretary of Workforce, Executive Director of OESC, Executive Director of the Office of Management and Enterprise Services, Executive Director of ODOC, and the Executive Director of OOWD for immediate implementation.
IN WITNESS WHEREOF, I have hereunto set my hand and caused the Great Seal of the State of Oklahoma to be affixed at Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, this 11th day of August, 2023.
BY THE GOVERNOR OF THE STATE OF OKLAHOMA
J. Kevin Stitt
ATTEST:
Brian Bingman
Secretary of State
[OAR Docket #23-720; filed 8-11-23]